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  • NSPredicate case-insensitive matching on to-many relationship

    - by Brian Webster
    I am implementing a search field where the user can type in a string to filter the items displayed in a view. Each object being displayed has a keywords to-many relationship, and I would like to be able to filter the objects based on their keywords. Each keyword object has a name property, so I've set up an NSPredicate to do the filtering that looks like this: NSPredicate* predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"keywords.name CONTAINS %@", self.searchString]; This works, but the problem is that the search is case-sensitive, so if the keyword has a capital letter but the user types in all lowercase, no matches are found. I've tried the following modification: NSPredicate* predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"keywords.name CONTAINS[c] %@", self.searchString]; But that doesn't make any difference in the case sensitivity of the matching. Is there a way to do this case-insensitive matching using just a plain predicate? Or will I need to implement some sort of custom accessor on the keyword class, e.g. write a lowercaseName method and match against a lowercased version of the search string instead? Addendum: After further exploration, the workaround of adding a custom accessor works OK for manual use of NSPredicate, but does not work at all when using NSFetchRequest with Core Data, which only works when querying attributes defined in the Core Data model.

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  • Can I copy/clone a function in JavaScript?

    - by Craig Stuntz
    I'm using jQuery with the validators plugin. I would like to replace the "required" validator with one of my own. This is easy: jQuery.validator.addMethod("required", function(value, element, param) { return myRequired(value, element, param); }, jQuery.validator.messages.required); So far, so good. This works just fine. But what I really want to do is call my function in some cases, and the default validator for the rest. Unfortunately, this turns out to be recursive: jQuery.validator.addMethod("required", function(value, element, param) { // handle comboboxes with empty guids if (someTest(element)) { return myRequired(value, element, param); } return jQuery.validator.methods.required(value, element, param); }, jQuery.validator.messages.required); I looked at the source code for the validators, and the default implementation of "required" is defined as an anonymous method at jQuery.validator.messages.required. So there is no other (non-anonymous) reference to the function that I can use. Storing a reference to the function externally before calling addMethod and calling the default validator via that reference makes no difference. What I really need to do is to be able to copy the default required validator function by value instead of by reference. But after quite a bit of searching, I can't figure out how to do that. Is it possible? If it's impossible, then I can copy the source for the original function. But that creates a maintenance problem, and I would rather not do that unless there is no "better way."

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  • How to use references, avoid header bloat, and delay initialization?

    - by Kyle
    I was browsing for an alternative to using so many shared_ptrs, and found an excellent reply in a comment section: Do you really need shared ownership? If you stop and think for a few minutes, I'm sure you can pinpoint one owner of the object, and a number of users of it, that will only ever use it during the owner's lifetime. So simply make it a local/member object of the owners, and pass references to those who need to use it. I would love to do this, but the problem becomes that the definition of the owning object now needs the owned object to be fully defined first. For example, say I have the following in FooManager.h: class Foo; class FooManager { shared_ptr<Foo> foo; shared_ptr<Foo> getFoo() { return foo; } }; Now, taking the advice above, FooManager.h becomes: #include "Foo.h" class FooManager { Foo foo; Foo& getFoo() { return foo; } }; I have two issues with this. First, FooManager.h is no longer lightweight. Every cpp file that includes it now needs to compile Foo.h as well. Second, I no longer get to choose when foo is initialized. It must be initialized simultaneously with FooManager. How do I get around these issues?

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  • Error while splitting application context file in spring

    - by Krupal
    I am trying to split the ApplicationContext file in Spring. For ex. the file is testproject-servlet.xml having all the entries. Now I want to split this single file into multiple files according to logical groups like : group1-services.xml, group2-services.xml I have created following entries in web.xml : <servlet> <servlet-name>testproject</servlet-name> <servlet-class> org.springframework.web.servlet.DispatcherServlet </servlet-class> <init-param> <param-name>contextConfigLocation</param-name> <param-value> /WEB-INF/group1-services.xml, /WEB-INF/group2-services.xml </param-value> </init-param> <load-on-startup>1</load-on-startup> </servlet> I am using SimpleUrlHandlerMapping as: RegisterController PayrollServicesController I also have the controller defined as : .. .. The problem is that I have splitted the ApplicationContext file "testproject-servlet.xml" into two different files and I have kept the above entries in "group1-services.xml". Is it fine? I want to group things logically based on their use in seperate .xml files. But I am getting the following error when I try to access a page inside the application : org.springframework.web.servlet.DispatcherServlet noHandlerFound WARNING: No mapping for [/TestProject/payroll_services.htm] in DispatcherServlet with name 'testproject' Please tell me how to resolve it. Thanks in Advance !

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  • Get Mechanize to handle cookies from an arbitrary POST (to log into https://www.t-mobile.com/ progra

    - by Horace Loeb
    I want to log into https://www.t-mobile.com/ programmatically. My first idea was to use Mechanize to submit the login form: However, it turns out that this isn't even a real form. Instead, when you click "Log in" some javascript grabs the values of the fields, creates a new form dynamically, and submits it. "Log in" button HTML: <button onclick="handleLogin(); return false;" class="btnBlue" id="myTMobile-login"><span>Log in</span></button> The handleLogin() function: function handleLogin() { if (ValidateMsisdnPassword()) { // client-side form validation logic var a = document.createElement("FORM"); a.name = "form1"; a.method = "POST"; a.action = mytmoUrl; // defined elsewhere as https://my.t-mobile.com/Login/LoginController.aspx var c = document.createElement("INPUT"); c.type = "HIDDEN"; c.value = document.getElementById("myTMobile-phone").value; // the value of the phone number input field c.name = "txtMSISDN"; a.appendChild(c); var b = document.createElement("INPUT"); b.type = "HIDDEN"; b.value = document.getElementById("myTMobile-password").value; // the value of the password input field b.name = "txtPassword"; a.appendChild(b); document.body.appendChild(a); a.submit(); return true } else { return false } } I could simulate this form submission by POSTing the form data to https://my.t-mobile.com/Login/LoginController.aspx with Net::HTTP#post_form, but I don't know how to get the resultant cookie into Mechanize so I can continue to scrape the UI available when I'm logged in. Any ideas?

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  • How can UISearchDisplayController autorelease cause crash in a different view controller?

    - by Tofrizer
    Hi, I have two view controllers A and B. From A, I navigate to view controller B as follows: // in View Controller A // navigateToB method -(void) navigateToB { BViewController *bViewController = [[BViewController alloc] initWithNibName: @"BView" bundle:nil]; bViewController.bProperty1 = SOME_STRING_CONSTANT; bViewController.title = @"A TITLE OF A VC's CHOOSING"; [self.navigationController pushViewController: bViewController animated:YES]; [bViewController release]; //<----- releasing 0x406c1e0 } In BViewController, the property bPropery1 is defined with copy as below (note, B also contains UITableView and other properties): @property (nonatomic, copy) NSString *bProperty1; Everything appeared to work fine when navigating back and forth between A and B. That is until I added a UISearchDisplayController to the table view contained in BViewController. Now when I navigate out of B, back to A, the app crashes. Stack trace shows what looks the search display controller being autoreleased at time of crash: #0 0x009663a7 in ___forwarding___ #1 0x009426c2 in __forwarding_prep_0___ #2 0x018c8539 in -[UISearchDisplayController _destroyManagedTableView] #3 0x018c8ea4 in -[UISearchDisplayController dealloc] #4 0x00285ce5 in NSPopAutoreleasePool NSZombies shows: -[BViewController respondsToSelector:]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x406c1e0 And malloc history on this points to the bViewController already released in A's navigateToB method above: Call [2] [arg=132]: thread_a065e720 |start ... <snip> ..._sendActionsForEvents:withEvent:] | -[UIControl sendAction:to:forEvent:] | - [UIApplication sendAction:to:from:forEvent:] | -[**AViewController navigateToB**] | +[NSObject alloc] | +[NSObject allocWithZone:] | _internal_class_createInstance | _internal_class_createInstanceFromZone | calloc | malloc_zone_calloc Can someone please give me any ideas on what is happening here? In navigateToB method, once the bViewController is released (after pushViewController), that's should be it for bViewController. Nothing else even knows about it as it is local to the navigateToB method block and it has been released. When navigating from B back to A, nothing is invoked in viewDidLoad, viewWillAppear etc that will re-enter navigateToB. It looks like somehow search display controller has a reference to something in my AViewController and so as it is autoreleased it is taking this "something" down with it but I cannot understand how this is possible, especially as I'm using copy to pass data between A and B. I'm going potty over this. I'm sure this is my mistake somewhere and so I turn to you, Stack Overflow legends for any words of wisdom or advice on how to resolve this. Many Thanks.

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  • Can I create template-based library objects in Dreamweaver CS5?

    - by Danjah
    At work we need two 'streams' of template. The first are general layout templates, like the ones already available in the MX through CS5 packages (except we'd have our own customised ones). The second are more granular objects, some of which are functional. In both cases, I don't want Jimmy to be able to wreak havoc inside anything other than the 'editable regions' which make up the templates. Now this is fine if I stick with the first scenario (layout templates) where there's simply a big chunk of editable region for good ole Jim to sprawl into, think of this as the 'body content' area. But I really do need these granular library (or snippet) objects to work in the same way. Unfortunately with my attempts so far they don't work as I'd have thought - perhaps for good reason? When I create a blank template and throw in my chunk of HTML (unobstrusive JS and external CSS use selectors in this HTML to provide style and function) and save it as a new library item or snippet, all looks well. Then I create a new document based on a layout template and save it as a plain html file (still all good so far). Next I drop in my custom library item... still all good... but then I go to save the document and it only allows me to save it as a new template! I expected it would just allow me to save it as HTML and have it simply respect the defined editable regions, as happens in the containing page 'body content' editable region. Apologies if that got specific and technical quite quickly, but it is quite particular. If you want some example files lemme know and I'll zip some up. Many thanks :) p.s It is not a requirement that library objects must somehow inject their dependency files into the newly created page - I already know what they'll be. Also, I know I must 'detatch from original' once I drop a library item into a document which then allows customisation of the library object.

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  • Aren't Information Expert / Tell Don't Ask at odds with Single Responsibility Principle?

    - by moffdub
    It is probably just me, which is why I'm asking the question. Information Expert, Tell Don't Ask, and SRP are often mentioned together as best practices. But I think they are at odds. Here is what I'm talking about: Code that favors SRP but violates Tell Don't Ask, Info Expert: Customer bob = ...; // TransferObjectFactory has to use Customer's accessors to do its work, // violates Tell Don't Ask CustomerDTO dto = TransferObjectFactory.createFrom(bob); Code that favors Tell Don't Ask / Info Expert but violates SRP: Customer bob = ...; // Now Customer is doing more than just representing the domain concept of Customer, // violates SRP CustomerDTO dto = bob.toDTO(); If they are indeed at odds, that's a vindication of my OCD. Otherwise, please fill me in on how these practices can co-exist peacefully. Thank you. Edit: someone wants a definition of the terms - Information Expert: objects that have the data needed for the operation should host the operation Tell Don't Ask: don't ask objects for data in order to do work; tell the objects to do the work Single Responsibility Principle: each object should have a narrowly defined responsibility

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  • NAMESPACE_SEPARATOR constant

    - by ts
    Hello, Having namespaces in PHP is great. Having '\' as namespace separator is a little bit ... awkward (but if there is someone who thinks that is cool & sexy, I am adding tag "rant" to this post. ;) . So, here goes the question: Are you using in your code NAMESPACE_SEPARATOR constant? As in code below: <?php if (!\defined('NAMESPACE_SEPARATOR') { \define('NAMESPACE_SEPARATOR', '\\'); } // if Pros: consistent with DIRECTORY_SEPARATOR (which all of us are using ;) no mess with escaping (think of '\Foo\Bar' but '\\' . Foo' . '\\' . 'Bar') more readable (IMHO) which gives us in effect an opportunity to write good, namespace-aware autoloaders can resist another change if something scary happens (as with ol'good '::' from PHP 6 alpha) can hide uniquess of '\' as namespace operator in programming language land from strangers ;) Cons: "The reason for DIRECTORY_SEPARATOR is that the value is platform dependent, the namespace separator isn't." (as stated in http://bugs.php.net/bug.php?id=43046) 19 characters instead of 1 ( \ ) or 4 ('\\') There are places where you can't use this (full qualified class names as default class variables) ie: class A { protected $sDefaultReporterClass = '\My\Namespace\DefaultReporter'; } So, what are you thinking ?

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  • Project Architecture For Enhancing Legacy project.

    - by vijay.shad
    I am working on legacy project. Now the situation demands project to be divided into parts. What strategy I should follow to do this task. Description: The legacy project (A) is fully functional web application with almost well defined layers. But now i need to extend the project to a further enhancement. This project usage maven as build tool. But it is used only for dependency managements only. (project exported to war form inside eclipse). The new enhancement needs me to add new data table, new UI(jsp, css, js and images). What should be my strategy to enhance to application. My proposed design. I am planing to create two new projects Project B : Main Enhancement works will done in this project. Will have all layers like service layer, dao layer and UI layer in itself. And will be a web application in itself. Project C : Extract some common model and service code form project-A and create this project. This project will be added as dependency to both the projects. If my this approach is okay! Then i presume there will be problem be problem in deployment. These two projects will demand to deploy separately(currently tomcat is used). But I must deploy these two projects as one war. So, i need to have a plan to change the web.xml entries to have configurations for both projects. This will comes with some more complexities with project. What should be my design for the project? Does my plan sounds good.

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  • How to add a user to a SharePoint group programatically - Access is Denied

    - by Josh
    I have tried and tried to add a user to a SharePoint group using C# programatically (using a non-site admin). If I am logged in as a site admin, it works fine... but, if I am logged in as a non-site admin then I get an access is denied error. After doing some investigation I found that I needed to either "impersonate" the user (which didn't seem to work) or "ensure the user", so I have ended up at this code (which has worked for some people). Can some help explain to me why the following does not work and still gives me an Access is Denied error? SPSecurity.RunWithElevatedPrivileges(delegate() { using (SPSite site = new SPSite(SPControl.GetContextSite(HttpContext.Current).Url)) //have also tried passing in the ID - doesn't make a difference { using (SPWeb web = site.OpenWeb()) { web.AllowUnsafeUpdates = true; // add user to group SPGroup group = this.Web.Groups[groupList.Items[i].Value]; SPUser spUser = web.EnsureUser(provider + ":" + user.UserName); //provider is previously defined spUser.Email = user.Email; spUser.Name = txtFullName.Text; group.AddUser(spUser); // update group.Update(); } } }

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  • Which languages support *recursive* function literals / anonymous functions?

    - by Hugh Allen
    It seems quite a few mainstream languages support function literals these days. They are also called anonymous functions, but I don't care if they have a name. The important thing is that a function literal is an expression which yields a function which hasn't already been defined elsewhere, so for example in C, &printf doesn't count. EDIT to add: if you have a genuine function literal expression <exp>, you should be able to pass it to a function f(<exp>) or immediately apply it to an argument, ie. <exp>(5). I'm curious which languages let you write function literals which are recursive. Wikipedia's "anonymous recursion" article doesn't give any programming examples. Let's use the recursive factorial function as the example. Here are the ones I know: JavaScript / ECMAScript can do it with callee: function(n){if (n<2) {return 1;} else {return n * arguments.callee(n-1);}} it's easy in languages with letrec, eg Haskell (which calls it let): let fac x = if x<2 then 1 else fac (x-1) * x in fac and there are equivalents in Lisp and Scheme. Note that the binding of fac is local to the expression, so the whole expression is in fact an anonymous function. Are there any others?

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  • Dynamically add User Controls to a Silverlight 4 page

    - by PilotBob
    I am building an iGoogle like "dashboard" for our application with silverlight 4. Each users dashboard (which snapins and their positions) will be stored in the database. Each snap in is a user control, for example... AwesomeSnapin.xaml. On the dashboard page in silverlight I am retrieving the users dashboard which is a collection of snapin objects which include the information on the snapin. I can store the name of the page or the class or whatever is needed. I have the following code which loops through the collection of snapins to add them to the dashboard page. In testing I have just hard coded a single snapin item. Here is the prototype code: foreach (var UserSnapin in op.Entities) { UserControl uc = new AmsiSL.eFinancials.BudgetCheck(); Canvas.SetLeft(uc, UserSnapin.PositionLeft); Canvas.SetTop(uc, UserSnapin.PositionTop); Layout.Children.Add(uc); MessageBox.Show(String.Format("Added {0}",UserSnapin.Snapin.Name)); } The above works fine... but of course adds the BudgetCheck snapin for every item that is defined for the users dashboard. Of course the messagebox is for debugging purposes only. How would I change line 3 of that to load the user control class (using classname or xaml path whichever is better) based on the data in the collection.

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  • Requiring library consumers reference additional assembly when using certain types

    - by Thomas G. Mayfield
    I have library code that uses ICSharpCode.SharpZipLib under the hood to make it easy to use ZIP files as data sources when running integration tests. As it stands, if I reference my library from another project, the other project will compile just fine, but when it accesses the code that uses SharpZipLib, I get an exception for it not finding the zip library: failed: System.IO.FileNotFoundException : Could not load file or assembly 'ICSharpCode.SharpZipLib, Version=0.85.5.452, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=1b03e6acf1164f73' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified. If the types in my library derived from a class in SharpZipLib, it'd generate a compile error CS0012. What other ways are there for triggering a CS0012, so that using code that requires SharpZipLib (but doesn't clearly indicate it) would cause consumer code to fail compilation? I've had similar problems in the past when I've used libraries like DeftTech.DuckTyping under the hood. I'd add my library code to a new project, start working, compile, run, and then suddenly hit an edge case that I'd used duck typing to get around and get a runtime error. What I'd most like is to have the same behavior as if I'd derived from a type in the 3rd-party library, so that a reference to my derived type generates a CS0012: The type 'type' is defined in an assembly that is not referenced. You must add a reference to assembly 'assembly'.

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  • How to use a Spring config file in a Maven dependency

    - by javamonkey79
    In dependency A I have the following: <beans> <bean id="simplePersonBase" class="com.paml.test.SimplePerson" abstract="true"> <property name="firstName" value="Joe" /> <property name="lastName" value="Smith" /> </bean> </beans> And then in project B, I add A as a dependency and have the following config: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <beans xmlns="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans/spring-beans.xsd"> <bean id="simplePersonAddress01" parent="simplePersonBase"> <property name="firstName" value="BillyBob" /> <property name="address" value="1060 W. Addison St" /> <property name="city" value="Chicago" /> <property name="state" value="IL" /> <property name="zip" value="60613" /> </bean> </beans> When I use ClassPathXmlApplicationContext like so: BeanFactory beanFactory = new ClassPathXmlApplicationContext( new String[] { "./*.xml" } ); SimplePerson person = (SimplePerson)beanFactory.getBean( "simplePersonAddress01" ); System.out.println( person.getFirstName() ); Spring complains as it can not resolve the parent xml. Caused by: org.springframework.beans.factory.NoSuchBeanDefinitionException: No bean named 'simplePersonBase' is defined I am sure there is a way to do this, however, I have not found it. Does anyone know how?

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  • FileNotFoundException, although the XML file should be deployed

    - by Bernhard V
    Hi, I've got problems starting my WAR application on a local JBoss. After two other EARs are deployed and the TomcatDeployer begins deploying the WAR, I'm getting the following error message: 2010-04-28 10:01:56,605 ERROR [org.jboss.ejb.plugins.LogInterceptor] [] [main] EJBException in method: public abstract at.sozvers.stp.zpv.ejb.lea.rwsuc.EJBLeaRegelwerkSuchenRemote at.sozvers.stp.zpv.ejb.lea.rwsuc.EJBLeaRegelwerkSuchenHome.create() throws javax.ejb.CreateException,java.rmi.RemoteException, causedBy: javax.ejb.EJBException: org.springframework.beans.factory.access.BootstrapException: Unable to initialize group definition. Group resource name [classpath*:applicationContext.xml], factory key [contextService]; nested exception is org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanCreationException: Error creating bean with name 'contextService' defined in URL [jar:file:/C:/ta30/nutzb/jboss-4.2.3.GA.ZPV/server/default/deploy/deploy.last/zpv-app-web-frontend-1.0-SNAPSHOT.war/WEB-INF/lib/zpv-comp-ejb-modules-1.0-SNAPSHOT-client.jar!/applicationContext.xml]: Instantiation of bean failed; nested exception is org.springframework.beans.BeanInstantiationException: Could not instantiate bean class [org.springframework.context.support.ClassPathXmlApplicationContext]: Constructor threw exception; nested exception is org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanDefinitionStoreException: IOException parsing XML document from class path resource [at/sozvers/stp/zpv/dao/ContextBasic.xml]; nested exception is java.io.FileNotFoundException: class path resource [at/sozvers/stp/zpv/dao/ContextBasic.xml] cannot be opened because it does not exist The sad thing is that the resource at/sozvers/stp/zpv/dao/ContextBasic.xml actually is placed in a JAR in one of my EAR files which should be deployed before the WAR. And at least I get a message that the deployment of the EAR has been successful. I also looked into the JAR with my file archiver and the ContextBasic.xml is indeed there at the right place. Is there a way for me to get sure that the JAR, not the EAR as a whole, is really deployed to the JBoss? I'm already starting to lose my head about this issue. Thank you. Bernhard

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  • Variable field in a constraint annotation

    - by Javi
    Hello, I need to create a custom constraint annotation which can access the value of another field of my bean. I'll use this annotation to validate the field because it depends on the value of the other but the way I define it the compiler says "The value for annotation attribute" of my field "must be a constant expression". I've defined it in this way: @Target(ElementType.FIELD) @Retention(RetentionPolicy.RUNTIME) @Constraint(validatedBy=EqualsFieldValidator.class) @Documented public @interface EqualsField { public String field(); String message() default "{com.myCom.annotations.EqualsField.message}"; Class<?>[] groups() default {}; Class<? extends Payload>[] payload() default {}; } public class EqualsFieldValidator implements ConstraintValidator<EqualsField, String>{ private EqualsField equalsField; @Override public void initialize(EqualsField equalsField) { this.equalsField = equalsField; } @Override public boolean isValid(String thisField, ConstraintValidatorContext arg1) { //my validation } } and in my bean I want something like this: public class MyBean{ private String field1; @EqualsField(field=field1) private String field2; } Is there any way to define the annotation so the field value can be a variable? Thanks

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  • Python and MySQLdb

    - by rohanbk
    I have the following query that I'm executing using a Python script (by using the MySQLdb module). conn=MySQLdb.connect (host = "localhost", user = "root",passwd = "<password>",db = "test") cursor = conn.cursor () preamble='set @radius=%s; set @o_lat=%s; set @o_lon=%s; '%(radius,latitude,longitude) query='SELECT *, 6371*1000 * acos(cos(radians(@o_lat)) * cos(radians(lat)) * cos(radians(lon) - radians(@o_lon)) + sin(radians(@o_lat)) * sin(radians(lat))) as distance FROM poi_table HAVING distance < @radius ORDER BY distance ASC LIMIT 0, 50' complete_query=preamble+query results=cursor.execute (complete_query) print results The values of radius, latitude, and longitude are not important, but they are being defined when the script executes. What bothers me is that the snippet of code above returns no results; essentially meaning that the way that the query is being executed is wonky. I executed the SQL query (including the set variables with actual values, and it returned the correct number of results). If I modify the query to just be a simple SELECT FROM query (SELECT * FROM poi_table) it returns results. What is going on here?

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  • Abstract Methods in "Product" - Factory Method C#

    - by Regina Foo
    I have a simple class library (COM+ service) written in C# to consume 5 web services: Add, Minus, Divide, Multiply and Compare. I've created the abstract product and abstract factory classes. The abstract product named WS's code: public abstract class WS { public abstract double Calculate(double a, double b); public abstract string Compare(double a, double b); } As you see, when one of the subclasses inherits WS, both methods must be overridden which might not be useful in some subclasses. E.g. Compare doesn't need Calculate() method. To instantiate a new CompareWS object, the client class will call the CreateWS() method which returns a WS object type. public class CompareWSFactory : WSFactory { public override WS CreateWS() { return new CompareWS(); } } But if Compare() is not defined as abstract in WS, the Compare() method cannot be invoked. This is only an example with two methods, but what if there are more methods? Is it stupid to define all the methods as abstract in the WS class? My question is: I want to define abstract methods that are common to all subclasses of WS whereas when the factory creates a WS object type, all the methods of the subclasses can be invoked (overridden methods of WS and also the methods in subclasses). How should I do this?

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  • VS 2008 designer and usercontrol.

    - by Ram
    Hello, I have created a custom data grid control. I dragged it on windows form and set its properties like column and all & ran the project. It built successfully and I am able to view the grid control on the form. Now if i try to view that form in designer, I am getting following error.. Object reference not set to an instance of an object. Instances of this error (1) 1. Hide Call Stack at Microsoft.VisualStudio.Design.Serialization.CodeDom.XML.CodeDomXmlProcessor.GetMemberTargetObject(XmlElementData xmlElementData, String& member) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.Design.Serialization.CodeDom.XML.CodeDomXmlProcessor.CreateAssignStatement(XmlElementData xmlElement) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.Design.Serialization.CodeDom.XML.CodeDomXmlProcessor.XmlElementData.get_CodeDomElement() at Microsoft.VisualStudio.Design.Serialization.CodeDom.XML.CodeDomXmlProcessor.EndElement(String prefix, String name, String urn) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.Design.Serialization.CodeDom.XML.CodeDomXmlProcessor.Parse(XmlReader reader) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.Design.Serialization.CodeDom.XML.CodeDomXmlProcessor.ParseXml(String xmlStream, CodeStatementCollection statementCollection, String fileName, String methodName) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.Design.Serialization.CodeDom.VSCodeDomParser.OnMethodPopulateStatements(Object sender, EventArgs e) at System.CodeDom.CodeMemberMethod.get_Statements() at System.ComponentModel.Design.Serialization.TypeCodeDomSerializer.Deserialize(IDesignerSerializationManager manager, CodeTypeDeclaration declaration) at System.ComponentModel.Design.Serialization.CodeDomDesignerLoader.PerformLoad(IDesignerSerializationManager manager) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.Design.Serialization.CodeDom.VSCodeDomDesignerLoader.PerformLoad(IDesignerSerializationManager serializationManager) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.Design.Serialization.CodeDom.VSCodeDomDesignerLoader.DeferredLoadHandler.Microsoft.VisualStudio.TextManager.Interop.IVsTextBufferDataEvents.OnLoadCompleted(Int32 fReload) If I ignore the exception, form appears blank with no sign of grid control on it. However I can see the code for the grid in the designer file. Any pointer on this would be a great help. I have customized grid for my custom requirements like I have added custom text box n all. I have defined 3 constructors public GridControl() public GridControl(IContainer container) protected GridControl(SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context)

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  • Upgrading VSTO project to .net 4 - What references do I actually need?

    - by Dana
    I'm developing an application for Office. It originally targeted .net 3.5, but I decided to upgrade to .net 4 because of some WPF issues that I've run into. When I switched all the projects in my solution and rebuilt, I got an error saying to include System.Xaml. I did that and rebuilt, and VS2010 told me to include another reference, so I did. This happened a couple more times, and finally it asked me to include Microsoft.Office.Tools.Common.v9.0, and when I did I got this error: Microsoft.Office.Tools.CustomTaskPaneCollection exists in both Microsoft.Office.Tools.Common.v9.0.dll and Microsoft.Office.Tools.Common.dll I have both Microsoft.Office.Tools.Common.v9.0 and Microsoft.Office.Tools.Common referenced in my project, but the problem is that if I remove either, I get an error. Am I doing something wrong? Is it odd that I would need both references? I find it strange that CustomTaskPaneCollection would be defined in two different binaries. If I remove Microsoft.Office.Tools.Common, the error that I get is "Cannot find the interop type that matches the embedded interop type 'Microsoft.Office.Tools.IAddInExtension'. Are you missing an assembly reference?"

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  • Why Finalize method not allowed to override

    - by somaraj
    I am new to .net ..and i am confused with the destructor mechanism in C# ..please clarify In C# destructors are converted to finalize method by CLR. If we try to override it (not using destructor ) , will get an error Error 2 Do not override object.Finalize. Instead, provide a destructor. But it seems that the Object calss implementation in mscorlib.dll has finalize defined as protected override void Finalize(){} , then why cant we override it , that what virtual function for . Why is the design like that , is it to be consistent with c++ destructor concept. Also when we go to the definition of the object class , there is no mention of the finalize method , then how does the hmscorlib.dll definition shows the finalize funtion . Does it mean that the default destructor is converted to finalize method. public class Object { public Object(); public virtual bool Equals(object obj); public static bool Equals(object objA, object objB); public virtual int GetHashCode(); public Type GetType(); protected object MemberwiseClone(); public static bool ReferenceEquals(object objA, object objB); public virtual string ToString(); }

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  • Formatting the parent and child nodes of a Treeview that is populated by a XML file

    - by Marina
    Hello Everyone, I'm very new to xml so I hope I'm not asking any silly question here. I'm currently working on populating a treeview from an XML file that is not hierarchically structured. In the xml file that I was given the child and parent nodes are defined within the attributes of the item element. How would I be able to utilize the attributes in order for the treeview to populate in the right hierarchical order. (Example Mary Jane should be a child node of Peter Smith). At present all names are under one another. root <item parent_id="0" id="1"><content><name>Peter Smith</name></content></item> <item parent_id="1" id="2"><content><name>Mary Jane</name></content></item> <item parent_id="1" id="7"><content><name>Lucy Lu</name></content></item> <item parent_id="2" id="3"><content><name>Informatics Team</name></content></item> <item parent_id="3" id="4"><content><name>Sandy Chu</name></content></item> <item parent_id="4" id="5"><content><name>John Smith</name></content></item> <item parent_id="5" id="6"><content><name>Jane Smith</name></content></item> /root Thank you for all of your help, Marina

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  • Define DataSource bean on code

    - by Ruben Trancoso
    I would like to make a "First Access Database Setup Process" in my spring application and the only thing I can imagine as a solution would be to initialize the DataSource bean programatically. My current bean is defined as: <bean id="dataSource" class="org.apache.commons.dbcp.BasicDataSource" destroy-method="close"> <property name="driverClassName" value="com.mysql.jdbc.Driver" /> <property name="url" value="jdbc:mysql://localhost:3306/catalog" /> <property name="username" value="condominium" /> <property name="password" value="password" /> <property name="validationQuery" value="SELECT 1" /> <property name="testOnBorrow" value="true" /> <property name="defaultAutoCommit" value="false" /> <property name="maxWait" value="5000" /> </bean> but the ideal thing was to load it by myself in whenever I need it and with the parameter I define. The scenario is that the user (administrator) comes to the application at the first time and I ask him the server, port and catalog to connect. I store it in a embeeded db and next time application start, a bean can check if the parameter are set on the embedded db and load it again. Is it possible?

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  • How to accurately parse smtp message status code (DSN)?

    - by Geo
    RFC1893 claims that status codes will come in the format below you can read more here. But our bounce management system is having a hard time parsing error status code from bounce messages. We are able to get the raw message, but depending on the email server the code will come in different places. Is there any rule on how to parse this type of messages to obtain better results. We are not looking for the 100% solution but at least 80%. This document defines a new set of status codes to report mail system conditions. These status codes are intended to be used for media and language independent status reporting. They are not intended for system specific diagnostics. The syntax of the new status codes is defined as: status-code = class "." subject "." detail class = "2"/"4"/"5" subject = 1*3digit detail = 1*3digit White-space characters and comments are NOT allowed within a status- code. Each numeric sub-code within the status-code MUST be expressed without leading zero digits. The quote above from the RFC tells one thing but then the text below from a leading tool on bounce management says something different, where I can get a good source of standard status codes: Return Code Description 0 UNDETERMINED - (ie. Recipient Reply) 10 HARD BOUNCE - (ie. User Unknown) 20 SOFT BOUNCE - General 21 SOFT BOUNCE - Dns Failure 22 SOFT BOUNCE - Mailbox Full 23 SOFT BOUNCE - Message Too Large 30 BOUNCE - NO EMAIL ADDRESS. VERY RARE! 40 GENERAL BOUNCE 50 MAIL BLOCK - General 51 MAIL BLOCK - Known Spammer 52 MAIL BLOCK - Spam Detected 53 MAIL BLOCK - Attachment Detected 54 MAIL BLOCK - Relay Denied 60 AUTO REPLY - (ie. Out Of Office) 70 TRANSIENT BOUNCE 80 SUBSCRIBE Request 90 UNSUBSCRIBE/REMOVE Request 100 CHALLENGE-RESPONSE

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