Search Results

Search found 6928 results on 278 pages for 'calling'.

Page 237/278 | < Previous Page | 233 234 235 236 237 238 239 240 241 242 243 244  | Next Page >

  • game currency convert: math efficient

    - by Comradsky
    For variables:4 text views named diamondText, goldText, silverText, and bronzeText;money variable unsigned int money;and an NSTimer, every .1 sec,runs function: -(void)updateMoney{ money++; bronzeText.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d",money]; silverText.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d",money%10]; goldText.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d",money%100]; diamondText.text= [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d",money%1000]; } Given that my currency is diamond = 10 gold = 10 silver = 10 bronze = 1; What would be most efficient way to calculate and display the money labels? How would you store this variable, with GameCenter and NSDictionary or GameCenter and something else? More details are below if you don't understand. To clarify: bronze has the last 2 numbers, silver has the next 2 numbers, and so on. I understand I could use 4 ints or an array, but i would rather try to use this method, unless theres a much more efficient way. Example: When money = 1000;bronzeText = nothing, silverText = 10,goldText = nothing, diamondText = nothing; What other ways would you do this that you think would be more efficient? I will be calling a function (void)collisionDetector that detects if my player.frame crosses with a flyingObject.frame, and if that object is a coin it gives an added value to money and then calls (void)updateMoney. Im just using the timer to test this and spawn these flying objects.

    Read the article

  • How to change the picture of CustomButtonField on click event?

    - by Ujjal boruah Vinod
    I have posted this question previously but the answer is not appropiate. The solution provided just change the picture when the custombutton has focus and unfocus. Suppose in my application I need to change the picture if the user clicks on the customButton, n i m doing this by calling the same screen (ie UiApplication.getUiApplication().pushScreen(new Screen2(b));) . Screen2 is the screen which holds the customButton. On the click evevt i m pushing the same screen by passing aint variable pic_status that determines which picture to be drawn in the CustomButton in the new screen. Is there any way to update the picture in the CustomButtonField on click event without pushing the same Screen again and again. //code in Screen2 public void fieldChanged(Field field, int context) { if(field == bf1) { if(pic_status == 0) { pic_status=1; } UiApplication.getUiApplication().pushScreen(new Screen2(pic_status)); } //code in CustomButtonField CustomButtonField(String label,int pic_status,long style) { super(style); this.label = label; this.labelHeight = getFont().getHeight(); this.labelWidth = getFont().getAdvance(label); this.notice = s; if(pic_status ==0) { currentPicture1 = onPicture; currentPicture2 = onPicture; } if(pic_status ==1) { currentPicture1 = clickPicture; currentPicture2 = onPicture; } if( pic_status==2 ) { currentPicture1 = onPicture; currentPicture2 = clickPicture; } } I need a way to update the customButtonField text and picture on the buttonClick event not on focus/unfocus event without pushing the same Screen again and again. If my above description of problem is not satisfactory, plz add a comment n i can give more details explanation of my problem?

    Read the article

  • Vim: How do I tell where a function is defined? (

    - by sixtyfootersdude
    I just installed macvim yesterday and I installed vim latex today. One of the menu items is calling a broken fuction (TeX-Suite -> view). When I click on the menu-time it makes this call: :silent! call Tex_ViewLatex() Question: Where can I find that function? Is there some way to figure out where it is defined? Just for curiosity sake I removed the silent part and ran this: :call Tex_ViewLatex() Which produces: Error detected while processing function Tex_ViewLaTeX: line 34: E121: Undefined variable: s:viewer E116: Invalid arguments for function strlen(s:viewer) E15: Invalid expression: strlen(s:viewer) line 39: E121: Undefined variable: appOpt E15: Invalid expression: 'open '.appOpt.s:viewer.' $*.'.s:target line 79: E121: Undefined variable: execString E116: Invalid arguments for function substitute(execString, '\V$*', mainfname, 'g' ) E15: Invalid expression: substitute(execString, '\V$*', mainfname, 'g') line 80: E121: Undefined variable: execString E116: Invalid arguments for function Tex_Debug line 82: E121: Undefined variable: execString E15: Invalid expression: 'silent! !'.execString Press ENTER or type command to continue I suspect that if I could see the source function I could figure out what inputs are bad or what it is looking for. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How to access parents' members from a inner class in WPF?

    - by black sensei
    Hello Experts! I'm trying to do scheduled operation let's say to check for user's credit left via web service call and update the user interface. i've tried with quartz.net to implement the scheduling bit.i created an inner class in the window class i need to update.That inner class has the method that calls the webservice and the result needs to be displayed back to the UI. here is an example of what i did. public partial class Window2 : Window { private int i; public Window2() { InitializeComponent(); } public class Myclass :IJob { public void Execute(JobExecutionContext context) { string result = doMyOperation(); //i'll like to call parent label member of name lblNotif //is something like parent.lblNotif.Content = result; //possible? } public string doMyOperation() { //calling the wermethod to retreive user's balance return result = service.GetUsersBalace(user); } } } Well the quartz bit is working and this post is not about quartz. here are my questions Question 1 : How is it possible to access Window2 controls, for instace lable lblNotif? Question 2 : If my thinking about this is wrong, what is done as best practice to solve my kind of problem, where an application need to do an operation let's say every 5mn and update the the UI. Question 3 : i at first tried to use the backgroundworker and i felt like i can't do the scheduling bit with it.Is that correct or i'm wrong. thanks for those who commented already and sorry for those who didn't get the meaning of my post.I hope this will be a bit clearer.Thanks for reading

    Read the article

  • Question about singleton property

    - by Jack
    I'm reading the java tutorial for enums located here and have a question: http://java.sun.com/j2se/1.5.0/docs/guide/language/enums.html#Card The part i'm confused about is as follows: "The Card class, above, contains a static factory that returns a deck, but there is no way to get an individual card from its rank and suit. Merely exposing the constructor would destroy the singleton property (that only a single instance of each card is allowed to exist). Here is how to write a static factory that preserves the singleton property, using a nested EnumMap: " Now as I understand, changing the original private "Card" constructor to public would allow us to instantiate an unlimited number of copies of a "Card" object with a given suit+rank. The solution as proposed was to create an EnumMap which would store four Maps (one for each suit), which themselves contained 13 Card objects with the rank as their keys. And so now if you wanted to retrieve a specific Card object from the deck, you would just call the "valueOf" method. My question now is, what's the prevent you with calling the valueOf method as many times as you like? Wouldn't that lead to the same problem as making the original private constructor public? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Objective-C Result from a Static Method saved to class instance variable giving "EXC_BAD_ACCESS" when used.

    - by KinGBin
    I am trying to store the md5 string as a class instance variable instead of the actual password. I have a static function that will return a md5 string which I'm trying to store in an instance variable instead of the actual password. I have the following setter for my class instance variable: -(void)setPassword:(NSString *)newpass{ if(newpass != password){ password = [utils md5HexDigest:newpass]; } } This will pass back the correct md5 string and save it to the password variable in my init function: [self setPassword:pword];. If I call another instance method and try to access self.password" I will get "EXC_BAD_ACCESS". I understand that the memory is getting released, but I have no clue to make sure it stays. I have tried alloc init with autorelease with no luck. This is the md5HexDigest function getting called during the init (graciously found in another stackoverflow question): + (NSString*)md5HexDigest:(NSString*)input { const char* str = [input UTF8String]; unsigned char result[CC_MD5_DIGEST_LENGTH]; CC_MD5(str, strlen(str), result); NSMutableString *ret = [NSMutableString stringWithCapacity:CC_MD5_DIGEST_LENGTH*2]; for(int i = 0; i<CC_MD5_DIGEST_LENGTH; i++) { [ret appendFormat:@"%02x",result[i]]; } return ret; } Any help/pointers would be greatly appreciated. I would rather have the md5 string saved in memory than the actual password calling the md5 every time I needed to use the password. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • how to slove error when using thread?

    - by ChandreshKanetiya
    I have following error msg in console when using NSThread "Tried to obtain the web lock from a thread other than the main thread or the web thread. This may be a result of calling to UIKit from a secondary thread. Crashing now..." I have submit my sample code here - (void)viewDidLoad { appDeleg = (NewAshley_MedisonAppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; [[self tblView1] setRowHeight:80.0]; [super viewDidLoad]; self.title = @"Under Ground"; [UIApplication sharedApplication].networkActivityIndicatorVisible = YES; [NSThread detachNewThreadSelector:@selector(CallParser) toTarget:self withObject:nil]; } -(void)CallParser { Parsing *parsing = [[Parsing alloc] init]; [parsing DownloadAndParseUnderground]; [parsing release]; [self Update_View]; //[myIndicator stopAnimating]; [UIApplication sharedApplication].networkActivityIndicatorVisible = NO; } here "DownloadAndParseUnderground" is the method of downloding data from the rss feed and -(void) Update_View{ [self.tblView1 reloadData]; } when Update_View method is called the tableView reload Data and in the cellForRowAtIndexPath create error and not display custom cell - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; CustomTableviewCell *cell = (CustomTableviewCell *) [tblView1 dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { [[NSBundle mainBundle] loadNibNamed:@"customCell" owner:self options:nil]; cell = objCustCell; objCustCell = nil; }

    Read the article

  • Java: How do I implement a method that takes 2 arrays and returns 2 arrays?

    - by HansDampf
    Okay, here is what I want to do: I want to implement a crossover method for arrays. It is supposed to take 2 arrays of same size and return two new arrays that are a kind of mix of the two input arrays. as in [a,a,a,a] [b,b,b,b] ------ [a,a,b,b] [b,b,a,a]. Now I wonder what would be the suggested way to do that in Java, since I cannot return more than one value. My ideas are: - returning a Collection(or array) containing both new arrays. I dont really like that one because it think would result in a harder to understand code. - avoiding the need to return two results by calling the method for each case but only getting one of the results each time. I dont like that one either, because there would be no natural order about which solution should be returned. This would need to be specified, though resulting in harder to understand code. Plus, this will work only for this basic case, but I will want to shuffle the array before the crossover and reverse that afterwards. I cannot do the shuffling isolated from the crossover since I wont want to actually do the operation, instead I want to use the information about the permutation while doing the crossover, which will be a more efficient way I think.

    Read the article

  • Still some questions about USB

    - by b-gen-jack-o-neill
    Hi, few days ago I asked here about implementing USB. Now, If I may, would like to ask few more questions, about thing I dind´t quite understood. So, first, If I am right, Windows has device driver for USB interface, for the physical device that sends and receives communication. But what this driver offers to system (user)? I mean, USB protocol is made so its devices are adressed. So you first adress device than send message to it. But how sophisticted is the device controller (HW) and its driver? Is it so sophisticated that it is a chip you just send device adress and data, and it writes the outcomming data out and incomming data to some internal register to be read, or thru DMA directly to memory? Or, how its drivers (SW) really work? Does its driver has some advanced functions like send _data to _device? Becouse I somewhat internally hope there is a way to directly send some data thru USB, maybe by calling USB drivers itself? Is there any good article, tutorial you know about to really explain how all this logic works? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • What are your suggestions for best practises for regular data updates in a website database?

    - by bboyle1234
    My shared-hosting asp.net website must automatically run data update routines at regular times of day. Once it has finished running certain update routines, it can run update routines that are dependent on the previous updates. I have done this type of work before, using quite complicated setups. Some features of the framework I created are: A cron job from another server makes a request which starts a data update routine on the main server Each updater is loaded from web.config Each updater overrides a "canRunUpdate" method that determines whether its dependencies have finished updating Each updater overrides a "hasFinishedUpdate" method Each updater overrides a "runUpdate" method Updaters start and run in parallel threads The initial request from the cron job server started each updater in its own thread and then ended. As a result, the threads containing the updaters would be terminated before the updaters were finished. Therefore I had to give the updaters the ability to save partial results and continue the update job next time they are started up. As a result, the cron server had to call the updater many times to ensure the job is done. Sometimes the cron server would continue making update requests long after all the updates were completed. Sometimes the cron server would finish calling the update requests and leave some updates uncompleted. It's not the best system. I'm looking for inspiration. Any ideas please? Thank you :)

    Read the article

  • After a few same hql query the application freezes

    - by Oktay
    I am calling below function with the same batchNumber and it is working without problem 15 times and takes the records fromm database without problem but at 16. time the application freezes when the query.list() row is called. It just loses debug focus and not give any exception. This problem probably is not about the hql because I've seen this problem before and I used criteria instead of hql and I got pass this problem. But for this when I use "group by" in criteria(setrojection....) it doesn't return the result as hibernate model(object) just returns a list. But I need the results as model. Note: about 15 times it is just for test. This is a web aplication and user may click the button many times that calls this funtion to see the taken records from database. public List<SiteAddressModel> getSitesByBatch(String batchNumber) { try{ List<SiteAddressModel> siteList; MigrationPlanDao migrationPlanDao = ServiceFactory.getO2SiteService().getMigrationPlanDao(); Query query = this.getSession().createQuery("from " + persistentClass.getName() + " where " + "siteType =:" + "type and siteName in " + "(select distinct exchange from " + migrationPlanDao.getPersistentClass().getName() + " where migrationBatchNumber =:" + "batchNumber" + ")" ); query.setString("batchNumber", batchNumber); query.setString("type", "LLU/ASN"); System.out.println("before query"); siteList = query.list(); System.out.println("after query"); return siteList; }catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } Hibernate version 3.2.0.ga

    Read the article

  • How: Start an Activity inside a Thread and use finish() to get back.

    - by Kirk Becker
    Hello, I am programming a game on android. I'm using a Thread while calling a Surface View class to update and draw my game. Inside the update I wanted to start an activity based on if the game has just started and this would launch my MENUS. My Thread for the most part.. while (myThreadRun) { Canvas c = null; try { gameTime = System.currentTimeMillis(); c = myThreadSurfaceHolder.lockCanvas(null); synchronized (myThreadSurfaceHolder) { // Update Game. myThreadSurfaceView.onUpdate(); // Draw Game. myThreadSurfaceView.onDraw(c); You can see there where I am updating the game... here is onUpdate(); protected void onUpdate() { // Test if menu needs to be displayed. while (thread.getMenu()) { // Test if menu activity has been started. if (thread.getMenuRunning() == false) { Intent menuIntent = new Intent(this.getContext(), MyMenu.class); ((Activity) cxt).startActivityForResult(menuIntent, 1); thread.setMenuRunning(true); } } I am using a while loop because if I didn't use it the thread just keeps going. Basically I just don't know how to implement my menus using a thread as a game loop. Everywhere I look it seems like that's best practice. In my menu activity I just display the menu layout and a few buttons and when the person wants to start the game it uses finish() to go back to my thread where they play the game. I am very new to this so any insight will be helpful, Thanks

    Read the article

  • .net remoting - Better solution to wait for a service to initialize ?

    - by CitizenInsane
    Context I have a client application (which i cannot modify, i.e. i only have the binary) that needs to run from time to time external commands that depends on a resource which is very long to initialize (about 20s). I thus decided to initialize this resource once for all in a "CommandServer.exe" application (single instance in the system tray) and let my client application call an intermediate "ExecuteCommand.exe" program that uses .net remoting to perform the operation on the server. The "ExecuteCommand.exe" is in charge for starting the server on first call and then leave it alive to speed up further commands. The service: public interface IMyService { void ExecuteCommand(string[] args); } The "CommandServer.exe" (using WindowsFormsApplicationBase for single instance management + user friendly splash screen during resource initializations): private void onStartupFirstInstance(object sender, StartupEventArgs e) { // Register communication channel channel = new TcpServerChannel("CommandServerChannel", 8234); ChannelServices.RegisterChannel(channel, false); // Register service var resource = veryLongToInitialize(); service = new MyServiceImpl(resource); RemotingServices.Marshal(service, "CommandServer"); // Create icon in system tray notifyIcon = new NotifyIcon(); ... } The intermediate "ExecuteCommand.exe": static void Main(string[] args) { startCommandServerIfRequired(); var channel = new TcpClientChannel(); ChannelServices.RegisterChannel(channel, false); var service = (IMyService)Activator.GetObject(typeof(IMyService), "tcp://localhost:8234/CommandServer"); service.RunCommand(args); } Problem As the server is very long to start (about 20s to initialize the required resources), the "ExecuteCommand.exe" fails on service.RunCommand(args) line because the server is yet not available. Question Is there a elegant way I can tune the delay before to receive "service not available" when calling service.RunCommand ? NB1: Currently I'm working around the issue by adding a mutex in server to indicate for complete initiliazation and have "ExecuteCommand.exe" to wait for this mutex before to call service.RunCommand. NB2: I have no background with .net remoting, nor WCF which is recommended replacer. (I chose .net remoting because this looked easier to set-up for this single shot issue in running external commands).

    Read the article

  • trying to redirect the php page is get id is empty ir does not exists.

    - by user570782
    <? include..... if ($picid != $_GET['picid']) || (empty($picid)) { echo "page not working"; } else { $picid = $_GET['picid']; $query = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM pic_info WHERE picid = 'picid1' ");// problem while($rows = mysql_fetch_assoc($query)): $picid = $rows['picid']; $title = $rows['title']; $link = $rows['link']; $description = $rows['description']; $movie_pic = $rows['movie_pic']; $source = $rows['source']; } $get_comment = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM comment WHERE picid ='$picid'");// work partially $comment_count = mysql_num_rows($get_comment); if ($comment_count>0) { messages = " "; while ($com = mysql_fetch_array($get_comment)){ $comment_id = $com['comment_id']; $name = $com['name']; $message = $com['message']; $time_post= $com['time_post']; $messages .= '<em> on ' .$time_post.'</em><b> '.$name.' said.....</b><br/> '.$message.'<hr/>'; // line with problem } } ?> i am stuck i am trying to say that if $_GET['picid']; is empty echo out error message or if the movid does not exist in the db echo out error message. when i run it i get an error. not sure if i am calling the correct function. what am i doing wrong please help

    Read the article

  • Validation errors prevent the property setter being called

    - by HA
    Hi, I am looking for a simple solution to the following problem: I am using a simple TextBox control with the Text property bound to a property in the code behind. Additionally I am using a validation rule to notify the user of malformed input. ... error display style here ... Now after entering valid data into the TextBox the user can hit a button to send the data. When clicking the button the data from the bound property UserName in the code behind is evaluated and sent. The problem is that a user can enter valid data into the TextBox and this will be set in the property UserName. If the user then decides to change the text in the TextBox and the data becomes invalid, the setter of the property UserName is not called after the failed validation. This means that the last valid data remains in the property UserName, while the TextBox display the invalid data with the error indicator. If the user then clicks on the button to send the data, the last valid data will be sent instead of the current TextBox content. I know I could deactivate the button if the data is invalid and in fact I do, but the method is called in the setter of UserName. And if that is not called after a failed validation the button stays enabled. So the question is: How do I enable calling of the property setter after a failed validation?

    Read the article

  • NSInvocation making app crash

    - by neha
    Hi all, I'm using NSInvocation as follows: In my init, I'm writing this in my viewDidLoad: SEL mySelector; mySelector = @selector(initParsersetId:type:); NSMethodSignature * sig = nil; sig = [[self class] instanceMethodSignatureForSelector:mySelector]; myInvocation = nil; myInvocation = [NSInvocation invocationWithMethodSignature:sig]; [myInvocation setTarget:self]; [myInvocation setSelector:mySelector]; SEL mySelector; mySelector = @selector(initParsersetId:type:); NSMethodSignature * sig = nil; sig = [[self class] instanceMethodSignatureForSelector:mySelector]; myInvocation = nil; myInvocation = [NSInvocation invocationWithMethodSignature:sig]; [myInvocation setTarget:self]; [myInvocation setSelector:mySelector]; And I'm calling it like this: Idea *tempIdea = [[Idea alloc]init]; tempIdea = [genericArray objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; idea.ideaId = tempIdea.ideaId; [tempIdea release]; NSNumber *_id_ = [NSNumber numberWithInt:idea.ideaId]; [myInvocation setArgument:_id_ atIndex:2]; //CRASHING AT THIS LINE My application is crashing at the indicated line. Can anybody please help me?

    Read the article

  • Pitfalls of the Architecture - Database based HTTP Request/Response Parsing

    - by Sam
    We have a current eCommerce Site that runs on ASP.NET and we hired a consultant to develop an new site bases on SOA. The new site architecture is as follows Web Application : Single Page Web Application (built on javascript/jquery templates - do not use any MVVM frameworks) that uses some javascript thrown all over the place. Service Layer : Very very light Service Layer that does not do anything other than calling a single stored procedure and pass in the entire http request. Database : The entire site content is in the database. The database does the heavy lifting of parsing the request and based on the HTTP method and some input parameter calls the appropriate Store Procedures or views and renders the result in JSON/XML. We have been told by them that this is built on latest and greatest technologies. I have a lot of concerns and of them given are the few Load on the Database SEO concerns for single page application as this is a public facing website Scalablity? Is this SOA? Cross Browser compatability (Site does not work in < IE9) Realistic implementaion of Single page application I know something is not right but I just need to validate my concerns here. Please help me.

    Read the article

  • Call instance method with objc_msgSend

    - by user772349
    I'm trying to use the objc_msgSend method to call some method dynamically. Say I want call some method in Class B from Class A and there are two methods in class B like: - (void) instanceTestWithStr1:(NSString *)str1 str2:(NSString *)str1; + (void) methodTestWithStr1:(NSString *)str1 str2:(NSString *)str1; And I can call the class method like this in Class A successfully: objc_msgSend(objc_getClass("ClassB"), sel_registerName("methodTestWithStr1:str2:"), @"111", @"222"); And I can call the instance method like this in Class A successfully as well: objc_msgSend([[objc_getClass("ClassB") alloc] init], sel_registerName("instanceTestWithStr1:str2:"), @"111", @"222"); But the thing is to get a instance of Class B I have to call "initWithXXXXX:XXXXXX:XXXXXX" instead of "init" so that to pass some necessary parameters to class B to do the init stuff. So I stored a instance of ClassB in class A as variable: self.classBInstance = [[ClassB alloc] initWithXXXXX:XXXXXX:XXXXXX]; And then I call the method like this (successfully): The problem is, I want to call a method by simply applying the classname and the method sel like "ClassName" and "SEL" and then call it dynamically: If it's a class method. then call it like: objc_msgSend(objc_getClass("ClassName"), sel_registerName("SEL")); If it's a instance method, find the existing class instance variable in the calling class then: objc_msgSend([self.classInstance, sel_registerName("SEL")); So I want to know if there is any way to: Check if a class has a given method (I found "responseToSelector" will be the one) Check if a given method in class method or instance method (maybe can use responseToSelector as well) Check if a class has a instance variable of a given class So I can call a instance method like: objc_msgSend(objc_getClassInstance(self, "ClassB"), sel_registerName("SEL"));

    Read the article

  • RegExpValidator never matches

    - by babyangel86
    Hi, I've got a class that's meant to validate input fields to make sure the value is always a decimal. I've tested the regex here: http://livedocs.adobe.com/flex/3/html/help.html?content=validators_7.html, and it looks like it does the right thing, but in my app, I can't seem to get it to match to a number format. Class Definition: public class DecimalValidator { //------------------------------- ATTRIBUTES public var isDecimalValidator:RegExpValidator; //------------------------------- CONSTRUCTORS public function DecimalValidator() { isDecimalValidator = new RegExpValidator(); isDecimalValidator.expression = "^-?(\d+\.\d*|\.\d+)$"; isDecimalValidator.flags = "g"; isDecimalValidator.required = true; isDecimalValidator.property = "text"; isDecimalValidator.triggerEvent = FocusEvent.FOCUS_OUT; isDecimalValidator.noMatchError = "Float Expected"; } } Setting the source here: public function registerDecimalInputValidator(inputBox:TextInput, valArr:Array):void { // Add Validators var dValidator:DecimalValidator = new DecimalValidator(); dValidator.isDecimalValidator.source = inputBox; dValidator.isDecimalValidator.trigger = inputBox; inputBox.restrict = "[0-9].\\.\\-"; inputBox.maxChars = 10; valArr.push(dValidator.isDecimalValidator); } And Calling it here: registerDecimalInputValidator(textInput, validatorArr); Where textInput is an input box created earlier. Clearly I'm missing something simple yet important, but I'm not entirely sure what! Any help would be much appreciated.

    Read the article

  • What is a good RPC model for building a AJAX web app using PHP & JS?

    - by user366152
    I'm new to writing AJAX applications. I plan on using jQuery on the client side while PHP on the server side. I want to use something like XML-RPC to simplify my effort in calling server-side code. Ideally, I wouldn't care whether the transport layer uses XML or JSON or a format more optimized for the wire. If I was writing a console app I'd use some tool to generate function stubs which I would then implement on the RPC server while the client would natively call into those stubs. This provides a clean separation. Is there something similar available in the AJAX world? While on this topic, how would I proceed with session management? I would want it to be as transparent as possible. For example, if I try to hit an RPC end-point which needs a valid session, it should reject the request if the client doesn't pass a valid session cookie. This would really ease my application development. I'd then have to simply handle the frontend using native JS functions. While on the backend, I can simply implement the RPC functions. BTW I dont wish to use Google Web Toolkit. My app wont be extremely heavy on AJAX.

    Read the article

  • PHP delete script, return to 'viewsubjects.php?classroom_id=NO VALUE'

    - by Derek
    Hi, As the title states... I am deleting a 'subject' from a 'classroom' I view classrooms, then can click on a classroom to view the subject for that classroom. So the link where I am viewing subjects looks like: viewsubjects.php?classroom=23 When the user selects the delete button (in a row) to remove a subject from a class, I simply want the user to be redirected back to the list of subjects for the classroom (exactly where they were before!!) So I though this is simply a case of calling up the classroom ID within my delete script. Here is what I have: EDIT: corrected spelling mistake in code (this was not the problem) $subject_id = $_GET['subject_id']; $classroom_id = $_GET['classroom_id']; $sql = "DELETE FROM subjects WHERE subject_id=".$subject_id; $result = mysql_query($sql, $connection) or die("MySQL Error: ".mysql_error()); header("Location: viewsubjects.php?classroom_id=".$classroom_id); exit(); The subject is being removed from the DB, but when I am redirected back the URI is displaying with an empty classroom ID like: viewsubjects.php?classroom_id= Is there a way to carry the classroom ID through successfully through the delete script so it can be displayed after, allowing the user to be redirected back to the page? Thanks for any help!

    Read the article

  • What is the common way to program action listeners?

    - by Roman
    I just started to learn how to use action listeners. To my understanding it works in the following way: There are some classes which contains "addActionListener" method by default (for example classes for buttons). Using this method we add an action listener to an object. For example: listenedObject.addActionListener(listeningObject). When an action with the "listenedObject" is performed, the "actionPerformed" method of the "listeningObject" will be called. So, it means that when we program a class for the listeningObject, we need to put there "actionPerformed" method. What is not clear to me, should we create a new class for every object that we want to listen. It does not seem to me as an elegant solution. On the other hand, if we have one action listener class for all (or at least many) object, than we have a problem since a instance of this class will not know which object is calling the "actionPerformed" method (and we need to know that since actions performed by the actionPerformed differs depending on who is called for this method). In my opinion, for every listened object we need to create are "personal" action listener and we can do it by setting a specific value to the corresponding field of the action listener. But I am not sure that it is a standard way to go? How do usually people do it?

    Read the article

  • jquery ajax problem in chrome

    - by spaceman
    i have the following jquery code running on my page just fine in FF and IE, but chrome seems to be freaking out.. in FF and IE the call is made and the result is appended to the div. in chrome, it calls ajaxfailed on failure. the XMLHttpRequest passed to the AjaxFailed function has a status code of "200" and the statusText is "ok". the readystate is 4 and the responseText is set to the data i wish to append to the div.. basically from what i can see its calling the failure method but it isn't failing.. i have tried with both get and post requests and it always breaks in chrome. function getBranchDetails(contactID, branchID) { $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: urlToRequestTo, data: "{}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: branchDetailsSuccess, error: AjaxFailed }); } function branchDetailsSuccess(result) { $("#divBranchControl").empty(); $("#divBranchControl").append(" " + result); $("#branchDiv").tabs(); } function AjaxFailed(result) { alert("FAILED : " + result.status + ' ' + result.statusText); }

    Read the article

  • HTTPS causes jQuery to ignore request

    - by Josh
    I have an odd bug, this jQuery code executes correctly when calling the page via HTTP, but once I connect to the page via HTTPS it doesn't execute. The code basically tracks when a link is clicked. <html> <head> <title>Test Page</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="/scripts/jquery-1.4.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready( function() { $('.fbspb').click(function() { $.get("/services/lt.ashx?ac=fbspb"); return true; }); }); </script> </head> <body> <a href="http://www.facebook.com" class="fbspb" target="_blank">Facebook</a> </body> </html> I've tried updating the URL in the get use a full HTTPS path with no success. No error is raised when I try to HTTPS.

    Read the article

  • Simple Oracle File repository with folder hierarchy

    - by Ope
    I have an application that stores large amount of files (XML and binary) in folder hierarchies. Currently the main method is storing them in file system or using a legacy CMS, which we want to get rid of. The CMS supports Oracle and a customer wants to keep the files in Oracle because of enterprise policies (backup etc.) The question is: Is there a simple implementation of file repository with folder hierarchy for Oracle? What I am looking for is a small .Net component or example code (PL/SQL and/or .Net) that would have the following methods: Create, Delete, Exists Folder CRUD file Move and potentially Copy file or directory Access to files and folders with paths like "/root/folder1/folder2/file.xml" Ability to get all the files and folders in a folder and potentially also the entire directory tree Tree traversal, getting the parent, all children etc. needs to be fast. I need the implementation in .Net, but if it was just the stored procedures, I could create the .Net calling code. I have pointers to generic articles for creating hierarchies in DB, so if I need to do it from scratch, I know where to start. What I am asking here, is there already an implementation that I could take without doing this from scratch? It seems like such a generic requirement... If the answer is a CMS, Document management system or such it should be Open Source or at least quite cheap (some hundreds / server) and it should be possible to deploy it XCopy - hopefully only couple of DLL:s. I do not need - or want - a full featured big CMS with dozens of dlls and especially not an msi-installation. I have tried to google this, but the words "repository", "CMS", "file hierarchy" etc. give so many answers, the searches are pretty much useless. Thanks, OPe

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 233 234 235 236 237 238 239 240 241 242 243 244  | Next Page >