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• MSBuild condition across projects

  - by Billy Talented

  I have tried several solutions for this problem. Enough to know I do not know enough about MSBuild to do this elegantly but I feel like there should be a method. I have a set of libraries for working with .net projects. A few of the projects utilize System.Web.Mvc - which recently released Version 2 - and we are looking forward to the upgrade. Currently sites which reference this library reference it directly by the project(csproj) on the developer's computer - not a built version of the library so that changes and source code case easily be viewed when dealing code from this library. This works quite well and would prefer to not have to switch to binary references (but will if this is the only solution). The problem I have is that because of some of the functionality that was added onto the MVC1 based library (view engines, model binders etc) several of the sites reliant on these libraries need to stay on MVC1 until we have full evaluated and tested them on MVC2. I would prefer to not have to fork or have two copies on each dev machine. So what I would like to be able to do is set a property group value in the referencing web application and have this read by the above mentions library with the caviat that when working directly on the library via its containing solution I would like to be able to control this via Configuration Manager by selecting a build type and that property overriding the build behavior of the solution (i.e. 'Debug - MVC1' vs 'Debug -MVC2') - I have this working via: <Choose> <When Condition=" '$(Configuration)|$(Platform)' == 'Release - MVC2|AnyCPU' Or '$(Configuration)|$(Platform)' == 'Debug - MVC2|AnyCPU'"> <ItemGroup> <Reference Include="System.Web.Mvc, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35, processorArchitecture=MSIL"> </Reference> <Reference Include="Microsoft.Web.Mvc, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, processorArchitecture=MSIL"> <SpecificVersion>False</SpecificVersion> <HintPath>..\Dependancies\Web\MVC2\Microsoft.Web.Mvc.dll</HintPath> </Reference> </ItemGroup> </When> <Otherwise> <ItemGroup> <Reference Include="System.Web.Mvc, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35, processorArchitecture=MSIL"> <SpecificVersion>False</SpecificVersion> <HintPath>..\Dependancies\Web\MVC\System.Web.Mvc.dll</HintPath> </Reference> </ItemGroup> </Otherwise> The item that I am struggling with is the cross solution issue(solution TheWebsite references this project and needs to control which build property to use) that I have not found a way to work with that I think is a solid solution that enabled the build within visual studio to work as it has to date. Other bits: we are using VS2008, Resharper, TeamCity for CI, SVN for source control.

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• Pass MSBuild condition to library project

  - by Billy Talented

  I have tried several solutions for this problem. Enough to know I do not know enough about MSBuild to do this elegantly but I feel like there should be a method. I have a set of libraries for working with .net projects. A few of the projects utilize System.Web.Mvc - which recently released Version 2 - and we are looking forward to the upgrade. Currently sites which reference this library reference it directly by the project(csproj) on the developer's computer - not a built version of the library so that changes and source code case easily be viewed when dealing code from this library. This works quite well and would prefer to not have to switch to binary references (but will if this is the only solution). The problem I have is that because of some of the functionality that was added onto the MVC1 based library (view engines, model binders etc) several of the sites reliant on these libraries need to stay on MVC1 until we have full evaluated and tested them on MVC2. I would prefer to not have to fork or have two copies on each dev machine. So what I would like to be able to do is set a property group value in the referencing web application and have this read by the above mentions library with the caviat that when working directly on the library via its containing solution I would like to be able to control this via Configuration Manager by selecting a build type and that property overriding the build behavior of the solution (i.e. 'Debug - MVC1' vs 'Debug -MVC2') - I have this working via: <Choose> <When Condition=" '$(Configuration)|$(Platform)' == 'Release - MVC2|AnyCPU' Or '$(Configuration)|$(Platform)' == 'Debug - MVC2|AnyCPU'"> <ItemGroup> <Reference Include="System.Web.Mvc, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35, processorArchitecture=MSIL"> </Reference> <Reference Include="Microsoft.Web.Mvc, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, processorArchitecture=MSIL"> <SpecificVersion>False</SpecificVersion> <HintPath>..\Dependancies\Web\MVC2\Microsoft.Web.Mvc.dll</HintPath> </Reference> </ItemGroup> </When> <Otherwise> <ItemGroup> <Reference Include="System.Web.Mvc, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35, processorArchitecture=MSIL"> <SpecificVersion>False</SpecificVersion> <HintPath>..\Dependancies\Web\MVC\System.Web.Mvc.dll</HintPath> </Reference> </ItemGroup> </Otherwise> The item that I am struggling with is the cross solution issue(solution TheWebsite references this project and needs to control which build property to use) that I have not found a way to work with that I think is a solid solution that enabled the build within visual studio to work as it has to date. Other bits: we are using VS2008, Resharper, TeamCity for CI, SVN for source control.

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• How do I use constructor dependency injection to supply Models from a collection to their ViewModels

  - by GraemeF

  I'm using constructor dependency injection in my WPF application and I keep running into the following pattern, so would like to get other people's opinion on it and hear about alternative solutions. The goal is to wire up a hierarchy of ViewModels to a similar hierarchy of Models, so that the responsibility for presenting the information in each model lies with its own ViewModel implementation. (The pattern also crops up under other circumstances but MVVM should make for a good example.) Here's a simplified example. Given that I have a model that has a collection of further models: public interface IPerson { IEnumerable<IAddress> Addresses { get; } } public interface IAddress { } I would like to mirror this hierarchy in the ViewModels so that I can bind a ListBox (or whatever) to a collection in the Person ViewModel: public interface IPersonViewModel { ObservableCollection<IAddressViewModel> Addresses { get; } void Initialize(); } public interface IAddressViewModel { } The child ViewModel needs to present the information from the child Model, so it's injected via the constructor: public class AddressViewModel : IAddressViewModel { private readonly IAddress _address; public AddressViewModel(IAddress address) { _address = address; } } The question is, what is the best way to supply the child Model to the corresponding child ViewModel? The example is trivial, but in a typical real case the ViewModels have more dependencies - each of which has its own dependencies (and so on). I'm using Unity 1.2 (although I think the question is relevant across the other IoC containers), and I am using Caliburn's view strategies to automatically find and wire up the appropriate View to a ViewModel. Here is my current solution: The parent ViewModel needs to create a child ViewModel for each child Model, so it has a factory method added to its constructor which it uses during initialization: public class PersonViewModel : IPersonViewModel { private readonly Func<IAddress, IAddressViewModel> _addressViewModelFactory; private readonly IPerson _person; public PersonViewModel(IPerson person, Func<IAddress, IAddressViewModel> addressViewModelFactory) { _addressViewModelFactory = addressViewModelFactory; _person = person; Addresses = new ObservableCollection<IAddressViewModel>(); } public ObservableCollection<IAddressViewModel> Addresses { get; private set; } public void Initialize() { foreach (IAddress address in _person.Addresses) Addresses.Add(_addressViewModelFactory(address)); } } A factory method that satisfies the Func<IAddress, IAddressViewModel> interface is registered with the main UnityContainer. The factory method uses a child container to register the IAddress dependency that is required by the ViewModel and then resolves the child ViewModel: public class Factory { private readonly IUnityContainer _container; public Factory(IUnityContainer container) { _container = container; } public void RegisterStuff() { _container.RegisterInstance<Func<IAddress, IAddressViewModel>>(CreateAddressViewModel); } private IAddressViewModel CreateAddressViewModel(IAddress model) { IUnityContainer childContainer = _container.CreateChildContainer(); childContainer.RegisterInstance(model); return childContainer.Resolve<IAddressViewModel>(); } } Now, when the PersonViewModel is initialized, it loops through each Address in the Model and calls CreateAddressViewModel() (which was injected via the Func<IAddress, IAddressViewModel> argument). CreateAddressViewModel() creates a temporary child container and registers the IAddress model so that when it resolves the IAddressViewModel from the child container the AddressViewModel gets the correct instance injected via its constructor. This seems to be a good solution to me as the dependencies of the ViewModels are very clear and they are easily testable and unaware of the IoC container. On the other hand, performance is OK but not great as a lot of temporary child containers can be created. Also I end up with a lot of very similar factory methods. Is this the best way to inject the child Models into the child ViewModels with Unity? Is there a better (or faster) way to do it in other IoC containers, e.g. Autofac? How would this problem be tackled with MEF, given that it is not a traditional IoC container but is still used to compose objects?

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• How do I get through proxy server environments for non-standard services?

  - by Ripred

  I'm not real hip on exactly what role(s) today's proxy servers can play and I'm learning so go easy on me :-) I have a client/server system I have written using a homegrown protocol and need to enhance the client side to negotiate its way out of a proxy environment. I have an existing client and server system written in C and C++ for the speed and a small amount of MFC in the client to handle the user interface. I have written both the server and client side of the system on Windows (the people I work for are mainly web developers using Windows everything - not a choice) sticking to Berkeley Sockets as it were via wsock32 for efficiency. The clients connect to the server through a nonstandard port (even though using port 80 is an option to get out of some environments but the protocol that goes over it isn't HTTP). The TCP connection(s) stay open for the duration of the clients participation in real time conferences. Our customer base is expanding to all kinds of networked environments. I have been able to solve a lot of problems by adding the ability to connect securely over port 443 and using secure sockets which allows the protocol to pass through a lot environments since the internal packets can't be sniffed. But more and more of our customers are behind a proxy server environment and my direct connections don't make it through. My old school understanding of proxy servers is that they act as a proxy for external HTML content over HTTP, possibly locally caching popular material for faster local access, and also allowing their IT staff to blacklist certain destination sites. Customer are complaining that my software doesn't recognize and easily navigate its way through their proxy environments but I'm finding it difficult to decide what my "best fit" solution should be. My software doesn't tear down the connection after each client request, and on top of that packets can come from either side at any time, basically your typical custom client/server system for a specific niche. My first reaction is "why can't they just add my servers addresses to their white list" but if there is a programmatic way I can get through without requiring their IT staff to help it is politically better and arguably a better solution anyway. Plus maybe I'm still not understanding the role and purpose of what proxy servers and environments have grown to be these days. My first attempt at a solution was to use WinInet with its various proxy capabilities to establish a connection over port 80 to my non-standard protocol server (which knows enough to recognize and answer a simple HTTP-looking GET request and answer it with a simple HTTP response page to get around some environments that employ initial packet sniffing (DPI)). I retrieved the actual SOCKET handle behind WinInet's HINTERNET request object and had hoped to use that in place of my software's existing SOCKET connection and hopefully not need to change much more on the client side. It initially seemed to be my solution but on further inspection it seems that the OS gets first-chance at the received data on this socket since when I get notified of events via the standard select(...) statement on the socket and query the size of the data available via ioctlsocket the call succeeds but returns 0 bytes available, the reads don't work and it goes downhill from there. Can someone tell me of a client-side library (commercial is fine) will let me get past these proxy server environments with as little user and IT staff help as possible? From what I read it has grown past SOCKS and I figure someone has to have solved this problem before me. Thanks for reading my long-winded question, Ripred

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• php, mySQL & AJAX: Unable to use sessions across the scripts in the same domain

  - by Devner

  Hi all, I have the following pages: page1.php, page2.php and page3.php. Code in each of them is as below CODE: page1.php <script type="text/javascript"> $(function(){ $('#imgID').upload({ submit_to_url: "page2.php", file_name: 'myfile1', description : "Image", limit : 1, file_types : "*.jpg", }) }); </script> <body> <form action="page3.php" method="post" enctype="multipart/form-data" name="frm1" id="frm1"> //Some other text fields <input type="submit" name="submit" id="submit" value="Submit" /> </form> </body> page2.php <?php session_start(); $a = $_SESSION['a']; $b = $_SESSION['b']; $c = $_SESSION['c']; $res = mysql_query("SELECT col FROM table WHERE col1 = $a AND col2 = $b AND col3 = $c LIMIT 1"); $num_rows = mysql_num_rows($res); echo $num_rows; //echos 0 when in fact it should have been 1 because the data in the Session exists. //Ok let's proceed further //... Do some stuff... //Store some more values and create new session variables (and assume that page1.php is going to be able to use it) $_SESSION['d'] = 'd'; $_SESSION['e'] = 'e'; $_SESSION['f'] = 'f'; if (move_uploaded_file($_FILES['file']['tmp_name'], $file)) { echo "success"; } else { echo "error ".$_FILES['file']['error']; } ?> page3.php <?php session_start(); if( isset($_POST['submit']) ) { //These sessions are non-existent although the AJAX request //to page2.php may have created them when called via AJAX from within page1.php echo $_SESSION['d'].$_SESSION['e'].$_SESSION['f']; ?> } ?> As the code says it I am posting some info via AJAX call from page1.php to page2.php. page2.php is supposed to be able to use the session values from page1.php i.e. $_SESSION['a'], $_SESSION['b'] and $_SESSION['c'] but it does not. Why? How can I fix this? page2.php is creating some more sessions after some processing is done and a response is sent back to page1.php. The submit button of the form on page1.php is hit and the page gets POST'ed to page3.php. But when the SESSION info that gets created in page2.php is echoed, it's blank signifying that SESSIONS from page2.php are not used. How can I fix this? I looked over a lot of information and have spent about 50 hours trying to do different things with my scripts before arriving at the above conclusions. My app. is custom made using function (not OOPS) and does not use any PHP frameworks & I am not even about to use any as my knowledge of OOP concepts is limited any many frameworks are object oriented. I came across race conditions, but the solutions provided don't help too much. One more solution of using DB to hold sessions and seek and retrieve from DB is the last thing on my mind and I really want to avoid creating table, coding and maintaining code for a task as simple as just keeping sessions across pages in the same domain. So my request is: Is there a way that I can solve the above problem(s) via simple coding in present conditions? Any help is appreciated. Thank you.

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• How do I solve "Two different CRTLDLLs are loaded" when using packages in C++ Builder 2010?

  - by David M

  Hi, We are trying to split up our monolithic EXE into a combination of an EXE and several packages. So far, we have one package that we're trying to use, and when running the EXE Codeguard shows the following error on startup: CG Error Two different CRTLDLLs are loaded. CG might report false errors (C:\Windows\system32\CC32100MT.DLL) (D:\Projects\Foo\Bar.bpl) OK I read this as two different runtime libraries being loaded - one, the correct one (CC32100MT.dll), one incorrect, which is the package we're trying to use. Continuing to run the program shows odd errors, especially casting between classes or passing a pointer to a class as a parameter in a method that crosses the EXE/DLL boundary. Codeguard itself doesn't show any other errors at all though. How do we solve this? Some more details We've looked at as many things as we (the developer working on this and I) can collectively think of: Each project is built using runtime packages. The EXE host lists Bar in its package list. Each project is set to compile with dynamic RTL. However, changing this does not solve the problem. The package is linked to the EXE via its BPI file, but linking via a LIB makes no difference either. The EXE and BPL are compiled with the same project settings, where the same options exist for both types of project. We think, anyway :) There is only one copy of the BPL and BPI on the system: it's definitely linking to the right one. Examining the EXE and BPL with Depends and TDump show they are both using C:\Windows\system32\CC32100MT.DLL. They should both be using the one RTL. Creating a new project (a plain VCL forms application) and linking to the BPL (via its BPI) works fine. Something in the process of adding all the files and LIBs that make our EXE contain the code it needs to changes this, but we haven't been able to figure out what. The LIBs all either correspond to DLLs we use (flat C interface, usually look as though they were built with MSVC) or are simple projects with lots of related files, compiled to a lib for the purpose of linking into the EXE - these correspond roughly to the areas of the program we want to split to BPLs, by the way. There don't seem to be project options for the LIB projects that would affect RTL linking, unless we've missed them. I have exhaustively hunted through Depends and looked at all RTL and CC32*.dll files the EXE and every single DLL references. All are identical: rtl140.bpl and CC32100MT.DLL. Fully qualified paths show they are the same files, too. Everything should be using the one same run-time library. We're stumped. Absolutely stumped. We've had other problems using BPLs (they seem to be surprisingly tricky things, especially using C++) but have managed to solve them all. This one we've had no luck at all and we'd really appreciate any insights :) We're using C++Builder 2010 (as part of RAD Studio actually, but with little Delphi code apart from components.)

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• window.requestFileSystem fails/events firing multiple times in PhoneGap Cordova 3

  - by ezycheez

  cordova 3.1.0-0.2.0 Droid Razr M Android 4.1.2 Windows 7 New to PhoneGap/Cordova. Running one of the filesystem demos from http://docs.phonegap.com/en/3.1.0/cordova_file_file.md.html#File. Using "cordova run android" to compile the code and run it on the phone attached via USB. Problem #1: When the app first starts I get alert("1") twice and then nothing else. Problem #2: When I kick of the code via the button onclick I get the following alert pattern: 1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 4, 6, 5, 7, 4, 6, 5, 7. Some of that makes sense based on the code flow but most of them are firing twice. I'm suspecting problem #2 is being caused by some asynchronous calls hanging out from the first attempt but no matter how long I wait those events don't fire until I kick of the code via the button. So why is the requestFileSystem call failing even though it is waiting for deviceready and why is the other code getting intermingled? Any thoughts are appreciated. <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <title>FileReader Example</title> <script type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8" src="cordova.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8"> // Wait for device API libraries to load // document.addEventListener("deviceready", onDeviceReady, false); // device APIs are available // function onDeviceReady() { alert("1"); window.requestFileSystem(LocalFileSystem.PERSISTENT, 0, gotFS, fail); } function gotFS(fileSystem) { alert("2"); fileSystem.root.getFile("readme.txt", null, gotFileEntry, fail); } function gotFileEntry(fileEntry) { alert("3"); fileEntry.file(gotFile, fail); } function gotFile(file) { alert("4"); readDataUrl(file); alert("5"); readAsText(file); } function readDataUrl(file) { alert("6"); var reader = new FileReader(); reader.onloadend = function (evt) { console.log("Read as data URL"); console.log(evt.target.result); }; reader.readAsDataURL(file); } function readAsText(file) { alert("7"); var reader = new FileReader(); reader.onloadend = function (evt) { console.log("Read as text"); console.log(evt.target.result); }; reader.readAsText(file); } function fail(error) { alert("8"); console.log(error.code); } </script> </head> <body> <h1>Example</h1> <p>Read File</p> <button onclick="onDeviceReady();">Read File</button> </body> </html>

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• IOException during blocking network NIO in JDK 1.7

  - by Bass

  I'm just learning NIO, and here's the short example I've written to test how a blocking NIO can be interrupted: class TestBlockingNio { private static final boolean INTERRUPT_VIA_THREAD_INTERRUPT = true; /** * Prevent the socket from being GC'ed */ static Socket socket; private static SocketChannel connect(final int port) { while (true) { try { final SocketChannel channel = SocketChannel.open(new InetSocketAddress(port)); channel.configureBlocking(true); return channel; } catch (final IOException ioe) { try { Thread.sleep(1000); } catch (final InterruptedException ie) { } continue; } } } private static byte[] newBuffer(final int length) { final byte buffer[] = new byte[length]; for (int i = 0; i < length; i++) { buffer[i] = (byte) 'A'; } return buffer; } public static void main(final String args[]) throws IOException, InterruptedException { final int portNumber = 10000; new Thread("Reader") { public void run() { try { final ServerSocket serverSocket = new ServerSocket(portNumber); socket = serverSocket.accept(); /* * Fully ignore any input from the socket */ } catch (final IOException ioe) { ioe.printStackTrace(); } } }.start(); final SocketChannel channel = connect(portNumber); final Thread main = Thread.currentThread(); final Thread interruptor = new Thread("Inerruptor") { public void run() { System.out.println("Press Enter to interrupt I/O "); while (true) { try { System.in.read(); } catch (final IOException ioe) { ioe.printStackTrace(); } System.out.println("Interrupting..."); if (INTERRUPT_VIA_THREAD_INTERRUPT) { main.interrupt(); } else { try { channel.close(); } catch (final IOException ioe) { System.out.println(ioe.getMessage()); } } } } }; interruptor.setDaemon(true); interruptor.start(); final ByteBuffer buffer = ByteBuffer.allocate(32768); int i = 0; try { while (true) { buffer.clear(); buffer.put(newBuffer(buffer.capacity())); buffer.flip(); channel.write(buffer); System.out.print('X'); if (++i % 80 == 0) { System.out.println(); Thread.sleep(100); } } } catch (final ClosedByInterruptException cbie) { System.out.println("Closed via Thread.interrupt()"); } catch (final AsynchronousCloseException ace) { System.out.println("Closed via Channel.close()"); } } } In the above example, I'm writing to a SocketChannel, but noone is reading from the other side, so eventually the write operation hangs. This example works great when run by JDK-1.6, with the following output: Press Enter to interrupt I/O XXXX Interrupting... Closed via Thread.interrupt() — meaning that only 128k of data was written to the TCP socket's buffer. When run by JDK-1.7 (1.7.0_25-b15 and 1.7.0-u40-b37), however, the very same code bails out with an IOException: Press Enter to interrupt I/O XXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXX XXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXX XXXXXXXXXXX Exception in thread "main" java.io.IOException: Broken pipe at sun.nio.ch.FileDispatcherImpl.write0(Native Method) at sun.nio.ch.SocketDispatcher.write(SocketDispatcher.java:47) at sun.nio.ch.IOUtil.writeFromNativeBuffer(IOUtil.java:93) at sun.nio.ch.IOUtil.write(IOUtil.java:65) at sun.nio.ch.SocketChannelImpl.write(SocketChannelImpl.java:487) at com.example.TestBlockingNio.main(TestBlockingNio.java:109) Can anyone explain this different behaviour?

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• Wordpress blog with Joomla?

  - by user427902

  Hi, I had this Wordpress installation which was installed in a subfolder (not root). Like http: //server/blog/. Now, I installed Joomla on the root (http: //server/). Everything seems to be working fine with the Joomla part. However, the blog part is messed up. If I try to browse the homepage of my blog which is http: //server/blog/ it works like a charm. But while trying to view individual blog pages like say, http: //server/blog/some_category/some_post I get a Joomla 404 page. So, I was wondering if it was possible to use both Wordpress and Joomla in the same server in the setup I am trying to. Let me clarify that I am NOT looking to integrate user login and other such things. I just want the blog to be functional under a subfolder while I run the Joomla site in the root. So, what is the correct way to go about it. Can this be solved by any .config edits or something else? Edit: Here's the .htaccess for Joomla ... (I can't find any .htaccess for Wp though, still looking for it.) ## # @version $Id: htaccess.txt 14401 2010-01-26 14:10:00Z louis $ # @package Joomla # @copyright Copyright (C) 2005 - 2010 Open Source Matters. All rights reserved. # @license http://www.gnu.org/copyleft/gpl.html GNU/GPL # Joomla! is Free Software ## ##################################################### # READ THIS COMPLETELY IF YOU CHOOSE TO USE THIS FILE # # The line just below this section: 'Options +FollowSymLinks' may cause problems # with some server configurations. It is required for use of mod_rewrite, but may already # be set by your server administrator in a way that dissallows changing it in # your .htaccess file. If using it causes your server to error out, comment it out (add # to # beginning of line), reload your site in your browser and test your sef url's. If they work, # it has been set by your server administrator and you do not need it set here. # ##################################################### ## Can be commented out if causes errors, see notes above. Options +FollowSymLinks # # mod_rewrite in use RewriteEngine On ########## Begin - Rewrite rules to block out some common exploits ## If you experience problems on your site block out the operations listed below ## This attempts to block the most common type of exploit `attempts` to Joomla! # ## Deny access to extension xml files (uncomment out to activate) #<Files ~ "\.xml$"> #Order allow,deny #Deny from all #Satisfy all #</Files> ## End of deny access to extension xml files RewriteCond %{QUERY_STRING} mosConfig_[a-zA-Z_]{1,21}(=|\%3D) [OR] # Block out any script trying to base64_encode crap to send via URL RewriteCond %{QUERY_STRING} base64_encode.*\(.*\) [OR] # Block out any script that includes a <script> tag in URL RewriteCond %{QUERY_STRING} (\<|%3C).*script.*(\>|%3E) [NC,OR] # Block out any script trying to set a PHP GLOBALS variable via URL RewriteCond %{QUERY_STRING} GLOBALS(=|\[|\%[0-9A-Z]{0,2}) [OR] # Block out any script trying to modify a _REQUEST variable via URL RewriteCond %{QUERY_STRING} _REQUEST(=|\[|\%[0-9A-Z]{0,2}) # Send all blocked request to homepage with 403 Forbidden error! RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.php [F,L] # ########## End - Rewrite rules to block out some common exploits # Uncomment following line if your webserver's URL # is not directly related to physical file paths. # Update Your Joomla! Directory (just / for root) # RewriteBase / ########## Begin - Joomla! core SEF Section # RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/index.php RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} (/|\.php|\.html|\.htm|\.feed|\.pdf|\.raw|/[^.]*)$ [NC] RewriteRule (.*) index.php RewriteRule .* - [E=HTTP_AUTHORIZATION:%{HTTP:Authorization},L] # ########## End - Joomla! core SEF Section

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• Extending JavaScript's Date.parse to allow for DD/MM/YYYY (non-US formatted dates)?

  - by Campbeln

  I've come up with this solution to extending JavaScript's Date.parse function to allow for dates formatted in DD/MM/YYYY (rather then the American standard [and default] MM/DD/YYYY): (function() { var fDateParse = Date.parse; Date.parse = function(sDateString) { var a_sLanguage = ['en','en-us'], a_sMatches = null, sCurrentLanguage, dReturn = null, i ; //#### Traverse the a_sLanguages (as reported by the browser) for (i = 0; i < a_sLanguage.length; i++) { //#### Collect the .toLowerCase'd sCurrentLanguage for this loop sCurrentLanguage = (a_sLanguage[i] + '').toLowerCase(); //#### If this is the first English definition if (sCurrentLanguage.indexOf('en') == 0) { //#### If this is a definition for a non-American based English (meaning dates are "DD MM YYYY") if (sCurrentLanguage.indexOf('en-us') == -1 && // en-us = English (United States) + Palau, Micronesia, Philippians sCurrentLanguage.indexOf('en-ca') == -1 && // en-ca = English (Canada) sCurrentLanguage.indexOf('en-bz') == -1 // en-bz = English (Belize) ) { //#### Setup a oRegEx to locate "## ## ####" (allowing for any sort of delimiter except a '\n') then collect the a_sMatches from the passed sDateString var oRegEx = new RegExp("(([0-9]{2}|[0-9]{1})[^0-9]*?([0-9]{2}|[0-9]{1})[^0-9]*?([0-9]{4}))", "i"); a_sMatches = oRegEx.exec(sDateString); } //#### Fall from the loop (as we've found the first English definition) break; } } //#### If we were able to find a_sMatches for a non-American English "DD MM YYYY" formatted date if (a_sMatches != null) { var oRegEx = new RegExp(a_sMatches[0], "i"); //#### .parse the sDateString via the normal Date.parse function, but replacing the "DD?MM?YYYY" with "YYYY/MM/DD" beforehand //#### NOTE: a_sMatches[0]=[Default]; a_sMatches[1]=DD?MM?YYYY; a_sMatches[2]=DD; a_sMatches[3]=MM; a_sMatches[4]=YYYY dReturn = fDateParse(sDateString.replace(oRegEx, a_sMatches[4] + "/" + a_sMatches[3] + "/" + a_sMatches[2])); } //#### Else .parse the sDateString via the normal Date.parse function else { dReturn = fDateParse(sDateString); } //#### return dReturn; } })(); In my actual (dotNet) code, I'm collecting the a_sLanguage array via: a_sLanguage = '<% Response.Write(Request.ServerVariables["HTTP_ACCEPT_LANGUAGE"]); %>'.split(','); Now, I'm not certain my approach to locating "us-en"/etc. is the most proper. Pretty much it's just the US and current/former US influenced areas (Palau, Micronesia, Philippines) + Belize & Canada that use the funky MM/DD/YYYY format (I am American, so I can call it funky =). So one could rightly argue that if the Locale is not "en-us"/etc. first, then DD/MM/YYYY should be used. Thoughts? As a side note... I "grew up" in PERL but it's been a wee while since I've done much heavy lifting in RegEx. Does that expression look right to everyone? This seems like a lot of work, but based on my research this is indeed about the best way to go about enabling DD/MM/YYYY dates within JavaScript. Is there an easier/more betterer way? PS- Upon re-reading this post just before submission... I've realized that this is more of a "can you code review this" rather then a question (or, an answer is embedded within the question). When I started writing this it was not my intention to end up here =)

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• Why is my emit not getting called?

  - by cRaZiRiCaN

  The client and server connect just fine. For some reason the emit on my client is not firing correctly. I am trying to get the testEmit and testEmit2 working. This is my server: express = require 'express' mongo = require 'mongodb' app = express() server = (require 'http').createServer(app) io = (require 'socket.io').listen(server) server.listen(8080) app.use(express.static(__dirname + '/public')) # db = new mongo.Db("documentsdb", new mongo.Server("localhost", 27017, auto_reconnect: true), {safe:true}) io.sockets.on 'connection', (socket) -> console.log 'Socket.io is connected!' #This returns an array of documents sorted via date by decreasing order. (Most recent documents first.) socket.on 'loadRecentDocuments', -> console.log 'Loading most recent documents.' db.collection 'documents', (err, collection) -> collection.find().sort(dateAdded: -1).toArray (err, documents) -> #This emit is recieved at index.html where a javascript function sendDocuments manages the documents. socket.emit 'sendDocuments', documents return #The index.html provides the code data from the search box via a javascript. io.sockets.on 'findDocuments', (code) -> #Returns an array of documents with the corresponding class code. documentCodeToSearch = code console.log 'Retreaving documents with code: ' + documentCodeToSearch db.collection 'documents', (err, collection) -> collection.find(code:documentCodeToSearch).toArray (err, documents) -> socket.emit 'sendDocuments', documents return #Uploads a document to the server. documentData is sent via javascript from submit.html io.sockets.on 'addDocument', (documentData) -> console.log 'Adding document: ' + documentData db.collection 'documents', (err, collection) -> collection.insert documentData, safe: true return #Test socket.io io.sockets.on 'testEmit', -> console.log('Emit recieved.') socket.emit 'testEmit2', 'caca' return app.listen 1337 console.log "Listening on port 1337..." This is my client: <!doctype HTML> <html> <head> <title>ProjectShare</title> <script src="http://localhost:8080/socket.io/socket.io.js"></script> <script src = "http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.8.2/jquery.min.js"></script> <script> //Make sure DOM is ready before mucking around. $(document).ready(function() { console.log('jQuery entered!'); var socket = io.connect('http://localhost:8080'); socket.emit('testEmit'); socket.on('testEmit2', function(data) { console.log('Emit recieved at browser.'); console.log(data); }); console.log('jQuery exit.'); }); </script> </head> <body> <ol> <li><a href="index.html">ProjectShare</a></li> <li><a href="guidelines.html">Guidelines</a></li> <li><a href="upload.html">Upload</a></li> <li> <form> <input type = "search" placeholder = "enter class code"/> <input type = "submit" value = "Go"/> </form> </li> </ol> <ol id = "documentList"> </ol> </body> </html>

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• Exchange Web Service (EWS) call fails under ASP.NET but not a console application

  - by Vince Panuccio

  I'm getting an error when I attempt to connect to Exchange Web Services via ASP.NET. The following code works if I call it via a console application but the very same code fails when executed on a ASP.NET web forms page. Just as a side note, I am using my own credentials throughout this entire code sample. "When making a request as an account that does not have a mailbox, you must specify the mailbox primary SMTP address for any distinguished folder Ids." I thought I might be able to fix the issue by specifying an impersonated user. exchangeservice.ImpersonatedUserId = new ImpersonatedUserId(ConnectingIdType.SmtpAddress, "[email protected]"); But then I get a different error. "The account does not have permission to impersonate the requested user." The App Pool that the web application is running under is also my own account (same as the console application) so I have no idea what might be causing this issue. I am using .NET framework 3.5. Here is the code in full. var exchangeservice = new ExchangeService(ExchangeVersion.Exchange2010_SP1) { Timeout = 10000 }; var credentials = new System.Net.NetworkCredential("username", "pass", "domain"); exchangeservice.AutodiscoverUrl("[email protected]") FolderId rootFolderId = new FolderId(WellKnownFolderName.Inbox); var folderView = new FolderView(100) { Traversal = FolderTraversal.Shallow }; FindFoldersResults findFoldersResults = service.FindFolders(rootFolderId, folderView);

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• Deleting file with SharePoint List web service fails

  - by Robert MacLean

  I am trying to delete a file from SharePoint using the list web service which is failing with the following error. Error Code: 0x81020030 Message: Invalid file name Detail: The file name you specified could not be used. It may be the name of an existing file or directory, or you may not have permission to access the file. The update XML I sent through is: <Batch OnError="Continue" PreCalc="TRUE" ListVersion="0" ViewName="{8FE4E2C8-939E-4462-ABA2-D633EED7F76E}"><Method ID="1" Cmd="Delete"><Field Name="ID">84</Field><Field Name="FileRef">http://win-4h0xp59sn75:40414/Shared%20Documents/del.txt</Field></Method></Batch> The SharePoint server error logs indicate: ERROR: Failed to OpenThreadToken, LastError=1008 The file you are attempting to save or retrieve has been blocked from this Web site by the server administrators. Things I have tried I've tried the changes in #1372971 which has no helped. I have also tried the changes recommended on the Microsoft Social site, which has also not helped. I have confirmed that the txt file extension is not blocked as indicated here. In addition I can remove the file via the website, it is just on the web service that this fails. The permissions are correct (or rather not in play) as I am running as a SharePoint administrator, which is the same account that uploaded it via the copy web service.

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• ASP.NET MVC tries to load older version of Owin assembly

  - by d_mcg

  As a bit of context, I'm developing an ASP.NET MVC 5 application that uses OAuth-based authentication via Microsoft's OWIN implementation, for Facebook and Google only at this stage. Currently (as of v3.0.0, git-commit 4932c2f), the FacebookAuthenticationOptions and GoogleOAuth2AuthenticationOptions don't provide any property to force Facebook nor Google respectively to reauthenticate users (via appending the appropriate query string parameters) when signing in. Initially, I set out to override the following classes: FacebookAuthenticationOptions GoogleOAuth2AuthenticationOptions FacebookAuthenticationHandler (specifically AuthenticateCoreAsync()) GoogleOAuth2AuthenticationHandler (specifically AuthenticateCoreAsync()) yet discovered that the ~AuthenticationHandler classes are marked as internal. So I pulled a copy of the source for the Katana project (http://katanaproject.codeplex.com/) and modified the source accordingly. After compiling, I found that there are several dependencies that needed updating in order to use these updated assemblies (Microsoft.Owin.Security.Facebook and Microsoft.Owin.Security.Google) in the MVC project: Microsoft.Owin Microsoft.Owin.Security Microsoft.Owin.Security.Cookies Microsoft.Owin.Security.OAuth Microsoft.Owin.Host.SystemWeb This was done by replacing the existing project references to the 3.0.0 versions and updating those in web.config. Good news: the project compiles successfully. In debugging, I received an exception on startup: An exception of type 'System.IO.FileLoadException' occurred in [MVC web assembly].dll but was not handled in user code Additional information: Could not load file or assembly 'Microsoft.Owin.Security, Version=3.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35' or one of its dependencies. The located assembly's manifest definition does not match the assembly reference. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x80131040) The underlying exception indicated that Microsoft.AspNet.Identity.Owin was trying to load v2.1.0 of Microsoft.Owin.Security when calling app.UseExternalSignInCookie() from Startup.ConfigureAuth(IAppBuilder app) in Startup.Auth.cs. Unfortunately that assembly (and its other dependency, Microsoft.AspNet.Identity.Owin) aren't part of the Project Katana solution, and I can't find any accessible repository for these assemblies online. Are the Microsoft.AspNet.Identity assemblies open source, like the Katana project? Is there a way to fool those assemblies to use the referenced v3.0.0 assemblies instead of v2.1.0? The /bin folder contains the 3.0.0 versions of the Owin assemblies. I've upgraded the NuGet packages for Microsoft.AspNet.Identity.Owin, and this is still an issue. Any ideas on how to resolve this issue?

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• ASP.NET MVC - Refresh PartialView when DropDownList changed

  - by Bryan Roth

  I have a search form that is an Ajax form. Within the form is a DropDownList that, when changed, should refresh a PartialView within the Ajax form (via a GET request). However, I'm not sure what to do in order to refresh the PartialView after I get back my results via the GET request. Search.aspx <%@ Page Title="" Language="VB" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage" %> <asp:Content ID="Content1" ContentPlaceHolderID="TitleContent" runat="server"> Search </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $("#Sections").change(function () { var section = $("#Sections").val(); var township = $("#Townships").val(); var range = $("#Ranges").val(); $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "Search/Search?section=" + section + "&township=" + township + "&range=" + range, contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "html", success: function (result) { // What should I do here to refresh PartialView? } }); }); }); </script> <h2>Search</h2> <%--The line below is a workaround for a VB / ASPX designer bug--%> <%=""%> <% Using Ajax.BeginForm("Search", New AjaxOptions With {.UpdateTargetId = "searchResults", .LoadingElementId = "loader"})%> Township <%= Html.DropDownList("Townships")%> Range <%= Html.DropDownList("Ranges")%> Section <%= Html.DropDownList("Sections")%> <% Html.RenderPartial("Corners")%> <input type="submit" value="Search" /> <span id="loader">Searching...</span> <% End Using%> <div id="searchResults"></div> </asp:Content>

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• Managing Dependency Hell with WiX and C#

  - by Tom the Junglist

  We are on the eve of product launch, and at the last minute I am being bombarded with crash reports that appear to be related to our installer, which is a WiX3 project with separate outputs for x86 and x64 builds. These have been an ongoing problem that I always thought were fixed, only to find out that they were still lurking. The product itself is a collection of binaries that communicate with each other via .Net remoting, including a Windows Service and a small COM component that is loaded as an addon in another app. The service runs as SYSTEM, the COM piece runs in a low-rights context, while the other pieces run in normal user contexts. Other pieces include an third-party COM object library DLL and a shared DLL with the .net Remoting interfaces. I've observed flat-out weird behavior with MSI, particularly on version upgrades. Between MS' anal strong-name implementation (specifically, the exact version check before loading a given assembly), a documented WiX/MSI bug that sees critical files erased on upgrades (essentially, if a file in the upgrade MSI has the same version number as the existing install, that file is deleted), and having to work around Wow64 virtualization (x86 MSI can only write to registry/HD locations via Wow64, yet x64 MSIs cannot run on x86 computers...), I am about ready to trash the whole thing and port it over to a different install system. What I am looking for on tips + tricks, techniques, or suggestions on how to properly do things so that I am not fighting with Windows Installer's twisted sense of logic. I am tired of fighting with WiX/MSI/Windows Installer. All it needs to do is place files and registry keys where I tell it to, upgrade them when appropriate, and don't delete anything until the user uninstalls. Instead, dependencies are deleted willy-nilly, bringing up a whole bunch of uncatchable exceptions (can't wrap a try{} block around function declarations) and GPF'ing the whole app. I am particularly interested in 'best practices' and examples regarding shared and dependency DLLs, and any tips on making sure if a file needs to go to GAC, that it actually goes to the GAC and stays there until it is appropriate to remove it. Thanks! Tom

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• Mixed surrogate composite key insert in JPA 2.0, PostgreSQL and Hibernate 3.5

  - by Gerald

  First off, we are using JPA 2.0 and Hibernate 3.5 as persistence provider on a PostgreSQL database. We successfully use the sequence of the database via the JPA 2.0 annotations as an auto-generated value for single-field-surrogate-keys and all works fine. Now we are implementing a bi-temporal database-scheme that requires a mixed key in the following manner: Table 1: id (pk, integer, auto-generated-sequence) validTimeBegin (pk, dateTime) validTimeEnd (dateTime) firstName (varChar) Now we have a problem. You see, if we INSERT a new element, the field id is auto-generated and that's fine. Only, if we want to UPDATE the field within this scheme, then we have to change the validTimeBegin column WITHOUT changing the id-field and insert it as a new row like so: BEFORE THE UPDATE OF THE ROW: |---|-------------------------|-------------------------|-------------------| | id| validTimeBegin | validTimeEnd | firstName | |---|-------------------------|-------------------------|-------------------| | 1| 2010-05-01-10:00:00.000 | NULL | Gerald | |---|-------------------------|-------------------------|-------------------| AFTER THE UPDATE OF THE ROW happening at exactly 2010-05-01-10:35:01.788 server-time: (we update the person with the id:1 to reflect his new first name...) |---|-------------------------|-------------------------|-------------------| | id| validTimeBegin | validTimeEnd | firstName | |---|-------------------------|-------------------------|-------------------| | 1| 2010-05-01-10:00:00.000 | 2010-05-01-10:35:01.788 | Gerald | |---|-------------------------|-------------------------|-------------------| | 1| 2010-05-01-10:35:01.788 | NULL | Jerry | |---|-------------------------|-------------------------|-------------------| So our problem is, that this doesn't work at all using an auto-generated-sequence for the field id because when inserting a new row then the id ALWAYS is auto-generated although it really is part of a composite key which should sometimes behave differently. So my question is: Is there a way to tell hibernate via JPA to stop auto-generating the id-field in the case I want to generate a new variety of the same person and go on as usual in every other case or do I have to take over the whole id-generation with custom code? Thanks in advance, Gerald

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• .NET C#: WebBrowser control Navigate() does not load targeted URL

  - by Dave

  Hey guys, I'm trying to programmatically load a web page via the WebBrowser control with the intent of testing the page & it's JavaScript functions. Basically, I want to compare the HTML & JavaScript run through this control against a known output to ascertain whether there is a problem. However, I'm having trouble simply creating and navigating the WebBrowser control. The code below is intended to load the HtmlDocument into the WebBrowser.Document property: WebBrowser wb = new WebBrowser(); wb.AllowNavigation = true; wb.Navigate("http://www.google.com/"); When examining the web browser's state via Intellisense after Navigate() runs, the WebBrowser.ReadyState is 'Uninitialized', WebBrowser.Document = null, and it overall appears completely unaffected by my call. On a contextual note, I'm running this control outside of a Windows form object: I do not need to load a window or actually look at the page. Requirements dictate the need to simply execute the page's JavaScript and examine the resultant HTML. Any suggestions are greatly appreciated, thanks!

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• Self hosted WCF ServiceHost/WebServiceHost Concurrency/Peformance Design Options (.NET 3.5)

  - by Kyle

  So I'll be providing a few functions via a self hosted (in a WindowsService) WebServiceHost (not sure how to process HTTP GET/POST with ServiceHost), one of which may be called a large amount of the time. This function will also rely on a connection in the appdomain (hosted by the WindowsService so it can stay alive over multiple requests). I have the following concerns and would be oh so thankful for any input/thoughts/comments: Concurrent access - how does the WebServiceHost handle a bunch of concurrent requests. Are they queued and processes sequentially or are new instances of the contracts automagically created? WebServiceHost - WindowsService communication - I need some form of communication from the WebServiceHost to the hosting WindowsService for things like requesting a new session if one does not exist. Perhaps implementing a class which extends the WebServiceHost with events which the WindowsService subscribes to... (unless there is another way I can set off an event in the WindowsService when a request is made...) Multiple WebServiceHosts or Contracts - Would it give any real performance gain to be running multiple WebServiceHost instances in different threads (one per endpoint perhaps?) - A better understanding of the first point would probably help here. WSDL - I'm not sure why (probably just need to do more reading), but I'm not sure how to get the WebServiceHost base endpoint to respond with a WDSL document describing the available contract. Not required as all the operations will be done via GET requests which will not likely change, but it would be nice to have... That's about it for the moment ;) I've been reading a lot on WCF and wish I'd gotten into it long ago, but definitely still learning.

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• How can I force Javascript garbage collection in IE? IE is acting very slow after AJAX calls & DOM

  - by RenderIn

  I have a page with chained drop-downs. Choosing an option from the first select populates the second, and choosing an option from the second select returns a table of matching results using the innerHtml function on an empty div on the page. The problem is, once I've made my selections and a considerable amount of data is brought onto the page, all subsequent Javascript on the page runs exceptionally slowly. It seems as if all the data I pulled back via AJAX to populate the div is still hogging a lot of memory. I tried setting the return object which contains the AJAX results to null after calling innerHtml but with no luck. Firefox, Safari, Chrome and Opera all show no performance degradation when I use Javascript to insert a lot of data into the DOM, but in IE it is very apparent. To test that it's a Javascript/DOM issue rather than a plain old IE issue, I created a version of the page that returns all the results on the initial load, rather than via AJAX/Javascript, and found IE had no performance problems. FYI, I'm using jQuery's jQuery.get method to execute the AJAX call. EDIT This is what I'm doing: <script type="text/javascript"> function onFinalSelection() { var searchParameter = jQuery("#second-select").val(); jQuery.get("pageReturningAjax.php", {SEARCH_PARAMETER: searchParameter}, function(data) { jQuery("#result-div").get(0).innerHtml = data; //jQuery("#result-div").html(data); //Tried this, same problem data = null; }, "html"); } </script>

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• Oracle & Active Directory : A love/hate relationship

  - by Frank

  Hi SO'ers, I'm currently trying to access Active Directory via the dbms_ldap API in Pl/Sql (Oracle). The trouble is that I'm not able to connect with my own username and password or anynoymously. However, in C# I can connect anonymously with this code : DirectoryEntry ldap = new DirectoryEntry("LDAP://Hostname"); DirectorySearcher searcher = new DirectorySearcher(ldap); searcher.Filter = "(SAMAccountName=username)"; SearchResult result = searcher.FindOne(); If I try to connect anonymously in Oracle, I only get the error(ORA-31202 : LDAP client/server error) when I try to search (and the result code for the bind is SUCCESS)... my_session := dbms_ldap.init('HOST','389'); retval := dbms_ldap.simple_bind_s(my_session, '', ''); retval := dbms_ldap.search_s(my_session, ldap_base, dbms_ldap.scope_subtree, 'objectclass=*', my_attrs, 0, my_message); Why is the anonymous connection is C# works but doesn't work in Pl/Sql? Do you have any other idea to connect to Active Directory via Oracle? Help me reunite them together. Thanks. Edit When I bind with anonymous credentials I get : ORA-31202: DBMS_LDAP: LDAP client/server error 00000000: LdapErr: DSID-0C090627, comment: In order to perform this operation a successful bind must be completed on the connection And if I try to connect with my credentials, which are supposed to be valid since I'm connected to the domain with it... I get : ORA-31202: DBMS_LDAP: LDAP client/server error Invalid credentials 80090308: LdapErr: DSID-0C090334, comment: AcceptSecurityContext error

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• Changing the Android emulator locale automatically

  - by Christopher

  For automated testing (using Hudson) I have a script that generates a bunch of emulators for many combinations of Android OS version, screen resolution, screen density and language. This works fine, except for the language part. I need to find a way to change the Android system locale automatically. Here's some approaches I can think of, in order of preference: Extracting/editing/repacking a QEMU image directly before starting the emulator Running some sort of system-locale-changing APK on the emulator after startup Changing the locale settings on the emulator filesystem after startup Changing the locale settings in some SQLite DB on the emulator after startup Running a key sequence (via the emulator's telnet interface) that would open the settings app and change the locale Manually starting the emulator for each platform version, changing the locale by hand in the settings, saving it and archiving the images for later deployment Any ideas whether this can be done, either via the above methods or otherwise? Do you know where locale settings are persisted to/read from by the system? Solution: Thanks to dtmilano's info about the relevant properties, and some further investigation on my part, I came up with a solution even better and simpler simpler than all the ideas above! I have updated the answer below with the details.

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• Why are my labels not updating in my update panel in ASP.NET?

  - by CowKingDeluxe

  I have a label in my update panel that I want to update its text on after a successful asynchronus file upload. Here's my markup: <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdatePanel1" runat="server"><ContentTemplate> Step 1 (<asp:Label ID="label_fileupload" runat="server" />): <br /> <ajaxToolkit:AsyncFileUpload ID="AsyncFileUpload1" Width="200px" runat="server" CompleteBackColor="Lime" UploaderStyle="Modern" ErrorBackColor="Red" ThrobberID="Throbber" UploadingBackColor="#66CCFF" OnClientUploadStarted="StartUpload" /> <asp:Label ID="Throbber" runat="server" Style="display: none"><img src="/images/indicator.gif" alt="loading" /></asp:Label> <br /> <asp:Label ID="statuslabel" runat="server" Text="Label"></asp:Label> </ContentTemplate></asp:UpdatePanel> Here is my code-behind: Protected Sub Page_Load(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Me.Load If (IsPostBack) Then Else label_fileupload.Text = "Incomplete" label_fileupload.CssClass = "uploadincomplete" statuslabel.Text = "NOT DONE" End If End Sub Public Sub AsyncFileUpload1_UploadedComplete1(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As AjaxControlToolkit.AsyncFileUploadEventArgs) Handles AsyncFileUpload1.UploadedComplete System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(1000) If (AsyncFileUpload1.HasFile) Then Dim strPath As String = MapPath("/images/White.png") AsyncFileUpload1.SaveAs(strPath) End If label_fileupload.Text = "Complete" label_fileupload.CssClass = "uploadcomplete" statuslabel.Text = "DONE" End Sub When I set the labels to update via a button click, they work. But when I set them to update via the Upload complete event, they don't work. Is there some way around this to get the labels to update their text / css class from the UploadedComplete event of an asynchronous file upload control?

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• Notification Email Best Practices--From Server Setup to Programming

  - by Andrew Wagner

  All, I'm in the process now of building a SaaS tool that allows network admins to generate notification emails to the members of the end-users of our platform (among many many other things). I'm running into a bit of an "out of my expertise" wall, as I know there are a lot of variables involved with configuring an application that can: Run in a distributed way via load balancing and still-- Leverage a single mail server for sending notification emails Process unsubscribe requests Avoid any ISP blacklisting in the process. If anyone has the time and has done this before, I'd love if you could walk me through the A-Z of best practices both from a configuration perspective and an execution perspective for generating these emails (anything from necessary DNS settings to ideal SMTP setup and configuration) Currently, our application generates email via Google Apps using the PHPMailer class. While this works well, it doesn't queue messages (potential for timeout problems if any of our clients amass a very large list of end-users), and Google limits the amount of allowed generated email messages to 500/day. I know this is a lofty question, but any guidance you could provide would be smashing and a big help as we work through this hurtle in our beta development stage. Thanks!

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• dojo.xhrPost and Zend Framwork action, no POST data, not using a form

  - by sims

  Hi all, I'm trying to send some data via dojo.xhrPost to an Zend Controller Action. I can see the data being sent in Firebug console. However, when inspecting the post data, the array is empty. I'm not sure if it is possible to send an arbitrary string of data via dojo.xhrPost without using a form. This is probably a very n00b mistake. In any case, I'll post my code here and see what you all think. In my layout script I have: <?php $sizeurl = $this->baseUrl() . '/account/uisize'; ?> function resizeText(multiplier) { if (document.body.style.fontSize == "") { document.body.style.fontSize = "1.0em"; } document.body.style.fontSize = parseFloat(document.body.style.fontSize) + (multiplier * 0.1) + "em"; var size = document.body.style.fontSize; var xhrArgs = { url: "<?= $sizeurl; ?>", postData: size, handleAs: "text" } dojo.xhrPost(xhrArgs); } Then my action is: public function uisizeAction() { $this->_helper->viewRenderer->setNoRender(); $this->_helper->layout->disableLayout(); print_r($_POST); $request = $this->getRequest(); if ($request->isXmlHttpRequest()) { $postdata = $request->getPost(); print_r($postdata); if ($postdata) { $user = new Application_Model_DbTable_User(); $user->updateSize($postdata); } } } I'm pretty sure that post data from a form is an array with the form elements' names as the keys. When looking at the dojo.xhrPost examples on the dojo campus web site (http://docs.dojocampus.org/dojo/xhrPost second one to be precise), it looks as if I can just send a string of data. How do I access this data from a Zend Controller Action? I'm using ZF 1.10 and Dojo 1.4.2 Thanks for your help! PS I'd try to ask on one of the related questions, but I cannot seem to comment.

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