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  • Get Mechanize to handle cookies from an arbitrary POST (to log into https://www.t-mobile.com/ progra

    - by Horace Loeb
    I want to log into https://www.t-mobile.com/ programmatically. My first idea was to use Mechanize to submit the login form: However, it turns out that this isn't even a real form. Instead, when you click "Log in" some javascript grabs the values of the fields, creates a new form dynamically, and submits it. "Log in" button HTML: <button onclick="handleLogin(); return false;" class="btnBlue" id="myTMobile-login"><span>Log in</span></button> The handleLogin() function: function handleLogin() { if (ValidateMsisdnPassword()) { // client-side form validation logic var a = document.createElement("FORM"); a.name = "form1"; a.method = "POST"; a.action = mytmoUrl; // defined elsewhere as https://my.t-mobile.com/Login/LoginController.aspx var c = document.createElement("INPUT"); c.type = "HIDDEN"; c.value = document.getElementById("myTMobile-phone").value; // the value of the phone number input field c.name = "txtMSISDN"; a.appendChild(c); var b = document.createElement("INPUT"); b.type = "HIDDEN"; b.value = document.getElementById("myTMobile-password").value; // the value of the password input field b.name = "txtPassword"; a.appendChild(b); document.body.appendChild(a); a.submit(); return true } else { return false } } I could simulate this form submission by POSTing the form data to https://my.t-mobile.com/Login/LoginController.aspx with Net::HTTP#post_form, but I don't know how to get the resultant cookie into Mechanize so I can continue to scrape the UI available when I'm logged in. Any ideas?

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  • Generics with constraints hierarchy

    - by devoured elysium
    I am currently facing a very disturbing problem: interface IStateSpace<Position, Value> where Position : IPosition // <-- Problem starts here where Value : IValue // <-- and here as I don't { // know how to get away this // circular dependency! // Notice how I should be // defining generics parameters // here but I can't! Value GetStateAt(Position position); void SetStateAt(Position position, State state); } As you'll down here, both IPosition, IValue and IState depend on each other. How am I supposed to get away with this? I can't think of any other design that will circumvent this circular dependency and still describes exactly what I want to do! interface IState<StateSpace, Value> where StateSpace : IStateSpace where Value : IValue { StateSpace StateSpace { get; }; Value Value { get; set; } } interface IPosition { } interface IValue<State> where State : IState { State State { get; } } Basically I have a state space IStateSpace that has states IState inside. Their position in the state space is given by an IPosition. Each state then has one (or more) values IValue. I am simplifying the hierarchy, as it's a bit more complex than described. The idea of having this hierarchy defined with generics is to allow for different implementations of the same concepts (an IStateSpace will be implemented both as a matrix as an graph, etc). Would can I get away with this? How do you generally solve this kind of problems? Which kind of designs are used in these cases? Thanks

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  • Error while splitting application context file in spring

    - by Krupal
    I am trying to split the ApplicationContext file in Spring. For ex. the file is testproject-servlet.xml having all the entries. Now I want to split this single file into multiple files according to logical groups like : group1-services.xml, group2-services.xml I have created following entries in web.xml : <servlet> <servlet-name>testproject</servlet-name> <servlet-class> org.springframework.web.servlet.DispatcherServlet </servlet-class> <init-param> <param-name>contextConfigLocation</param-name> <param-value> /WEB-INF/group1-services.xml, /WEB-INF/group2-services.xml </param-value> </init-param> <load-on-startup>1</load-on-startup> </servlet> I am using SimpleUrlHandlerMapping as: RegisterController PayrollServicesController I also have the controller defined as : .. .. The problem is that I have splitted the ApplicationContext file "testproject-servlet.xml" into two different files and I have kept the above entries in "group1-services.xml". Is it fine? I want to group things logically based on their use in seperate .xml files. But I am getting the following error when I try to access a page inside the application : org.springframework.web.servlet.DispatcherServlet noHandlerFound WARNING: No mapping for [/TestProject/payroll_services.htm] in DispatcherServlet with name 'testproject' Please tell me how to resolve it. Thanks in Advance !

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  • Problem creating socket with C++ in winsock2

    - by Ash85
    Hi, I'm having the weirdest problem causing me headaches. Consider the following code: // Create and bind socket std::map<Connection, bool> clients; unsigned short port=6222; struct sockaddr_in local_address, from_address; int result; char buffer[10000]; SOCKET receive_socket; local_address.sin_family = AF_INET; local_address.sin_addr.s_addr = INADDR_ANY; local_address.sin_port = htons(port); receive_socket = socket(AF_INET,SOCK_DGRAM,0); What's happening is receive_socket is not binding, I get SOCKET_ERROR. When I debug the program and check receive_socket, it appears to just be garbled crap. I put a breakpoint on the 'std::map' line. When I step into each line of the above code, the debug cursor jumps straight from the 'unsigned short port' line to the first 'local_address.sin' line, even though I am using step into (F11), it does not stop at struct, int, char or SOCKET lines, it jumps straight over them. At this point I hover my mouse over local_address, from_address, result, buffer and receive_socket. They are all full of garbled crap. Is this because I have not defined these variables yet? I've also noticed that when I reach the bottom of the above code, local_address.sin_port is set to 19992, but it should be 6222?

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  • Multiple dynamic timers

    - by Rickard
    I am working on a project where I need to let the user create one (or more) timers to fire off an event. The user is supposed to define variables such as if the timer should be active and how often the timer will fire along with some other variables of what will happen when the timer is fiering. All these variables are stored in a dictionary (Disctionary) where the object holds all the variables the user has set and the string is the name that the user has chosen for this timer. I then want my program to loop through this dictionary and search for all objects which has the variable t_Active set to true (this I have already achieved). What I need help with figuring out is the follwoing: When it detects the variable, and if it's set to true, I need the program to see if there is already a timer created for this. If it isn't, it should create one and set the relevant parameters for the timer. The two variables t_num and t_period should decide the interval of the timer. t_num is an int and t_period is a string which will be set to either minutes, hours or days. Combining t_num with 60000 (minutes), 3600000 (hours) or 86400000 should give the corrct interval. But how would I go on about programatically create a timer for each user-defined active object? And how do I get the program to detect wether or not a timer has already been created? I have been searching both here and on google, but so far I haven't come across something that makes sense to me. I am still learning C#, so what make sense to you guys may not neccessarilly make sense to me yet. :) I hope I have explaned what I need good enough, please do ask me to clarify if you don't get me. Edit: Maybe I should also mention that the mentioned dictionary will also be saved to an XML file to that the user can pick up all the settings they made at any time.

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  • Core Data - Entity Relationships Not Working as expected

    - by slimms
    I have set up my data model in xcode like so EntityA AttA1 AttA2 EntityB AttB1 AttB2 AttB3 I then set up the relationships EntityA Name: rlpToEntityB Destination: EntityB Inverse: rlpToEntityA To Many: Checked EntityB Name: rlpToEntityA Destination: EntityA Inverse: rlpToEntityB To Many: UnChecked i.e. relationship between the two where Each one of EntityA can have many EntityB's It is my understanding that if i fetch a subset of EntityB's I can then retrieve the values for the related EntityA's. I have this working so that i can retrieve the EntityB values using NSManagedObject *objMO = [fetchedResultsController objectAtIndexPath:indexPath]; strValueFromEntityB = [objMO valueForKey:@"AttB1"]; However, if I try to retrieve a related value from EntityA by doing the following strValueFromEntityA = [objMO valueForKey:@"AttA1"]; I get the error "The entity EntityB is not Key value coding-compliant for the key Atta1" Not surprisingly i suppose if i switch things around to fetch from EntityA i cannot access attributes of EntityB So it appears the defined relationshipare being ignored. Can anyone spot what i am doing wrong? I confess im very new to iPhone programming and especially to Core Data so please go easy on me and provide verbose explanations or point me in the direction a specific resource. I have downloaded the apple sample apps (Core Data Books, Top Songs and recipes) but I still can't work this out. Thanks in advance, Nev.

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  • NSPredicate case-insensitive matching on to-many relationship

    - by Brian Webster
    I am implementing a search field where the user can type in a string to filter the items displayed in a view. Each object being displayed has a keywords to-many relationship, and I would like to be able to filter the objects based on their keywords. Each keyword object has a name property, so I've set up an NSPredicate to do the filtering that looks like this: NSPredicate* predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"keywords.name CONTAINS %@", self.searchString]; This works, but the problem is that the search is case-sensitive, so if the keyword has a capital letter but the user types in all lowercase, no matches are found. I've tried the following modification: NSPredicate* predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"keywords.name CONTAINS[c] %@", self.searchString]; But that doesn't make any difference in the case sensitivity of the matching. Is there a way to do this case-insensitive matching using just a plain predicate? Or will I need to implement some sort of custom accessor on the keyword class, e.g. write a lowercaseName method and match against a lowercased version of the search string instead? Addendum: After further exploration, the workaround of adding a custom accessor works OK for manual use of NSPredicate, but does not work at all when using NSFetchRequest with Core Data, which only works when querying attributes defined in the Core Data model.

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  • Project Architecture For Enhancing Legacy project.

    - by vijay.shad
    I am working on legacy project. Now the situation demands project to be divided into parts. What strategy I should follow to do this task. Description: The legacy project (A) is fully functional web application with almost well defined layers. But now i need to extend the project to a further enhancement. This project usage maven as build tool. But it is used only for dependency managements only. (project exported to war form inside eclipse). The new enhancement needs me to add new data table, new UI(jsp, css, js and images). What should be my strategy to enhance to application. My proposed design. I am planing to create two new projects Project B : Main Enhancement works will done in this project. Will have all layers like service layer, dao layer and UI layer in itself. And will be a web application in itself. Project C : Extract some common model and service code form project-A and create this project. This project will be added as dependency to both the projects. If my this approach is okay! Then i presume there will be problem be problem in deployment. These two projects will demand to deploy separately(currently tomcat is used). But I must deploy these two projects as one war. So, i need to have a plan to change the web.xml entries to have configurations for both projects. This will comes with some more complexities with project. What should be my design for the project? Does my plan sounds good.

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  • NAMESPACE_SEPARATOR constant

    - by ts
    Hello, Having namespaces in PHP is great. Having '\' as namespace separator is a little bit ... awkward (but if there is someone who thinks that is cool & sexy, I am adding tag "rant" to this post. ;) . So, here goes the question: Are you using in your code NAMESPACE_SEPARATOR constant? As in code below: <?php if (!\defined('NAMESPACE_SEPARATOR') { \define('NAMESPACE_SEPARATOR', '\\'); } // if Pros: consistent with DIRECTORY_SEPARATOR (which all of us are using ;) no mess with escaping (think of '\Foo\Bar' but '\\' . Foo' . '\\' . 'Bar') more readable (IMHO) which gives us in effect an opportunity to write good, namespace-aware autoloaders can resist another change if something scary happens (as with ol'good '::' from PHP 6 alpha) can hide uniquess of '\' as namespace operator in programming language land from strangers ;) Cons: "The reason for DIRECTORY_SEPARATOR is that the value is platform dependent, the namespace separator isn't." (as stated in http://bugs.php.net/bug.php?id=43046) 19 characters instead of 1 ( \ ) or 4 ('\\') There are places where you can't use this (full qualified class names as default class variables) ie: class A { protected $sDefaultReporterClass = '\My\Namespace\DefaultReporter'; } So, what are you thinking ?

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  • xmlrpc client call in python does not come back

    - by Jack Ha
    Using Python 2.6.4, windows With the following script I want to test a certain xmlrpc server. I call a non-existent function and hope for a traceback with an error. Instead, the function does not return. What could be the cause? import xmlrpclib s = xmlrpclib.Server("http://127.0.0.1:80", verbose=True) s.functioncall() The output is: send: 'POST /RPC2 HTTP/1.0\r\nHost: 127.0.0.1:80\r\nUser-Agent: xmlrpclib.py/1.0 .1 (by www.pythonware.com)\r\nContent-Type: text/xml\r\nContent-Length: 106\r\n\ r\n' send: "<?xml version='1.0'?>\n<methodCall>\n<methodName>functioncall</methodName >\n<params>\n</params>\n</methodCall>\n" reply: 'HTTP/1.1 200 OK\r\n' header: Content-Type: text/xml header: Cache-Control: no-cache header: Content-Length: 376 header: Date: Tue, 30 Mar 2010 13:27:21 GMT body: '<?xml version="1.0"?>\r\n<methodResponse>\r\n<fault>\r\n<value>\r\n<struc t>\r\n<member>\r\n<name>faultCode</name>\r\n<value><i4>1</i4></value>\r\n</membe r>\r\n<member>\r\n<name>faultString</name>\r\n<value><string>PVSS00ctrl (2), 2 010.03.30 15:27:21.395, CTRL, SEVERE, 72, Function not defined, functioncall , , \n</string></value>\r\n</member>\r\n</struct>\r\n</value>\r\n</fault>\r\n</m ethodResponse>\r\n' (here the program hangs and does not return until I kill the server) edit: the server is written in c++, using its own xmlrpc library

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  • How to add a user to a SharePoint group programatically - Access is Denied

    - by Josh
    I have tried and tried to add a user to a SharePoint group using C# programatically (using a non-site admin). If I am logged in as a site admin, it works fine... but, if I am logged in as a non-site admin then I get an access is denied error. After doing some investigation I found that I needed to either "impersonate" the user (which didn't seem to work) or "ensure the user", so I have ended up at this code (which has worked for some people). Can some help explain to me why the following does not work and still gives me an Access is Denied error? SPSecurity.RunWithElevatedPrivileges(delegate() { using (SPSite site = new SPSite(SPControl.GetContextSite(HttpContext.Current).Url)) //have also tried passing in the ID - doesn't make a difference { using (SPWeb web = site.OpenWeb()) { web.AllowUnsafeUpdates = true; // add user to group SPGroup group = this.Web.Groups[groupList.Items[i].Value]; SPUser spUser = web.EnsureUser(provider + ":" + user.UserName); //provider is previously defined spUser.Email = user.Email; spUser.Name = txtFullName.Text; group.AddUser(spUser); // update group.Update(); } } }

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  • Aren't Information Expert / Tell Don't Ask at odds with Single Responsibility Principle?

    - by moffdub
    It is probably just me, which is why I'm asking the question. Information Expert, Tell Don't Ask, and SRP are often mentioned together as best practices. But I think they are at odds. Here is what I'm talking about: Code that favors SRP but violates Tell Don't Ask, Info Expert: Customer bob = ...; // TransferObjectFactory has to use Customer's accessors to do its work, // violates Tell Don't Ask CustomerDTO dto = TransferObjectFactory.createFrom(bob); Code that favors Tell Don't Ask / Info Expert but violates SRP: Customer bob = ...; // Now Customer is doing more than just representing the domain concept of Customer, // violates SRP CustomerDTO dto = bob.toDTO(); If they are indeed at odds, that's a vindication of my OCD. Otherwise, please fill me in on how these practices can co-exist peacefully. Thank you. Edit: someone wants a definition of the terms - Information Expert: objects that have the data needed for the operation should host the operation Tell Don't Ask: don't ask objects for data in order to do work; tell the objects to do the work Single Responsibility Principle: each object should have a narrowly defined responsibility

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  • Variable field in a constraint annotation

    - by Javi
    Hello, I need to create a custom constraint annotation which can access the value of another field of my bean. I'll use this annotation to validate the field because it depends on the value of the other but the way I define it the compiler says "The value for annotation attribute" of my field "must be a constant expression". I've defined it in this way: @Target(ElementType.FIELD) @Retention(RetentionPolicy.RUNTIME) @Constraint(validatedBy=EqualsFieldValidator.class) @Documented public @interface EqualsField { public String field(); String message() default "{com.myCom.annotations.EqualsField.message}"; Class<?>[] groups() default {}; Class<? extends Payload>[] payload() default {}; } public class EqualsFieldValidator implements ConstraintValidator<EqualsField, String>{ private EqualsField equalsField; @Override public void initialize(EqualsField equalsField) { this.equalsField = equalsField; } @Override public boolean isValid(String thisField, ConstraintValidatorContext arg1) { //my validation } } and in my bean I want something like this: public class MyBean{ private String field1; @EqualsField(field=field1) private String field2; } Is there any way to define the annotation so the field value can be a variable? Thanks

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  • How can UISearchDisplayController autorelease cause crash in a different view controller?

    - by Tofrizer
    Hi, I have two view controllers A and B. From A, I navigate to view controller B as follows: // in View Controller A // navigateToB method -(void) navigateToB { BViewController *bViewController = [[BViewController alloc] initWithNibName: @"BView" bundle:nil]; bViewController.bProperty1 = SOME_STRING_CONSTANT; bViewController.title = @"A TITLE OF A VC's CHOOSING"; [self.navigationController pushViewController: bViewController animated:YES]; [bViewController release]; //<----- releasing 0x406c1e0 } In BViewController, the property bPropery1 is defined with copy as below (note, B also contains UITableView and other properties): @property (nonatomic, copy) NSString *bProperty1; Everything appeared to work fine when navigating back and forth between A and B. That is until I added a UISearchDisplayController to the table view contained in BViewController. Now when I navigate out of B, back to A, the app crashes. Stack trace shows what looks the search display controller being autoreleased at time of crash: #0 0x009663a7 in ___forwarding___ #1 0x009426c2 in __forwarding_prep_0___ #2 0x018c8539 in -[UISearchDisplayController _destroyManagedTableView] #3 0x018c8ea4 in -[UISearchDisplayController dealloc] #4 0x00285ce5 in NSPopAutoreleasePool NSZombies shows: -[BViewController respondsToSelector:]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x406c1e0 And malloc history on this points to the bViewController already released in A's navigateToB method above: Call [2] [arg=132]: thread_a065e720 |start ... <snip> ..._sendActionsForEvents:withEvent:] | -[UIControl sendAction:to:forEvent:] | - [UIApplication sendAction:to:from:forEvent:] | -[**AViewController navigateToB**] | +[NSObject alloc] | +[NSObject allocWithZone:] | _internal_class_createInstance | _internal_class_createInstanceFromZone | calloc | malloc_zone_calloc Can someone please give me any ideas on what is happening here? In navigateToB method, once the bViewController is released (after pushViewController), that's should be it for bViewController. Nothing else even knows about it as it is local to the navigateToB method block and it has been released. When navigating from B back to A, nothing is invoked in viewDidLoad, viewWillAppear etc that will re-enter navigateToB. It looks like somehow search display controller has a reference to something in my AViewController and so as it is autoreleased it is taking this "something" down with it but I cannot understand how this is possible, especially as I'm using copy to pass data between A and B. I'm going potty over this. I'm sure this is my mistake somewhere and so I turn to you, Stack Overflow legends for any words of wisdom or advice on how to resolve this. Many Thanks.

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  • Dynamically add User Controls to a Silverlight 4 page

    - by PilotBob
    I am building an iGoogle like "dashboard" for our application with silverlight 4. Each users dashboard (which snapins and their positions) will be stored in the database. Each snap in is a user control, for example... AwesomeSnapin.xaml. On the dashboard page in silverlight I am retrieving the users dashboard which is a collection of snapin objects which include the information on the snapin. I can store the name of the page or the class or whatever is needed. I have the following code which loops through the collection of snapins to add them to the dashboard page. In testing I have just hard coded a single snapin item. Here is the prototype code: foreach (var UserSnapin in op.Entities) { UserControl uc = new AmsiSL.eFinancials.BudgetCheck(); Canvas.SetLeft(uc, UserSnapin.PositionLeft); Canvas.SetTop(uc, UserSnapin.PositionTop); Layout.Children.Add(uc); MessageBox.Show(String.Format("Added {0}",UserSnapin.Snapin.Name)); } The above works fine... but of course adds the BudgetCheck snapin for every item that is defined for the users dashboard. Of course the messagebox is for debugging purposes only. How would I change line 3 of that to load the user control class (using classname or xaml path whichever is better) based on the data in the collection.

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  • How to use a Spring config file in a Maven dependency

    - by javamonkey79
    In dependency A I have the following: <beans> <bean id="simplePersonBase" class="com.paml.test.SimplePerson" abstract="true"> <property name="firstName" value="Joe" /> <property name="lastName" value="Smith" /> </bean> </beans> And then in project B, I add A as a dependency and have the following config: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <beans xmlns="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans/spring-beans.xsd"> <bean id="simplePersonAddress01" parent="simplePersonBase"> <property name="firstName" value="BillyBob" /> <property name="address" value="1060 W. Addison St" /> <property name="city" value="Chicago" /> <property name="state" value="IL" /> <property name="zip" value="60613" /> </bean> </beans> When I use ClassPathXmlApplicationContext like so: BeanFactory beanFactory = new ClassPathXmlApplicationContext( new String[] { "./*.xml" } ); SimplePerson person = (SimplePerson)beanFactory.getBean( "simplePersonAddress01" ); System.out.println( person.getFirstName() ); Spring complains as it can not resolve the parent xml. Caused by: org.springframework.beans.factory.NoSuchBeanDefinitionException: No bean named 'simplePersonBase' is defined I am sure there is a way to do this, however, I have not found it. Does anyone know how?

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  • Upgrading VSTO project to .net 4 - What references do I actually need?

    - by Dana
    I'm developing an application for Office. It originally targeted .net 3.5, but I decided to upgrade to .net 4 because of some WPF issues that I've run into. When I switched all the projects in my solution and rebuilt, I got an error saying to include System.Xaml. I did that and rebuilt, and VS2010 told me to include another reference, so I did. This happened a couple more times, and finally it asked me to include Microsoft.Office.Tools.Common.v9.0, and when I did I got this error: Microsoft.Office.Tools.CustomTaskPaneCollection exists in both Microsoft.Office.Tools.Common.v9.0.dll and Microsoft.Office.Tools.Common.dll I have both Microsoft.Office.Tools.Common.v9.0 and Microsoft.Office.Tools.Common referenced in my project, but the problem is that if I remove either, I get an error. Am I doing something wrong? Is it odd that I would need both references? I find it strange that CustomTaskPaneCollection would be defined in two different binaries. If I remove Microsoft.Office.Tools.Common, the error that I get is "Cannot find the interop type that matches the embedded interop type 'Microsoft.Office.Tools.IAddInExtension'. Are you missing an assembly reference?"

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  • Configure WebLogic MDB to listen to Foreing AMQ Server

    - by eliel.lobo
    I'm trying to create an MDB(EJB 3.0) on WebLogic 10.3.5. to listen to a Queue in an external AMQ server. but after much work and combination of tutorials i get the followin error when deployin on WwebLogic. [EJB:015027]The Message-Driven EJB is transactional but JMS connection factory referenced by the JNDI name: ActiveMQXAConnectionFactory is not a JMS XA connection factory. Here is a brief of the work i have done: I have added the corresponding libraries to my WLS classpath (following thos tuturial http://amadei.com.br/blog/index.php/connecting-weblogic-and-activemq) and I have created the corresponding JMS Modules as indicated in the tutorial. As connection factory I have used ActiveMQConnectionFactory initially and ActiveMQXAConnectionFactory later, I also ignome the jms. notation an just put plain names as testQueue. Then create a simple MDB whit the following structure. I explicitly defined "connectionFactoryJndiName" property because otherwise it assumes a WebLogic connection factory which is not found an then raises an error. @MessageDriven( activationConfig = { @ActivationConfigProperty(propertyName = "destinationType", propertyValue = "javax.jms.Queue"), @ActivationConfigProperty(propertyName = "destination", propertyValue = "testQueue"), @ActivationConfigProperty(propertyName = "connectionFactoryJndiName", propertyValue = "ActiveMQXAConnectionFactory") }, mappedName = "testQueue") public class ROMELReceiver implements MessageListener { /** * Default constructor. */ public ROMELReceiver() { // TODO Auto-generated constructor stub } /** * @see MessageListener#onMessage(Message) */ public void onMessage(Message message) { System.out.println("Message received"); } } At this point I'm stuck with the error mentioned above. Even though I use ActiveMQXAConnectionFactory instead of simply ActiveMQConnectionFactory, JNDI resources tree in web logic server shows org.apache.activemq.ActiveMQConnectionFactory as class for my configured connection factory. am i missing something? or is this just a completely wrong way to connect WebLogic whith AMQ? Thanks in advance.

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  • chrome frame causes postback to wrong url and a Server Error in '/' Application error

    - by Johnny S
    I have a simple asp page with no code behind defined as: <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="Default.aspx.cs" Inherits="_Default" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <meta http-equiv="X-UA-Compatible" content="chrome=1" /> <title>test login</title> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <asp:Button runat="server" CommandName="test" Text="test" /> </div> </form> </body> </html> This is being hosted on an IIS server that ships with XP (looks like 5.1). If I have machine with native IE6 running chrome frame click the TEST button, I receive: Server Error in '/' Application. The resource cannot be found. Description: HTTP 404. The resource you are looking for (or one of its dependencies) could have been removed, had its name changed, or is temporarily unavailable. Please review the following URL and make sure that it is spelled correctly. Requested URL: /Default.aspx I have tried this test on an IIS 7 host and several other IE6 machines with the same result. What I have noticed is that it is trying to postback to the wrong URL. I have checked with fiddler and have seen it will start at hostname/test/default.aspx but when I click the button it is trying to post to hostname/default.aspx Any help is greatly appreciated.

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  • Requiring library consumers reference additional assembly when using certain types

    - by Thomas G. Mayfield
    I have library code that uses ICSharpCode.SharpZipLib under the hood to make it easy to use ZIP files as data sources when running integration tests. As it stands, if I reference my library from another project, the other project will compile just fine, but when it accesses the code that uses SharpZipLib, I get an exception for it not finding the zip library: failed: System.IO.FileNotFoundException : Could not load file or assembly 'ICSharpCode.SharpZipLib, Version=0.85.5.452, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=1b03e6acf1164f73' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified. If the types in my library derived from a class in SharpZipLib, it'd generate a compile error CS0012. What other ways are there for triggering a CS0012, so that using code that requires SharpZipLib (but doesn't clearly indicate it) would cause consumer code to fail compilation? I've had similar problems in the past when I've used libraries like DeftTech.DuckTyping under the hood. I'd add my library code to a new project, start working, compile, run, and then suddenly hit an edge case that I'd used duck typing to get around and get a runtime error. What I'd most like is to have the same behavior as if I'd derived from a type in the 3rd-party library, so that a reference to my derived type generates a CS0012: The type 'type' is defined in an assembly that is not referenced. You must add a reference to assembly 'assembly'.

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  • FileNotFoundException, although the XML file should be deployed

    - by Bernhard V
    Hi, I've got problems starting my WAR application on a local JBoss. After two other EARs are deployed and the TomcatDeployer begins deploying the WAR, I'm getting the following error message: 2010-04-28 10:01:56,605 ERROR [org.jboss.ejb.plugins.LogInterceptor] [] [main] EJBException in method: public abstract at.sozvers.stp.zpv.ejb.lea.rwsuc.EJBLeaRegelwerkSuchenRemote at.sozvers.stp.zpv.ejb.lea.rwsuc.EJBLeaRegelwerkSuchenHome.create() throws javax.ejb.CreateException,java.rmi.RemoteException, causedBy: javax.ejb.EJBException: org.springframework.beans.factory.access.BootstrapException: Unable to initialize group definition. Group resource name [classpath*:applicationContext.xml], factory key [contextService]; nested exception is org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanCreationException: Error creating bean with name 'contextService' defined in URL [jar:file:/C:/ta30/nutzb/jboss-4.2.3.GA.ZPV/server/default/deploy/deploy.last/zpv-app-web-frontend-1.0-SNAPSHOT.war/WEB-INF/lib/zpv-comp-ejb-modules-1.0-SNAPSHOT-client.jar!/applicationContext.xml]: Instantiation of bean failed; nested exception is org.springframework.beans.BeanInstantiationException: Could not instantiate bean class [org.springframework.context.support.ClassPathXmlApplicationContext]: Constructor threw exception; nested exception is org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanDefinitionStoreException: IOException parsing XML document from class path resource [at/sozvers/stp/zpv/dao/ContextBasic.xml]; nested exception is java.io.FileNotFoundException: class path resource [at/sozvers/stp/zpv/dao/ContextBasic.xml] cannot be opened because it does not exist The sad thing is that the resource at/sozvers/stp/zpv/dao/ContextBasic.xml actually is placed in a JAR in one of my EAR files which should be deployed before the WAR. And at least I get a message that the deployment of the EAR has been successful. I also looked into the JAR with my file archiver and the ContextBasic.xml is indeed there at the right place. Is there a way for me to get sure that the JAR, not the EAR as a whole, is really deployed to the JBoss? I'm already starting to lose my head about this issue. Thank you. Bernhard

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  • Abstract Methods in "Product" - Factory Method C#

    - by Regina Foo
    I have a simple class library (COM+ service) written in C# to consume 5 web services: Add, Minus, Divide, Multiply and Compare. I've created the abstract product and abstract factory classes. The abstract product named WS's code: public abstract class WS { public abstract double Calculate(double a, double b); public abstract string Compare(double a, double b); } As you see, when one of the subclasses inherits WS, both methods must be overridden which might not be useful in some subclasses. E.g. Compare doesn't need Calculate() method. To instantiate a new CompareWS object, the client class will call the CreateWS() method which returns a WS object type. public class CompareWSFactory : WSFactory { public override WS CreateWS() { return new CompareWS(); } } But if Compare() is not defined as abstract in WS, the Compare() method cannot be invoked. This is only an example with two methods, but what if there are more methods? Is it stupid to define all the methods as abstract in the WS class? My question is: I want to define abstract methods that are common to all subclasses of WS whereas when the factory creates a WS object type, all the methods of the subclasses can be invoked (overridden methods of WS and also the methods in subclasses). How should I do this?

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  • C# Help with a basic pedagogic example of a BackGroundWorker process populating a DataGridView

    - by Roger
    Scenario: I have a windows form that holds a DataGridWiew with 3 pre-defined columns. I have 3 variables declared outside the function and assigned to inside the function. I have a function that enumerates stuff and puts it in the 3 columns, line by line: string VARIABLE1; string VARIABLE2; string VARIABLE3; private void FunctionEnumerateStuff() { foreach (StuffObject STUFF in StuffCollection) { VARIABLE1 = STUFF.SubStuff1.ToString(); VARIABLE2 = STUFF.SubStuff2.ToString(); VARIABLE3 = STUFF.SubStuff3.ToString(); DatagridWiew1.Rows.Add(VALUE1, VALUE2, VALUE3); } } What I want to do, is to execute this function from a BackGroundWorker process, so that the GUI of the application will be smooth and responsive. I have read up on backgroundworkers but I am having trouble relating, because all examples seems to be of entirely different scenarios and most of them are overwelmingly complex. San some helpful pedagogic soul help me and others with a very basic example of how to get this to work in the simplest way possible. Thanks.

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  • How do I implement page authorizaton in ASP.NET using a SQL store instead of web.config?

    - by drachenstern
    For instance, the way we're doing it now is like thus: (in the web.config) <location path="somePath"> <system.web> <authorization> <allow roles="approvedRoles"/> <deny users="*"/> </authorization> </system.web> </location> And what I would like to do instead is to store this information in SQL somewhere so that we can manipulate the information more easily. But we want to keep the same functionality that having the information in web.config provides, just like we can use a SqlRoleProvider instead of hardcoding roles in the app. So in other words, if a user currently tries to goto "somePath" and they're not a member of "approvedRoles" then they get redirected back to default.aspx, and if they are a member of "approvedRoles" then they get the page. I want to do the same thing, but without using web.config as the authorization mechanism. So what I'm NOT asking is how do I go about defining roles, or how do I handle logging in to the database, but specifically how do I store the above information in SQL instead of web.config. Actually, I'll take "anywhere but web.config" for now. Any ideas? Is this possible using a "Provider" class? I'm just looking for pointers on what to inherit and maybe some technet documentation. In this regard my googlefoo is lacking since I don't really know where to point. Am I really only looking for AzMan? Is this location-authorization-via-SQL already defined in the default aspnetdb somewhere and I'm missing it? For that matter, has this question already been asked on SO and I've missed it? What would you google?

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  • Which languages support *recursive* function literals / anonymous functions?

    - by Hugh Allen
    It seems quite a few mainstream languages support function literals these days. They are also called anonymous functions, but I don't care if they have a name. The important thing is that a function literal is an expression which yields a function which hasn't already been defined elsewhere, so for example in C, &printf doesn't count. EDIT to add: if you have a genuine function literal expression <exp>, you should be able to pass it to a function f(<exp>) or immediately apply it to an argument, ie. <exp>(5). I'm curious which languages let you write function literals which are recursive. Wikipedia's "anonymous recursion" article doesn't give any programming examples. Let's use the recursive factorial function as the example. Here are the ones I know: JavaScript / ECMAScript can do it with callee: function(n){if (n<2) {return 1;} else {return n * arguments.callee(n-1);}} it's easy in languages with letrec, eg Haskell (which calls it let): let fac x = if x<2 then 1 else fac (x-1) * x in fac and there are equivalents in Lisp and Scheme. Note that the binding of fac is local to the expression, so the whole expression is in fact an anonymous function. Are there any others?

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