Search Results

Search found 6999 results on 280 pages for 'ie7 bug'.

Page 232/280 | < Previous Page | 228 229 230 231 232 233 234 235 236 237 238 239  | Next Page >

• Exporting from SSRS 2008 ReportViewer to Excel Causes Duplicate Columns

  - by Daniel Coffman

  I have a report that groups months by quarters, so each quarter has three months and the display of the months under the quarter is toggled by the quarter header. It looks just fine in the ReportViewer, but when exporting to Excel the first month in the quarter with data is duplicated and appended to the end of the quarter group. Here is what it looks like in the ReportViewer (with Quarters 2 and 4 expanded, note May and June do not have any data and show blank columns by design): http://i.imgur.com/MykZE.png This is how it looks when exported to Excel: http://i.imgur.com/zfLuk.png The collapsed Quarter should only show the LAST month in the quarter. You can see that in the Excel export July is inserted in Q1 even though it should be hidden entirely since that quarter is collapsed, December is appended to Q2, January is inserted into Q3, and April is duplicated and appended to Q4. Exporting the any format OTHER than Excel works correctly and does not insert these columns. A similar bug for rows was filed and marked as "by design": http://connect.microsoft.com/SQLServer/feedback/details/508823/reporting-services-2008-group-by-export-to-excel-duplicate-rows-csv-ok-pdf-ok How do I stop the export to Excel feature from inserting these duplicate columns?

  Read the article

• How to dispose a Writeable Bitmap? (WPF)

  - by Mario

  Some time ago i posted a question related to a WriteableBitmap memory leak, and though I received wonderful tips related to the problem, I still think there is a serious bug / (mistake made by me) / (Confusion) / (some other thing) here. So, here is my problem again: Suppose we have a WPF application with an Image and a button. The image's source is a really big bitmap (3600 * 4800 px), when it's shown at runtime the applicaton consumes ~90 MB. Now suppose i wish to instantiate a WriteableBitmap from the source of the image (the really big Image), when this happens the applications consumes ~220 MB. Now comes the tricky part, when the modifications to the image (through the WriteableBitmap) end, and all the references to the WriteableBitmap (at least those that I'm aware of) are destroyed (at the end of a method or by setting them to null) the memory used by the writeableBitmap should be freed and the application consumption should return to ~90 MB. The problem is that sometimes it returns, sometimes it does not. Here is a sample code: // The Image's source whas set previous to this event private void buttonTest_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { if (image.Source != null) { WriteableBitmap bitmap = new WriteableBitmap((BitmapSource)image.Source); bitmap.Lock(); bitmap.Unlock(); //image.Source = null; bitmap = null; } } As you can see the reference is local and the memory should be released at the end of the method (Or when the Garbage collector decides to do so). However, the app could consume ~224 MB until the end of the universe. Any help would be great.

  Read the article

• Anyone have BlazeDS working with WebLogic Security (j_security_check) ??

  - by Brian

  I'm working on a Flex implementation (currently using SDK 3.5) on WebLogic 10.3 (11G.) We originally used Glassfish v2.1.1 with zero issues (there was an active directory group lookup bug but it did not hinder our progress.) Since transitioning to WebLogic we have an issue where the flexsession is invalidated after logging in using j_security_check: [BlazeDS]Unexpected error encountered in Message Broker servlet flex.messaging.LocalizedException: The FlexSession is invalid. at flex.messaging.FlexSession.checkValid(FlexSession.java:943) at flex.messaging.FlexSession.getUserPrincipal(FlexSession.java:254) at flex.messaging.HttpFlexSession.getUserPrincipal(HttpFlexSession.java:286) at flex.messaging.MessageBrokerServlet.service(MessageBrokerServlet.java:296) at javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:820) at weblogic.servlet.internal.StubSecurityHelper$ServletServiceAction.run(StubSecurityHelper.java:227) at weblogic.servlet.internal.StubSecurityHelper.invokeServlet(StubSecurityHelper.java:125) at weblogic.servlet.internal.ServletStubImpl.execute(ServletStubImpl.java:292) at weblogic.servlet.internal.ServletStubImpl.execute(ServletStubImpl.java:175) at weblogic.servlet.internal.WebAppServletContext$ServletInvocationAction.run(WebAppServletContext.java:3594) at weblogic.security.acl.internal.AuthenticatedSubject.doAs(AuthenticatedSubject.java:321) at weblogic.security.service.SecurityManager.runAs(SecurityManager.java:121) at weblogic.servlet.internal.WebAppServletContext.securedExecute(WebAppServletContext.java:2202) at weblogic.servlet.internal.WebAppServletContext.execute(WebAppServletContext.java:2108) at weblogic.servlet.internal.ServletRequestImpl.run(ServletRequestImpl.java:1432) at weblogic.work.ExecuteThread.execute(ExecuteThread.java:201) at weblogic.work.ExecuteThread.run(ExecuteThread.java:173) I've tried almost every option in services-config.xml: [security [login-command class="flex.messaging.security.WeblogicLoginCommand" server="Weblogic"/> [!-- Uncomment the correct app server [login-command class="flex.messaging.security.TomcatLoginCommand" server="JBoss"> [login-command class="flex.messaging.security.JRunLoginCommand" server="JRun"/> [login-command class="flex.messaging.security.TomcatLoginCommand" server="Tomcat"/> [login-command class="flex.messaging.security.WebSphereLoginCommand" server="WebSphere"/> --> [/security> I've even completely removed this section with no luck. The login functions correctly from a non-BlazeDS perspective. It authenticates the user correctly. Without authentication, BlazeDS works fine (no errors for any remote calls.) Together its a big ball of fail (invalid flexsession every time.) Has anyone got this working? Any tips?

  Read the article

• Why do I get an error 'Cannot resolve symbol <symbolname>' in ReSharper?

  - by drachenstern

  Using VS2008 and R# 5 I'm running into an odd situation, where on an aspx page I keep getting Cannot resolve symbol 'symbolname' But the code compiles and runs fine. While having a fix for this would be great, I'm just trying to figure out if I'm losing my mind. The CodeFile directive and Inherits directives are fine. If I compile the app or just let devenv sit for a bit it'll go away, but as soon as I save the aspx [via ctrl+s] R# suddenly has trouble with the Inherits attribute and flips out on every method in the page (OnClick etc). // Anonymized of course but otherwise intact <%@ Page AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="TestPage.aspx.cs" Inherits="TestPage" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/MasterPage.master" Title="Test Page Title" %> This is mostly just a grievance, because since the code compiles it doesn't stop me from doing what I need. I would post a bug report to the JetBrains site but first I would like to know I'm not alone. It could be my machine. Maybe when I roll to VS2010 in a couple weeks this will go away?

  Read the article

• ArrayAdapter and ListView - ArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException

  - by synic

  I'm really hoping someone can help me out with this one. I've been stuck on it forever. Occasionally, when someone is using my app, it'll force close with this exception: java.lang.ArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException at android.widget.AbsListView$RecycleBin.addScrapView(AbsListView.java:3572) at android.widget.AbsListView.trackMotionScroll(AbsListView.java:2487) at android.widget.AbsListView.onTouchEvent(AbsListView.java:2001) at android.widget.ListView.onTouchEvent(ListView.java:3234) at android.view.View.dispatchTouchEvent(View.java:3709) at android.view.ViewGroup.dispatchTouchEvent(ViewGroup.java:874) at android.view.ViewGroup.dispatchTouchEvent(ViewGroup.java:924) at android.view.ViewGroup.dispatchTouchEvent(ViewGroup.java:924) at android.view.ViewGroup.dispatchTouchEvent(ViewGroup.java:924) at com.android.internal.policy.impl.PhoneWindow$DecorView.superDispatchTouchEvent(PhoneWindow.java:1695) at com.android.internal.policy.impl.PhoneWindow.superDispatchTouchEvent(PhoneWindow.java:1116) at android.app.Activity.dispatchTouchEvent(Activity.java:2068) at com.android.internal.policy.impl.PhoneWindow$DecorView.dispatchTouchEvent(PhoneWindow.java:1679) at android.view.ViewGroup.dispatchTouchEvent(ViewGroup.java:924) at android.view.ViewGroup.dispatchTouchEvent(ViewGroup.java:924) at android.view.ViewGroup.dispatchTouchEvent(ViewGroup.java:924) at android.view.ViewGroup.dispatchTouchEvent(ViewGroup.java:924) at android.view.ViewGroup.dispatchTouchEvent(ViewGroup.java:924) at com.android.internal.policy.impl.PhoneWindow$DecorView.superDispatchTouchEvent(PhoneWindow.java:1695) at com.android.internal.policy.impl.PhoneWindow.superDispatchTouchEvent(PhoneWindow.java:1116) at android.app.Activity.dispatchTouchEvent(Activity.java:2068) at com.android.internal.policy.impl.PhoneWindow$DecorView.dispatchTouchEvent(PhoneWindow.java:1679) at android.view.ViewRoot.handleMessage(ViewRoot.java:1697) at android.os.Handler.dispatchMessage(Handler.java:99) at android.os.Looper.loop(Looper.java:123) at android.app.ActivityThread.main(ActivityThread.java:4568) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invokeNative(Native Method) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:521) at com.android.internal.os.ZygoteInit$MethodAndArgsCaller.run(ZygoteInit.java:860) at com.android.internal.os.ZygoteInit.main(ZygoteInit.java:618) at dalvik.system.NativeStart.main(Native Method) However, I cannot figure out why. It's relatively rare, non-reproducable, and the stacktrace is completely unhelpful because it doesn't include any of my code. Is it a bug in Android itself?

  Read the article

• function to get the file name of an URL

  - by user262325

  Hello everyone I have some source code to get the file name of an url for example: http://www.google.com/a.pdf I hope to get a.pdf because the way to join 2 NSStrings I can get is 'appendString' which only for adding a string at right side, so I planned to check each char one by one from the right side of string 'http://www.google.com/a.pdf', when it reach at the char '/', stop the checking, return string fdp.a , after that I change fdp.a to a.pdf source codes are below -(NSMutableString *) getSubStringAfterH : originalString:(NSString *)s0 { NSInteger i,l; l=[s0 length]; NSMutableString *h=[[NSMutableString alloc] init]; NSMutableString *ttt=[[NSMutableString alloc] init ]; for(i=l-1;i>=0;i--) //check each char one by one from the right side of string 'http://www.google.com/a.pdf', when it reach at the char '/', stop { ttt=[s0 substringWithRange:NSMakeRange(i, 1)]; if([ttt isEqualToString:@"/"]) { break; } else { [h appendString:ttt]; } } [ttt release]; //below are to change the sequence of char in h // txt.edcba -> abcde.txt NSMutableString *h1=[[[NSMutableString alloc] initWithFormat:@""] autorelease]; for (i=[h length]-1;i>=0;i--) { NSMutableString *t1=[[NSMutableString alloc] init ]; t1=[h substringWithRange:NSMakeRange(i, 1)]; [h1 appendString:t1]; [t1 release]; } [h release]; return h1; } h1 can reuturn the coorect string a.pdf, but if it returns to the codes where it was called, after a while system reports 'double free * set a breakpoint in malloc_error_break to debug' I checked a long time and foudn that if I removed the code ttt=[s0 substringWithRange:NSMakeRange(i, 1)]; everything will be Ok (of course getSubStringAfterH can not returns the corrent result I expected.), no error reported. I try to fix the bug a few hours, but still no clue. Welcome any comment Thanks interdev

  Read the article

• Fix common library functions, or abandon then?

  - by Ian Boyd

  Imagine i have a function with a bug in it: Boolean MakeLocation(String City, String State) { //Given "Springfield", "MO" //return "Springfield, MO" return City+", "+State; } So the call: MakeLocation("Springfield", "MO"); would return "Springfield, MO" Now there's a slight problem, what if the user called: MakeLocation("Springfield, MO", "OH"); The called it wrong, obviously. But the function would return "Springfield, MO, OH". The system was functioning like this for many years, until i noticed the function being used wrong, and i corrected it. And i also updated the original function to catch such an obvious mistake - in case it's happening elsewhere: Boolean MakeLocation(String City, String State) { //Given "Springfield", "MO" //return "Springfield, MO" if (City.Contains, ",") throw new EMakeLocationException("City name contains a comma. You probably didn't mean that"); return City+", "+State; } And testing showed the problem fixed. Except we missed an edge case, and the customer found it. So now the moral dillema. Do you ever add new sanity checks, safety checks, assertions to exising code? Or do you call the old function abandoned, and have a new one: Boolean MakeLocation(String City, String State) { //Given "Springfield", "MO" //return "Springfield, MO" return City+", "+State; } Boolean MakeLocation2(String City, String State) { //Given "Springfield", "MO" //return "Springfield, MO" if (City.Contains, ",") throw new EMakeLocationException("City name contains a comma. You probably didn't mean that"); return City+", "+State; } The same can apply for anything: Question FetchQuestion(Int id) { if (id == 0) throw new EFetchQuestionException("No question ID specified"); ... } Do you risk breaking existing code, at the expense of existing code being wrong?

  Read the article

• UINavigationController crash because of pushing and poping UIViewControllers

  - by Wayne Lo

  My question is related to my discovery of a reason for UINavigationController to crash. So I will tell you about the discovery first. Please bare with me. The issue: I have a UINavigationController as as subview of UIWindow, a rootViewController class and a custom MyViewController class. The following steps will get a Exc_Bad_Access, 100% reproducible.: [myNaviationController pushViewController:myViewController_1stInstance animated:YES]; [myNaviationController pushViewController:myViewController_2ndInstance animated:YES]; Hit the left back tapBarItem twice (pop out two of the myViewController instances) to show the rootViewController. After a painful 1/2 day of try and error, I finally figure out the answer but also raise a question. The Solutio: I declared many objects in the .m file as a lazy way of declaring private variables to avoid cluttering the .h file. For instance, #impoart "MyViewController.h" NSMutableString*variable1; @implement ... -(id)init { ... varialbe1=[[NSMutableString alloc] init]; ... } -(void)dealloc { [variable1 release]; } For some reasons, the iphone OS may loose track of these "lazy private" variables memory allocation when myViewController_1stInstance's view is unloaded (but still in the navigation controller's stacks) after loading the view of myViewController_2ndInstance. The first time to tap the back tapBarItem is ok since myViewController_2ndInstance'view is still loaded. But the 2nd tap on the back tapBarItem gave me hell because it tried to dealloc the 2nd instance. Executing [variable release] resulted in Exc_Bad_Access because it pointed randomly (loose pointer). To fix this problem is simple, declare variable1 as a @private in the .h file. Here is my Question: I have been using the "lazy private" variables for quite some time without any issues until they are involved in UINavigationController. Is this a bug in iPhone OS? Or there is a fundamental misunderstanding on my part about Objective C? Please help.

  Read the article

• Scrapy issue with iTunes' AppStore

  - by Eric

  I am using Scrapy to fetch some data from iTunes' AppStore database. I start with this list of apps: http://itunes.apple.com/us/genre/mobile-software-applications/id36?mt=8 In the following code I have used the simplest regex which targets all apps in the US store. from scrapy.contrib.linkextractors.sgml import SgmlLinkExtractor from scrapy.contrib.spiders import CrawlSpider, Rule class AppStoreSpider(CrawlSpider): domain_name = 'itunes.apple.com' start_urls = ['http://itunes.apple.com/us/genre/mobile-software-applications/id6015?mt=8'] rules = ( Rule(SgmlLinkExtractor(allow='itunes\.apple\.com/us/app'), 'parse_app', follow=True, ), ) def parse_app(self, response): .... SPIDER = AppStoreSpider() When I run it I receive the following: [itunes.apple.com] DEBUG: Crawled (200) <GET http://itunes.apple.com/us/genre/mobile-software-applications/id6015?mt=8> (referer: None) [itunes.apple.com] DEBUG: Filtered offsite request to 'itunes.apple.com': <GET http://itunes.apple.com/us/app/bloomberg/id281941097?mt=8> As you can see, when it starts crawling the first page it says: "Filtered offsite request to 'itunes.apple.com'". and then the spider stops.. it also returns this message: [ScrapyHTTPPageGetter,client] /usr/lib/python2.5/cookielib.py:1577: exceptions.UserWarning: cookielib bug! Traceback (most recent call last): File "/usr/lib/python2.5/cookielib.py", line 1575, in make_cookies parse_ns_headers(ns_hdrs), request) File "/usr/lib/python2.5/cookielib.py", line 1532, in _cookies_from_attrs_set cookie = self._cookie_from_cookie_tuple(tup, request) File "/usr/lib/python2.5/cookielib.py", line 1451, in _cookie_from_cookie_tuple if version is not None: version = int(version) ValueError: invalid literal for int() with base 10: '"1"' I have used the same script for other website and I didn't have this problem. Any suggestion?

  Read the article

• Forms authentication in Silverlight

  - by Matt

  I have a website using forms authentication. Everything runs sweet their. I've got a Silverlight app that uses Duplex messaging to talk to a WCF service. I'd like to be able to authenticate users in my service. I realize that by doing this <serviceHostingEnvironment aspNetCompatibilityEnabled="true" /> that my service would then have access to the HttpContext.Current context and I could easily authenticate a user. But herein lies the problem. aspNetCompatibilityEnabled="true" combined with Duplex messaging results in very, very, very slow communication between silverlight and the website (10 seconds or more). Unless I have a configuration wrong, I'm going to assume that this is a bug in WCF / Silverlight. So basically I'm looking for a workaround. One idea I wanted to try was to read the ASPSESSID cookie from the browser and send that value over the wire. But I don't know what to do with the cookie on the service side. Is there some way to authenticate a user by sending their cookie data over duplex messaging?

  Read the article

• GNU Make: How to call $(wildcard) within $(eval)

  - by bengineerd

  I'm trying to create a generic build template for my Makefiles, kind of like they discuss in the eval documentation. I can't seem to get the wildcard function to work within an eval. The basic code I'm having issues with looks like this. SRC_DIR = ./src/ PROG_NAME = test define PROGRAM_template $(1)_SRC_DIR = $(join $(SRC_DIR), $(1)/) $(1)_SRC_FILES = $(wildcard $$($(1)_SRC_DIR)*.c) endef $(eval $(call PROGRAM_template, $(PROG_NAME))) all: @echo $(test_SRC_DIR) @echo $(test_SRC_FILES) @echo $(wildcard $(wildcard $(test_SRC_DIR)*.c) When I run make with this, the output is ./src/test [correct list of all .c files in ./src/test/] Basically, the wildcard call within PROGRAM_template is not being eval'd as I expect it. The call results in an empty list. The join call is being eval'd correctly though. So, what am I doing wrong? My guess is that $$($(1)_SRC_DIR) is not correct, but I can't figure out the right way to do it. EDIT Once this was solved, it didn't take long for me to hit another issue with eval. I posted it as a new question at http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2428506/workaround-for-gnu-make-3-80-eval-bug

  Read the article

• Subsonic 3.0.0.4 Does not Update

  - by geocine

  I tried 3 variants but doesn't seem to update (I am using Linq Templates and MSSQL) Luna.Data.GameDBDB db = new Luna.Data.GameDBDB(); db.Update<Luna.Record.TB_ITEM>() .Set(x => x.ITEM_DURABILITY == Convert.ToInt32(quantity)) .Where(x => x.ITEM_DBIDX == Convert.ToInt32(dbdidx)) .Execute(); Here is the other one var db = new Luna.Data.GameDBDB(); var query = (from p in db.TB_ITEMS where p.ITEM_DBIDX == Convert.ToInt32(dbidx) select p).Single(); query.ITEM_DURABILITY = Convert.ToInt32(quantity); db.tp TP_ITEM_UPDATE(); and the other one var db = new Luna.Data.GameDBDB(); var query = (from p in db.TB_ITEMS where p.ITEM_DBIDX == Convert.ToInt32(dbidx) select p).Single(); query.ITEM_DURABILITY = Convert.ToInt32(quantity); db.Update<Luna.Data.TB_ITEM>(); However it worked using LINQ-to-SQL LunaDataContext db = new LunaDataContext(); var query = (from p in db.TB_ITEMs where p.ITEM_DBIDX == Convert.ToInt32(dbidx) select p).Single(); query.ITEM_DURABILITY = Convert.ToInt32(quantity); db.SubmitChanges(); Is this a bug in 3.0.0.4, the database record couldn't be updated using Linq Templates and ActiveRecord.

  Read the article

• Uploadify - Passing Information Back to The Original Form

  - by CccTrash

  I have an Send.aspx page that has an uploadify control on it. Upload.ashx handles the file upload. I am adding a file record to a sql database in the Upload.ashx file and I need to get the ID of that record back from Upload.aspx when it is done. Can't get it working with Sessions. =( Something to do with an Adobe bug? What would the best way to handle this be? Here is the uploadify control: <script type="text/javascript"> // <![CDATA[ var contestID = $('[id$=HiddenFieldContestID]').val(); var maxEntries = $('[id$=HiddenFieldMaxEntries]').val(); var userID = $('[id$=HiddenFieldUserID]').val(); $(document).ready(function() { $('#fileInput').uploadify({ 'uploader': '../uploadify/uploadify.swf', 'script': '../uploadify/Upload.ashx', 'scriptData': { 'contestID': contestID, 'maxEntries': maxEntries, 'userID': userID }, 'cancelImg': '../uploadify/cancel.png', 'auto': true, 'multi': false, 'fileDesc': 'Image Files', 'fileExt': '*.jpg;*.png;*.jpeg', 'queueSizeLimit': 1, 'sizeLimit': 4000000, 'buttonText': 'Choose Image', 'folder': '/uploads', 'onAllComplete': function(event, queueID, fileObj, response, data) { document.getElementById('<%= ButtonCleanup.ClientID %>').click(); } }); }); // ]]></script> Edit: See Answer below... Video Tutorial from start to finish: http://casonclagg.com/articles/6/video-tutorial-uploadify-asp-net-c-sharp.aspx

  Read the article

• Updating textfield in doctrine produces an exception

  - by james-murphy

  I have a textfield that contains say for example the following text:- "A traditional English dish comprising sausages in Yorkshire pudding batter, usually served with vegetables and gravy." This textfield is in a form that simply updates an item record using it's ID. If I edit part of the textfield and replace "and gravy." with "humous." So that the textfield now contains "A traditional English dish comprising sausages in Yorkshire pudding batter, usually served with vegetables and humous." I get the following exception:- Fatal error: Uncaught exception 'Doctrine_Query_Exception' with message 'Unknown component alias humous' in C:\Projects\nitrous\lightweight\system\database\Doctrine\Query\Abstract.php:780 Stack trace: C:\Projects\nitrous\lightweight\system\database\Doctrine\Query\Abstract.php(767): Doctrine_Query_Abstract-getQueryComponent('humous') C:\Projects\nitrous\lightweight\system\database\Doctrine\Query\Set.php(58): Doctrine_Query_Abstract-getAliasDeclaration('humous') C:\Projects\nitrous\lightweight\system\database\Doctrine\Query\Abstract.php(2092): Doctrine_Query_Set-parse('i.details = 'A ...') C:\Projects\nitrous\lightweight\system\database\Doctrine\Query.php(1058): Doctrine_Query_Abstract-_processDqlQueryPart('set', Array) C:\Projects\nitrous\lightweight\system\database\Doctrine\Query\Abstract.php(971): Doctrine_Query-getSqlQuery(Array) C:\Projects\nitrous\lightweight\system\database\Doctrine\Query\Abstract.php(1030): Doctrine_Query_Abstract-_execute(Array) C:\Projects\nitrous\lightweight\system\appl in C:\Projects\nitrous\lightweight\system\database\Doctrine\Query\Abstract.php on line 780 I'm using Doctrine 1.0.6 hooked into CodeIgniter 1.7.0 if anyone is interested. My doctrine query that actually performs the update looks as follows:- public function updateItems($id, $arrayItem) { $query = new Doctrine_Query(); $query->update('Item i'); foreach($arrayItem as $key => $value) { $query->set('i.'.$key, "'".$value."'"); } $query->where('i.id = ?', $id); return $query->execute(); } This seems bizarre because if i replace the entire string "A traditional English dish comprising sausages in Yorkshire pudding batter, usually served with vegetables and humous." with something completely different like just "test" it doesn't throw an exception and works just fine. This baffles me... is it a bug in Doctrine or have I missed something?

  Read the article

• Setting up multiple channel types (AMF/AMFX) for Flex/BlazeDs

  - by Fergal

  We've configured our Flex client to have two channels for calling our services via BlazeDS. One channel is configured to use AMFChannel and the other for HTTPChannel. Here's the services-config.xml <channel-definition id="my-amf" class="mx.messaging.channels.AMFChannel"> <endpoint url="http://{server.name}:{server.port}/{context.root}/data/messagebroker/amf" class="flex.messaging.endpoints.AMFEndpoint" /> <properties> <polling-enabled>false</polling-enabled> </properties> </channel-definition> <channel-definition id="my-amfx" class="mx.messaging.channels.HTTPChannel"> <endpoint url="http://{server.name}:{server.port}/{context.root}/data/messagebroker/amfx" class="flex.messaging.endpoints.HTTPEndpoint" /> <properties> <polling-enabled>false</polling-enabled> </properties> </channel-definition> Our flex client is written to use either AMF or AMFX depending on how we configure it. The problem is that although the client can switch between channels it sends an AMF binary payload when attempting to call services via AMFX (expecting XML). The funny thing is that we can write services-config.xml to use either AMF or AMFX individually but Flex doesn't seem to want to let us use both. Is this a bug in Flex? If not how can we get it to use the correct protocol?

  Read the article

• Firefox -- Dynamically embedding <svg> element in SVG

  - by zourtney

  I am trying dynamically to append an <svg> element within an existing SVG island on an XHTML page (Firefox 3.6.3). Done manually, this works as expected: <svg xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2000/svg"> <svg xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2000/svg"> ... </svg> </svg> However, if you dynamically add this element using JavaScript, the browser crashes. Simple example: <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xmlns:svg="http://www.w3.org/2000/svg"> <head> <title>SVG island example</title> <script type="text/javascript"><![CDATA[ function crash( ) { svgs = document.getElementsByTagNameNS( "http://www.w3.org/2000/svg", "svg" ); for ( var i = 0; i < svgs.length; i++ ) { var e = document.createElementNS( "http://www.w3.org/2000/svg", "svg" ); svgs[i].appendChild( e ); } } ]]></script> </head> <body> <svg id="mySVG" xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2000/svg"> </svg> <button onclick="crash()">Crash Firefox</button> </body> </html> Interestingly, if I do a getElementById, it works fine. Interesting, but not particularly helpful in my situation since I'm storing pointers to SVGDocuments. Example: function doesntCrash( ) { var svg = document.getElementById( "mySVG" ); var e = document.createElementNS( "http://www.w3.org/2000/svg", "svg" ); svg.appendChild( e ); } As far as I can tell, this is a Firefox bug. Does anyone have any insight into this matter?

  Read the article

• IPhone SDK - Transition to NavigationController display problem

  - by Steblo

  Hi, I am nearly finished with my first IPhone app and everything works fine - except of one very little display bug: My starscreen is an UIView (Fullscreen) without Navigationbar or Toolbar. If I tap on a start button, there is an UIViewAnimationTransitionFlipFromRight animation that flips to the main navigation controller: -(IBAction) switchViewToMainMenu { [UIView beginAnimations:@"Flip View" context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:1.25]; [UIView setAnimationCurve:UIViewAnimationCurveEaseInOut]; [UIView setAnimationTransition: UIViewAnimationTransitionFlipFromRight forView:self.window cache:YES]; [self.navController viewWillAppear:YES]; [self.startScreenViewController viewWillDisappear:YES]; [self.startScreenViewController.view removeFromSuperview]; [self.window addSubview:navController.view]; [self.startScreenViewController viewDidDisappear:YES]; [self.navController viewDidAppear:YES]; [UIView commitAnimations]; self.startScreenViewController=nil; [startScreenViewController release]; } This works fine except of one little problem: When the navigation controller view appears (flips in), the Navigationbar on top is some pixels too high (the is a white bar where the Navigationbar should be). When the animation finished, the Navigationbar drops down to the right position. This doesn't look very beautiful... Any ideas how to fix that problem ?

  Read the article

• Linq-to-sql Compiled Query returns object NOT belonging to submitted DataContext ?

  - by Vladimir Kojic

  Compiled query: public static class Machines { public static readonly Func<OperationalDataContext, short, Machine> QueryMachineById = CompiledQuery.Compile((OperationalDataContext db, short machineID) => db.Machines.Where(m => m.MachineID == machineID).SingleOrDefault() ); public static Machine GetMachineById(IUnitOfWork unitOfWork, short id) { Machine machine; // Old code (working) //var machineRepository = unitOfWork.GetRepository<Machine>(); //machine = machineRepository.Find(m => m.MachineID == id).SingleOrDefault(); // New code (making problems) machine = QueryMachineById(unitOfWork.DataContext, id); return machine; } It looks like compiled query is returning result from another data context [TestMethod] public void GetMachinesTest() { using (var unitOfWork = IoC.Get<IUnitOfWork>()) { // Compile Query var machine = Machines.GetMachineById(unitOfWork, 3); } using (var unitOfWork = IoC.Get<IUnitOfWork>()) { var machineRepository = unitOfWork.GetRepository<Machine>(); // Get From Repository var machineFromRepository = machineRepository.Find(m => m.MachineID == 2).SingleOrDefault(); var machine = Machines.GetMachineById(unitOfWork, 2); VerifyHuskyHostMachine(machineFromRepository, 2, "Machine 2", "222222", "H400RS", "MachineIconB.xaml", false, true, LicenseType.Licensed, InterfaceType.HuskyHostV2, "10.0.97.2:8080", "10.0.97.2", 8080, "4.0"); VerifyHuskyHostMachine(machine, 2, "Machine 2", "222222", "H400RS", "MachineIconB.xaml", false, true, LicenseType.Licensed, InterfaceType.HuskyHostV2, "10.0.97.2:8080", "10.0.97.2", 8080, "4.0"); Assert.AreSame(machineFromRepository, machine); // FAIL } } If I run other (complex) unit tests I'm getting as expected: An attempt has been made to Attach or Add an entity that is not new, perhaps having been loaded from another DataContext. Another Important information is that this test is under TransactionScope! UPDATE: It looks like next link is describing similar problem (is this bug solved ?): http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en-US/linqprojectgeneral/thread/9bcffc2d-794e-4c4a-9e3e-cdc89dad0e38

  Read the article

• Google Maps API DirectionsRendererOptions not working?

  - by YWE

  I am trying to use DirectionsRenderer to display a DirectionsResult without the route list. According to the API version 3 documentation, there is a "hideRouteList" property of the DirectionsRendererOptions object that when set to true should hide the route list. I cannot get it to work. Is this a bug or am I just not coding this correctly? Following is my code. <html> <head> <title>Driving Directions</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://maps.google.com/maps/api/js?sensor=false"> </script> <script type="text/javascript"> <!-- function initialize() { var dirService = new google.maps.DirectionsService(); var dirRequest = { origin: "350 5th Ave, New York, NY, 10118", destination: "1 Wall St, New York, NY", travelMode: google.maps.DirectionsTravelMode.DRIVING, unitSystem: google.maps.DirectionsUnitSystem.IMPERIAL, provideTripAlternatives: true }; dirService.route(dirRequest, showDirections); } function showDirections(dirResult, dirStatus) { if (dirStatus != google.maps.DirectionsStatus.OK) { alert('Directions failed: ' + dirStatus); return; } var rendererOptions = { hideRouteList: true }; var dirRenderer = new google.maps.DirectionsRenderer(rendererOptions); dirRenderer.setPanel(document.getElementById('dir-container')); dirRenderer.setDirections(dirResult); } --> </script> </head> <body onLoad="initialize();"> <div id="dir-container"></div> </body> </html>

  Read the article

• Why does ICEfaces send dispose-window request on page unload when using view-scoped bean?

  - by woflrevo

  in our application ICEfaces always sends a dispose-window request just before navigating to another JSF Page. as much as i understand this should not happen when having org.icefaces.lazyWindowScope set to true and there is no window-scoped bean involved in current request. but it happens on each link and makes our UI less responsive. but we don't have any window-scoped bean in our application. is that a bug in icefaces that the dispose request is sent when using view-scoped beans? Is it possible to disable? ViewScope is defined in JSF not in ICEfaces, it should work without this dispose request i guess... @ManagedBean(name="viewScopeBean") @ViewScoped public class ViewScopeBean { public void doSomething(){ // } } And here the example jsf: <ice:form> <ice:commandButton value="doSomething" action="#{viewScopeBean.doSomething}"/> <h:link outcome="index" value="Link to same page"/> </ice:form> To reproduce do the following using the code above: open firebug's net tab and activate persist option click doSomething-Button click "link to same page" = dispose-window will be send before navigation Dispose Request Parameters: ice.submit.type=ice.dispose.window ice.window=4guthcbue javax.faces.ViewState=-8138151632882151449%3A-6709064564386098402 Environment: ICEfaces-EE 2.0.0.GA ICEpush-EE 2.0.0.GA Mojarra 2.1.1 JRockit 1.6.0_22 WebLogic Server 10.3.4.0 ICEfaces Configuration: org.icefaces.render.auto: true [default] org.icefaces.autoid: true [default] org.icefaces.aria.enabled: true [default] org.icefaces.blockUIOnSubmit: false [default] org.icefaces.compressDOM: false [default] org.icefaces.compressResources: true [default] org.icefaces.connectionLostRedirectURI: /pages/main.jsf org.icefaces.deltaSubmit: false [default] org.icefaces.lazyPush: true [default] org.icefaces.sessionExpiredRedirectURI: /pages/main.jsf org.icefaces.standardFormSerialization: false [default] org.icefaces.strictSessionTimeout: false [default] org.icefaces.windowScopeExpiration = 1000 [default] org.icefaces.mandatoryResourceConfiguration: null [default] org.icefaces.uniqueResourceURLs: true [default] org.icefaces.lazyWindowScope: true [default] org.icefaces.disableDefaultErrorPopups: false [default]

  Read the article

• is it possible to add DataRelation to DataSet if child table contains rows that have no parent in pa

  - by matti

  If I fill the DataSet with DataAdapters that select all rows from Orders and Customers and call: private void CreateRelation() { // Get the DataColumn objects from two DataTable objects // in a DataSet. Code to get the DataSet not shown here. DataColumn parentColumn = DataSet1.Tables["Customers"].Columns["CustID"]; DataColumn childColumn = DataSet1.Tables["Orders"].Columns["CustID"]; // Create DataRelation. DataRelation relCustOrder; relCustOrder = new DataRelation("CustomersOrders", parentColumn, childColumn); // Add the relation to the DataSet. DataSet1.Relations.Add(relCustOrder); } (from http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.data.datarelation.aspx) there will be a runtime error if there is orders that do not have customers. This might happen when a buggy program has not deleted customer's orders when customer was deleted. What can I do except put Orders select string a additional where-condition: CUSTID IN (SELECT DISTINCT CUSTID FROM CUSTOMERS) OR: is it really that way (that all children have to have parents)? My code might have a bug also. The exception occurs when IN MY CODE I add the relation to filled DataSet. The exception is: An unhandled exception of type 'System.ArgumentException' occurred in System.Data.dll Additional information: This constraint cannot be enabled as not all values have corresponding parent values. Thanks & Best Regards - Matti

  Read the article

• Problem with Java Applet <--> Javascript communication

  - by davr

  I'm having trouble getting a Java Applet to communicate with the Javascript code on the page the applet is hosted on. It works sometimes, but othertimes it throws an obscure exception, that googling for has not turned up any useful information, besides a few Java bug reports that were never resolved (thanks Sun). Here is the code I am using: JSObject win = JSObject.getWindow(this); Object[] args = new Object[1]; args[0] = "test argument"; String result = (String) win.call("testJSfunc", args); // XXX Here is the exception I get on the line marked // XXX. Note that it is intermittent. Often it works, but sometimes it does not, using the same exact code. Reloading the page repeatedly will produce the error pretty quickly. netscape.javascript.JSException: No registered plugin for applet ID 1 at sun.plugin2.main.client.MessagePassingJSObject.newJSException(Unknown Source) at sun.plugin2.main.client.MessagePassingJSObject.waitForReply(Unknown Source) at sun.plugin2.main.client.MessagePassingJSObject.call(Unknown Source) at TestApplet.testCallJS(TestApplet.java:159) at TestApplet.init(TestApplet.java:139) at sun.plugin2.applet.Plugin2Manager$AppletExecutionRunnable.run(Unknown Source) at java.lang.Thread.run(Unknown Source) Is there another more stable way of communicating between Java and Javascript that I should be using?

  Read the article

• Changes in resolving .resx in Visual Studio 2010?

  - by MADMap

  Hi, I'm working on a quite simple Webpage (MVC2), using localisation based on ResourceFiles. I have the MVC2 Project and the Resources in a seperate Assembly. The Resources contains 3 languages (Resource.resx, Resource.de.resx, Resource.en.resx, Resource.ja.resx) and I'm querying them via the ResourceManager. Call from the .aspx <% Resources.Res resman = new Resources.Res(); %> <%=resman.GetString("String1", new System.Globalization.CultureInfo("en")) %><br /> <%=resman.GetString("String1", new System.Globalization.CultureInfo("ja")) %><br /> <%=resman.GetString("String1", new System.Globalization.CultureInfo("de")) %><br /> ResourceManager: public class Res { private readonly ResourceManager Manager = Resources.Resource1.ResourceManager; public string GetString(string id, CultureInfo info) { return Manager.GetString(id, info); } } And for the compiled Version in VS2008 I get smth like this: String1EN String1JA String1DE Compiled in Visual Studio 2008, this works fine: but I'm having Troubles if I compile the Solution in Visual Studio 2010 (also 3.5 as TargetFramework). There the result shows smth like: String1DEFAULT String1JA String1DEFAULT I don't know what it can be: is this still a bug from the VS2010 RC or am I doing smth. wrong here?

  Read the article

• Partial specialization with reference template parameter fails to compile in VS2005

  - by Blair Holloway

  I have code that boils down to the following: template struct Foo {}; template & I struct FooBar {}; //////// template struct Baz {}; template & I struct Baz< FooBar { static void func(FooBar& value); }; //////// struct MyStruct { static const Foo s_floatFoo; }; // Elsewhere: const Foo MyStruct::s_floatFoo; void callBaz() { typedef FooBar FloatFooBar; FloatFooBar myFloatFooBar; Baz::func(myFloatFooBar); } This compiles successfully under GCC, however, under VS2005, I get: error C2039: 'func' : is not a member of 'Baz' with [ T=FloatFooBar ] error C3861: 'func': identifier not found However, if I change const Foo<T>& I to const Foo<T>* I (passing I by pointer rather than by reference), and defining FloatFooBar as: typedef FooBar FloatFooBar; Both GCC and VS2005 are happy. What's going on? Is this some kind of subtle template substitution failure that VS2005 is handling differently to GCC, or a compiler bug? (The strangest thing: I thought I had the above code working in VS2005 earlier this morning. But that was before my morning coffee. I'm now not entirely certain I wasn't under some sort of caffeine-craving-induced delirium...)

  Read the article

• Explicit behavior with checks vs. implicit behavior

  - by Silviu

  I'm not sure how to construct the question but I'm interested to know what do you guys think of the following situations and which one would you prefer. We're working at a client-server application with winforms. And we have a control that has some fields automatically calculated upon filling another field. So we're having a field currency which when filled by the user would determine an automatic filling of another field, maybe more fields. When the user fills the currency field, a Currency object would be retrieved from a cache based on the string introduced by the user. If entered currency is not found in the cache a null reference is returned by the cache object. Further down when asking the application layer to compute the other fields based on the currency, given a null currency a null specific field would be returned. This way the default, implicit behavior is to clear all fields. Which is the expected behavior. What i would call the explicit implementation would be to verify that the Currency object is null in which case the depending fields are cleared explicitly. I think that the latter version is more clear, less error prone and more testable. But it implies a form of redundancy. The former version is not as clear and it implies a certain behavior from the application layer which is not expressed in the tests. Maybe in the lower layer tests but when the need arises to modify the lower layers, so that given a null currency something else should be returned, i don't think a test that says just that without a motivation is going to be an impediment for introducing a bug in upper layers. What do you guys think?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 228 229 230 231 232 233 234 235 236 237 238 239  | Next Page >