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  • NSPredicate case-insensitive matching on to-many relationship

    - by Brian Webster
    I am implementing a search field where the user can type in a string to filter the items displayed in a view. Each object being displayed has a keywords to-many relationship, and I would like to be able to filter the objects based on their keywords. Each keyword object has a name property, so I've set up an NSPredicate to do the filtering that looks like this: NSPredicate* predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"keywords.name CONTAINS %@", self.searchString]; This works, but the problem is that the search is case-sensitive, so if the keyword has a capital letter but the user types in all lowercase, no matches are found. I've tried the following modification: NSPredicate* predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"keywords.name CONTAINS[c] %@", self.searchString]; But that doesn't make any difference in the case sensitivity of the matching. Is there a way to do this case-insensitive matching using just a plain predicate? Or will I need to implement some sort of custom accessor on the keyword class, e.g. write a lowercaseName method and match against a lowercased version of the search string instead? Addendum: After further exploration, the workaround of adding a custom accessor works OK for manual use of NSPredicate, but does not work at all when using NSFetchRequest with Core Data, which only works when querying attributes defined in the Core Data model.

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  • Change specificity by child

    - by jim red
    hi I'd like to integrate a theme tag to my elements so they appear in diffrent colours. But since the css selectors have the same css specificity the latest overrides the earlier defined rule. this is an example that shows my problem: .... <div class="red"> <div class="box">This should be red</div> <div class="yellow"> ... <div class="box">This should be yellow (nested in x levels under the div.yellow)</div> ... </div> .... and here my css .box { width: 100px; height: 100px; } .yellow { background-color: yellow; } .red { background-color: red; } the box should be listed somewhere, but as soon as it is a sub child of another color definition it should been overwritten. thanks for any help! //jim

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  • Creating cookieless application on development machine with asp.net

    - by zaladane
    I tried posting this on ServerFault with no luck so i am trying here. I am thinking about setting up a new domain to host static content on my website and have it cookieless just like Stackoverflow with their static domain. So before going ahead and buying the domain and setting it up I wanted to test it on my developement machine first under localhost (I have to mention that i am planning on having IIS running on my new domain for the static files). I therefore created a new application under IIS and disabled session state and forms authentication. When my main application needs resources like css, images and js , I use the path to the "static" application where they are hosted. The problem is that when I look at the request and the response for the requested files, they still have the session_id cookie defined as well as the asp.net authentication cookie. Is it at all possible to accomplish what i am trying to do on a development machine or do i have to just go ahead and purchase the new domain which hopefully with make things right? I tried to read about cookieless domain but can't figure out what i might be missing.

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  • Get Mechanize to handle cookies from an arbitrary POST (to log into https://www.t-mobile.com/ progra

    - by Horace Loeb
    I want to log into https://www.t-mobile.com/ programmatically. My first idea was to use Mechanize to submit the login form: However, it turns out that this isn't even a real form. Instead, when you click "Log in" some javascript grabs the values of the fields, creates a new form dynamically, and submits it. "Log in" button HTML: <button onclick="handleLogin(); return false;" class="btnBlue" id="myTMobile-login"><span>Log in</span></button> The handleLogin() function: function handleLogin() { if (ValidateMsisdnPassword()) { // client-side form validation logic var a = document.createElement("FORM"); a.name = "form1"; a.method = "POST"; a.action = mytmoUrl; // defined elsewhere as https://my.t-mobile.com/Login/LoginController.aspx var c = document.createElement("INPUT"); c.type = "HIDDEN"; c.value = document.getElementById("myTMobile-phone").value; // the value of the phone number input field c.name = "txtMSISDN"; a.appendChild(c); var b = document.createElement("INPUT"); b.type = "HIDDEN"; b.value = document.getElementById("myTMobile-password").value; // the value of the password input field b.name = "txtPassword"; a.appendChild(b); document.body.appendChild(a); a.submit(); return true } else { return false } } I could simulate this form submission by POSTing the form data to https://my.t-mobile.com/Login/LoginController.aspx with Net::HTTP#post_form, but I don't know how to get the resultant cookie into Mechanize so I can continue to scrape the UI available when I'm logged in. Any ideas?

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  • What is the best way to process XML sent to WCF 3.5

    - by CRM Junkie
    I have to develop a WCF application in 3.5. The input will be sent in the form of XML and the response would be sent in the form of XML as well. A ASP.NET application will be consuming the WCF and sending/receiving data in XML format. Now, as per my understanding, when consuming WCF from an ASP.NET application, we just add a reference to the service, create an object of the service, pack all the necessary data(Data Members in WCF) into the input object (object of the Data Contract) and call the necessary function. It happens that the ASP.NET application is being developed by a separate party and they are hell bent on receiving and sending data in XML format. What I can perceive from this is that the WCF will take the XML string (a single Data Member string type) as input and send out a XML string (again a single Data Member string type) as output. I have created WCF applications earlier where requests and responses were sent out in XML/JSON format when it was consumed by jQuery ajax calls. In those cases, the XML tags were automatically mapped to the different Data Members defined. What approach should I take in this case? Should I just take a string as input (basically the XML string) or is there any way WCF/.NET 3.5 will automatically map the XML tags with the Data Members for requests and responses and I would not need to parse the XML string separately?

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  • How to set a define inside other define

    - by João Madureira Pires
    Hi all! I'm developing a web application in jboss, seam, richfaces. I'm using a template(xhtml) as master page of all others and there i set two insert tags. <ui:insert name="head"/> <ui:insert name="body"/> The problem is that in pages that use this master page as template, the <ui:define name="head">...</ui:define> must be defined inside the <ui:define name="body">...</ui:define>. How can i do this? Basically, what i want is to do the following: <ui:define name="body">... <ui:define name="head"> <meta name="title" content="#{something.title}" /> </ui:define> ...</ui:define> the master page must return : <meta name="title" content="#{something.title}" /> on the <ui:insert name="head"/> Thanks in advance

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  • Aliasing Resources (WPF)

    - by Noldorin
    I am trying to alias a resource in XAML, as follows: <UserControl.Resources> <StaticResourceExtension x:Key="newName" ResourceKey="oldName"/> </UserControl.Resources> oldName simply refers to a resource of type Image, defined in App.xaml. As far as I understand, this is the correct way to do this, and should work fine. However, the XAML code gives me the superbly unhelpful error: "The application XAML file failed to load. Fix errors in the application XAML before opening other XAML files." This appears when I hover over the StaticResourceExtension line in the code (which has a squiggly underline). Several other errors are generated in the actual Error List, but seem to be fairly irrelevant and nonsenical (such messages as "The name 'InitializeComponent' does not exist in the current context"), as they all disappear when the line is removed. I'm completely stumped here. Why is WPF complaining about this code? Any ideas as to a resolution please? Note: I'm using WPF in .NET 3.5 SP1. Update 1: I should clairfy that I do receive compiler errors (the aforementioned messages in the Error List), so it's not just a designer problem. Update 2: Here's the relevant code in full... In App.xaml (under Application.Resource): <Image x:Key="bulletArrowUp" Source="Images/Icons/bullet_arrow_up.png" Stretch="None"/> <Image x:Key="bulletArrowDown" Source="Images/Icons/bullet_arrow_down.png" Stretch="None"/> And in MyUserControl.xaml (under UserControl.Resources): <StaticResourceExtension x:Key="columnHeaderSortUpImage" ResourceKey="bulletArrowUp"/> <StaticResourceExtension x:Key="columnHeaderSortDownImage" ResourceKey="bulletArrowDown"/> These are the lines that generate the errors, of course.

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  • How can UISearchDisplayController autorelease cause crash in a different view controller?

    - by Tofrizer
    Hi, I have two view controllers A and B. From A, I navigate to view controller B as follows: // in View Controller A // navigateToB method -(void) navigateToB { BViewController *bViewController = [[BViewController alloc] initWithNibName: @"BView" bundle:nil]; bViewController.bProperty1 = SOME_STRING_CONSTANT; bViewController.title = @"A TITLE OF A VC's CHOOSING"; [self.navigationController pushViewController: bViewController animated:YES]; [bViewController release]; //<----- releasing 0x406c1e0 } In BViewController, the property bPropery1 is defined with copy as below (note, B also contains UITableView and other properties): @property (nonatomic, copy) NSString *bProperty1; Everything appeared to work fine when navigating back and forth between A and B. That is until I added a UISearchDisplayController to the table view contained in BViewController. Now when I navigate out of B, back to A, the app crashes. Stack trace shows what looks the search display controller being autoreleased at time of crash: #0 0x009663a7 in ___forwarding___ #1 0x009426c2 in __forwarding_prep_0___ #2 0x018c8539 in -[UISearchDisplayController _destroyManagedTableView] #3 0x018c8ea4 in -[UISearchDisplayController dealloc] #4 0x00285ce5 in NSPopAutoreleasePool NSZombies shows: -[BViewController respondsToSelector:]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x406c1e0 And malloc history on this points to the bViewController already released in A's navigateToB method above: Call [2] [arg=132]: thread_a065e720 |start ... <snip> ..._sendActionsForEvents:withEvent:] | -[UIControl sendAction:to:forEvent:] | - [UIApplication sendAction:to:from:forEvent:] | -[**AViewController navigateToB**] | +[NSObject alloc] | +[NSObject allocWithZone:] | _internal_class_createInstance | _internal_class_createInstanceFromZone | calloc | malloc_zone_calloc Can someone please give me any ideas on what is happening here? In navigateToB method, once the bViewController is released (after pushViewController), that's should be it for bViewController. Nothing else even knows about it as it is local to the navigateToB method block and it has been released. When navigating from B back to A, nothing is invoked in viewDidLoad, viewWillAppear etc that will re-enter navigateToB. It looks like somehow search display controller has a reference to something in my AViewController and so as it is autoreleased it is taking this "something" down with it but I cannot understand how this is possible, especially as I'm using copy to pass data between A and B. I'm going potty over this. I'm sure this is my mistake somewhere and so I turn to you, Stack Overflow legends for any words of wisdom or advice on how to resolve this. Many Thanks.

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  • Prevent Ninject from calling Initialize multiple times when binding to several interfaces

    - by Ahe
    Hi We have a concrete singleton service which implements Ninject.IInitializable and 2 interfaces. Problem is that services Initialize-methdod is called 2 times, when only one is desired. We are using .NET 3.5 and Ninject 2.0.0.0. Is there a pattern in Ninject prevent this from happening. Neither of the interfaces implement Ninject.IInitializable. the service class is: public class ConcreteService : IService1, IService2, Ninject.IInitializable { public void Initialize() { // This is called twice! } } And module looks like this: public class ServiceModule : NinjectModule { public override void Load() { this.Singleton<Iservice1, Iservice2, ConcreteService>(); } } where Singleton is an extension method defined like this: public static void Singleton<K, T>(this NinjectModule module) where T : K { module.Bind<K>().To<T>().InSingletonScope(); } public static void Singleton<K, L, T>(this NinjectModule module) where T : K, L { Singleton<K, T>(module); module.Bind<L>().ToMethod(n => n.Kernel.Get<T>()); } Of course we could add bool initialized-member to ConcreteService and initialize only when it is false, but it seems quite a bit of a hack. And it would require repeating the same logic in every service that implements two or more interfaces. Thanks for all the answers! I learned something from all of them! (I am having a hard time to decide which one mark correct). We ended up creating IActivable interface and extending ninject kernel (it also removed nicely code level dependencies to ninject, allthough attributes still remain).

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  • What is the correct date format for a Date column in YUI DataTable ?

    - by giulio
    I have produced a data table. All the columns are sortable. It has a date in one column which I formatted dd/mm/yyyy hh:mm:ss . This is different from the default format as defined in the doco, but I should be able to define my own format for non-american formats. (See below) The DataTable class provides a set of built-in static functions to format certain well-known types of data. In your Column definition, if you set a Column's formatter to YAHOO.widget.DataTable.formatDate, that function will render data of type Date with the default syntax of "MM/DD/YYYY". If you would like to bypass a built-in formatter in favor of your own, you can point a Column's formatter to a custom function that you define. The table is generated from HTML Markup, so the data is held within "" tags. This gives me some more clues about compatible string dates for javascript: In general, the RecordSet expects to hold data in native JavaScript types. For instance, a date is expected to be a JavaScript Date instance, not a string like "4/26/2005" in order to sort properly. Converting data types as data comes into your RecordSet is enabled through the parser property in the fields array of your DataSource's responseSchema I suspect that the I'm missing something in the date format. So what is an acceptable string date for javascript, that Yui dataTable will recognise, given that I want format it as "dd/mm/yyyy hh:mm:ss" ?

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  • How to use CodeDomSerializer to serialize an object in .Net?

    - by user341127
    I have a class, which is defined as the following: [ToolboxItem(false)] [DesignTimeVisible(false)] [DesignerSerializer("DevExpress.XtraEditors.Design.RepositoryItemCodeDomSerializer, DevExpress.XtraEditors.v10.1.Design", "System.ComponentModel.Design.Serialization.CodeDomSerializer, System.Design")] [Designer("DevExpress.XtraEditors.Design.BaseRepositoryItemDesigner, DevExpress.XtraEditors.v10.1.Design")] [LicenseProvider(typeof(DXEditorLicenseProvider))] public class RepositoryItem : Component, ISupportInitialize, ICustomTypeDescriptor, IImageCollectionHelper {......} I tried the following code to serialize the object of this class. DesignerSerializationManager m = new System.ComponentModel.Design.Serialization.DesignerSerializationManager(); m.CreateSession(); DevExpress.XtraEditors.Design.RepositoryItemCodeDomSerializer s = m.GetSerializer(typeof(RepositoryItem), typeof(DevExpress.XtraEditors.Design.RepositoryItemCodeDomSerializer)) as DevExpress.XtraEditors.Design.RepositoryItemCodeDomSerializer; RepositoryItem i = persistentRepository1.Items[0]; //m.Container.Add(i); s.Serialize(m,i );// An error "Object reference not set to an instance of an object." happended here. For I am not familiar with CodeDom, I have spent one day to get the way out. I guess the above code has some stupid mistakes. Please give me a hand to show how to serialize AND DeSelialize such objects of the class of Repository. BTW, the reason I don't use any other serializer is that I am supposed not to have rights to know the source code of RepositoryItem and others could inherit RepositoryItem at the same time. And actually I have to deal with RepositoryItem and its descendants. Thank you in advance. Ying

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  • d:DesignData issue, Visual Studio 2010 cant build after adding sample design data with Expression Bl

    - by Valko
    Hi, VS 2010 solution and Silverlight project builds fine, then: I open MyView.xaml view in Expression Blend 4 Add sample data from class (I use my class defined in the same project) after I add new sample design data with Expression blend 4, everything looks fine, you see the added sample data in the EB 4 fine, you also see the data in VS 2010 designer too. Close the EB 4, and next VS 2010 build is giving me this errors: Error 7 XAML Namespace http://schemas.microsoft.com/expression/blend/2008 is not resolved. C:\Code\source\...myview.xaml and: Error 12 Object reference not set to an instance of an object. ... TestSampleData.xaml when I open the TestSampleData.xaml I see that namespace for my class used to define sample data is not recognized. However this namespace and the class itself exist in the same project! If I remove the design data from the MyView.xaml: d:DataContext="{d:DesignData /SampleData/TestSampleData.xaml}" it builds fine and the namespace in TestSampleData.xaml is recognized this time?? and then if add: d:DataContext="{d:DesignData /SampleData/TestSampleData.xaml}" I again see in the VS 2010 designer sample data, but the next build fails and again I see studio cant find the namespace in my TestSampleData.xaml containing sample data. That cycle is driving me crazy. Am I missing something here, is it not possible to have your class defining sample design data in the same project you have the MyView.xaml view?? cheers Valko

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  • Pass a hidden jqGrid value when editing on ASP.Net MVC

    - by taylonr
    I have a jqGrid in an ASP.Net MVC. The grid is defined as: $("#list").jqGrid({ url: '<%= Url.Action("History", "Farrier", new { id = ViewData["horseId"]}) %>', editurl: '/Farrier/Add', datatype: 'json', mtype: 'GET', colNames: ['horseId', 'date', 'notes'], colModel: [ { name: 'horseId', index: 'horseId', width: 250, align: 'left', editable:false, editrules: {edithidden: true}, hidden: true }, { name: 'date', index: 'farrierDate', width: 250, align: 'left', editable:true }, { name: 'notes', index: 'farrierNotes', width: 100, align: 'left', editable: true } ], pager: jQuery('#pager'), rowNum: 5, rowList: [5, 10, 20, 50], sortname: 'farrierDate', sortorder: "DESC", viewrecords: true }); What I want to be able to do, add a row to the grid, where the horseId is either a) not displayed or b) greyed out. But is passed to the controller when saving. The way it's set up is this grid will only have 1 horse id at a time (it will exist on a horse's property page.) The only time I've gotten anything to work is when I made it editable, but then that opens it up for the user to modify the id, which isn't a good idea. So is there some way I can set this value before submitting the data? it does exist as a variable on this page, if that helps any (and I've checked that it isn't null). Thanks

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  • Strange ng-model behavior inside ng-repeat

    - by Mike Fisher
    I'm trying to build up a complex post request to run a report in my Angular app. I have a list of inputs all dynamically generated via an ng-repeat a simple version of my html looks like this. <div ng-repeat="filter in lists.filters"> <input type="checkbox" ng-model="report.options.filters[filter.value]['type']/> <input type="text" ng-model="report.options.filters[filter.value]['values']/> </div> ng-repeat is looping over this array [ {name: 'Advertisers', value: 'advertisers'}, {name: 'Sizes', value: 'sizes'}, {name: 'Campaign IDs', value: 'campaigns'}, {name: 'Creative IDs', value: 'creatives'}, {name: 'Publishers', value: 'publishers'}, {name: 'Placement IDs', value: 'placements'}, {name: 'Seller Types', value: 'seller_types'}, {name: 'Impression Types', value: 'impression_types'}, {name: 'Bid Types', value: 'bid_types'}, {name: 'Seller Members', value: 'seller_members'}, {name: 'Buyer Members', value: 'buyer_members'}, {name: 'Insertion Order Ids', value: 'insertion_orders'}, {name: 'Countries', value: 'countries'}, {name: 'Site Ids', value: 'sites'}, {name: 'Sources', value: 'sources'} ]; The JSON I'm sending back needs to be structured like this: "filters": { "state": "all", "campaigns": {type:"include", values":[1,2]}, "creatives": {type:"exclude","values":[1,2]}, "publishers": {"values":[1,2]}, "placements": {type:"exclude",values":[1,2]}, "advertisers": {"values":[1,2]}, "sizes": {"values":[1,2]}, "countries": {"values":[1,2]}, "insertion_orders": {"values":[1,2]}, "sites": {"values":[1,2]}, "bid_types": {"values":[1,2]}, "seller_types": {"values":[1,2]}, "impression_types": {"values":[1,2]}, "seller_members": {"values":[1,2]}, "buyer_members": {"values":[1,2]}, "sources": {"values":[1,2]} } When I do this Angular throws an error: 'Cannot set property 'values' of undefined' and 'Cannot set property 'type' of undefined' Yet if I do this (inside ng-repeat) <input type="text" ng-model="report.options.filters[filter.value]/> Or this outside of ng-repeat <input type="text" ng-model="report.options.filters[filter.value]['values']/> No errors are thrown and everything works fine. I'm positive that filter.value is defined and available on the scope even though Angular thinks it's not for some reason. I'm not quite sure what I'm doing wrong. Any help is much appreciated.

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  • Can't contravariance be solved with interfaces?

    - by Sir Psycho
    Hi, I'm at the point where I'm starting to grasp contravariance, although I'm trying to work out what the advantage is when an interface can be used instead. Obviously I'm missing something. Here is the c#4 example class Dog : Animal { public Dog(string name) : base(name) { } } class Animal { string _name; public Animal(string name) { _name = name; } public void Walk() { Console.WriteLine(_name + " is walking"); } } Action<Animal> MakeItMove = (ani) => { ani.Walk(); }; Action<Dog> MakeItWalk = MakeItMove; MakeItWalk(new Dog("Sandy")); Same example which works in earlier versions on c# class Dog : Animal { public Dog(string name) : base(name) { } } class Animal : IAnimal { string _name; public Animal(string name) { _name = name; } public void Walk() { Console.WriteLine(_name + " is walking"); } } interface IAnimal { void Walk(); } Action<IAnimal> MakeItMove = (ani) => { ani.Walk(); }; Action<IAnimal> MakeItWalk = MakeItMove; MakeItWalk(new Dog("Sandy")); These may not be the best examples, but I still can't seem to 'get it'. Is the in keywork defined on the action delegate simply a short hand syntax way like lamda is to delegates?

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  • Using Scala structural types with abstract types

    - by Joshua Hartman
    I'm trying to define a structural type defining anything that has an "add" method (for instance, a java collection or a java map). Using this, I want to define a few higher order functions that operate on a certain collection object GenericTypes { type GenericCollection[T] = { def add(value: T): java.lang.Boolean} } import GenericTypes._ trait HigherOrderFunctions[T, CollectionType[X] <: GenericCollection[X]] { def map[V](fn: (T) => V): CollectionType[V] .... } class RichJList[T](list: List[T]) extends HigherOrderFunctions[T, java.util.List] This does not compile with the following error error: Parameter type in structural refinement may not refer to abstract type defined outside that same refinement I tried removing the parameter on GenericCollection and putting it on the method: object GenericTypes { type GenericCollection = { def add[T](value: T): java.lang.Boolean} } import GenericTypes._ trait HigherOrderFunctions[T, CollectionType[X] <: GenericCollection] class RichJList[T](list: List[T]) extends HigherOrderFunctions[T, java.util.List] but I get another error: error: type arguments [T,java.util.List] do not conform to trait HigherOrderFunctions's type parameter bounds [T,CollectionType[X] <: org.scala_tools.javautils.j2s.GenericTypes.GenericCollection] Can anyone give me some advice on how to use structural typing with abstract typed parameters in Scala? Or how to achieve what I'm looking to accomplish? Thanks so much!

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  • WPF TexBox TwoWay Binding Problem when ValidationRules used

    - by ignis
    I seem to have a problem with TwoWay DataBinding - my application has a window with a bunch of textboxes that allow to edit values of the properties they are bound to. Everything works well except for textboxes that also have a validation rule defined, in which case no text is displayed in the textbox when the window opens (binding back-to-source still works fine for those). If I remove Validation rule, everything's back to normal. I searched for an answer to this for a few hours now, but somehow did not even find anyone else complaining of the same issue. I am completely new to WPF, and I am sure it is just a silly mistake I have somewhere in my code... I will greatly appreciate any feedback... <TextBox Margin="40,2,20,0" Grid.Column="0" Grid.Row="1" Background="#99FFFFFF" > <Binding Path="LastName" Mode="TwoWay" ValidatesOnDataErrors="true" UpdateSourceTrigger="LostFocus" > <Binding.ValidationRules> <validation:StringNameValidationRule /> </Binding.ValidationRules> </Binding> </TextBox>

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  • Bison input analyzer - basic question on optional grammer and input interpretation

    - by kumar_m_kiran
    Hi All, I am very new to Flex/Bison, So it is very navie question. Pardon me if so. May look like homework question - but I need to implement project based on below concept. My question is related to two parts, Question 1 In Bison parser, How do I provide rules for optional input. Like, I need to parse the statment Example : -country='USA' -state='INDIANA' -population='100' -ratio='0.5' -comment='Census study for Indiana' Here the ratio token can be optional. Similarly, If I have many tokens optional, then How do I provide the grammer in the parser for the same? My code looks like, %start program program : TK_COUNTRY TK_IDENTIFIER TK_STATE TK_IDENTIFIER TK_POPULATION TK_IDENTIFIER ... where all the tokens are defined in the lexer. Since there are many tokens which are optional, If I use "|" then there will be many different ways of input combination possible. Question 2 There are good chance that the comment might have quotes as part of the input, so I have added a token -tag which user can provide to interpret the same, Example : -country='USA' -state='INDIANA' -population='100' -ratio='0.5' -comment='Census study for Indiana$'s population' -tag=$ Now, I need to reinterpret Indiana$'s as Indiana's since -tag=$. Please provide any input or related material for to understand these topic. Thanks for your input in advance.

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  • Multi-level inheritance with Implements on properties in VB.NET vs C#

    - by Ben McCormack
    Let's say I have 2 interfaces defined like so: public interface ISkuItem { public string SKU { get; set; } } public interface ICartItem : ISkuItem { public int Quantity { get; set; } public bool IsDiscountable { get; set; } } When I go to implement the interface in C#, VS produces the following templated code: public class CartItem : ICartItem { #region ICartItem Members public int Quantity { get {...} set {...} } public bool IsDiscountable { get {...} set {...} } #endregion #region ISkuItem Members public string SKU { get {...} set {...} } #endregion } In VB.NET, the same class is built out like so: Public Class CartItem Implements ICartItem Public Property IsDiscountable As Boolean Implements ICartItem.IsDiscountable 'GET SET' End Property Public Property Quantity As Integer Implements ICartItem.Quantity 'GET SET' End Property Public Property SKU As String Implements ISkuItem.SKU 'GET SET' End Property End Class VB.NET explicitly requires you to add Implements IInterfaceName.PropertyName after each property that gets implemented whereas C# simply uses regions to indicate which properties and methods belong to the interface. Interestingly in VB.NET, on the SKU property, I can specify either Implements ISkuItem.SKU or Implements ICartItem.SKU. Although the template built by VS defaults to ISkuItem, I can also specify ICartItem if I want. Oddly, because C# only uses regions to block out inherited properties, it seems that I can't explicitly specify the implementing interface of SKU in C# like I can in VB.NET. My question is: Is there any importance behind being able to specify one interface or another to implement properites in VB.NET, and if so, is there a way to mimic this functionality in C#?

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  • Better ways to implement a modulo operation (algorithm question)

    - by ryxxui
    I've been trying to implement a modular exponentiator recently. I'm writing the code in VHDL, but I'm looking for advice of a more algorithmic nature. The main component of the modular exponentiator is a modular multiplier which I also have to implement myself. I haven't had any problems with the multiplication algorithm- it's just adding and shifting and I've done a good job of figuring out what all of my variables mean so that I can multiply in a pretty reasonable amount of time. The problem that I'm having is with implementing the modulus operation in the multiplier. I know that performing repeated subtractions will work, but it will also be slow. I found out that I could shift the modulus to effectively subtract large multiples of the modulus but I think there might still be better ways to do this. The algorithm that I'm using works something like this (weird pseudocode follows): result,modulus : integer (n bits) (previously defined) shiftcount : integer (initialized to zero) while( (modulus<result) and (modulus(n-1) != 1) ){ modulus = modulus << 1 shiftcount++ } for(i=shiftcount;i>=0;i++){ if(modulus<result){result = result-modulus} if(i!=0){modulus = modulus << 1} } So...is this a good algorithm, or at least a good place to start? Wikipedia doesn't really discuss algorithms for implementing the modulo operation, and whenever I try to search elsewhere I find really interesting but incredibly complicated (and often unrelated) research papers and publications. If there's an obvious way to implement this that I'm not seeing, I'd really appreciate some feedback.

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  • Project Architecture For Enhancing Legacy project.

    - by vijay.shad
    I am working on legacy project. Now the situation demands project to be divided into parts. What strategy I should follow to do this task. Description: The legacy project (A) is fully functional web application with almost well defined layers. But now i need to extend the project to a further enhancement. This project usage maven as build tool. But it is used only for dependency managements only. (project exported to war form inside eclipse). The new enhancement needs me to add new data table, new UI(jsp, css, js and images). What should be my strategy to enhance to application. My proposed design. I am planing to create two new projects Project B : Main Enhancement works will done in this project. Will have all layers like service layer, dao layer and UI layer in itself. And will be a web application in itself. Project C : Extract some common model and service code form project-A and create this project. This project will be added as dependency to both the projects. If my this approach is okay! Then i presume there will be problem be problem in deployment. These two projects will demand to deploy separately(currently tomcat is used). But I must deploy these two projects as one war. So, i need to have a plan to change the web.xml entries to have configurations for both projects. This will comes with some more complexities with project. What should be my design for the project? Does my plan sounds good.

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  • Android App Build system differences between Eclipse and Ant?

    - by Amy Winarske
    The Eclipse build for my 1.6 application project is succeeding and the Ant build is failing. I'm looking for help on why they aren't behaving the same way. We are developing on Mac OSX 10.5.8 with Eclipse 3.5 against SDK 1.6 + Google APIs. There are no setting changes in Eclipse, either at workspace or project level. Similarly, our ant is also a vanilla- flavored unmodified installation of 1.7.1. JDK is 1.5.0_22. The CLASSPATH environment variable is not set. JAVA_HOME is /Library/Java/ Home The application was initially created by a team member using the Eclipse plugins. The application references two jar files, one of which has a dependency on javax.xml.bind.annotation.XmlSeeAlso, which is not defined anywhere in our code or in android.jar. The other jar file has an explicit dependency on android.jar. I generated the Ant build file using android update. The Eclipse project builds an apk and runs the application in the emulator. I think this is incorrect behavior. The Android ant project fails to build. I think this is correct behavior. MyClass.java:98: cannot access javax.xml.bind.annotation.XmlSeeAlso [javac] file javax/xml/bind/annotation/XmlSeeAlso.class not found Any ideas as to why the two build methods are behaving differently? I would expect them both to fail. Thanks! -Amy

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  • VS 2008 designer and usercontrol.

    - by Ram
    Hello, I have created a custom data grid control. I dragged it on windows form and set its properties like column and all & ran the project. It built successfully and I am able to view the grid control on the form. Now if i try to view that form in designer, I am getting following error.. Object reference not set to an instance of an object. Instances of this error (1) 1. Hide Call Stack at Microsoft.VisualStudio.Design.Serialization.CodeDom.XML.CodeDomXmlProcessor.GetMemberTargetObject(XmlElementData xmlElementData, String& member) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.Design.Serialization.CodeDom.XML.CodeDomXmlProcessor.CreateAssignStatement(XmlElementData xmlElement) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.Design.Serialization.CodeDom.XML.CodeDomXmlProcessor.XmlElementData.get_CodeDomElement() at Microsoft.VisualStudio.Design.Serialization.CodeDom.XML.CodeDomXmlProcessor.EndElement(String prefix, String name, String urn) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.Design.Serialization.CodeDom.XML.CodeDomXmlProcessor.Parse(XmlReader reader) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.Design.Serialization.CodeDom.XML.CodeDomXmlProcessor.ParseXml(String xmlStream, CodeStatementCollection statementCollection, String fileName, String methodName) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.Design.Serialization.CodeDom.VSCodeDomParser.OnMethodPopulateStatements(Object sender, EventArgs e) at System.CodeDom.CodeMemberMethod.get_Statements() at System.ComponentModel.Design.Serialization.TypeCodeDomSerializer.Deserialize(IDesignerSerializationManager manager, CodeTypeDeclaration declaration) at System.ComponentModel.Design.Serialization.CodeDomDesignerLoader.PerformLoad(IDesignerSerializationManager manager) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.Design.Serialization.CodeDom.VSCodeDomDesignerLoader.PerformLoad(IDesignerSerializationManager serializationManager) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.Design.Serialization.CodeDom.VSCodeDomDesignerLoader.DeferredLoadHandler.Microsoft.VisualStudio.TextManager.Interop.IVsTextBufferDataEvents.OnLoadCompleted(Int32 fReload) If I ignore the exception, form appears blank with no sign of grid control on it. However I can see the code for the grid in the designer file. Any pointer on this would be a great help. I have customized grid for my custom requirements like I have added custom text box n all. I have defined 3 constructors public GridControl() public GridControl(IContainer container) protected GridControl(SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context)

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  • how to insert multiple rows using cakephp

    - by Paul
    In the cakePHP project I'm building, I want to insert a defined number of identical records. These will serve as placeholders records that will have additional data added later. Each record will insert the IDs taken from two belongs_to relationships as well as two other string values. What I want to do is be able to enter a value for the number of records I want created, which would equate to how many times the data is looped during save. What I don't know is: 1) how to setup a loop to handle a set number of inserts 2) how to define a form field in cakePHP that only sets the number of records to create. What I've tried is the following: function massAdd() { $inserts_required = 1; while ($inserts_required <= 10) { $this->Match->create(); $this->Match->save($this->data); echo $inserts_required++; } $brackets = $this->Match->Bracket->find('list'); $this->set(compact('brackets')); } What happens is: 1) at the top of the screen, above the doc type, the string 12345678910 is displayed, this is displayed on screen 2) a total of 11 records are created, and only the last record has the values passed in the form. I don't know why 11 records as opposed to 10 are created, and why only the last records has the entered form data? As always, your help and direction is appreciated. -Paul

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  • Reference inherited class's <T>ype in a derived class

    - by DRapp
    I don't know if its possible or not, but here's what I need. I'm toying around with something and want to know if its possible since you can't create your own data type based on a sealed type such as int, Int32, Int64, etc. I want to create a top-level class that is defined of a given type with some common stuff. Then, derive this into two subclasses, but in this case, each class is based on either and int or Int64 type. From THAT instance, create an instance of either one and know its yped basis for parameter referenc / return settings. So when I need to create an instance of the "ThisClass", I don't have to know its type basis of either int or Int64, yet IT will know the type and be able to allow methods/functions to be called with the typed... This way, If I want to change my ThisClass definition from SubLevel1 to SubLevel2, I don't have to dance around all different data type definitions. Hope this makes sense.. public class TopLevel<T> { ... } pubic class SubLevel1 : TopLevel<int> { ... } public class SubLevel2 : TopLevel<Int64> { ... } public class ThisClass : SubLevel1 { ... public <based on the Int data type from SubLevel1> SomeFunc() { return <the Int value computed>; } }

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