Search Results

Search found 14506 results on 581 pages for 'document scanner'.

Page 235/581 | < Previous Page | 231 232 233 234 235 236 237 238 239 240 241 242  | Next Page >

  • ajaxStart only called once

    - by cmroanirgo
    I'm having trouble with ajaxStart/ajaxStop. In the following code, the ajaxStart/ajaxStop code is only ever called once (the very first time). Any ideas why? var A_func = function() { $.get($(this).attr("href"), function(response) { $("#content_inner").replaceWith($("#content_inner", response)); }); return false; }; $(function() { $("A").live("click", A_func); $(document).ajaxStart(function(){$("#loading").show();alert("loading");}); $(document).ajaxStop(function(){$("#loading").hide();alert("finished");}); }); Note that the ajax requests themselves work correctly, it's just that the 'loading' icon only shows the once and then never again. My html is something like: <body> <img id="loading" width="12" height="12" src="/images/ajax-loader.gif" style="display:none" alt="loading"/> ... <div id="content"><div id="content_inner"...</div></div>... </body> I have also tried using ajaxSend/ajaxComplete and it has the same problem

    Read the article

  • Flex/Flash 4 ExternalInterface.call - trying to get a string from HTML to Actionscript.

    - by Setori
    Dear all, I need to obtain a string from HTML and put it into Actionscript. the actionscript: import flash.external.ExternalInterface; protected function getUserName():void{ var isAvailable:Boolean = ExternalInterface.available; var findUserName:String = "findUserName"; if(isAvailable){ var foundUserName:String = ExternalInterface.call(findUserName); Alert.show(foundUserName);}} the javascript: function findUserName() { var label = document.getElementById("username-label"); if(label.value != ""){ alert("the name in the box is: " + label.value); return label.value;} else return "nothing in the textbox";}} the JSP: <%IUserSession userSession = SessionManager.getSession();%> <logic:notEmpty name="userSession"> <logic:notEqual value="anonymous" name="userSession" property="userLoginId"> <td align="right" width="10%" > <input id="username-label" type="text" value="<bean:write name="userSession" property="userLoginId"/>" /> </td> </logic:notEqual> </logic:notEmpty> the rendered HTML: <td align="right" width="10%"> <input id="username-label" type="text" value="a-valid-username" /> </td> when the javascript execution hits var label = document.getElementById("username-label"); a null is returned and crashes, no alert shows no error message is shown. firfox 3.5 windows, container is Tomcat. Please advise, and thank you in advance.

    Read the article

  • Simple Prototype.js code to select multiple elements with the same classname

    - by stephemurdoch
    I have one link with an id of "link", and I use the javascript below to open that link up in a modalbox: #In my template I have: <a href="some/path" id="link">link</a> #Then in my application.js file I have: document.observe('dom:loaded', function() { $('login-link').observe('click', function(event) { event.stop(); Modalbox.show(this.href,{title: 'some title', width: 500}); }); }) Since id's must be unique, this javascript only works for one element per page so I use it to observe my login-link and it has served me well. Until now. I want to use the same javascript to observe multiple links which have classnames instead of id's as below: <a href="link/to/some/stuff" class="link">link 1</a> <a href="link/to/some/other/stuff" class="link">link 2</a> When I do this, I can't get any of the links to open in a modalbox. If I change the class to an id for each link, then I can get the first link in the list to open in a modalbox. I've tried to use the '$$' notation to build an array of links in my javascript (shown below) but if I do that, then none of the links open correctly #document.observe method removed for display purposes $$('link').observe('click', function(event) { event.stop(); Modalbox.show(this.href,{title: 'some title', width: 500} ); }); My javascript skills obviously suck. Does anyone know how to fix the problem?

    Read the article

  • unistd.h related problem when compiling bison & flex program under vc++

    - by Eric
    I'm using bison & flex (downloaded via cygwin) with vc++. When I compile the program I got an error: ...: fatal error C1083: Cannot open include file: 'unistd.h': No such file or directory The corresponding code in the flex-generated file is: #ifndef YY_NO_UNISTD_H /* Special case for "unistd.h", since it is non-ANSI. We include it way * down here because we want the user's section 1 to have been scanned first. * The user has a chance to override it with an option. */ /* %if-c-only */ #include <unistd.h> /* %endif */ /* %if-c++-only */ /* %endif */ #endif If I define YY_NO_UNISTD_H in the flex file(.l) this error will disappear, but I get several other errors: ...: error C2447: '{' : missing function header (old-style formal list?) ...: warning C4018: '<' : signed/unsigned mismatch ...: error C3861: 'isatty': identifier not found How can I fix this problem? All these errors occur in the flex-generated scanner. I know it's because unistd.h doesn't exist in windows. Do I have to write my own unistd.h? If so how to write it in order to eliminate those errors?

    Read the article

  • How do I render *parts* of a svg file?

    - by Fake Code Monkey Rashid
    Hello good people! :) I want to render parts of a svg file by name but for the life of me I cannot figure out how to do so (using python + gtk). Here's the svg file in question: http://david.bellot.free.fr/svg-cards/files/SVG-cards-2.0.1.tar.gz On his site, David, says: You can draw a card either by rendering the file onto a pixmap and clipping each card manually or by using the card's name through a DOM interface. All cards are embedded into a SVG group. I don't know what he means by a DOM interface. I have done some searching and the best result I found that seems to fit what I want to do is: QSvgRenderer *renderer = new QSvgRenderer(QLatin1String("SvgCardDeck.svg")); QGraphicsSvgItem *black = new QGraphicsSvgItem(); QGraphicsSvgItem *red = new QGraphicsSvgItem(); black->setSharedRenderer(renderer); black->setElementId(QLatin1String("black_joker")); red->setSharedRenderer(renderer); red->setElementId(QLatin1String("red_joker")); Notice however that it is for Qt and is not even written in python. This is what I have so far: #!/usr/bin/env python from __future__ import absolute_import import cairo import gtk import rsvg from xml import xpath from xml.dom import minidom window = gtk.Window() window.set_title("Foo") window.set_size_request(256, 256) window.set_property("resizable", False) window.set_position(gtk.WIN_POS_CENTER) window.connect("destroy", gtk.main_quit) window.show() document = minidom.parse("cards.svg") element = xpath.Evaluate("//*[@id='1_club']", document)[0] xml = element.toxml() svg = rsvg.Handle() svg.write(xml) pixbuf = svg.get_pixbuf() image = gtk.Image() image.set_from_pixbuf(pixbuf) image.show() window.add(image) gtk.main() It doesn't work, of course. What am I missing?

    Read the article

  • Javascript parentNode and innerHTML do not work properly in FireFox

    - by Uda
    Hello, I have a problem when using javascript in Firefox, here is the html: <HTML> <BODY> <TABLE align="center"> <TR><td><input type=button name=submit onclick="javascript:submitIt()" value="submit" align="center"></td></TR> <TD> <TABLE> <DIV STYLE="display:none position:relative;"> <FORM ID="formA" NAME="formA" METHOD="post" ACTION="b.html" TARGET="_blank"> <INPUT TYPE="hidden" NAME=aInput VALUE="1294457296"> </FORM> </DIV> </TABLE> </TD> </TABLE></BODY></HTML> and here's the javascript: <script language="Javascript"> function submitIt() { oForm = document.getElementById("formA"); strRequest = "<HTML><BODY>" + oForm.parentNode.innerHTML + "</BODY></HTML>"; newDoc = window.open("", "", ""); newDoc.document.write(strRequest); } Problem is when you click submit button in this html page, you'll get a new html with source: <HTML><BODY><form id="formA" name="formA" method="post" action="b.html" target="_blank"></form> <input name="aInput" value="1294457296" type="hidden"> </BODY></HTML> but it's supposed to be <HTML><BODY><form id="formA" name="formA" method="post" action="b.html" target="_blank"> <input name="aInput" value="1294457296" type="hidden"></form> </BODY></HTML> Could anyone please help please? it will be really appreciated. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Javascript: Error 'Object Required.'

    - by javascripthelp
    The following is the error popup message I get when I click "Finalize" button on my website: "Line: 298 Char: 5 Error: Object required: 'lobi_c_selected(...)' Code: 0 URL: http://10.128.23.50/i-prostage/AP/w_ap_check_reconciliation.asp?" Normally, when I click "Finalize" button, it'll generate and show a report in a popup window. However, I'd get this error message instead. Can any of you help me locate the error in the following source code for the page that I'm running in IE 6? sub cb_finalize dim ll_loop, ll_found, lobj_c_selected of_SetHourGlass(True) rpt_link.innerHTML = "" rpt_link.href = "" 'Process only if at least one record was selected if rds1.Recordset.Recordcount 0 then lb_found = false if rds1.Recordset.Recordcount = 1 then if c_selected.checked then lb_found = true else Set lobj_c_selected = document.all.item("c_selected") for ll_loop = 1 to rds1.Recordset.Recordcount if lobj_c_selected(ll_loop - 1).checked then lb_found = true exit for end if next end if if not lb_found then msgbox "Please select a record to be posted.", vbInformation, "ProStage Accounting" of_SetHourGlass(False) else window.setTimeout "ue_process()", 100, vbscript 'Post Event end if else msgbox "There's no record to be posted." + vbcrlf + "Please select a record to be posted.", vbInformation, "ProStage Accounting" of_SetHourGlass(False) end if end sub Sub ue_process dim ll_loop, ll_count, ls_ret, ls_trxid, ls_r1 'Get only selected records redim ls_trxid(rds1.Recordset.Recordcount) for ll_loop = 1 to rds1.Recordset.Recordcount rds1.Recordset.AbsolutePosition = ll_loop if not isnull(rds1.Recordset("clrdt")) then 'Add to TRXID array if selected ll_count = ll_count + 1 ls_trxid(ll_count) = rds1.Recordset("trxid") end if next 'Process reconciliation rds1.Recordset.MarshalOptions = 1 ls_ret = iBO_Update.of_update_1(is_dbsrc, rds1.Recordset, "GLTRX", is_sql) if ls_ret < "1" then msgbox "Update Failed ! " + ls_ret, vbExclamation + vbOKonly, document.title of_SetHourGlass(False) else 'Display Posting Journal & clear screen ue_posting_journal ls_trxid, ll_count Set rds1.SourceRecordset = iBO_Company.of_validate(is_dbsrc, "SELECT 1 FROM DUAL WHERE 1 = 2") ib_query = false 'Not to process RetrieveEnd end if End Sub Sub ue_posting_journal(as_trxid, al_count) dim ll_argseq, ls_argtyp, ls_argmnt, ll_sargseq of_setreport() ' Start service 'Prepare arguments for report in RPTMSTR table for ll_loop = 1 to al_count + 1 select case ll_loop case 1 'Range displayed as report title ll_argseq = 800 ls_argtyp = null ls_argmnt = "st_title.text = 'Bank: " + bnkid_name.value + ", As of Date: " + _ of_date_stringtodate(id_trxdt) + "'" ll_sargseq = 0 case else 'TRXID array ll_argseq = 1 ll_sargseq = ll_loop - 1 ls_argtyp = "S" ls_argmnt = as_trxid(ll_loop - 1) end select of_report_register_array "d_rpt_ap_check_reconciliation_register", ll_argseq, ls_argtyp, ls_argmnt, ll_sargseq next of_report_process "d_rpt_ap_check_reconciliation_register", true, true 'Display report of_sethourglass(False) End Sub

    Read the article

  • Better way of looping to detect change.

    - by Dremation
    As of now I'm using a while(true) method to detect changes in memory. The problem with this is it's kill the applications performance. I have a list of 30 pointers that need checked as rapidly as possible for changes, without sacrificing a huge performance loss. Anyone have ideas on this? memScan = new Thread(ScanMem); public static void ScanMem() { int i = addy.Length; while (true) { Thread.Sleep(30000); //I do this to cut down on cpu usage for (int j = 0; j < i; j++) { string[] values = addy[j].Split(new char[] { Convert.ToChar(",") }); //MessageBox.Show(values[2]); try { if (Memory.Scanner.getIntFromMem(hwnd, (IntPtr)Convert.ToInt32(values[0], 16), 32).ToString() != values[1].ToString()) { //Ok, it changed lets do our work //work if (Globals.Working) return; SomeFunction("Results: " + values[2].ToString(), "Memory"); Globals.Working = true; }//end if }//end try catch { } }//end for }//end while }//end void

    Read the article

  • Using Javascript to expand DIVs and go to anchor text

    - by radiantjoy
    I apologize that this question is so similar to "How can you check for a #hash in a URL using JavaScript?" but would appreciate your help with the following. I would like to use Javascript to display text that is a) identified by an anchor. b) contained within 2 collapsed DIVs....ONLY WHEN the anchor is in the URL. Otherwise, the page should display with all DIVs collapsed. Something like this: if (theHashIsABC) { Expand 2 DIVs on the page and go to the anchor; } else { just display the page; } Specifics: 1. Using IE7 2. DIVs ids to be expanded '8589' and '6212' out of several DIVs on the page 3. Anchor name is anchorABC I have been told that it is not possible to expand some DIVs in IE7 so I am thinking I need to expand all DIVs on the page. [ I can expand just the 2 with a link within the page: <a class="jumplink" href="javascript:toggleBlock('6212');toggleBlock('8589')";link to expand DIVs</a> ] This is what I have so far (in head section)... if(window.location.hash = "anchorABC") { //this works with a button on the page that expand all divs function showAll(pstrClass) { var aElts = document.getElementsByTagName('div'); setDisplay(pstrClass, aElts, 'show', 'Block'); aElts = document.getElementsByTagName('span'); setDisplay(pstrClass, aElts, 'show', 'Inline'); //would also like the page to move to the anchor } else { // just display the page } In advance, thank you for your time.

    Read the article

  • RavenDB Ids and ASP.NET MVC3 Routes

    - by goober
    Hey all, Just building a quick, simple site with MVC 3 RC2 and RavenDB to test some things out. I've been able to make a bunch of projects, but I'm curious as to how Html.ActionLink() handles a raven DB ID. My example: I have a Document called "reasons" (a reason for something, just text mostly), which has reason text and a list of links. I can add, remove, and do everything else fine via my repository. Below is the part of my razor view that lists each reason in a bulleted list, with an Edit link as the first text: @foreach(var Reason in ViewBag.ReasonsList) { <li>@Html.ActionLink("Edit", "Reasons", "Edit", new { id = Reason.Id }, null) @Reason.ReasonText</li> <ul> @foreach (var reasonlink in Reason.ReasonLinks) { <li><a href="@reasonlink.URL">@reasonlink.URL</a></li> } </ul> } The Problem This works fine, except for the edit link. While the values and code here appear to work directly (i.e the link is firing directly), RavenDB saves my document's ID as "reasons/1". So, when the URL happens and it passes the ID, the resulting route is "http://localhost:4976/Reasons/Edit/reasons/2". So, the ID is appended correctly, but MVC is interpreting it as its own route. Any suggestions on how I might be able to get around this? Do I need to create a special route to handle it or is there something else I can do?

    Read the article

  • jQuery add() function and the context of jQuery objects

    - by patrick
    Given the following HTML example... <div id='div1'>div one</div> <div id='div2'>div two</div> ...I found that the following jQuery code... $('#div1').click(function() { var $d = $(this); // Using 'this' instead of '#div1' $d.add('#div2').remove(); }); ...would not add #div2 to the set referenced by $d, but this code... $('#div1').click(function() { var $d = $('#div1'); // Using '#div1' instead of 'this' $d.add('#div2').remove(); }); ...successfully added #div2. Upon consulting firebug, I found that using $(this) gave the jQuery object a context of #div1, but doing $('#div1') gave the object a context of document. Given this information I tried... var $d = $(this, document); ...and the add() function worked as expected. So here's the question. Could someone please explain to my why a different context is assigned when using $(this) vs $('#div1')? Thanks much!

    Read the article

  • Undefined variable error when parsing json

    - by Ben Shelock
    I'm trying to parse the json grabbed from here. Basically what I do is iterate over the items, sort them, then display them. But I get an error saying data.data.children[i] is undefined. I can't think why it's doing it though? var json = 'http://www.reddit.com/reddits/mine/.json'; GM_xmlhttpRequest({ method: "GET", url: json, onload: reddits }); function reddits(response){ var txt = response.responseText; var data; var suggested = document.getElementById('suggested-reddits'); if(window.JSON && JSON.parse){ data = JSON.parse(txt); } else{ data = eval("("+txt+")"); } suggested.innerHTML += '<span>reddits you\'re subscribed to </span> <ul id="rsub"></ul>'; GM_addStyle('#rsub{width: 500px;}'); var reddits = new Array(); var rsub = document.getElementById('rsub'); for(i = 0; i <= data.data.children.length; i++){ var r = data.data.children[i].data.display_name; reddits.push(r); } sort(reddits); for(i = 0; i <= reddits.length; i++){ rsub.innerHTML += '<li><a href="#" onclick="set_sr_name(this); return false">' + reddits[i] + '</a></li>'; } }

    Read the article

  • How to output KML by GAE

    - by Niklas R
    Hi I use KML for a google map where entities have a geopt.db coordinate and soft memory limit was exceeded with 213.465 MB after servicing 1 requests total. The log says /list.kml 200 13130ms 10211cpu_ms 4238api_cpu_ms The file list.kml which outputs about 455,7 KB is a template as follows <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?><kml xmlns="http:// www.opengis.net/kml/2.2" xmlns:gx="http://www.google.com/kml/ext/2.2" xmlns:kml="http://www.opengis.net/kml/2.2" xmlns:atom="http:// www.w3.org/2005/Atom"> <Document>{% for a in list %} <Placemark> <name> </name> <description> <![CDATA[<a href="http://{{host}}/{{a.key.id}}"> {{ a.title }} </a> <br/>{{a.text}}]]> </description> <Style> <IconStyle> <Icon> <href> http://www.google.com/intl/en_us/mapfiles/ms/icons/green-dot.png </href> </Icon> </IconStyle> </Style> <Point> <coordinates> {{a.geopt.lon|floatformat:2}},{{a.geopt.lat|floatformat:2}} </coordinates> </Point> </Placemark> {% endfor %} </Document> </kml> Is there a memory leak in the template or the python that passes the list variable? Can I improve using other template engine or other framework than default? Is kmz compression a good idea in this case? Thanks in advance for any suggestion where or how to change the code.

    Read the article

  • IE bug with TD's tables and whitespace?

    - by mark smith
    Hi there, I have a page that is using tables, in FF etc it works perfect, but in IE7 it causes issues, its basically where the four corners have a td and and img (its a rounded corner form) .. if i remove the whitespace from the document it fixes the issue.. What actually happens is that it messes up the tables.. it puts a thin white line between the upper tr that holds the 2 corners and the next tr I need to remove the the whitespace between the img and the TD, is there a better work around, as i have lots and not only that if i reformat the document the problem returns.. here is a simple example.. <table width="100%" height="418" border="0" cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0" bgcolor="#F04A23" style="margin: 0px; padding: 0px"> <tr> <td width="12" align="left" valign="top"> <img src="content/images/corner_left.gif" width="12" height="12" /> </td> as you can see there is white space between img and td... and i remove it so it looks like this <img src="content/images/corner_left.gif" width="12" height="12" /></td> the problem is gone, (notice the td and image are right next to each other) Any ideas, i tried setting all sorts of css, padding 0px, margins 0px etc ... Any ideas really appreciated

    Read the article

  • Disposing underlying object from finalizer in an immutable object

    - by Juan Luis Soldi
    I'm trying to wrap around Awesomium and make it look to the rest of my code as close as possible to NET's WebBrowser since this is for an existing application that already uses the WebBrowser. In this library, there is a class called JSObject which represents a javascript object. You can get one of this, for instance, by calling the ExecuteJavascriptWithResult method of the WebView class. If you'd call it like myWebView.ExecuteJavascriptWithResult("document", string.Empty).ToObject(), then you'd get a JSObject that represents the document. I'm writing an immutable class (it's only field is a readonly JSObject object) called JSObjectWrap that wraps around JSObject which I want to use as base class for other classes that would emulate .NET classes such as HtmlElement and HtmlDocument. Now, these classes don't implement Dispose, but JSObject does. What I first thought was to call the underlying JSObject's Dispose method in my JSObjectWrap's finalizer (instead of having JSObjectWrap implement Dispose) so that the rest of my code can stay the way it is (instead of having to add using's everywhere and make sure every JSObjectWrap is being properly disposed). But I just realized if more than two JSObjectWrap's have the same underlying JSObject and one of them gets finalized this will mess up the other JSObjectWrap. So now I'm thinking maybe I should keep a static Dictionary of JSObjects and keep count of how many of each of them are being referenced by a JSObjectWrap but this sounds messy and I think could cause major performance issues. Since this sounds to me like a common pattern I wonder if anyone else has a better idea.

    Read the article

  • Can you recommend a full-text search engine?

    - by Jen
    Can you recommend a full-text search engine? (Preferably open source) I have a database of many (though relatively short) HTML documents. I want users to be able to search this database by entering one or more search words in my C++ desktop application. Hence, I’m looking for a fast full-text search solution to integrate with my app. Ideally, it should: Skip common words, such as the, of, and, etc. Support stemming, i.e. search for run also finds documents containing runner, running and ran. Be able to update its index in the background as new documents are added to the database. Be able to provide search word suggestions (like Google Suggest) Have a well-documented API To illustrate, assume the database has just two documents: Document 1: This is a test of text search. Document 2: Testing is fun. The following words should be in the index: fun, search, test, testing, text. If the user types t in the search box, I want the application to be able to suggest test, testing and text (Ideally, the application should be able to query the search engine for the 10 most common search words starting with t). A search for testing should return both documents. Other points: I don't need multi-user support I don't need support for complex queries The database resides on the user's computer, so the indexing should be performed locally. Can you suggest a C or C++ based solution? (I’ve briefly reviewed CLucene and Xapian, but I’m not sure if either will address my needs, especially querying the search word indexes for the suggest feature).

    Read the article

  • google maps not working anymore at the drop of a hat

    - by Vordreller
    2 days ago, I was working on a project that involves google maps. The website showed the maps on the pages just fine. Now, I come back to my workstation, nothing has changed, expect for the fact that the google maps won't show up anymore. The code is identical, nobody has touched my machine since I was gone, I've checked the html, everything is perfect and still this isn't working... The Javascript console is giving no errors and the code is identical to a backup I make everytime I call it a day. 2 days ago it was working, today it isn't. I've even copied the source code, put it into an html file and tried that, but the same result. I'm at a loss here. This is my code: <script type="text/javascript"> //<![CDATA[ var map; var directionsPanel; var directions; function initialize() { if (GBrowserIsCompatible()) { map = new GMap2(document.getElementById("map")); map.addControl(new GLargeMapControl()); map.addControl(new GScaleControl()); map.addControl(new GMapTypeControl()); //the route description directionsPanel = document.getElementById("route"); directions = new GDirections(map, directionsPanel); directions.load({COMMAND}); } } //]]> </script> The {COMMAND} is something that the PHP template will parse, I've checked it, the format is 100% correct and like I allready said, code now is identical to the backup, and if it worked back then, it should work now. Did google update their API overnight and did a function that I use here become deprecated? I don't know what's going on here...

    Read the article

  • restrict script inside iframe to run only within pages of same top-level domain?

    - by Justin Grant
    I'd like to enforce a requirement that client script inside a page (which in turn is loaded inside an iframe of another page) will only run when the parent page is on the same top-level domain as the framed page (although it may be on another hostname in that domain). Is this do-able? I assume that the easy solution of looking at top.location.host won't be available due to cross-site scripting limitations, but I'm wondering if other javascript hackery could suffice. Constraints on any potential solution inculde: I need to be able to run XmlHttpRequest calls inside the child page, and I need to validate that the hostname is in the same domain before I make those calls. (this makes a document.domain solution challenging because AFAIK setting document.domain disables the ability to make XmlHttpRequest calls. I can control client-side script and HTML on both parent or child (and I can create new pages if needed), but I can't make any server-side code changes. I can't simulate the above via server-side calls or proxies, because the child page's hostname uses a forms auth system with hostname-scoped cookies that I can't get access to from the parent page since it's on a different hostname. I don't have enough control over the child-frame site to be able to put both sites behind the same reverse-proxy or load-balancer (which would enable me to put both sites on the same hostname). I don't actually need to access any UI inside the IFrame-- the iframe is invisible and I'm only using it to run javascript within the security context of a site on a different hostname from the parent page. So at this point I'm stumped. Got any ideas? I want to make sure I'm not overlooking an easy solution before giving up.

    Read the article

  • innerHTML doesn't work correctly with xhtml in Chrome

    - by Desperadeus
    Hi! I've got a trouble with Chrome5.0.375.70, but FF 3.6.3 and Opera 10.53 are OK. Below is the line of code: document.getElementById('content').innerHTML = data.documentElement.innerHTML; The data object from the code is a document (typeof(data) == 'object') and I've got it by ajax request to chapter01.xhtml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <!DOCTYPE html [ <!ENTITY D "&#x2014;"> <!ENTITY o "&#x2018;"> <!ENTITY c "&#x2019;"> <!ENTITY O "&#x201C;"> <!ENTITY C "&#x201D;"> ]> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <title>Alice's Adventures in Wonderland by Lewis Carroll. Chapter I: Down the Rabbit-Hole</title> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="style.css"/> <link rel="stylesheet" type="application/vnd.adobe-page-template+xml" href="page-template.xpgt"/> </head> <body> <div class="title_box"> <h2 class="chapnum">Chapter I</h2> <h2 class="chaptitle">Down the Rabbit-Hole</h2> <hr/> </div> The Chrome cuts all before body and as a result link to css in header is missed; user can't see formatted text and images. How can I fix it or bypass?

    Read the article

  • problem on running script on different operating system

    - by Praveen kalal
    i run use a javascript code for getting browser information it run fine on microsoft windows xp but it not working on microsoft windows server 2003. my code is folowing. plz help. <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="zeroclipboard/ZeroClipboard.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> window.onload = function F() { var today = new Date(); var the_date = new Date("December 31, 2012"); var the_cookie_date = the_date.toGMTString(); var the_cookie = screen.width +"x"+ screen.height; var the_cookie = "Screen Resolution:"+the_cookie + ";\nExpires:" + the_cookie_date+";\n Browser CodeName:"+navigator.appCodeName+";\n Browser Name: " + navigator.appName+";\n Browser Version: " + navigator.appVersion+";\n Browser Version: " + navigator.appVersion+"; \n Cookies Enabled: " + navigator.cookieEnabled +";\n Platform: " + navigator.platform+";\n User-agent header: " + navigator.userAgent; / document.getElementById('box-content').value=the_cookie; } </script> </head> <body> <textarea name="box-content" id="box-content" rows="10" cols="70"> </textarea> <br /><br /> <p><input type="button" id="copy" name="copy" value="Copy to Clipboard" /></p> </body> </html> <script type="text/javascript"> //set path ZeroClipboard.setMoviePath('http://192.168.101.135:471/browserinfo/zeroclipboard/ZeroClipboard.swf'); //create client var clip = new ZeroClipboard.Client(); //event clip.addEventListener('mousedown',function() { clip.setText(document.getElementById('box-content').value); }); clip.addEventListener('complete',function(client,text) { alert('text is copied'); }); //glue it to the button clip.glue('copy'); </script>

    Read the article

  • How to set focus to a web control in ASP.NET

    - by Dan7el
    Question: What is the best way to set focus to a web control in ASP .NET. I can do it, but it's ugly. I have a web control wrapped in a web control hosted on a web page. So, if you do a view | source on the page the id is something like WrapperControl_Control_TextBox. I've tried the "tried and true" Javascript methods of grabbing the element and setting it's focus: document.getElementByID( "WrapperControl_Control_TextBox" ).focus(); and it didn't work. I'm not sure why. I know I could possibly do: document.getElementById( "<%= TextBox.ClientID %" ).focus(); too, I think. This won't work because of another totally separate error based on the fact you can't dynamically add controls to a header if there is a "<% %" in the page. GAH. In the "bottom-most" control, I've tried setting the focus (TextBox.Focus() in Page_Load) and that doesn't work either. Anyway, the way that works is by simply taking the ControlsCollection of the Page, grabbing the control I need from that, getting it's collection, grabbing the next lower control and so forth. I only have to do this seven times. So I have eight foreach loops. Basically, my code is like this: /////////////////////////////// // On the page /////////////////////////////// ControlCollection controls = Controls; foreach( Control control in controls) { if ( string.Equals( control.ID, "FormID", StringComparison.InvariantCultureIgnore ) ) { ControlCollection nextControls = control.Controls; foreach( Control nextControl in nextControls ) { if ( string.Equals( nextControl.ID, "DivICareAboutInTheForm", StringComparison.InvariantCultureIgnor ) ) { ControlCollection nextNextControls = nextControl.Controls; //: //: //Yes, it's that bad and so forth. //: //: } } } }

    Read the article

  • Problem in loading Ifrmae in FireFox!

    - by user309029
    Hello all, I'm trying to load an aspx page using Iframe in VB.net. I'm trying to do it(setting the source of Iframe) with the help of Ext(JavaScript). aspx code: &lt div id="container" &gt &lt iframe id="pane" name="pane" src="Empty.aspx" frameborder="0" &gt &lt /iframe &gt &lt /div &gt Javascript code: Pane = function() { var pane; return { init: function() { if (!document.body) { return; } pane = Ext.get('pane'); if ( something ) { this.load(); } else { this.navigateTo('Page.aspx?id=' + a.ID); } }, load: function() { pane.dom.src = 'HTTPURL'; }, navigateTo: function(url) { var agt = navigator.userAgent.toLowerCase(); if (agt.indexOf("firefox") != -1) { document.getElementById('pane').src = url; } else { pane.dom.src = url; } } }; } (); This works fine with IE and Ifrma gets loaded wuth page.aspx every time the parent page is requested. But with FireFox it doesn't. With FireFox the src attribute remains "Empty.aspx" when the page is loaded but when i refresh the page i.e. in post back event the scr attribute changes to "page.aspx?id=a.id" and iframe gets loaded properly. Has anyone faced such kind of problem before? and knows the solution please help me, it's killing me big. Thanks in Advance. Maddy.

    Read the article

  • Problem in loading Ifrmae in FireFox!

    - by maddy
    Hello all, I'm trying to load an aspx page using Iframe in VB.net. I'm trying to do it(setting the source of Iframe) with the help of Ext(JavaScript). aspx code: < div id="container" > < iframe id="pane" name="pane" src="Empty.aspx" frameborder="0" >< /iframe> < /div > Javascript code: Pane = function() { var pane; return { init: function() { if (!document.body) { return; } pane = Ext.get('pane'); if ( something ) { this.load(); } else { this.navigateTo('Page.aspx?id=' + a.ID); } }, load: function() { pane.dom.src = 'HTTPURL'; }, navigateTo: function(url) { var agt = navigator.userAgent.toLowerCase(); if (agt.indexOf("firefox") != -1) { document.getElementById('pane').src = url; } else { pane.dom.src = url; } } }; } (); This works fine with IE and Ifrma gets loaded wuth page.aspx every time the parent page is requested. But with FireFox it doesn't. With FireFox the src attribute remains "Empty.aspx" when the page is loaded but when i refresh the page i.e. in post back event the scr attribute changes to "page.aspx?id=a.id" and iframe gets loaded properly. Has anyone faced such kind of problem before? and knows the solution please help me, it's killing me big. Thanks in Advance. Maddy.

    Read the article

  • Host Primary Domain from a subfolder

    - by TandemAdam
    I am having a problem making a sub directory act as the public_html for my main domain, and getting a solution that works with that domains sub directories too. My hosting allows me to host multiple sites, which are all working great. I have set up a subfolder under my ~/public_html/ directory called /domains/, where I create a folder for each separate website. e.g. public_html domains websiteone websitetwo websitethree ... This keeps my sites nice and tidy. The only issue was getting my "main domain" to fit into this system. It seems my main domain, is somehow tied to my account (or to Apache, or something), so I can't change the "document root" of this domain. I can define the document roots for any other domains ("Addon Domains") that I add in cPanel no problem. But the main domain is different. I was told to edit the .htaccess file, to redirect the main domain to a subdirectory. This seemed to work great, and my site works fine on it's home/index page. The problem I'm having is that if I try to navigate my browser to say the images folder (just for example) of my main site, like this: www.yourmaindomain.com/images/ then it seems to ignore the redirect and shows the entire server directory in the url, like this: www.yourmaindomain.com/domains/yourmaindomain/images/ It still actually shows the correct "Index of /images" page, and show the list of all my images. Here is an example of my .htaccess file that I am using: RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^(www.)?yourmaindomain.com$ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/domains/yourmaindomain/ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /domains/yourmaindomain/$1 RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^(www.)?yourmaindomain.com$ RewriteRule ^(/)?$ domains/yourmaindomain/index.html [L] Does this htaccess file look correct? I just need to make it so my main domain behaves like an addon domain, and it's subdirectories adhere to the redirect rules.

    Read the article

  • How can I distinguish between overlapping segments of text using HTML?

    - by Siracuse
    Easy question, it is valid to have overlapping spans in html? Example: <span id="1">This is <span id="2"> some text </span> some other text </span> ^ ^ End1 End2 Edit: I see now that the spans closing tag would be ambiguous about which one it is closing, and that first </span> would close span id = 2, not 1 like I intended. My problem is, I have a block of text which I'm trying to highlight based on what the mouse hovers over. This block of text is composed of sections, some of which "overlap" eachother. I'm trying to use some jQuery and HTML to present this document so when I hover over the sections, the appropriate one will be highlighted. So, in my example above, the first span is meant to be ended with the first span close tag, and the second span is meant to be ended to with the second span close tag. This is because of the semantics of my document, these are two overlapping segments. I want it so when I hover to the left, it will only highlight up to span id = 1 and the first span close, if I hover between the two "overlapping" spans, it will highlight both of them, and if I hover to the right, it will highlight from span id=2 to the last span close. However, I'm starting to think this isn't possible. Is there any way I can distinguish segments of text in HTML that allows overlapping? So my jQuery script that highlights when I hover over different spans will highlight the correct portions. Should I alternate between div's and spans? Would that disambiguate what I'm closing then and allow me the do the proper highlighting with my jQuery hover script? I'm wondering about more than 2 segments overlapping now. Sigh, I wish I could just be explicate about what I'm closing.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 231 232 233 234 235 236 237 238 239 240 241 242  | Next Page >