Search Results

Search found 6178 results on 248 pages for 'section'.

Page 221/248 | < Previous Page | 217 218 219 220 221 222 223 224 225 226 227 228  | Next Page >

  • How can I structure my MustacheJS template to add dynamic classes based on the values from a JSON file?

    - by JGallardo
    OBJECTIVE To build an app that allows the user to search for locations. CURRENT STATE At the moment the locations listed are few, so they are just all presented when landing on the "dealers" page. BACKGROUND Previously there were only about 50 showrooms carrying a product we sell, so a static HTML page was fine. And displays as But the page size grew to about 1500 lines of code after doing this. We have gotten more and need a scalable solution so that we can add many more dealers fast. In other projects, I have previously used MustacheJS and to load in values from a JSON file. I know the ideally this will be an AJAX application. Perhaps I might be better off with database here? Below is what I have in mind so far, and it "works" up to a certain point, but seems not to be anywhere near the most sustainable solution that can be efficiently scaled. HTML <a id="{{state}}"></a> <div> <h4>{{dealer}} : {{city}}, {{state}} {{l_type}}</h4> <div class="{{icon_class}}"> <ul> <li><i class="icon-map-marker"></i></li> <li><i class="icon-phone"></i></li> <li><i class="icon-print"></i></li> </ul> </div> <div class="listingInfo"> <p>{{street}} <br>{{suite}}<br> {{city}}, {{state}} {{zip}}<br> Phone: {{phone}}<br> {{toll_free}}<br> {{fax}} </p> </div> </div> <hr> JSON { "dealers" : [ { "dealer":"Benco Dental", "City":"Denver", "state":"CO", "zip":"80112", "l_type":"Showroom", "icon_class":"listingIcons_3la", "phone":"(303) 790-1421", "toll_free":null, "fax":"(303) 790-1421" }, { "dealer":"Burkhardt Dental Supply", "City":"Portland", "state":"OR", "zip":"97220", "l_type":"Showroom", "icon_class":"listingIcons", "phone":" (503) 252-9777", "toll_free":"(800) 367-3030", "fax":"(866) 408-3488" } ]} CHALLENGES The CSS class wrapping the ul will vary based on how many fields there are. In this case there are 3, so the class is "listingIcons_3la" The "toll free" number section should only show up if in fact, there is a toll free number. the fax number should only show up if there is a value for a fax number.

    Read the article

  • how to implement a "soft barrier" in multithreaded c++

    - by Jason
    I have some multithreaded c++ code with the following structure: do_thread_specific_work(); update_shared_variables(); //checkpoint A do_thread_specific_work_not_modifying_shared_variables(); //checkpoint B do_thread_specific_work_requiring_all_threads_have_updated_shared_variables(); What follows checkpoint B is work that could have started if all threads have reached only checkpoint A, hence my notion of a "soft barrier". Typically multithreading libraries only provide "hard barriers" in which all threads must reach some point before any can continue. Obviously a hard barrier could be used at checkpoint B. Using a soft barrier can lead to better execution time, especially since the work between checkpoints A and B may not be load-balanced between the threads (i.e. 1 slow thread who has reached checkpoint A but not B could be causing all the others to wait at the barrier just before checkpoint B). I've tried using atomics to synchronize things and I know with 100% certainty that is it NOT guaranteed to work. For example using openmp syntax, before the parallel section start with: shared_thread_counter = num_threads; //known at compile time #pragma omp flush Then at checkpoint A: #pragma omp atomic shared_thread_counter--; Then at checkpoint B (using polling): #pragma omp flush while (shared_thread_counter > 0) { usleep(1); //can be removed, but better to limit memory bandwidth #pragma omp flush } I've designed some experiments in which I use an atomic to indicate that some operation before it is finished. The experiment would work with 2 threads most of the time but consistently fail when I have lots of threads (like 20 or 30). I suspect this is because of the caching structure of modern CPUs. Even if one thread updates some other value before doing the atomic decrement, it is not guaranteed to be read by another thread in that order. Consider the case when the other value is a cache miss and the atomic decrement is a cache hit. So back to my question, how to CORRECTLY implement this "soft barrier"? Is there any built-in feature that guarantees such functionality? I'd prefer openmp but I'm familiar with most of the other common multithreading libraries. As a workaround right now, I'm using a hard barrier at checkpoint B and I've restructured my code to make the work between checkpoint A and B automatically load-balancing between the threads (which has been rather difficult at times). Thanks for any advice/insight :)

    Read the article

  • Multiprogramming in Django, writing to the Database

    - by Marcus Whybrow
    Introduction I have the following code which checks to see if a similar model exists in the database, and if it does not it creates the new model: class BookProfile(): # ... def save(self, *args, **kwargs): uniqueConstraint = {'book_instance': self.book_instance, 'collection': self.collection} # Test for other objects with identical values profiles = BookProfile.objects.filter(Q(**uniqueConstraint) & ~Q(pk=self.pk)) # If none are found create the object, else fail. if len(profiles) == 0: super(BookProfile, self).save(*args, **kwargs) else: raise ValidationError('A Book Profile for that book instance in that collection already exists') I first build my constraints, then search for a model with those values which I am enforcing must be unique Q(**uniqueConstraint). In addition I ensure that if the save method is updating and not inserting, that we do not find this object when looking for other similar objects ~Q(pk=self.pk). I should mention that I ham implementing soft delete (with a modified objects manager which only shows non-deleted objects) which is why I must check for myself rather then relying on unique_together errors. Problem Right thats the introduction out of the way. My problem is that when multiple identical objects are saved in quick (or as near as simultaneous) succession, sometimes both get added even though the first being added should prevent the second. I have tested the code in the shell and it succeeds every time I run it. Thus my assumption is if say we have two objects being added Object A and Object B. Object A runs its check upon save() being called. Then the process saving Object B gets some time on the processor. Object B runs that same test, but Object A has not yet been added so Object B is added to the database. Then Object A regains control of the processor, and has allready run its test, even though identical Object B is in the database, it adds it regardless. My Thoughts The reason I fear multiprogramming could be involved is that each Object A and Object is being added through an API save view, so a request to the view is made for each save, thus not a single request with multiple sequential saves on objects. It might be the case that Apache is creating a process for each request, and thus causing the problems I think I am seeing. As you would expect, the problem only occurs sometimes, which is characteristic of multiprogramming or multiprocessing errors. If this is the case, is there a way to make the test and set parts of the save() method a critical section, so that a process switch cannot happen between the test and the set?

    Read the article

  • Class hierarchy problem (with generic's variance!)

    - by devoured elysium
    The problem: class StatesChain : IState, IHasStateList { private TasksChain tasks = new TasksChain(); ... public IList<IState> States { get { return _taskChain.Tasks; } } IList<ITask> IHasTasksCollection.Tasks { get { return _taskChain.Tasks; } <-- ERROR! You can't do this in C#! I want to return an IList<ITask> from an IList<IStates>. } } Assuming the IList returned will be read-only, I know that what I'm trying to achieve is safe (or is it not?). Is there any way I can accomplish what I'm trying? I wouldn't want to try to implement myself the TasksChain algorithm (again!), as it would be error prone and would lead to code duplication. Maybe I could just define an abstract Chain and then implement both TasksChain and StatesChain from there? Or maybe implementing a Chain<T> class? How would you approach this situation? The Details: I have defined an ITask interface: public interface ITask { bool Run(); ITask FailureTask { get; } } and a IState interface that inherits from ITask: public interface IState : ITask { IState FailureState { get; } } I have also defined an IHasTasksList interface: interface IHasTasksList { List<Tasks> Tasks { get; } } and an IHasStatesList: interface IHasTasksList { List<Tasks> States { get; } } Now, I have defined a TasksChain, that is a class that has some code logic that will manipulate a chain of tasks (beware that TasksChain is itself a kind of ITask!): class TasksChain : ITask, IHasTasksList { IList<ITask> tasks = new List<ITask>(); ... public List<ITask> Tasks { get { return _tasks; } } ... } I am implementing a State the following way: public class State : IState { private readonly TaskChain _taskChain = new TaskChain(); public State(Precondition precondition, Execution execution) { _taskChain.Tasks.Add(precondition); _taskChain.Tasks.Add(execution); } public bool Run() { return _taskChain.Run(); } public IState FailureState { get { return (IState)_taskChain.Tasks[0].FailureTask; } } ITask ITask.FailureTask { get { return FailureState; } } } which, as you can see, makes use of explicit interface implementations to "hide" FailureTask and instead show FailureState property. The problem comes from the fact that I also want to define a StatesChain, that inherits both from IState and IHasStateList (and that also imples ITask and IHasTaskList, implemented as explicit interfaces) and I want it to also hide IHasTaskList's Tasks and only show IHasStateList's States. (What is contained in "The problem" section should really be after this, but I thought puting it first would be way more reader friendly). (pff..long text) Thanks!

    Read the article

  • XSLT Stylesheet works with a vbs script, but not Perl

    - by user2472274
    I have a program that is essentially a search application, and it exists in both VBScript and Perl form (I'm trying to make an executable with a GUI). Currently the search application outputs an HTML file, and if a section of text in the HTML is longer than twelve lines then it hides anything after that and includes a clickable More... tag. This is done in XSLT and works with VBScript. I literally copied and pasted the stylesheet into the Perl program that I'm using and it does everything right except for the More... tag. Is there any reason why it would be working with the VBScript but not Perl? I'm using XML::LibXSLT in the Perl script, and here is the template that is supposed to be creating the More... tag <xsl:template name="more"> <xsl:param name="text"/> <xsl:param name="row-id"/> <xsl:param name="cycle" select="1"/> <xsl:choose> <xsl:when test="($cycle &gt; 12) and contains($text,'&#13;')"> <span class="show" onclick="showID('SHOW{$row-id}');style.display = 'none';">More...</span> <span class="hidden" id="SHOW{$row-id}"> <xsl:call-template name="highlight"> <xsl:with-param name="text" select="$text"/> </xsl:call-template> </span> </xsl:when> <xsl:when test="contains($text,'&#13;')"> <xsl:call-template name="highlight"> <xsl:with-param name="text" select="substring-before($text,'&#13;')"/> </xsl:call-template> <xsl:text>&#13;</xsl:text> <xsl:call-template name="more"> <xsl:with-param name="text" select="substring-after($text,'&#13;')"/> <xsl:with-param name="row-id" select="$row-id"/> <xsl:with-param name="cycle" select="$cycle + 1"/> </xsl:call-template> </xsl:when> <xsl:otherwise> <xsl:call-template name="highlight"> <xsl:with-param name="text" select="$text"/> </xsl:call-template> </xsl:otherwise> </xsl:choose> </xsl:template>

    Read the article

  • Adding NavigationControl to a TabBar Application containing UITableViews

    - by kungfuslippers
    Hi, I'm new to iPhone dev and wanted to get advice on the general design pattern / guide for putting a certain kind of app together. I'm trying to build a TabBar type application. One of the tabs needs to display a TableView and selecting a cell from within the table view will do something else - maybe show another table view or a web page. I need a Navigation Bar to be able to take me back from the table view/web page. The approach I've taken so far is to: Create an app based around UITabBarController as the rootcontroller i.e. @interface MyAppDelegate : NSObject <UIApplicationDelegate> { IBOutlet UIWindow *window; IBOutlet UITabBarController *rootController; } Create a load of UIViewController derived classes and associated NIBs and wire everything up in IB so when I run the app I get the basic tabs working. I then take the UIViewController derived class and modify it to the following: @interface MyViewController : UIViewController<UITableViewDataSource, UITableViewDelegate> { } and I add the delegate methods to the implementation of MyViewController - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { return 2; } - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier] autorelease]; } if (indexPath.row == 0) { cell.textLabel.text = @"Mummy"; } else { cell.textLabel.text = @"Daddy"; } return cell; } Go back to IB , open MyViewController.xib and drop a UITableView onto it. Set the Files Owner to be MyViewController and then set the delegate and datasource of the UITableView to be MyViewController. If I run the app now, I get the table view appearing with mummy and daddy working nicely. So far so good. The question is how do I go about incorporating a Navigation Bar into my current code for when I implement: - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath() { // get row selected NSUInteger row = [indexPath row]; if (row == 0) { // Show another table } else if (row == 1) { // Show a web view } } Do I drop a NavigationBar UI control onto MyControllerView.xib ? Should I create it programmatically? Should I be using a UINavigationController somewhere ? I've tried dropping a NavigationBar onto my MyControllerView.xib in IB but its not shown when I run the app, only the TableView is displayed.

    Read the article

  • windows phone deserialization json

    - by user2042227
    I have a weird issue. so I am making a few calls in my app to a webservice, which replies with data. However I am using a token based login system, so the first time the user enters the app I get a token from the webservice to login for that specific user and that token returns only that users details. The problem I am having is when the user changes I need to make the calls again, to get the new user's details, but using visual studio's breakpoint debugging, it shows the new user's token making the call however the problem is when the json is getting deserialized, it is as if it still reads the old data and deserializes that, when I exit my app with the new user it works fine, so its as if it is reading cached values, but I have no idea how to clear it? I am sure the new calls are being made and the problem lies with the deserializing, but I have tried clearing the values before deserializing them again, however nothing works. am I missing something with the json deserializer, how van I clear its cached values? here I make the call and set it not to cache so it makes a new call everytime: client.Headers[HttpRequestHeader.CacheControl] = "no-cache"; var token_details = await client.DownloadStringTaskAsync(uri); and here I deserialize the result, it is at this section the old data gets shown, so the raw json being shown inside "token_details" is correct, only once I deserialize the token_details, it shows the wrong data. deserialized = JsonConvert.DeserializeObject(token_details); and the class I am deserializing into is a simple class nothing special happening here, I have even tried making the constructor so that it clears the values each time it gets called. public class test { public string status { get; set; } public string name{ get; set; } public string birthday{ get; set; } public string errorDes{ get; set; } public test() { status = ""; name= ""; birthday= ""; errorDes= ""; } } uri's before making the calls: {https://whatever.co.za/token/?code=BEBCg==&id=WP7&junk=121edcd5-ad4d-4185-bef0-22a4d27f2d0c} - old call "UBCg==" - old reply {https://whatever.co.za/token/?code=ABCg==&id=WP7&junk=56cc2285-a5b8-401e-be21-fec8259de6dd} - new call "UBCg==" - new response which is the same response as old call as you can see i did attach a new GUID everytime i make the call, but then the new uri is read before making the downloadstringtaskasync method call, but it returns with the old data

    Read the article

  • Turning off ASP.Net WebForms authentication for one sub-directory

    - by Keith
    I have a large enterprise application containing both WebForms and MVC pages. It has existing authentication and authorisation settings that I don't want to change. The WebForms authentication is configured in the web.config: <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms blah... blah... blah /> </authentication> <authorization> <deny users="?" /> </authorization> Fairly standard so far. I have a REST service that is part of this big application and I want to use HTTP authentication instead for this one service. So, when a user attempts to get JSON data from the REST service it returns an HTTP 401 status and a WWW-Authenticate header. If they respond with a correctly formed HTTP Authorization response it lets them in. The problem is that WebForms overrides this at a low level - if you return 401 (Unauthorised) it overrides that with a 302 (redirection to login page). That's fine in the browser but useless for a REST service. I want to turn off the authentication setting in the web.config: <location path="rest"> <system.web> <authentication mode="None" /> <authorization><allow users="?" /></authorization> </system.web> </location> The authorisation bit works fine, but when I try to change the authentication I get an exception: It is an error to use a section registered as allowDefinition='MachineToApplication' beyond application level. I'm configuring this at application level though - it's in the root web.config How do I override the authentication so that all of the rest of the site uses WebForms authentication and this one directory uses none? This is similar to another question: 401 response code for json requests with ASP.NET MVC, but I'm not looking for the same solution - I don't want to just remove the WebForms authentication and add new custom code globally, there's far to much risk and work involved. I want to change just the one directory in configuration.

    Read the article

  • What Amazon S3 .NET Library is most useful and efficient?

    - by Geo
    There are two main open source .net Amazon S3 libraries. Three Sharp LitS3 I am currently using LitS3 in our MVC demo project, but there is some criticism about it. Has anyone here used both libraries so they can give an objective point of view. Below some sample calls using LitS3: On demo controller: private S3Service s3 = new S3Service() { AccessKeyID = "Thekey", SecretAccessKey = "testing" }; public ActionResult Index() { ViewData["Message"] = "Welcome to ASP.NET MVC!"; return View("Index",s3.GetAllBuckets()); } On demo view: <% foreach (var item in Model) { %> <p> <%= Html.Encode(item.Name) %> </p> <% } %> EDIT 1: Since I have to keep moving and there is no clear indication of what library is more effective and kept more up to date, I have implemented a repository pattern with an interface that will allow me to change library if I need to in the future. Below is a section of the S3Repository that I have created and will let me change libraries in case I need to: using LitS3; namespace S3Helper.Models { public class S3Repository : IS3Repository { private S3Service _repository; #region IS3Repository Members public IQueryable<Bucket> FindAllBuckets() { return _repository.GetAllBuckets().AsQueryable(); } public IQueryable<ListEntry> FindAllObjects(string BucketName) { return _repository.ListAllObjects(BucketName).AsQueryable(); } #endregion If you have any information about this question please let me know in a comment, and I will get back and edit the question. EDIT 2: Since this question is not getting attention, I integrated both libraries in my web app to see the differences in design, I know this is probably a waist of time, but I really want a good long run solution. Below you will see two samples of the same action with the two libraries, maybe this will motivate some of you to let me know your thoughts. WITH THREE SHARP LIBRARY: public IQueryable<T> FindAllBuckets<T>() { List<string> list = new List<string>(); using (BucketListRequest request = new BucketListRequest(null)) using (BucketListResponse response = service.BucketList(request)) { XmlDocument bucketXml = response.StreamResponseToXmlDocument(); XmlNodeList buckets = bucketXml.SelectNodes("//*[local-name()='Name']"); foreach (XmlNode bucket in buckets) { list.Add(bucket.InnerXml); } } return list.Cast<T>().AsQueryable(); } WITH LITS3 LIBRARY: public IQueryable<T> FindAllBuckets<T>() { return _repository.GetAllBuckets() .Cast<T>() .AsQueryable(); }

    Read the article

  • Adding a mini admin to a webpage.

    - by DADU
    Hello Picture this: you are creating a little module that people can incorporate into their website easily, for example, a little contact form. It would consist of a PHP file that outputs some HTML, a Javascript file (ajax etc.), a CSS file and a CSS skin. Now the person who doesn't know much about coding wants to integrate it on a webpage (website/index.php). We could do this with three rules of code: <link rel="stylesheet" href="module/css/module.css" /> <script src="module/js/module.js"></script> <?php require_once 'module/module.php'; ?> There's no doubt this part is questionable, right? Now when we want to add an admin for this little module, there are two options: Accessing the admin via an extra URL like website/module/admin.php and after authentication, displaying a page where the person can do all the settings. The person then goes back to index.php to see the results. Enabling the admin via an extra URL like website/module/admin.php and after authentication, redirecting back to index.php. The person can now edit the module directly (HTML5 contenteditable) and see changes live, on the webpage where everybody else will see it when the person saves the changes. Option 2 has a couple of advantages: The person doesn't have to toggle between admin and index.php. The person can see directly how it's looking at the webpage it's integrated in. The person probably feels like the module is more part of the webpage/website. Of course option 2 has some disadvantages too: Not everything works well editing it inline. The person would need to have an HTML5 compliant browser. Probably some more I can't think of right now. Now I have a few concerns that's I can't seem to see a clear answer to. How would we let the person integrate the admin on their webpage? The admin files only need to be included in index.php if the person has choosen to edit the module via the url (website/module/admin.php). But how can we do this if we have a admin.css file that belongs in the head section, an admin.php file that goes into the body, and another admin.js file that's included at the end of the body? How would we know the file that admin.php needs to redirect back to, after authentication? index.php could be any webpage with any name. Any real life website/web apps examples using this principle are welcome too. If there's something unclear, I am glad to add additional info.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET- forcing child/container events to fire before parent onload?

    - by Hans Gruber
    I'm working on a questionnaire type application in which questions are stored in a database. Therefore, I create my controls dynamically on every Page.OnLoad. This works like a charm and ViewState is persisted between postbacks because I ensure that my dynamic controls always have the same generated Control.ID. In addition to the user control that dynamically populates the questions, my questionnaire page also contains a 'Status' section (also encapsulated by a user control) which represents the status of the questionnaire (choices are 'Complete', 'Started' or 'In Progress'). If the user changes the status of questionnaire (i.e. from 'In Progress' to 'Complete'), I need to postback to the server because the contents of the dynamic portion of the questionnaire depend on the selected status. Some questions are always present regardless of status, and yet others may not be present at all for the selected status. The point is, when the status changes, I have to postback to the page and render the right set of questions. Additionally, I need to preserve any user entered values for those questions which are 'always available'. However, due to the page life cycle in ASP.NET, the 'Status' user control's OnLoad, which contains the correct status needed to load the right questions from the DB, doesn't get executed until after the 'dynamic questions' user control has already been populated (with the wrong/stale values). To get around this, I raise an event from my 'Status' user control to the main page to indicate that the Status has changed. The main page then raises an event on the 'dynamic questions' user control. Since by the time this event bubbles up, the 'dynamic questions' user control has already loaded the 'wrong' questions from the DB, it first calls Controls.Clear. It then happily uses the new status to query the database for the 'correct' questions and does a Control.Add() on each. FYI, Control.IDs are consistent across postbacks. This solution works...sorta. The correct set of questions for the selected status do get rendered; however ViewState is getting lost for those 'always available' questions. I'm guessing this is because the 'dynamic questions' user control calls Controls.Clear when responding to the status changed event. This must somehow kill the association between ViewState and my dynamic controls, even though the Control.ID are consistent. This seems like such a common requirement, I'm virtually certain there is a better, cleaner and less error prone approach to accomplish this. In case its not plain obvious, I haven't been able to grok the ASP.NET page life-cycle despite working with it for the last year. Any help is much appreciated!

    Read the article

  • UITableViewCell outlets not set during bundle load (possibly very elementary question)

    - by Jan Zich
    What are the most common reasons for an outlet (a class property) not being set during a bundle load? I'm sorry; most likely I'm not using the correct terms. It's my first steps with iPhone OS development and Objective-C, so please bear with me. Here is more details. Basically, I'm trying to create a table view based form with a fixed number of static rows. I followed this example: http://developer.apple.com/iphone/library/documentation/userexperience/conceptual/TableView_iPhone/TableViewCells/TableViewCells.html Scroll down to The Technique for Static Row Content please. I have one nib file with one table view, three table cells and all connections set as in the example. The problem is that the corresponding cell properties in my controller are never initialised. I get an exception in cellForRowAtIndexPath complaining that the returned cell is nil: UITableView dataSource must return a cell from tableView:cellForRowAtIndexPath. Here are the relevant parts from the implementation of the controller: @synthesize cellA; @synthesize cellB; @synthesize cellC; - (NSInteger)numberOfSectionsInTableView:(UITableView *)tableView { return 1; } - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { return 3; } - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { switch (indexPath.row) { case 0: return cellA; break; case 1: return cellB; break; case 2: return cellC; break; default: return nil; } } And here is the interface part: @interface AssociatePhoneViewController : UITableViewController { UITableViewCell *cellA; UITableViewCell *cellB; UITableViewCell *cellB; } @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet UITableViewCell *cellA; @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet UITableViewCell *cellB; @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet UITableViewCell *cellC; @end This must be possibly one of the the most embarrassing questions on StackOverflow. It looks like the most basic example code. Is is possible that the cells are not instantiated with the nib file? I have them on the same level before the tabula view in the nib file. I tried to move them after the table view, but it did not make any difference. Are table cells in some way special? Do I need to set some flag or some property on them in the nib file? I was under the impression that all classes (views, windows, controllers …) listed in a nib file are simply instantiated (and linked using the provided connections). Could it possibly be some memory issue? The cell properties in my controller are not defined in any special way.

    Read the article

  • Spring.NET & Immediacy CMS (or how to inject to server side controls without using PageHandlerFactor

    - by Simon Rice
    Is there any way to inject dependencies into an Immediacy CMS control using Spring.NET, ideally without having to use to ContextRegistry when initialising the control? Update, with my own answer The issue here is that Immediacy already has a handler defined in web.config that deals with all aspx pages, & so it's not possible add an entry for Spring.NET's PageHandlerFactory in web.config as per a normal webforms app. That rules out making the control implement ISupportsWebDependencyInjection. Furthermore, most of Immediacy's generated pages are aspx pages that don't physically exist on the drive. I have changed the title of the question to reflect this. What I have done to get Dependency Injection working is: Add the usual entries to web.config for Spring.NET as outlined in the documentation, except for the adding the entry to the <httpHandlers> section. In this case I've got my object definitions in Spring.config. Create the following abstract base class that will deal with all of the Dependency Injection work: DIControl.cs public abstract class DIControl : ImmediacyControl { protected virtual string DIName { get { return this.GetType().Name; } } protected override void OnInit(EventArgs e) { if (ContextRegistry.GetContext().GetObject(DIName, this.GetType()) != null) ContextRegistry.GetContext().ConfigureObject(this, DIName); base.OnInit(e); } } For non-immediacy controls, you can make this server side control inherit from Control or whatever subclass of that you like. For any control with which you wish to use with Spring.NET's Inversion of Control container, define it to inherit from DIControl & add the relelvant entry to Spring.config, for example: SampleControl.cs public class SampleControl : DIControl, INamingContainer { public string Text { get; set; } protected string InjectedText { get; set; } public SampleControl() : base() { Text = "Hello world"; } protected override void RenderContents(HtmlTextWriter output) { output.Write(string.Format("{0} {1}", Text, InjectedText)); } } Spring.config <objects xmlns="http://www.springframework.net"> <object id="SampleControl" type="MyProject.SampleControl, MyAssembly"> <property name="InjectedText" value="from Spring.NET" /> </object> </objects> You can optionally override DIName if you wish to name your entry in Spring.config differently from the name of your class. Provided everything's done correctly, you will have the control writing out "Hello world from Spring.NET!" when used in a page. This solution uses Spring.NET's ContextRegistry from within the control, but I would be surprised if there's no way around that for Immediacy at least since the page objects themselves aren't accessible. However, can this be improved at all from a Spring.NET perspective? Is there maybe an Immediacy plugin that already does this that I'm completely unaware of? Or is there an approach that does this in a more elegant way? I'm open to suggestions.

    Read the article

  • WCF service under https environment

    - by Budda
    I've created and tested WCF service, everything works fine. When I deployed to TEST environment and tried to open https://my.site/myapp/EnrollmentService.svc I've got the error message: Could not find a base address that matches scheme http for the endpoint with binding MetadataExchangeHttpBinding. Registered base address schemes are [https]. Internet showed me that I need to add some more configuration options: http://www.codeproject.com/KB/WCF/7stepsWCF.aspx I've added some settings to service web.config file. Now it looks like in the following way: <system.serviceModel> <services> <service name="McActivationApp.EnrollmentService" behaviorConfiguration="McActivationApp.EnrollmentServicBehavior"> <endpoint address="https://my.site/myapp/EnrollmentService.svc" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="TransportSecurity" contract="McActivationApp.IEnrollmentService"/> <endpoint address="mex" binding="mexHttpBinding" contract="McActivationApp.IEnrollmentService" /> </service> </services> <behaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name="McActivationApp.EnrollmentServicBehavior"> <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="True"/> <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="False" /> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors> <bindings> <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="TransportSecurity"> <security mode="Transport"> <transport clientCredentialType="None" /> </security> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> </bindings> <serviceHostingEnvironment aspNetCompatibilityEnabled="true" /> </system.serviceModel> Actually, I've added "bindings" section and specified it for my endpoint. But this changed nothing... Please advise, what I need to do. Thanks a lot! P.S. Are there any differences in WCF service consuming from https and http resources?

    Read the article

  • jQuery.extend() not giving deep copy of object formed by constructor

    - by two7s_clash
    I'm trying to use this to clone a complicated Object. The object in question has a property that is an array of other Objects, and each of these have properties of different types, mostly primitives, but a couple further Objects and Arrays. For example, an ellipsed version of what I am trying to clone: var asset = new Assets(); function Assets() { this.values = []; this.sectionObj = Section; this.names = getNames; this.titles = getTitles; this.properties = getProperties; ... this.add = addAsset; function AssetObj(assetValues) { this.name = ""; this.title = ""; this.interface = ""; ... this.protected = false; this.standaloneProtected = true; ... this.chaptersFree = []; this.chaptersUnavailable = []; ... this.mediaOptions = { videoWidth: "", videoHeight: "", downloadMedia: true, downloadMediaExt: "zip" ... } this.chaptersAvailable = []; if (typeof assetValues == "undefined") { return; } for (var name in assetValues) { if (typeof assetValues[name] == "undefined") { this[name] = ""; } else { this[name] = assetValues[name]; } } ... function Asset() { return new AssetObj(); } ... function getProperties() { var propertiesArray = new Array(); for (var property in this.values[0]) { propertiesArray.push(property); } return propertiesArray; } ... function addAsset(assetValues) { var newValues; newValues = new AssetObj(assetValues); this.values.push(newValues); } } When I do var copiedAssets = $.extend(true, {}, assets); copiedAssets.values == [], while assets.values == [Object { name="section_intro", more...}, Object { name="select_textbook", more...}, Object { name="quiz", more...}, 11 more...] When I do var copiedAssets = $.extend( {}, assets); all copiedAssets.values.[X].properties are just pointers to the value in assets. What I want is a true deep copy all the way down. What am I missing? Do I need to write a custom extend function? If so, any recommended patterns?

    Read the article

  • how to include in web.config an external mydll.config file and read its values?

    - by firepol
    Hi, I found this answer about external configuration files. I'm trying to do a similar thing. I have a small webapplication called StatsGen I want to include in other projects, and for convenience I'd like to have the settings inside the bin folder, in a config file with an appropriate name, in my case: StatsGen.config. So I've put these line in the web.config (as explained in the answer I mentioned above): <configSections> <section name="StatsGenSettings" restartOnExternalChanges="true" type="System.Configuration.NameValueFileSectionHandler" /> <!--sectionGroups--> </configSections> <StatsGenSettings configSource="StatsGen.config"></StatsGenSettings> <!--and here comes the rest... appSettings etc.--> Inside the bin folder, I created a StatsGen.xml file, then renamed it to StatsGen.config. It looks like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <StatsGenSettings> <add key="Password" value="myStatsPass" /> <add key="ConnectionString" value="Server=mydbsrv;Database=myDB;User ID=myUser;Password=myPass" /> </StatsGenSettings> I created an Helper class, as suggested in the answer. In the Page_Load of my default.aspx.cs file, I've put: goodPassword = StatsGenSettings.Instance["Password"]; When I load my page, I get this error: The type initializer for 'StatsGen.Helpers.StatsGenSettings' threw an exception. I've tried to exlude the helper and just to get access to the key, like this: NameValueCollection _settings = ConfigurationManager.GetSection("StatsGenSettings") as NameValueCollection; And I get this error: Unable to open configSource file 'StatsGen.config'. (C:\Users\pbo\Documents\Visual Studio 2010\Projects\StatsGen\StatsGen\web.config line 21) At line 21 I just have this, as explained above: <StatsGenSettings configSource="StatsGen.config"></StatsGenSettings> So now I'm wondering, what's wrong? Some detailed help would be cool... like: where exactly should I declare the StatsGenSettings element inside the web.config? It was not specified in the answer I've found... or what else am I doing wrong? Thanks for letting me know...

    Read the article

  • Random strange behaviour on Google Maps v2

    - by fesja
    hi, I'm having a particular fight with Google Maps v2 on Chrome. The map is shown well on all browsers except Chrome, that without any particular reason, it does any of these things as you can see on the image: Moving the center to the south Showing the markers to the right, but if i move the map, they moved too to the next section of the map. Perfect I have the following javascript: if (GBrowserIsCompatible()) { var map = new GMap2(document.getElementById("map")); var bounds = new GLatLngBounds(); map.enableScrollWheelZoom(); map.addControl(new GSmallMapControl()); map.addControl(new GMapTypeControl()); map.removeMapType(G_HYBRID_MAP); var zoomout = 1; var pcenter_0 = new GLatLng(40.420300, -3.705770); var marker_0 = new GMarker(pcenter_0, {draggable: false}); map.addOverlay(marker_0); marker_0.bindInfoWindowHtml('info', {pixelOffset:new GSize(32,5), maxWidth:200} ); bounds.extend(marker_0.getPoint()); var pcenter_1 = new GLatLng(41.385719, 2.170050); var marker_1 = new GMarker(pcenter_1, {draggable: false}); map.addOverlay(marker_1); marker_1.bindInfoWindowHtml('', {pixelOffset:new GSize(32,5), maxWidth:200} ); bounds.extend(marker_1.getPoint()); var pcenter_2 = new GLatLng(48.856918, 2.341210); var marker_2 = new GMarker(pcenter_2, {draggable: false}); map.addOverlay(marker_2); marker_2.bindInfoWindowHtml('info', {pixelOffset:new GSize(32,5), maxWidth:200} ); bounds.extend(marker_2.getPoint()); var pcenter_3 = new GLatLng(37.779160, -122.420052); var marker_3 = new GMarker(pcenter_3, {draggable: false}); map.addOverlay(marker_3); marker_3.bindInfoWindowHtml('', {pixelOffset:new GSize(32,5), maxWidth:200} ); bounds.extend(marker_3.getPoint()); var pcenter_4 = new GLatLng(48.202541, 16.368799); var marker_4 = new GMarker(pcenter_4, {draggable: false}); map.addOverlay(marker_4); marker_4.bindInfoWindowHtml('', {pixelOffset:new GSize(32,5), maxWidth:200} ); bounds.extend(marker_4.getPoint()); zoomToBounds(zoomout); } function zoomToBounds(zoomout) { map.setCenter(bounds.getCenter()); var zoom = map.getBoundsZoomLevel(bounds)-zoomout; if(zoom < 1) zoom = 1; map.setZoom(zoom); map.checkResizeAndCenter(); } Do you have any idea or clue of what can be happening? It's very annoying to have this random javascript errors.. If you need more info, please ask! thanks! Update to add html code (before javascript) <div id="index_map"> <div id="map"></div> </div> I've aldo updated the markers code

    Read the article

  • sharepoint custom aspx page with database connection

    - by Megini
    hi there i have created a custom aspx page whithin my sharepoint site with a sql server connection to a database on that server to select data when i view the page it works but when another user tries to view it it gives the following error : Server Error in '/' Application. Login failed for user 'GRINCOR\GuguK'. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Login failed for user 'GRINCOR\GuguK'. Source Error: The source code that generated this unhandled exception can only be shown when compiled in debug mode. To enable this, please follow one of the below steps, then request the URL: Add a "Debug=true" directive at the top of the file that generated the error. Example: <%@ Page Language="C#" Debug="true" % or: 2) Add the following section to the configuration file of your application: Note that this second technique will cause all files within a given application to be compiled in debug mode. The first technique will cause only that particular file to be compiled in debug mode. Important: Running applications in debug mode does incur a memory/performance overhead. You should make sure that an application has debugging disabled before deploying into production scenario. Stack Trace: [SqlException (0x80131904): Login failed for user 'GRINCOR\GuguK'.] System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnection.OnError(SqlException exception, Boolean breakConnection) +248 System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.ThrowExceptionAndWarning(TdsParserStateObject stateObj) +245 System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.Run(RunBehavior runBehavior, SqlCommand cmdHandler, SqlDataReader dataStream, BulkCopySimpleResultSet bulkCopyHandler, TdsParserStateObject stateObj) +2811 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.CompleteLogin(Boolean enlistOK) +53 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.AttemptOneLogin(ServerInfo serverInfo, String newPassword, Boolean ignoreSniOpenTimeout, Int64 timerExpire, SqlConnection owningObject) +327 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.LoginNoFailover(String host, String newPassword, Boolean redirectedUserInstance, SqlConnection owningObject, SqlConnectionString connectionOptions, Int64 timerStart) +2445370 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.OpenLoginEnlist(SqlConnection owningObject, SqlConnectionString connectionOptions, String newPassword, Boolean redirectedUserInstance) +2445224 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds..ctor(DbConnectionPoolIdentity identity, SqlConnectionString connectionOptions, Object providerInfo, String newPassword, SqlConnection owningObject, Boolean redirectedUserInstance) +354 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnectionFactory.CreateConnection(DbConnectionOptions options, Object poolGroupProviderInfo, DbConnectionPool pool, DbConnection owningConnection) +703 System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.CreatePooledConnection(DbConnection owningConnection, DbConnectionPool pool, DbConnectionOptions options) +54 System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionPool.CreateObject(DbConnection owningObject) +2414776 System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionPool.UserCreateRequest(DbConnection owningObject) +92 System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionPool.GetConnection(DbConnection owningObject) +1657 System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.GetConnection(DbConnection owningConnection) +84 System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionClosed.OpenConnection(DbConnection outerConnection, DbConnectionFactory connectionFactory) +1645767 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection.Open() +258 ASP.d7922f0d_ac20_4f87_91a2_a99a52c2b2fa__233736835.DisplayData() in C:\inetpub\wwwroot\wss\VirtualDirectories\80\sites\hrportal2\tester.aspx:151 ASP.d7922f0d_ac20_4f87_91a2_a99a52c2b2fa_233736835._RenderMain(HtmlTextWriter __w, Control parameterContainer) in C:\inetpub\wwwroot\wss\VirtualDirectories\80\sites\hrportal2\tester.aspx:346 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderChildrenInternal(HtmlTextWriter writer, ICollection children) +115 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderChildrenInternal(HtmlTextWriter writer, ICollection children) +240 System.Web.UI.HtmlControls.HtmlContainerControl.Render(HtmlTextWriter writer) +42 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderChildrenInternal(HtmlTextWriter writer, ICollection children) +240 System.Web.UI.HtmlControls.HtmlForm.RenderChildren(HtmlTextWriter writer) +253 System.Web.UI.HtmlControls.HtmlForm.Render(HtmlTextWriter output) +87 System.Web.UI.HtmlControls.HtmlForm.RenderControl(HtmlTextWriter writer) +53 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderChildrenInternal(HtmlTextWriter writer, ICollection children) +240 System.Web.UI.HtmlControls.HtmlContainerControl.Render(HtmlTextWriter writer) +42 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderChildrenInternal(HtmlTextWriter writer, ICollection children) +240 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderChildrenInternal(HtmlTextWriter writer, ICollection children) +240 System.Web.UI.Page.Render(HtmlTextWriter writer) +38 System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) +4240 Version Information: Microsoft .NET Framework Version:2.0.50727.3603; ASP.NET Version:2.0.50727.3601 can someone give me a solution to this problem ? i am using sharepoint services 3.0

    Read the article

  • usercontrol hosted in IE renders as a textbox

    - by coxymla
    On my ongoing saga to mirror the hosting of a legacy app on a clean box, I've hit my next snag. One page relies on a big .NET UserControl that on the new machine renders only as a big, greyed out textarea (greyed out vertical scrollbar on the right hand edge. Inspecting the source shows the expected object tag.) This is particularly tricky because nobody seems to know much about hosted UserControls and all the discussions data back to 2002-2004. The page is quite simple: <%@ Page language="c#" Codebehind="DataExport.aspx.cs" AutoEventWireup="false" Inherits="yyyyy.Web.DataExport" %> <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.0 Transitional//EN" > <html> <head> <title>DataExport</title> <link rel="Configuration" href="/xxxxx/yyyyy/DataExport.config"> </head> <body style="margin:0px;padding:0px;overflow:hidden"> <OBJECT id="DataExport" style="WIDTH: 100%; HEIGHT: 100%; position:absolute; left: 0px; top:0px" classid="yyyyy.Common.dll#yyyyy.Controls.DataExport" VIEWASTEXT> </OBJECT> </body> </html> The config file referenced: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <configSections> <sectionGroup name="yyyyy"> <section name="dataExport" type="yyyyy.Controls.DataExportSectionHandler,yyyyy.Common" /> </sectionGroup> </configSections> <yyyyy> <dataExport> <layoutFile>http://vm2/xxxxx/yyyyy/layout.xml</layoutFile> <webServiceUrl>http://vm2/xxxxx/yyyyy/services/yyyyy.asmx</webServiceUrl> </dataExport> </yyyyy> </configuration> What I've checked: Security permissions should be OK, the site is trusted and adding a URL exception to grant FullTrust doesn't change anything. Config file is acessible over the web, layout.xml is accessible, ASMX shows the expected command list Machine.config grants GET permission for the usercontrol.config file. What perhaps looks fishy to me: The DataExport UserControl references Aspose.Excel to generate the spreadsheets it exports. When I navigate to the page and get a blank textbox, then run gacutil /ldl, nothing is in the local download cache. On the working machine, running the same command after viewing the page shows a laundry list of DLLs including the control DLL and the Aspose DLL.

    Read the article

  • Switch case assembly level code

    - by puffadder
    Hi All, I am programming C on cygwin windows. After having done a bit of C programming and getting comfortable with the language, I wanted to look under the hood and see what the compiler is doing for the code that I write. So I wrote down a code block containing switch case statements and converted them into assembly using: gcc -S foo.c Here is the C source: switch(i) { case 1: { printf("Case 1\n"); break; } case 2: { printf("Case 2\n"); break; } case 3: { printf("Case 3\n"); break; } case 4: { printf("Case 4\n"); break; } case 5: { printf("Case 5\n"); break; } case 6: { printf("Case 6\n"); break; } case 7: { printf("Case 7\n"); break; } case 8: { printf("Case 8\n"); break; } case 9: { printf("Case 9\n"); break; } case 10: { printf("Case 10\n"); break; } default: { printf("Nothing\n"); break; } } Now the resultant assembly for the same is: movl $5, -4(%ebp) cmpl $10, -4(%ebp) ja L13 movl -4(%ebp), %eax sall $2, %eax movl L14(%eax), %eax jmp *%eax .section .rdata,"dr" .align 4 L14: .long L13 .long L3 .long L4 .long L5 .long L6 .long L7 .long L8 .long L9 .long L10 .long L11 .long L12 .text L3: movl $LC0, (%esp) call _printf jmp L2 L4: movl $LC1, (%esp) call _printf jmp L2 L5: movl $LC2, (%esp) call _printf jmp L2 L6: movl $LC3, (%esp) call _printf jmp L2 L7: movl $LC4, (%esp) call _printf jmp L2 L8: movl $LC5, (%esp) call _printf jmp L2 L9: movl $LC6, (%esp) call _printf jmp L2 L10: movl $LC7, (%esp) call _printf jmp L2 L11: movl $LC8, (%esp) call _printf jmp L2 L12: movl $LC9, (%esp) call _printf jmp L2 L13: movl $LC10, (%esp) call _printf L2: Now, in the assembly, the code is first checking the last case (i.e. case 10) first. This is very strange. And then it is copying 'i' into 'eax' and doing things that are beyond me. I have heard that the compiler implements some jump table for switch..case. Is it what this code is doing? Or what is it doing and why? Because in case of less number of cases, the code is pretty similar to that generated for if...else ladder, but when number of cases increases, this unusual-looking implementation is seen. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • EXC_BAD_ACCESS when scrolling table after json data is imported

    - by Michael Robinson
    Hello, I'm having a bear of a time trying to figure out why I'm getting a EXC_BAD ACCESS error. The console is giving me this eror: " -[CFArray objectAtIndex:]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x3b14110", I Can't figure it out...Thanks in advance. // Customize the number of rows in the table view. - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { return [rows count]; } // Customize the appearance of table view cells. - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleSubtitle reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier] autorelease]; } // Configure the cell. NSDictionary *dict = [rows objectAtIndex: indexPath.row]; cell.textLabel.text = [dict objectForKey:@"name"]; cell.detailTextLabel.text = [dict objectForKey:@"age"]; return cell; } // Implement viewDidLoad to do additional setup after loading the view, typically from a nib. - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; self.navigationController.navigationBar.tintColor = [UIColor colorWithRed:0.0/255.0 green:207.0/255.0 blue:255.0/255.0 alpha:1.0]; self.title = NSLocalizedString(@"How Big Now", @"How Big Now"); NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:@"http://10.0.1.8/~imac/iphone/jsontest.php"]; NSString *jsonreturn = [[NSString alloc] initWithContentsOfURL:url]; // NSLog(jsonreturn); // Look at the console and you can see what the restults are NSData *jsonData = [jsonreturn dataUsingEncoding:NSUTF32BigEndianStringEncoding]; NSError *error = nil; // In "real" code you should surround this with try and catch NSDictionary * dict = [[CJSONDeserializer deserializer] deserializeAsDictionary:jsonData error:&error]; if (dict) { rows = [dict objectForKey:@"member"]; } NSLog(@"Array: %@",rows); [jsonreturn release]; } - (void)didReceiveMemoryWarning { // Releases the view if it doesn't have a superview. [super didReceiveMemoryWarning]; // Release any cached data, images, etc that aren't in use. } - (void)viewDidUnload { // Release any retained subviews of the main view. // e.g. self.myOutlet = nil; } - (void)dealloc { [super dealloc]; } @end

    Read the article

  • Cannot run public class in one .java from another

    - by DIOS
    I have created a basic program that takes whatever is input into two textfields and exports them to a file. I would now like to encrypt that file, and alredy have the encryptor. The problem is that I cannot call it. Here is my code for the encryptor: import java.io.File; import java.io.FileInputStream; import java.io.FileOutputStream; import java.io.*; import javax.crypto.Cipher; import javax.crypto.CipherInputStream; import javax.crypto.CipherOutputStream; import javax.crypto.spec.SecretKeySpec; public class FileEncryptor { private String algo; private File file; public FileEncryptor(String algo,String path) { this.algo=algo; //setting algo this.file=new File(path); //settong file } public void encrypt() throws Exception{ //opening streams FileInputStream fis =new FileInputStream(file); file=new File(file.getAbsolutePath()); FileOutputStream fos =new FileOutputStream(file); //generating key byte k[] = "HignDlPs".getBytes(); SecretKeySpec key = new SecretKeySpec(k,algo.split("/")[0]); //creating and initialising cipher and cipher streams Cipher encrypt = Cipher.getInstance(algo); encrypt.init(Cipher.ENCRYPT_MODE, key); CipherOutputStream cout=new CipherOutputStream(fos, encrypt); byte[] buf = new byte[1024]; int read; while((read=fis.read(buf))!=-1) //reading data cout.write(buf,0,read); //writing encrypted data //closing streams fis.close(); cout.flush(); cout.close(); } public static void main (String[] args)throws Exception { new FileEncryptor("DES/ECB/PKCS5Padding","C:\\Users\\*******\\Desktop\\newtext").encrypt();//encrypts the current file. } } Here is the section of my file creator that is failing to call this: FileWriter fWriter = null; BufferedWriter writer = null; try{ fWriter = new FileWriter("C:\\Users\\*******\\Desktop\\newtext"); writer = new BufferedWriter(fWriter); writer.write(Data); writer.close(); f.dispose(); FileEncryptor encr = new FileEncryptor(); //problem lies here. encr.encrypt //public void that does the encryption. new complete(); //different .java that is working fine.

    Read the article

  • Trying to style the first tbody different than others without introducing another class.

    - by mwiik
    I have a table with multiple tbody's, each of which has a classed row, and I want it so that the classed row in the first tbody has style differences, but am unable to get tbody:first-child to work in any browser. Perhaps I am missing something, or maybe there is a workaround. Ideally, I would like to provide the programmers with a single tbody section they can use as a template, but will otherwise have to add a class to the first tbody, making for an extra test in the programming. The html is straightforward: <tbody class="subGroup"> <tr class="subGroupHeader"> <th colspan="8">All Grades: Special Education</th> <td class="grid" colspan="2"><!-- contains AMO line --></td> <td><!-- right 100 --></td> </tr> <tr>...</tr> <!-- several more rows of data --> </tbody> There are several tbody's per table. I want to style the th and td's within tr.subGroupHeader in the very first tbody differently than the rest. Just to illustrate, I want to add a border-top to the tr.subGroupHeader cells. The tr.subGroupHeader will be styled with a border-top, such as: table.databargraph.continued tr.subGroupHeader th, table.databargraph.continued tr.subGroupHeader td { border-top: 6px solid red; } For the first tbody, I am trying: table.databargraph.continued tbody:first-child tr.subGroupHeader th { border-top: 6px solid blue ; } However, this doesn't seem to work in any browser (I've tested in Safari, Opera, Firefox, and PrinceXML, all on my Mac) Curiously, the usually excellent Xyle Scope tool indicates that the blue border should be taking precedence, though it obviously is not. See the screenshot at http://s3.amazonaws.com/ember/kUD8DHrz06xowTBK3qpB2biPJrLWTZCP_o.png This screenshot shows (top left) the American Indian th is selected, and (bottom right), shows (via black instead of gray text for the css declaration), that, indeed, the blue border should be given precedence. Yet the border is red. I may be missing something fundamental, like pseudo-classes not working for tbodys at all... This really only needs to work in PrinceXML, and maybe Safari so I can see what I'm doing with webkit-based css tools. Note I did try a selector like tr.subGroupHeader:first-child, but such tr's apparently consider the tbody the parent (as I would suspect), thus made every border blue. Thanks...

    Read the article

  • Function Point Analysis -- a seriously overestimating technique?

    - by kizzx2
    I know questions about FPA has been asked numerous times before, but this time I'm taking a more analytical angle at it, backed up with data. 1. First, some data This question is based on a tutorial. He had a "Sample Count" section where he demonstrated it step by step. You can see some screenshots of his sample application here. In the end, he calculated the unadjusted FP to be 99. There is another article on InformIT with industry data on typical hour/FP. It ranges from 2 hours/FP to 27.4 hours/FP. Let's try to stick with 2 for the moment (since SO readers are probably the more efficient crowd :p). 2. Reality check!? Now just check out the screenshots again. Do a little math here 99 * 2 = 198 hours 198 hours / 40 hours per week = 5 weeks Seriously? That sample application is going to take 5 weeks to implement? Is it just my feeling that it wouldn't take any decent programmer longer than one week (I"m not even saying weekend) to have it completed? Now let's try estimating the cost of the project. We'll use New York's minimum wage at the moment (Wikipedia), which is $7.25 198 * 7.25 = $1435.5 From what I could see from the screenshots, this application is a small excel-improvement app. I could have bought MS Office Pro for 200 bucks which gives me greater interoperability (.xls files) and flexibility (spreadsheets). (For the record, that same Web site has another article discussing productivity. It seems like they typically use 4.2 hours/FP, which gives us even more shocking stats: 99 * 4.2 = 415 hours = 10 weeks = almost 3 whopping months! 415 hours * $7.25 = $3000 zomg (That's even assuming that all our poor coders get the minimum wage!) 3. Am I missing something here? Right now, I could come up with several possible explanation: FPA is really only suited for bigger projects (1000+ FPs) so it becomes extremely inaccurate at smaller scale. The hours/FP metric fluctuates abruptly from team to team, project to project. For a small project like this, we could have used something like 0.5 hour/FP or something. (Now this kind of makes the whole estimation thing pointless, unless my firm does the same type of projects for several years with the same team, not really common.) From my experience with several software metrics, Function Point is really not a lightweight metric. If the hour/FP thing fluctuates so much, then what's the point, maybe I could have gone with User Story Points which is a lot faster to get and arguably almost as uncertain. What would be the FP experts' answers to this?

    Read the article

  • The best way to separate admin functionality from a public site?

    - by AndrewO
    I'm working on a site that's grown both in terms of user-base and functionality to the point where it's becoming evident that some of the admin tasks should be separate from the public website. I was wondering what the best way to do this would be. For example, the site has a large social component to it, and a public sales interface. But at the same time, there's back office tasks, bulk upload processing, dashboards (with long running queries), and customer relations tools in the admin section that I would like to not be effected by spikes in public traffic (or effect the public-facing response time). The site is running on a fairly standard Rails/MySQL/Linux stack, but I think this is more of an architecture problem than an implementation one: mainly, how does one keep the data and business logic in sync between these different applications? Some strategies that I'm evaluating: 1) Create a slave database of the public facing database on another machine. Extract out all of the model and library code so that it can be shared between the applications. Create new controllers and views for the admin interfaces. I have limited experience with replication and am not even sure that it's supposed to be used this way (most of the time I've seen it, it's been for scaling out the read capabilities of the same application, rather than having multiple different ones). I'm also worried about the potential for latency issues if the slave is not on the same network. 2) Create new more task/department-specific applications and use a message oriented middleware to integrate them. I read Enterprise Integration Patterns awhile back and they seemed to advocate this for distributed systems. (Alternatively, in some cases the basic Rails-style RESTful API functionality might suffice.) But, I have nightmares about data synchronization issues and the massive re-architecting that this would entail. 3) Some mixture of the two. For example, the only public information necessary for some of the back office tasks is a read-only completion time or status. Would it make sense to have that on a completely separate system and send the data to public? Meanwhile, the user/group admin functionality would be run on a separate system sharing the database? The downside is, this seems to keep many of the concerns I have with the first two, especially the re-architecting. I'm sure the answers are going to be highly dependent on a site's specific needs, but I'd love to hear success (or failure) stories.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 217 218 219 220 221 222 223 224 225 226 227 228  | Next Page >