Search Results

Search found 8286 results on 332 pages for 'defined'.

Page 236/332 | < Previous Page | 232 233 234 235 236 237 238 239 240 241 242 243  | Next Page >

  • how to get cartesian products between database and local sequences in linq?

    - by JD
    I saw this similar question here but can't figure out how to use Contains in Cartesian product desired result situation: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1712105/linq-to-sql-exception-local-sequence-cannot-be-used-in-linq-to-sql-implementatio Let's say I have following: var a = new [] { 1, 4, 7 }; var b = new [] { 2, 5, 8 }; var test = from i in a from j in b select new { A = i, B = j, AB = string.Format("{0:00}a{1:00}b", i, j), }; foreach (var t in test) Console.Write("{0}, ", t.AB); This works great and I get a dump like so (note, I want the cartesian product): 01a02b, 01a05b, 01a08b, 04a02b, 04a05b, 04a08b, 07a02b, 07a05b, 07a08b, Now what I really want is to take this and cartesian product it again against an ID from a database table I have. But, as soon as I add in one more from clause that instead of referencing objects, references SQL table, I get an error. So, altering above to something like so where db is defined as a new DataContext (i.e., class deriving from System.Data.Linq.DataContext): var a = new [] { 1, 4, 7 }; var b = new [] { 2, 5, 8 }; var test = from symbol in db.Symbols from i in a from j in b select new { A = i, B = j, AB = string.Format("{0}{1:00}a{2:00}b", symbol.ID, i, j), }; foreach (var t in test) Console.Write("{0}, ", t.AB); The error I get is following: Local sequence cannot be used in LINQ to SQL implementations of query operators except the Contains operator Its related to not using Contains apparently but I'm unsure how Contains would be used when I don't really want to constrict the results - I want the Cartesian product for my situation. Any ideas of how to use Contains above and still yield the Cartesian product when joining database and local sequences?

    Read the article

  • Creating cookieless application on development machine with asp.net

    - by zaladane
    I tried posting this on ServerFault with no luck so i am trying here. I am thinking about setting up a new domain to host static content on my website and have it cookieless just like Stackoverflow with their static domain. So before going ahead and buying the domain and setting it up I wanted to test it on my developement machine first under localhost (I have to mention that i am planning on having IIS running on my new domain for the static files). I therefore created a new application under IIS and disabled session state and forms authentication. When my main application needs resources like css, images and js , I use the path to the "static" application where they are hosted. The problem is that when I look at the request and the response for the requested files, they still have the session_id cookie defined as well as the asp.net authentication cookie. Is it at all possible to accomplish what i am trying to do on a development machine or do i have to just go ahead and purchase the new domain which hopefully with make things right? I tried to read about cookieless domain but can't figure out what i might be missing.

    Read the article

  • What is the best way to process XML sent to WCF 3.5

    - by CRM Junkie
    I have to develop a WCF application in 3.5. The input will be sent in the form of XML and the response would be sent in the form of XML as well. A ASP.NET application will be consuming the WCF and sending/receiving data in XML format. Now, as per my understanding, when consuming WCF from an ASP.NET application, we just add a reference to the service, create an object of the service, pack all the necessary data(Data Members in WCF) into the input object (object of the Data Contract) and call the necessary function. It happens that the ASP.NET application is being developed by a separate party and they are hell bent on receiving and sending data in XML format. What I can perceive from this is that the WCF will take the XML string (a single Data Member string type) as input and send out a XML string (again a single Data Member string type) as output. I have created WCF applications earlier where requests and responses were sent out in XML/JSON format when it was consumed by jQuery ajax calls. In those cases, the XML tags were automatically mapped to the different Data Members defined. What approach should I take in this case? Should I just take a string as input (basically the XML string) or is there any way WCF/.NET 3.5 will automatically map the XML tags with the Data Members for requests and responses and I would not need to parse the XML string separately?

    Read the article

  • Change specificity by child

    - by jim red
    hi I'd like to integrate a theme tag to my elements so they appear in diffrent colours. But since the css selectors have the same css specificity the latest overrides the earlier defined rule. this is an example that shows my problem: .... <div class="red"> <div class="box">This should be red</div> <div class="yellow"> ... <div class="box">This should be yellow (nested in x levels under the div.yellow)</div> ... </div> .... and here my css .box { width: 100px; height: 100px; } .yellow { background-color: yellow; } .red { background-color: red; } the box should be listed somewhere, but as soon as it is a sub child of another color definition it should been overwritten. thanks for any help! //jim

    Read the article

  • What could I add to this code to allow the cell height to dynamically change as I edit the JTextArea

    - by Dr. Plaguey
    The derived classes I am using public class TextAreaRenderer extends JTextArea implements TableCellRenderer { public TextAreaRenderer() { setLineWrap(true); setWrapStyleWord(true); } public Component getTableCellRendererComponent(JTable jTable, Object obj, boolean isSelected, boolean hasFocus, int row, int column) { setText((String)obj); int height_wanted = (int)getPreferredSize().getHeight() + 10; if (height_wanted != rootJTable.getRowHeight(row)) rootJTable.setRowHeight(row, height_wanted); return this; } } class TextEditor extends AbstractCellEditor implements TableCellEditor { protected JTextArea ta; String txt; public TextEditor() { ta = new JTextArea(); } //Implement the one CellEditor method that AbstractCellEditor doesn't. public Object getCellEditorValue() { return ta.getText(); } // Implement the one method defined by TableCellEditor. public Component getTableCellEditorComponent(javax.swing.JTable table, Object value,boolean isSelected, int row, int column) { txt = value.toString(); ta.setText(txt); ta.setLineWrap(true); return new JScrollPane(ta); } public boolean isCellEditable(EventObject anEvent) { return true; } } Set column renderer and editor rootJTable.getColumnModel().getColumn(1).setCellRenderer(new TextAreaRenderer()); rootJTable.getColumnModel().getColumn(1).setCellEditor(new TextEditor());

    Read the article

  • How to set a define inside other define

    - by João Madureira Pires
    Hi all! I'm developing a web application in jboss, seam, richfaces. I'm using a template(xhtml) as master page of all others and there i set two insert tags. <ui:insert name="head"/> <ui:insert name="body"/> The problem is that in pages that use this master page as template, the <ui:define name="head">...</ui:define> must be defined inside the <ui:define name="body">...</ui:define>. How can i do this? Basically, what i want is to do the following: <ui:define name="body">... <ui:define name="head"> <meta name="title" content="#{something.title}" /> </ui:define> ...</ui:define> the master page must return : <meta name="title" content="#{something.title}" /> on the <ui:insert name="head"/> Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • How to use CodeDomSerializer to serialize an object in .Net?

    - by user341127
    I have a class, which is defined as the following: [ToolboxItem(false)] [DesignTimeVisible(false)] [DesignerSerializer("DevExpress.XtraEditors.Design.RepositoryItemCodeDomSerializer, DevExpress.XtraEditors.v10.1.Design", "System.ComponentModel.Design.Serialization.CodeDomSerializer, System.Design")] [Designer("DevExpress.XtraEditors.Design.BaseRepositoryItemDesigner, DevExpress.XtraEditors.v10.1.Design")] [LicenseProvider(typeof(DXEditorLicenseProvider))] public class RepositoryItem : Component, ISupportInitialize, ICustomTypeDescriptor, IImageCollectionHelper {......} I tried the following code to serialize the object of this class. DesignerSerializationManager m = new System.ComponentModel.Design.Serialization.DesignerSerializationManager(); m.CreateSession(); DevExpress.XtraEditors.Design.RepositoryItemCodeDomSerializer s = m.GetSerializer(typeof(RepositoryItem), typeof(DevExpress.XtraEditors.Design.RepositoryItemCodeDomSerializer)) as DevExpress.XtraEditors.Design.RepositoryItemCodeDomSerializer; RepositoryItem i = persistentRepository1.Items[0]; //m.Container.Add(i); s.Serialize(m,i );// An error "Object reference not set to an instance of an object." happended here. For I am not familiar with CodeDom, I have spent one day to get the way out. I guess the above code has some stupid mistakes. Please give me a hand to show how to serialize AND DeSelialize such objects of the class of Repository. BTW, the reason I don't use any other serializer is that I am supposed not to have rights to know the source code of RepositoryItem and others could inherit RepositoryItem at the same time. And actually I have to deal with RepositoryItem and its descendants. Thank you in advance. Ying

    Read the article

  • Strange ng-model behavior inside ng-repeat

    - by Mike Fisher
    I'm trying to build up a complex post request to run a report in my Angular app. I have a list of inputs all dynamically generated via an ng-repeat a simple version of my html looks like this. <div ng-repeat="filter in lists.filters"> <input type="checkbox" ng-model="report.options.filters[filter.value]['type']/> <input type="text" ng-model="report.options.filters[filter.value]['values']/> </div> ng-repeat is looping over this array [ {name: 'Advertisers', value: 'advertisers'}, {name: 'Sizes', value: 'sizes'}, {name: 'Campaign IDs', value: 'campaigns'}, {name: 'Creative IDs', value: 'creatives'}, {name: 'Publishers', value: 'publishers'}, {name: 'Placement IDs', value: 'placements'}, {name: 'Seller Types', value: 'seller_types'}, {name: 'Impression Types', value: 'impression_types'}, {name: 'Bid Types', value: 'bid_types'}, {name: 'Seller Members', value: 'seller_members'}, {name: 'Buyer Members', value: 'buyer_members'}, {name: 'Insertion Order Ids', value: 'insertion_orders'}, {name: 'Countries', value: 'countries'}, {name: 'Site Ids', value: 'sites'}, {name: 'Sources', value: 'sources'} ]; The JSON I'm sending back needs to be structured like this: "filters": { "state": "all", "campaigns": {type:"include", values":[1,2]}, "creatives": {type:"exclude","values":[1,2]}, "publishers": {"values":[1,2]}, "placements": {type:"exclude",values":[1,2]}, "advertisers": {"values":[1,2]}, "sizes": {"values":[1,2]}, "countries": {"values":[1,2]}, "insertion_orders": {"values":[1,2]}, "sites": {"values":[1,2]}, "bid_types": {"values":[1,2]}, "seller_types": {"values":[1,2]}, "impression_types": {"values":[1,2]}, "seller_members": {"values":[1,2]}, "buyer_members": {"values":[1,2]}, "sources": {"values":[1,2]} } When I do this Angular throws an error: 'Cannot set property 'values' of undefined' and 'Cannot set property 'type' of undefined' Yet if I do this (inside ng-repeat) <input type="text" ng-model="report.options.filters[filter.value]/> Or this outside of ng-repeat <input type="text" ng-model="report.options.filters[filter.value]['values']/> No errors are thrown and everything works fine. I'm positive that filter.value is defined and available on the scope even though Angular thinks it's not for some reason. I'm not quite sure what I'm doing wrong. Any help is much appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Can't contravariance be solved with interfaces?

    - by Sir Psycho
    Hi, I'm at the point where I'm starting to grasp contravariance, although I'm trying to work out what the advantage is when an interface can be used instead. Obviously I'm missing something. Here is the c#4 example class Dog : Animal { public Dog(string name) : base(name) { } } class Animal { string _name; public Animal(string name) { _name = name; } public void Walk() { Console.WriteLine(_name + " is walking"); } } Action<Animal> MakeItMove = (ani) => { ani.Walk(); }; Action<Dog> MakeItWalk = MakeItMove; MakeItWalk(new Dog("Sandy")); Same example which works in earlier versions on c# class Dog : Animal { public Dog(string name) : base(name) { } } class Animal : IAnimal { string _name; public Animal(string name) { _name = name; } public void Walk() { Console.WriteLine(_name + " is walking"); } } interface IAnimal { void Walk(); } Action<IAnimal> MakeItMove = (ani) => { ani.Walk(); }; Action<IAnimal> MakeItWalk = MakeItMove; MakeItWalk(new Dog("Sandy")); These may not be the best examples, but I still can't seem to 'get it'. Is the in keywork defined on the action delegate simply a short hand syntax way like lamda is to delegates?

    Read the article

  • What is the correct date format for a Date column in YUI DataTable ?

    - by giulio
    I have produced a data table. All the columns are sortable. It has a date in one column which I formatted dd/mm/yyyy hh:mm:ss . This is different from the default format as defined in the doco, but I should be able to define my own format for non-american formats. (See below) The DataTable class provides a set of built-in static functions to format certain well-known types of data. In your Column definition, if you set a Column's formatter to YAHOO.widget.DataTable.formatDate, that function will render data of type Date with the default syntax of "MM/DD/YYYY". If you would like to bypass a built-in formatter in favor of your own, you can point a Column's formatter to a custom function that you define. The table is generated from HTML Markup, so the data is held within "" tags. This gives me some more clues about compatible string dates for javascript: In general, the RecordSet expects to hold data in native JavaScript types. For instance, a date is expected to be a JavaScript Date instance, not a string like "4/26/2005" in order to sort properly. Converting data types as data comes into your RecordSet is enabled through the parser property in the fields array of your DataSource's responseSchema I suspect that the I'm missing something in the date format. So what is an acceptable string date for javascript, that Yui dataTable will recognise, given that I want format it as "dd/mm/yyyy hh:mm:ss" ?

    Read the article

  • How can UISearchDisplayController autorelease cause crash in a different view controller?

    - by Tofrizer
    Hi, I have two view controllers A and B. From A, I navigate to view controller B as follows: // in View Controller A // navigateToB method -(void) navigateToB { BViewController *bViewController = [[BViewController alloc] initWithNibName: @"BView" bundle:nil]; bViewController.bProperty1 = SOME_STRING_CONSTANT; bViewController.title = @"A TITLE OF A VC's CHOOSING"; [self.navigationController pushViewController: bViewController animated:YES]; [bViewController release]; //<----- releasing 0x406c1e0 } In BViewController, the property bPropery1 is defined with copy as below (note, B also contains UITableView and other properties): @property (nonatomic, copy) NSString *bProperty1; Everything appeared to work fine when navigating back and forth between A and B. That is until I added a UISearchDisplayController to the table view contained in BViewController. Now when I navigate out of B, back to A, the app crashes. Stack trace shows what looks the search display controller being autoreleased at time of crash: #0 0x009663a7 in ___forwarding___ #1 0x009426c2 in __forwarding_prep_0___ #2 0x018c8539 in -[UISearchDisplayController _destroyManagedTableView] #3 0x018c8ea4 in -[UISearchDisplayController dealloc] #4 0x00285ce5 in NSPopAutoreleasePool NSZombies shows: -[BViewController respondsToSelector:]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x406c1e0 And malloc history on this points to the bViewController already released in A's navigateToB method above: Call [2] [arg=132]: thread_a065e720 |start ... <snip> ..._sendActionsForEvents:withEvent:] | -[UIControl sendAction:to:forEvent:] | - [UIApplication sendAction:to:from:forEvent:] | -[**AViewController navigateToB**] | +[NSObject alloc] | +[NSObject allocWithZone:] | _internal_class_createInstance | _internal_class_createInstanceFromZone | calloc | malloc_zone_calloc Can someone please give me any ideas on what is happening here? In navigateToB method, once the bViewController is released (after pushViewController), that's should be it for bViewController. Nothing else even knows about it as it is local to the navigateToB method block and it has been released. When navigating from B back to A, nothing is invoked in viewDidLoad, viewWillAppear etc that will re-enter navigateToB. It looks like somehow search display controller has a reference to something in my AViewController and so as it is autoreleased it is taking this "something" down with it but I cannot understand how this is possible, especially as I'm using copy to pass data between A and B. I'm going potty over this. I'm sure this is my mistake somewhere and so I turn to you, Stack Overflow legends for any words of wisdom or advice on how to resolve this. Many Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Get Mechanize to handle cookies from an arbitrary POST (to log into https://www.t-mobile.com/ progra

    - by Horace Loeb
    I want to log into https://www.t-mobile.com/ programmatically. My first idea was to use Mechanize to submit the login form: However, it turns out that this isn't even a real form. Instead, when you click "Log in" some javascript grabs the values of the fields, creates a new form dynamically, and submits it. "Log in" button HTML: <button onclick="handleLogin(); return false;" class="btnBlue" id="myTMobile-login"><span>Log in</span></button> The handleLogin() function: function handleLogin() { if (ValidateMsisdnPassword()) { // client-side form validation logic var a = document.createElement("FORM"); a.name = "form1"; a.method = "POST"; a.action = mytmoUrl; // defined elsewhere as https://my.t-mobile.com/Login/LoginController.aspx var c = document.createElement("INPUT"); c.type = "HIDDEN"; c.value = document.getElementById("myTMobile-phone").value; // the value of the phone number input field c.name = "txtMSISDN"; a.appendChild(c); var b = document.createElement("INPUT"); b.type = "HIDDEN"; b.value = document.getElementById("myTMobile-password").value; // the value of the password input field b.name = "txtPassword"; a.appendChild(b); document.body.appendChild(a); a.submit(); return true } else { return false } } I could simulate this form submission by POSTing the form data to https://my.t-mobile.com/Login/LoginController.aspx with Net::HTTP#post_form, but I don't know how to get the resultant cookie into Mechanize so I can continue to scrape the UI available when I'm logged in. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • d:DesignData issue, Visual Studio 2010 cant build after adding sample design data with Expression Bl

    - by Valko
    Hi, VS 2010 solution and Silverlight project builds fine, then: I open MyView.xaml view in Expression Blend 4 Add sample data from class (I use my class defined in the same project) after I add new sample design data with Expression blend 4, everything looks fine, you see the added sample data in the EB 4 fine, you also see the data in VS 2010 designer too. Close the EB 4, and next VS 2010 build is giving me this errors: Error 7 XAML Namespace http://schemas.microsoft.com/expression/blend/2008 is not resolved. C:\Code\source\...myview.xaml and: Error 12 Object reference not set to an instance of an object. ... TestSampleData.xaml when I open the TestSampleData.xaml I see that namespace for my class used to define sample data is not recognized. However this namespace and the class itself exist in the same project! If I remove the design data from the MyView.xaml: d:DataContext="{d:DesignData /SampleData/TestSampleData.xaml}" it builds fine and the namespace in TestSampleData.xaml is recognized this time?? and then if add: d:DataContext="{d:DesignData /SampleData/TestSampleData.xaml}" I again see in the VS 2010 designer sample data, but the next build fails and again I see studio cant find the namespace in my TestSampleData.xaml containing sample data. That cycle is driving me crazy. Am I missing something here, is it not possible to have your class defining sample design data in the same project you have the MyView.xaml view?? cheers Valko

    Read the article

  • Better ways to implement a modulo operation (algorithm question)

    - by ryxxui
    I've been trying to implement a modular exponentiator recently. I'm writing the code in VHDL, but I'm looking for advice of a more algorithmic nature. The main component of the modular exponentiator is a modular multiplier which I also have to implement myself. I haven't had any problems with the multiplication algorithm- it's just adding and shifting and I've done a good job of figuring out what all of my variables mean so that I can multiply in a pretty reasonable amount of time. The problem that I'm having is with implementing the modulus operation in the multiplier. I know that performing repeated subtractions will work, but it will also be slow. I found out that I could shift the modulus to effectively subtract large multiples of the modulus but I think there might still be better ways to do this. The algorithm that I'm using works something like this (weird pseudocode follows): result,modulus : integer (n bits) (previously defined) shiftcount : integer (initialized to zero) while( (modulus<result) and (modulus(n-1) != 1) ){ modulus = modulus << 1 shiftcount++ } for(i=shiftcount;i>=0;i++){ if(modulus<result){result = result-modulus} if(i!=0){modulus = modulus << 1} } So...is this a good algorithm, or at least a good place to start? Wikipedia doesn't really discuss algorithms for implementing the modulo operation, and whenever I try to search elsewhere I find really interesting but incredibly complicated (and often unrelated) research papers and publications. If there's an obvious way to implement this that I'm not seeing, I'd really appreciate some feedback.

    Read the article

  • Using Scala structural types with abstract types

    - by Joshua Hartman
    I'm trying to define a structural type defining anything that has an "add" method (for instance, a java collection or a java map). Using this, I want to define a few higher order functions that operate on a certain collection object GenericTypes { type GenericCollection[T] = { def add(value: T): java.lang.Boolean} } import GenericTypes._ trait HigherOrderFunctions[T, CollectionType[X] <: GenericCollection[X]] { def map[V](fn: (T) => V): CollectionType[V] .... } class RichJList[T](list: List[T]) extends HigherOrderFunctions[T, java.util.List] This does not compile with the following error error: Parameter type in structural refinement may not refer to abstract type defined outside that same refinement I tried removing the parameter on GenericCollection and putting it on the method: object GenericTypes { type GenericCollection = { def add[T](value: T): java.lang.Boolean} } import GenericTypes._ trait HigherOrderFunctions[T, CollectionType[X] <: GenericCollection] class RichJList[T](list: List[T]) extends HigherOrderFunctions[T, java.util.List] but I get another error: error: type arguments [T,java.util.List] do not conform to trait HigherOrderFunctions's type parameter bounds [T,CollectionType[X] <: org.scala_tools.javautils.j2s.GenericTypes.GenericCollection] Can anyone give me some advice on how to use structural typing with abstract typed parameters in Scala? Or how to achieve what I'm looking to accomplish? Thanks so much!

    Read the article

  • WPF TexBox TwoWay Binding Problem when ValidationRules used

    - by ignis
    I seem to have a problem with TwoWay DataBinding - my application has a window with a bunch of textboxes that allow to edit values of the properties they are bound to. Everything works well except for textboxes that also have a validation rule defined, in which case no text is displayed in the textbox when the window opens (binding back-to-source still works fine for those). If I remove Validation rule, everything's back to normal. I searched for an answer to this for a few hours now, but somehow did not even find anyone else complaining of the same issue. I am completely new to WPF, and I am sure it is just a silly mistake I have somewhere in my code... I will greatly appreciate any feedback... <TextBox Margin="40,2,20,0" Grid.Column="0" Grid.Row="1" Background="#99FFFFFF" > <Binding Path="LastName" Mode="TwoWay" ValidatesOnDataErrors="true" UpdateSourceTrigger="LostFocus" > <Binding.ValidationRules> <validation:StringNameValidationRule /> </Binding.ValidationRules> </Binding> </TextBox>

    Read the article

  • Reference inherited class's <T>ype in a derived class

    - by DRapp
    I don't know if its possible or not, but here's what I need. I'm toying around with something and want to know if its possible since you can't create your own data type based on a sealed type such as int, Int32, Int64, etc. I want to create a top-level class that is defined of a given type with some common stuff. Then, derive this into two subclasses, but in this case, each class is based on either and int or Int64 type. From THAT instance, create an instance of either one and know its yped basis for parameter referenc / return settings. So when I need to create an instance of the "ThisClass", I don't have to know its type basis of either int or Int64, yet IT will know the type and be able to allow methods/functions to be called with the typed... This way, If I want to change my ThisClass definition from SubLevel1 to SubLevel2, I don't have to dance around all different data type definitions. Hope this makes sense.. public class TopLevel<T> { ... } pubic class SubLevel1 : TopLevel<int> { ... } public class SubLevel2 : TopLevel<Int64> { ... } public class ThisClass : SubLevel1 { ... public <based on the Int data type from SubLevel1> SomeFunc() { return <the Int value computed>; } }

    Read the article

  • Why Finalize method not allowed to override

    - by somaraj
    I am new to .net ..and i am confused with the destructor mechanism in C# ..please clarify In C# destructors are converted to finalize method by CLR. If we try to override it (not using destructor ) , will get an error Error 2 Do not override object.Finalize. Instead, provide a destructor. But it seems that the Object calss implementation in mscorlib.dll has finalize defined as protected override void Finalize(){} , then why cant we override it , that what virtual function for . Why is the design like that , is it to be consistent with c++ destructor concept. Also when we go to the definition of the object class , there is no mention of the finalize method , then how does the hmscorlib.dll definition shows the finalize funtion . Does it mean that the default destructor is converted to finalize method. public class Object { public Object(); public virtual bool Equals(object obj); public static bool Equals(object objA, object objB); public virtual int GetHashCode(); public Type GetType(); protected object MemberwiseClone(); public static bool ReferenceEquals(object objA, object objB); public virtual string ToString(); }

    Read the article

  • Prevent Ninject from calling Initialize multiple times when binding to several interfaces

    - by Ahe
    Hi We have a concrete singleton service which implements Ninject.IInitializable and 2 interfaces. Problem is that services Initialize-methdod is called 2 times, when only one is desired. We are using .NET 3.5 and Ninject 2.0.0.0. Is there a pattern in Ninject prevent this from happening. Neither of the interfaces implement Ninject.IInitializable. the service class is: public class ConcreteService : IService1, IService2, Ninject.IInitializable { public void Initialize() { // This is called twice! } } And module looks like this: public class ServiceModule : NinjectModule { public override void Load() { this.Singleton<Iservice1, Iservice2, ConcreteService>(); } } where Singleton is an extension method defined like this: public static void Singleton<K, T>(this NinjectModule module) where T : K { module.Bind<K>().To<T>().InSingletonScope(); } public static void Singleton<K, L, T>(this NinjectModule module) where T : K, L { Singleton<K, T>(module); module.Bind<L>().ToMethod(n => n.Kernel.Get<T>()); } Of course we could add bool initialized-member to ConcreteService and initialize only when it is false, but it seems quite a bit of a hack. And it would require repeating the same logic in every service that implements two or more interfaces. Thanks for all the answers! I learned something from all of them! (I am having a hard time to decide which one mark correct). We ended up creating IActivable interface and extending ninject kernel (it also removed nicely code level dependencies to ninject, allthough attributes still remain).

    Read the article

  • Project Architecture For Enhancing Legacy project.

    - by vijay.shad
    I am working on legacy project. Now the situation demands project to be divided into parts. What strategy I should follow to do this task. Description: The legacy project (A) is fully functional web application with almost well defined layers. But now i need to extend the project to a further enhancement. This project usage maven as build tool. But it is used only for dependency managements only. (project exported to war form inside eclipse). The new enhancement needs me to add new data table, new UI(jsp, css, js and images). What should be my strategy to enhance to application. My proposed design. I am planing to create two new projects Project B : Main Enhancement works will done in this project. Will have all layers like service layer, dao layer and UI layer in itself. And will be a web application in itself. Project C : Extract some common model and service code form project-A and create this project. This project will be added as dependency to both the projects. If my this approach is okay! Then i presume there will be problem be problem in deployment. These two projects will demand to deploy separately(currently tomcat is used). But I must deploy these two projects as one war. So, i need to have a plan to change the web.xml entries to have configurations for both projects. This will comes with some more complexities with project. What should be my design for the project? Does my plan sounds good.

    Read the article

  • Bubble sort algorithm implementations (Haskell vs. C)

    - by kingping
    Hello. I have written 2 implementation of bubble sort algorithm in C and Haskell. Haskell implementation: module Main where main = do contents <- readFile "./data" print "Data loaded. Sorting.." let newcontents = bubblesort contents writeFile "./data_new_ghc" newcontents print "Sorting done" bubblesort list = sort list [] False rev = reverse -- separated. To see rev2 = reverse -- who calls the routine sort (x1:x2:xs) acc _ | x1 > x2 = sort (x1:xs) (x2:acc) True sort (x1:xs) acc flag = sort xs (x1:acc) flag sort [] acc True = sort (rev acc) [] False sort _ acc _ = rev2 acc I've compared these two implementations having run both on file with size of 20 KiB. C implementation took about a second, Haskell — about 1 min 10 sec. I have also profiled the Haskell application: Compile for profiling: C:\Temp ghc -prof -auto-all -O --make Main Profile: C:\Temp Main.exe +RTS -p and got these results. This is a pseudocode of the algorithm: procedure bubbleSort( A : list of sortable items ) defined as: do swapped := false for each i in 0 to length(A) - 2 inclusive do: if A[i] > A[i+1] then swap( A[i], A[i+1] ) swapped := true end if end for while swapped end procedure I wonder if it's possible to make Haskell implementation work faster without changing the algorithm (there's are actually a few tricks to make it work faster, but neither implementations have these optimizations)

    Read the article

  • Pass a hidden jqGrid value when editing on ASP.Net MVC

    - by taylonr
    I have a jqGrid in an ASP.Net MVC. The grid is defined as: $("#list").jqGrid({ url: '<%= Url.Action("History", "Farrier", new { id = ViewData["horseId"]}) %>', editurl: '/Farrier/Add', datatype: 'json', mtype: 'GET', colNames: ['horseId', 'date', 'notes'], colModel: [ { name: 'horseId', index: 'horseId', width: 250, align: 'left', editable:false, editrules: {edithidden: true}, hidden: true }, { name: 'date', index: 'farrierDate', width: 250, align: 'left', editable:true }, { name: 'notes', index: 'farrierNotes', width: 100, align: 'left', editable: true } ], pager: jQuery('#pager'), rowNum: 5, rowList: [5, 10, 20, 50], sortname: 'farrierDate', sortorder: "DESC", viewrecords: true }); What I want to be able to do, add a row to the grid, where the horseId is either a) not displayed or b) greyed out. But is passed to the controller when saving. The way it's set up is this grid will only have 1 horse id at a time (it will exist on a horse's property page.) The only time I've gotten anything to work is when I made it editable, but then that opens it up for the user to modify the id, which isn't a good idea. So is there some way I can set this value before submitting the data? it does exist as a variable on this page, if that helps any (and I've checked that it isn't null). Thanks

    Read the article

  • VS 2008 designer and usercontrol.

    - by Ram
    Hello, I have created a custom data grid control. I dragged it on windows form and set its properties like column and all & ran the project. It built successfully and I am able to view the grid control on the form. Now if i try to view that form in designer, I am getting following error.. Object reference not set to an instance of an object. Instances of this error (1) 1. Hide Call Stack at Microsoft.VisualStudio.Design.Serialization.CodeDom.XML.CodeDomXmlProcessor.GetMemberTargetObject(XmlElementData xmlElementData, String& member) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.Design.Serialization.CodeDom.XML.CodeDomXmlProcessor.CreateAssignStatement(XmlElementData xmlElement) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.Design.Serialization.CodeDom.XML.CodeDomXmlProcessor.XmlElementData.get_CodeDomElement() at Microsoft.VisualStudio.Design.Serialization.CodeDom.XML.CodeDomXmlProcessor.EndElement(String prefix, String name, String urn) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.Design.Serialization.CodeDom.XML.CodeDomXmlProcessor.Parse(XmlReader reader) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.Design.Serialization.CodeDom.XML.CodeDomXmlProcessor.ParseXml(String xmlStream, CodeStatementCollection statementCollection, String fileName, String methodName) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.Design.Serialization.CodeDom.VSCodeDomParser.OnMethodPopulateStatements(Object sender, EventArgs e) at System.CodeDom.CodeMemberMethod.get_Statements() at System.ComponentModel.Design.Serialization.TypeCodeDomSerializer.Deserialize(IDesignerSerializationManager manager, CodeTypeDeclaration declaration) at System.ComponentModel.Design.Serialization.CodeDomDesignerLoader.PerformLoad(IDesignerSerializationManager manager) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.Design.Serialization.CodeDom.VSCodeDomDesignerLoader.PerformLoad(IDesignerSerializationManager serializationManager) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.Design.Serialization.CodeDom.VSCodeDomDesignerLoader.DeferredLoadHandler.Microsoft.VisualStudio.TextManager.Interop.IVsTextBufferDataEvents.OnLoadCompleted(Int32 fReload) If I ignore the exception, form appears blank with no sign of grid control on it. However I can see the code for the grid in the designer file. Any pointer on this would be a great help. I have customized grid for my custom requirements like I have added custom text box n all. I have defined 3 constructors public GridControl() public GridControl(IContainer container) protected GridControl(SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context)

    Read the article

  • nsxmlparser not solving &apos;

    - by alex
    Hi! Im using NSXMLParser to dissect a xml package, I'm receiving &apos inside the package text. I have the following defined for the xmlParser: [xmlParser setShouldResolveExternalEntities: YES]; The following method is never called - (void)parser:(NSXMLParser *)parser foundExternalEntityDeclarationWithName:(NSString *)entityName publicID:(NSString *)publicID systemID:(NSString *)systemID The text in the field before the &apos is not considered by the parser. Im searching how to solve this, any idea??? Thanks in advance Alex XML package portion attached: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="ISO-8859-1"?><SOAP-ENV:Envelope xmlns:SOAP-ENV="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:SOAP-ENC="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/encoding/" xmlns:tns="urn:appwsdl"><SOAP-ENV:Body><ns1:getObjects2Response xmlns:ns1="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/"><return xsi:type="tns:objectsResult"><totalRecipes xsi:type="xsd:string">1574</totalObjects><Objects xsi:type="tns:Item"><id xsi:type="xsd:string">4311</id><name xsi:type="xsd:string"> item title 1 </name><procedure xsi:type="xsd:string">item procedure 11......

    Read the article

  • Multi-level inheritance with Implements on properties in VB.NET vs C#

    - by Ben McCormack
    Let's say I have 2 interfaces defined like so: public interface ISkuItem { public string SKU { get; set; } } public interface ICartItem : ISkuItem { public int Quantity { get; set; } public bool IsDiscountable { get; set; } } When I go to implement the interface in C#, VS produces the following templated code: public class CartItem : ICartItem { #region ICartItem Members public int Quantity { get {...} set {...} } public bool IsDiscountable { get {...} set {...} } #endregion #region ISkuItem Members public string SKU { get {...} set {...} } #endregion } In VB.NET, the same class is built out like so: Public Class CartItem Implements ICartItem Public Property IsDiscountable As Boolean Implements ICartItem.IsDiscountable 'GET SET' End Property Public Property Quantity As Integer Implements ICartItem.Quantity 'GET SET' End Property Public Property SKU As String Implements ISkuItem.SKU 'GET SET' End Property End Class VB.NET explicitly requires you to add Implements IInterfaceName.PropertyName after each property that gets implemented whereas C# simply uses regions to indicate which properties and methods belong to the interface. Interestingly in VB.NET, on the SKU property, I can specify either Implements ISkuItem.SKU or Implements ICartItem.SKU. Although the template built by VS defaults to ISkuItem, I can also specify ICartItem if I want. Oddly, because C# only uses regions to block out inherited properties, it seems that I can't explicitly specify the implementing interface of SKU in C# like I can in VB.NET. My question is: Is there any importance behind being able to specify one interface or another to implement properites in VB.NET, and if so, is there a way to mimic this functionality in C#?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 232 233 234 235 236 237 238 239 240 241 242 243  | Next Page >