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  • Pagination in Tab Content of Jquery UI

    - by DR.GEWA
    I am making a page with Jquery UI TABS. In one of tabs I want to make pagination for comments. I want such thing. When user clicks on the number of the page, the data of the page , which is linked will load via ajax in the tab. Here is my code <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { $("#tabs").tabs(); }); $('#demo').tabs({ load: function(event, ui) { $('a', ui.panel).click(function() { $(ui.panel).load(this.href); return false; }); } }); </script> How can I change this , so that any link inside the content with lets say with id "pagination" <a href="/coments?page=12&user_id=12" id="pagination">12</a> ?? Thanks beforehand I tried recently like this even and no luck. This is from http://www.bannerite.com/jquerytest/index2.php Here it work <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { $("#tabs").tabs(); var hijax = function(panel){ $('a', panel).click(function() { /**makes children 'a' on panel load via ajax, hence hijax*/ $(panel).load(this.href, null, function(){ /**recursively apply the hijax to newly loaded panels*/ hijax(panel); }); /**prevents propagation of click to document*/ return false; }); $('form', panel).css({background: 'yellow'}).ajaxForm({ target: panel, }); }; $('#demo ul').tabs({ /**initialize the tabs hijax pattern*/ load: function(tab, panel) { hijax(panel); } }); }); </script> HEre are the HTML part as Karl gived , but no succes. When clicking on Test link its going to another page........ When clicking on I wanted to post HTML here but because of users with less reputation <10 cant give HTML with links I have posted it here http://gevork.ru/2009/12/31/jquery-ui-tab-and-pagination-html/#more-58

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  • Where are the factory_girl records?

    - by gmile
    I'm trying to perform an integration test via Watir and RSpec. So, I created a test file within /integration and wrote a test, which adds a test user into a base via factory_girl. The problem is — I can't actually perform a login with my test user. The test I wrote looks as following: ... before(:each) @user = Factory(:user) @browser = FireWatir::Firefox.new end it "should login" @browser.text_field(:id, "username").set(@user.username) @browser.text_field(:id, "password").set(@user.password) @browser.button(:id, "get_in").click end ... As I'm starting the test and see a "performance" in browser, it always fires up a Username is not valid error. I've started an investigation, and did a small trick. First of all I've started to have doubts if the factory actually creates the user in DB. So after the immediate call to factory I've put some puts User.find stuff only to discover that the user is actually in DB. Ok, but as user still couldn't have logged in I've decided to see if he's present in DB with my own eyes. I've added a sleep right after a factory call, and went to see what's in the DB at the moment. I was crushed to see that the user is actually missing there! How come? Still, when I'm trying to output a user within the code, he is actually being fetched from somewhere. So where does the records, made by factory_girl within a runtime lie? Is it test or dev DB? I don't get it. I've 10 times checked if I'm running my Mongrel in test mode (does it matter? I think it does, as I'm trying to tun an integration test) and if my database.yml holds the correct connection specific data. I'm using an authlogic, if that can give any clue (no, putting activate_authlogic doesn't work here).

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  • Maven deploy:deploy-file not found due to version/timestamp appended to jar

    - by JamesC
    I'm having a problem using deploy:deploy-file with snapshots I'd like some advice on please. I have 2 projects; 1) Ant based and 2) the other Maven based that consumes the jars of the other project via Archiva. I've added a target to the Ant project to deploy snapshots on every successful build during our iteration. The problem is the Maven project cannot find them because the name of the dependency has a timestamp appended like so: someJar-1.0-20100407.171211-1.jar Here is the Ant target: <exec executable="${maven.bin}" dir="../lib"> <arg value="deploy:deploy-file" /> <arg value="-DgroupId=com.my.package" /><arg value="-DartifactId=${ant.project.name}" /> <arg value="-Dversion=${manifest.implementation.version}-SNAPSHOT" /> <arg value="-Dpackaging=jar" /> <arg value="-Dfile=../lib/${ant.project.name}-${manifest.implementation.version}-SNAPSHOT.jar" /> <arg value="-Durl=http://archiva.xxx.com/archiva/repository/snapshots" /> <arg value="-DrepositoryId=snapshots" /> </exec> I have a similar Ant target for releases and this works fine. Other pure Maven projects which deploy snapshosts via mvn deploy work fine. Does anyone know where I am going wrong? Thank You Update Figured out the answer, see below.

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  • Get Classic ASP variable from posted JSON

    - by Will
    I'm trying to post JSON via AJAX to a Classic ASP page, which retrieves the value, checks a database and returns JSON to the original page. I can post JSON via AJAX I can return JSON from ASP I can't retrieve the posted JSON into an ASP variable POST you use Request.Form, GET you use Request.Querystring......... what do I use for JSON? I have JSON libraries but they only show creating a string in the ASP script and then parsing that. I need to parse JSON from when being passed an external variable. Javascipt var thing = $(this).val(); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: '/ajax/check_username.asp', data: "{'userName':'" + thing + "'}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", cache: false, async: false, success: function() { alert('success'); }); ASP file (check_username.asp) Response.ContentType = "application/json" sEmail = request.form() -- THE PROBLEM Set oRS = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Recordset") SQL = "SELECT SYSUserID FROM dbo.t_SYS_User WHERE Username='"&sEmail&"'" oRS.Open SQL, oConn if not oRS.EOF then sStatus = (new JSON).toJSON("username", true, false) else sStatus = (new JSON).toJSON("username", false, false) end if response.write sStatus

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  • Django authentication in django nonrel on GAE

    - by tooba
    I'm using the Django nonrel project on a google app engine project running locally in development. I've created my own models and these are fine when they are saved and retrieved in the datastore. I'm hoping to use django.contrib.auth to provide the user functionality. I can use the shell to create users and these get assigned an ID. When I create one of my own models which references User I have to pass in a user ID as it quite rightly fails otherwise. However, checking via the gae admin interface I can't see the User model in the datastore for the users I've created via the shell. Nor can I retreive the user details from one of my models which references them. Calls to mymodel.user.username return nothing. Nor can I log into admin using the username and password I've set up. I can see saved versions of the models I've made in the gae admin app. I get the impression that users are being created somewhere other than the datastore. Is there something else I need to do to use the standard contrib.auth users with django-nonrel and gae?

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  • Use XMPP instead of HTTP

    - by pavel
    Hey guys. My friend and I, we are working on iPhone application. This application uses XMPP protocol to provide chat functionality. Right now we are designing architecture for the application. So my friend is working on iPhone side, and I am ruby on rails guy. My friend suggested, that we wrap every call, that is usually served via HTTP into XMPP. So, user registration, users search, profile editing, photo uploading, everything goes via XMPP. No HTTP at all. My friend wants to use XMPP, because he says, that it's much easier to implement XMPP on client-side rather HTTP. As for me, this is bullshit, but we've got a product owner, who have been working with my friend for a long time and he trusts him. So what I'm trying to do is to convince my friend and product owner that using XMPP for what HTTP can work find — is totally not the best idea. I feel, that if we implement everything on XMPP, we will have a pain in an ass till the end of lives. But how do I prove it? P.S. I'm not against chat over XMPP, I am against users search, photo uploading, rankings, nearby search and various other restful requests. Please, leave response. Any help appreciated. A little update: Yesterday we had a long discussion. And it turns out, it's quiete hard to receive response from both XMPP and HTTP in Objective-C. Because every single object and its data should be stored in Core Data model, while this model can't be securely modified from various places. Say, if you use HTTP transport, you always want to use only HTTP transport to update data in your model. And if you use XMPP, you should always use XMPP. So, you can't use both. That's what my iPhone buddy told me. It sounds weird for me, can anyone explain me that?

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  • HTTP POST to Imageshack

    - by Brandon Schlenker
    I am currently uploading images to my server via HTTP POST. Everything works fine using the code below. NSString *UDID = md5([UIDevice currentDevice].uniqueIdentifier); NSString *filename = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@-%@", UDID, [NSDate date]]; NSString *urlString = @"http://taptation.com/stationary_data/index.php"; request= [[[NSMutableURLRequest alloc] init] autorelease]; [request setURL:[NSURL URLWithString:urlString]]; [request setHTTPMethod:@"POST"]; NSString *boundary = @"---------------------------14737809831466499882746641449"; NSString *contentType = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"multipart/form-data; boundary=%@",boundary]; [request addValue:contentType forHTTPHeaderField: @"Content-Type"]; NSMutableData *postbody = [NSMutableData data]; [postbody appendData:[[NSString stringWithFormat:@"\r\n--%@\r\n",boundary] dataUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]]; [postbody appendData:[[NSString stringWithFormat:@"Content-Disposition: form-data; name=\"userfile\"; filename=\"%@.jpg\"\r\n", filename] dataUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]]; [postbody appendData:[[NSString stringWithString:@"Content-Type: application/octet-stream\r\n\r\n"] dataUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]]; [postbody appendData:[NSData dataWithData:imageData]]; [postbody appendData:[[NSString stringWithFormat:@"\r\n--%@--\r\n",boundary] dataUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]]; [request setHTTPBody:postbody]; NSData *returnData = [NSURLConnection sendSynchronousRequest:request returningResponse:nil error:nil]; returnString = [[NSString alloc] initWithData:returnData encoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]; NSLog(returnString); However, when I try to convert this to work with Image Shacks XML API, it doesn't return anything. The directions from ImageShack are below. Send the following variables via POST to imageshack. us /index.php fileupload; (the image) xml = "yes"; (specifies the return of XML) cookie; (registration code, optional) Does anyone know where I should go from here?

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  • XenServer 5.5 local storage problem

    - by Jason Nerer
    Hi community, I have the following problem with a Citrix XenServer 5.5. I had to physically move the host, so I shut down all machines via console: xe vm-shutdown force=true vm=my-machine-uuis-s After that I shut down the machine itself by issuing: halt After the reboot today the local storage repository is unplugged. I was trying to repair it via XenCenter, but I don't trust this one. So I tried: [root@xenserver ~]# xe pbd-list uuid ( RO) : ef6e2f3b-5825-393c-23e1-391d105c87ec host-uuid ( RO): c4bcf09c-2e52-448f-8210-df5d13bd33a9 sr-uuid ( RO): 2fb3be9c-075c-53ed-acb6-42f0c4ad0614 device-config (MRO): device: /dev/disk/by-id/scsi-SATA_WDC_WD5001ABYS-_WD-WCAS83698154,/dev/disk/by-id/scsi-SATA_WDC_WD5001ABYS-_WD-WCAS83694262 currently-attached ( RO): false To reattach the storage I issued: xe pbd-plug uuid=ef6e2f3b-5825-393c-23e1-391d105c87ec That one is running now for a while but not talking to me. The local repo has around 1TB. Should I wait, or are there any other options to reattach the local repo? What could have caused this problem? Any ideas? Thx. J

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  • Generating %pc relative address of constant data

    - by Hudson
    Is there a way to have gcc generate %pc relative addresses of constants? Even when the string appears in the text segment, arm-elf-gcc will generate a constant pointer to the data, load the address of the pointer via a %pc relative address and then dereference it. For a variety of reasons, I need to skip the middle step. As an example, this simple function: const char * filename(void) { static const char _filename[] __attribute__((section(".text"))) = "logfile"; return _filename; } generates (when compiled with arm-elf-gcc-4.3.2 -nostdlib -c -O3 -W -Wall logfile.c): 00000000 <filename>: 0: e59f0000 ldr r0, [pc, #0] ; 8 <filename+0x8> 4: e12fff1e bx lr 8: 0000000c .word 0x0000000c 0000000c <_filename.1175>: c: 66676f6c .word 0x66676f6c 10: 00656c69 .word 0x00656c69 I would have expected it to generate something more like: filename: add r0, pc, #0 bx lr _filename.1175: .ascii "logfile\000" The code in question needs to be partially position independent since it will be relocated in memory at load time, but also integrate with code that was not compiled -fPIC, so there is no global offset table. My current work around is to call a non-inline function (which will be done via a %pc relative address) to find the offset from the compiled location in a technique similar to how -fPIC code works: static intptr_t __attribute__((noinline)) find_offset( void ) { uintptr_t pc; asm __volatile__ ( "mov %0, %%pc" : "=&r"(pc) ); return pc - 8 - (uintptr_t) find_offset; } But this technique requires that all data references be fixed up manually, so the filename() function in the above example would become: const char * filename(void) { static const char _filename[] __attribute__((section(".text"))) = "logfile"; return _filename + find_offset(); }

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  • Best way for a remote web app to authenticate users in my current web app?

    - by jklp
    So a bit of background, I'm working on an existing web application which has a set of users, who are able to log in via a traditional login screen with a user name and password, etc. Recently we've managed to score a client (who have their own Intranet site), who are wanting to be able to have their users log into their Intranet site, and then have their users click a link on their Intranet which redirects to our application and logs them into it automatically. I've had two suggestions on how to implement this so far: Create a URL which takes 2 parameters (which are "username" and "password") and have the Intranet site pass those parameters to us (our connection is via TLS so it's all encrypted). This would work fine, but it seems a little "hacky", and also means that the logins and passwords have to be the same on both systems (and having to write some kind of web service which can update the passwords for users - which also seems a bit insecure) Provide a token to the Intranet, so when the client clicks on a link on the Intranet, it sends the token to us, along with the user name (and no password) which means they're authenticated. Again, this sounds a bit hacky as isn't that essentially the same as providing everyone with the same password to log in? So to summarise, I'm after the following things: A way for the users who are already authenticated on the Intranet to log into our system without too much messing around, and without using an external system to authenticate, i.e. LDAP / Kerberos Something which isn't too specific to this client, and can easily be implemented by other Intranets to log in

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  • parsed xml file: skip creation if blank?

    - by GoodGets
    This could be a HappyMapper specific question, but I don't think so. In my app, users can upload their blog subscriptions (via an OPML file), which I parse and add to their profile. The only problem is during the parsing, or more specifically the creation of each subscription, I can't figure out how to skip over entries that are just "labels". Since OPML files allow you to label your blogs, or organize them into folders, this is my problem. The actual blog subscriptions and their labels both have "outline" tags. <outline text="Rails" > <outline title="Katz Got Your Tongue?" text="Katz Got Your Tongue?" htmlUrl="http://yehudakatz.com" type="rss" xmlUrl="http://feeds.feedburner.com/KatzGotYourTongue" /> After parsing, I create each feed via a method call inside of the HappyMapper module def create_feed Feed.new( :feed_htmlUrl => self.htmlUrl, :feed_title => self.title, ... But how do I prevent it from creating new "feeds" for those outline tags that are just tags? (i.e. those that don't have an htmlUrl?)

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  • MVC Html.textbox/dropdown/whatever won't refresh on postback

    - by Cynthia
    OK, let's start with the Html.Textbox. It is supposed to contain text read from a file. The file read is based on what the user picks from a dropdown list. The first time it is fine. The user picks a value from the dropdown list. The controller uses that value to read some text from a file, and returns that text to the view via the view model. Everything is fine. THen the user picks another value from the dropdown list. The controller reads a new value from a file and returns it via the view model. Debugging to the LINE BEFORE THE HTML.TEXTBOX is set in the view shows that the model contains the correct value. However, the textbox itself still shows the PREVIOUS value when the page displays! If I switch from Html.Textbox to a plain input, type="text" html control, everything works fine. That's not so hard, but the same thing happens with my dropdown list -- I can't set the selected value in code. It always reverts to whatever was chosen last. Rendering a "select" tag with a dynamically-generated option list is a pain. I would love to be able to use Html.Dropdown. What am I missing here?? This is such a simple thing in webforms!

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  • How do I get google protocol buffer messages over a socket connection without disconnecting the clie

    - by Dan
    Hi there, I'm attempting to send a .proto message from an iPhone application to a Java server via a socket connection. However so far I'm running into an issue when it comes to the server receiving the data; it only seems to process it after the client connection has been terminated. This points to me that the data is getting sent, but the server is keeping its inputstream open and waiting for more data. Would anyone know how I might go about solving this? The current code (or at least the relevant parts) is as follows: iPhone: Person *person = [[[[Person builder] setId:1] setName:@"Bob"] build]; RequestWrapper *request = [[[RequestWrapper builder] setPerson:person] build]; NSData *data = [request data]; AsyncSocket *socket = [[AsyncSocket alloc] initWithDelegate:self]; if (![socket connectToHost:@"192.168.0.6" onPort:6666 error:nil]){ [self updateLabel:@"Problem connecting to socket!"]; } else { [self updateLabel:@"Sending data to server..."]; [socket writeData:data withTimeout:-1 tag:0]; [self updateLabel:@"Data sent, disconnecting"]; //[socket disconnect]; } Java: try { RequestWrapper wrapper = RequestWrapper.parseFrom(socket.getInputStream()); Person person = wrapper.getPerson(); if (person != null) { System.out.println("Persons name is " + person.getName()); socket.close(); } On running this, it seems to hang on the line where the RequestWrapper is processing the inputStream. I did try replacing the socket writedata method with [request writeToOutputStream:[socket getCFWriteStream]]; Which I thought might work, however I get an error claiming that the "Protocol message contained an invalid tag (zero)". I'm fairly certain that it doesn't contain an invalid tag as the message works when sending it via the writedata method. Any help on the matter would be greatly appreciated! Cheers! Dan (EDIT: I should mention, I am using the metasyntactic gpb code; and the cocoaasyncsocket implementation)

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  • Django inlineformset validation and delete

    - by Andrew Gee
    Hi, Can someone tell me if a form in an inlineformset should go through validation if the DELETE field is checked. I have a form that uses an inlineformset and when I check the DELETE box it fails because the required fields are blank. If I put data in the fields it will pass validation and then be deleted. Is that how it is supposed to work, I would have thought that if it is marked for delete it would bypass the validation for that form. Regards Andrew Follow up - but I would still appreciate some others opinions/help What I have figured out is that for validation to work the a formset form must either be empty or complete(valid) otherwise it will have errors when it is created and will not be deleted. As I have a couple of hidden fields in my formset forms and they are pre-populated when the page loads via javascript the form fails validation on the other required fields which might still be blank. The way I have gotten around this by adding in a check in the add_fields that tests if the DELETE input is True and if it is it makes all fields on the form not required, which means it passes validation and will then delete. def add_fields(self, form, index) #add other fields that are required.... deleteValue = form.fields['DELETE'].widget.value_from datadict(form.data, form.files, form.add_prefix('DELETE')) if bool(deleteValue) or deleteValue == '': for name, field in form.fields.items(): form.fields[name].required= False This seems to be an odd way to do things but I cannot figure out another way. Is there a simpler way that I am missing? I have also noticed that when I add the new form to my page and check the Delete box, there is no value passed back via the request, however an existing form (one loaded from the database) has a value of on when the Delete box is checked. If the box is not checked then the input is not in the request at all. Thanks Andrew

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  • javascript removeChild(this) from input[type="submit"] onclick breaks future use of form.submit() un

    - by maximumduncan
    I have come across some strange behaviour, and I'm assuming a bug in firefox, when removing a input submit element from the DOM from within the click event. The following code reproduces the issue: <form name="test_form"> <input type="submit" value="remove me" onclick="this.parentNode.removeChild(this);" /> <input type="submit" value="submit normally" /> <input type="button" value="submit via js" onclick="document.test_form.submit();" /> </form> To reproduce: Click "remove me" Click "submit via js". Note that the form does not get submitted, this is the problem. Click "submit normally". Note that the form still gets submitted normally. It appears that, under Firefox, if you remove a submit button from within the click event it puts the form in an invalid state so that any future calls to form.submit() are simply ignored. But it is a javascript-specific issue as normal submit buttons within this form still function fine. To be honest, this is such a simple example of this issue that I was expecting the internet to be awash with other people exeriencing it, but so far searching has yealded nothing useful. Has anyone else experienced this and if so, did you get to the bottom of it? Many thanks

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  • Setting up multiple channel types (AMF/AMFX) for Flex/BlazeDs

    - by Fergal
    We've configured our Flex client to have two channels for calling our services via BlazeDS. One channel is configured to use AMFChannel and the other for HTTPChannel. Here's the services-config.xml <channel-definition id="my-amf" class="mx.messaging.channels.AMFChannel"> <endpoint url="http://{server.name}:{server.port}/{context.root}/data/messagebroker/amf" class="flex.messaging.endpoints.AMFEndpoint" /> <properties> <polling-enabled>false</polling-enabled> </properties> </channel-definition> <channel-definition id="my-amfx" class="mx.messaging.channels.HTTPChannel"> <endpoint url="http://{server.name}:{server.port}/{context.root}/data/messagebroker/amfx" class="flex.messaging.endpoints.HTTPEndpoint" /> <properties> <polling-enabled>false</polling-enabled> </properties> </channel-definition> Our flex client is written to use either AMF or AMFX depending on how we configure it. The problem is that although the client can switch between channels it sends an AMF binary payload when attempting to call services via AMFX (expecting XML). The funny thing is that we can write services-config.xml to use either AMF or AMFX individually but Flex doesn't seem to want to let us use both. Is this a bug in Flex? If not how can we get it to use the correct protocol?

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  • .NET projects build automation with NAnt/MSBuild + SVN

    - by petr k.
    Hi everyone, for quite a while now, I've been trying to figure out how to setup an automated build process at our shop. I've read many posts and guides on this matter and none of them really fits my specifics needs. My SVN repository is laid out as follows \projects \projectA (a product) \tags \1.0.0.1 \1.0.0.2 ... \trunk \src \proj1 (a VS C# project) \proj2 \documentation Then I have a network share, with a folder for each project (product), which in turn contains the binaries, written documentation and the generated API documentation (via NDoc - each project may have an .ndoc file in the repository) for every historical version (from the tags SVN folder) and for the latest version as well (from the trunk). Basically, what I want to do in a scheduled batch build are these steps: examine the project's SVN folder and identify tags not present in the network share for each of these tags check out the tag folder build (with Release config) copy the resulting binaries to the network share search for .ndoc files generate CHM files via NDoc copy the resulting CHM files to the network share do the same as in 2., but for the HEAD revision of trunk Now, the trouble is, I have no idea where to start. I do not keep .sln files in the repository, but I am able to replace these with MSBuild files which in turn build the C# projects belonging to the specific product. I guess the most troubling part is the examination of the repository for tags which have not been processed yet - i.e. searching the tags and comparing them to a project's directory structure on the network share. I have no idea how to do that in any of the build tools (NAnt, MSBuild). Could you please provide me with some pointers on how to approach this task as a whole and in detail as well? I do not care if I use NAnt, MSBuild, or both. I am aware that this might be rather complex, but every idea and NAnt/MSBuild snippet will be a great help. Thanks in advance.

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  • Converting PDF to images using ImageMagick.NET - how to set the DPI

    - by Avi Pinto
    Hi, I'm trying to convert pdf files to images. ImageMagick is a great tool, and using the command line tool gets me desired result. but i need to do this in my code, So added a reference to http://imagemagick.codeplex.com/ And the following code sample renders each page of the pdf as an image: MagickNet.InitializeMagick(); using (ImageList im = new ImageList()) { im.ReadImages(@"E:\Test\" + fileName + ".pdf"); int count = 0; foreach (Image image in im) { image.Quality = 100; image.CompressType = mageMagickNET.CompressionType.LosslessJPEGCompression; image.Write(@"E:\Test\" + fileName + "-" + count.ToString() + ".jpg"); ++count; } } The problem: IT LOOKS LIKE CRAP the rendered image is hardly readable. the problem i realized is it uses the default 72 DPI of ImageMagick. and i can't find a way to set it(96dpi or 120dpi gives good results) via the .Net wrapper. Am I missing something , or there is really no way to set it via this wrapper? Thanks

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  • UITableViewController not redrawing new cell text label after popViewControllerAnimated

    - by crunchyt
    I have a problemetic UITableViewController fails to redraw an updated cell after a child view is removed. Here's what's happening. After changing data in a child view, the parent view controller reloads the source data array and runs [tableView reloadData] via a PostNotification. After this triggers, I use popViewControllerAnimated to return to the parent UITableViewController (this pops the child view off the stack, and reveals the controller one level up). However, my updated data does not appear in the parent view controller! According to the debugger, the cell's label has been updated, but the visible label does not change. However, if I scroll-flick the table, momentarily moving the updated cell out of view, when it reappears the label is updated! I also try calling [tableView reloadData] via viewWillAppear but the issue still persists. Here is some additional info that may be helpful. I have a 3 views structured like this: 1/ SettingsViewController : UITableViewController 2/ -- UserView : UITableViewController 3/ ---- UserDetailsView : UIViewController <UIActionSheetDelegate> I am calling UserDetailsView from inside UserView as follows: UserDetailsView *userDetailsView = [[UserDetailsView alloc] init]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:userDetailsView animated:YES]; If I return to the top-most controller (SettingsViewController) and then load the problematic controller (UserView), everything is drawn correctly. It is only when returning from a child view that this issue occurs. Thank you in advance for your suggestions.

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  • Implementation review for a MVC.NET app with custom membership

    - by mrjoltcola
    I'd like to hear if anyone sees any problems with how I implemented the security in this Oracle based MVC.NET app, either security issues, concurrency issues or scalability issues. First, I implemented a CustomOracleMembershipProvider to handle the database interface to the membership store. I implemented a custom Principal named User which implements IPrincipal, and it has a hashtable of Roles. I also created a separate class named AuthCache which has a simple cache for User objects. Its purpose is simple to avoid return trips to the database, while decoupling the caching from either the web layer or the data layer. (So I can share the cache between MVC.NET, WCF, etc.) The MVC.NET stock MembershipService uses the CustomOracleMembershipProvider (configured in web.config), and both MembershipService and FormsService share access to the singleton AuthCache. My AccountController.LogOn() method: 1) Validates the user via the MembershipService.Validate() method, also loads the roles into the User.Roles container and then caches the User in AuthCache. 2) Signs the user into the Web context via FormsService.SignIn() which accesses the AuthCache (not the database) to get the User, sets HttpContext.Current.User to the cached User Principal. In global.asax.cs, Application_AuthenticateRequest() is implemented. It decrypts the FormsAuthenticationTicket, accesses the AuthCache by the ticket.Name (Username) and sets the Principal by setting Context.User = user from the AuthCache. So in short, all these classes share the AuthCache, and I have, for thread synchronization, a lock() in the cache store method. No lock in the read method. The custom membership provider doesn't know about the cache, the MembershipService doesn't know about any HttpContext (so could be used outside of a web app), and the FormsService doesn't use any custom methods besides accessing the AuthCache to set the Context.User for the initial login, so it isn't dependent on a specific membership provider. The main thing I see now is that the AuthCache will be sharing a User object if a user logs in from multiple sessions. So I may have to change the key from just UserId to something else (maybe using something in the FormsAuthenticationTicket for the key?).

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  • Referencing .NET Assembly in VB6 won't work

    - by dretzlaff17
    I wrote a .net assembly using c# to perform functions that will be used by both managed and unmanaged code. I have a VB6 project that now needs to use the assembly via COM. I created my .net assembly, made sure that ComVisible is set to true and that it is registered for COM interop via project properties. public class MyClass [ComVisible(true)] public string GetResponse() { return "Testing Response" } } I build the assembly and copied the file into a folder. TestInterop.dll I then run a batch file to register the assembly tool to register the object for COM. cd C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v4.0.30319\ regasm "c:\Program Files\TestApp\TestInterop.dll" /tlb:TestInterop.tlb I open a new VB6 application and reference TestInterop.dll In VB6 I write the following code and it compiles. Dim obj as TestInterop.MyClass Set obj = new TestInterop.MyClass Dim strTest as string strTest = obj.GetRespose() When I run the program it errors on the obj.GetResponse() line. Run-time error' -2147024894 (80070002'): Automation error The system cannot find the file specified Also, the intellesense does not work on obj. I had to type the GetResponse method. Is this normal? Does anyone have any clue what could be wrong or what steps I missed. Thanks!

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  • ASP MVC Ajax Controller pattern?

    - by Kevin Won
    My MVC app tends to have a lot of ajax calls (via JQuery.get()). It's sort of bugging me that my controller is littered with many tiny methods that get called via ajax. It seems to me to be sort of breaking the MVC pattern a bit--the controller is now being more of a data access component then a URI router. I refactored so that I have my 'true' controller for a page just performing standard routing responses (returing ActionResponse objects). So a call to /home/ will obviously kick up the HomeController class that will respond in the canonical controller fashion by returning a plain-jane View. I then moved my ajax stuff into a new controller class whose name I'm prefacing with 'Ajax'. So, for example, my page might have three different sections of functionality (say shopping cart or user account). I have an ajax controller for each of these (AjaxCartController, AjaxAccountController). There is really nothing different about moving the ajax call stuff into its own class--it's just to keep things cleaner. on client side obviously the JQuery would then use this new controller thusly: //jquery pseudocode call to specific controller that just handles ajax calls $.get('AjaxAccount/Details'.... (1) is there a better pattern in MVC for responding to ajax calls? (2) It seems to me that the MVC model is a bit leaky when it comes to ajax--it's not really 'controlling' stuff. It just happens to be the best and least painful way of handling ajax calls (or am I ignorant)? In other words, the 'Controller' abstraction doesn't seem to play nice with Ajax (at least from a patterns perspective). Is there something I'm missing?

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  • C# Communication between threads.

    - by GT
    Hi, I am using .NET 3.5 and am trying to wrap my head around a problem (not being a supreme threading expert bear with me). I have a windows service which has a very intensive process that is always running, I have put this process onto a separate thread so that the main thread of my service can handle operational tasks - i.e., service audit cycles, handling configuration changes, etc, etc. I'm starting the thread via the typical ThreadStart to a method which kicks the process off - call it workerthread. On this workerthread I am sending data to another server, as is expected the server reboots every now and again and connection is lost and I need to re-establish the connection (I am notified by the lost of connection via an event). From here I do my reconnect logic and I am back in and running, however what I easily started to notice to happen was that I was creating this worker thread over and over again each time (not what I want). Now I could kill the workerthread when I lose the connection and start a new one but this seems like a waste of resources. What I really want to do, is marshal the call (i.e., my thread start method) back to the thread that is still in memory although not doing anything. Please post any examples or docs you have that would be of use. Thanks.

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  • How do I pass a lot of parameters to views in Django?

    - by Mark
    I'm very new to Django and I'm trying to build an application to present my data in tables and charts. Till now my learning process went very smooth, but now I'm a bit stuck. My pageview retrieves large amounts of data from a database and puts it in the context. The template then generates different html-tables. So far so good. Now I want to add different charts to the template. I manage to do this by defining <img src=".../> tags. The Matplotlib chart is generate in my chartview an returned via: response=HttpResponse(content_type='image/png') canvas.print_png(response) return response Now I have different questions: the data is retrieved twice from the database. Once in the pageview to render the tables, and again in the chartview for making the charts. What is the best way to pass the data, already in the context of the page to the chartview? I need a lot of charts, each with different datasets. I could make a chartview for each chart, but probably there is a better way. How do I pass the different dataset names to the chartview? Some charts have 20 datasets, so I don't think that passing these dataset parameters via the url (like: <imgm src="chart/dataset1/dataset2/.../dataset20/chart.png />) is the right way. Any advice?

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  • RIA Services: Inserting multiple presentation-model objects

    - by nlawalker
    I'm sharing data via RIA services using a presentation model on top of LINQ to SQL classes. On the Silverlight client, I created a couple of new entities (album and artist), associated them with each other (by either adding the album to the artist's album collection, or setting the Artist property on the album - either one works), added them to the context, and submitted changes. On the server, I get two separate Insert calls - one for the album and one for the artist. These entitites are new so their ID values are both set to the default int value (0 - keep in mind that depending on my DB, this could be a valid ID in the DB) because as far as I know you don't set IDs for new entities on the client. This all would work fine if I was transferring the LINQ to SQL classes via my RIA services, because even though the Album insert includes the Artist and the Artist insert includes the Album, both are Entities and the L2S context recognizes them. However, with my custom presentation model objects, I need to convert them back to the LINQ to SQL classes maintaining the associations in the process so they can be added to the L2S context. Put simply, as far as I can tell, this is impossible. Each entity gets its own Insert call, but there's no way you can just insert the one entity because without IDs the associations are lost. If the database used GUID identifiers it would be a different story because I could set those on the client. Is this possible, or should I be pursuing another design?

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