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  • Execute JavaScript from within a C# assembly

    - by ScottKoon
    I'd like to execute JavaScript code from within a C# assembly and have the results of the JavaScript code returned to the calling C# code. It's easier to define things that I'm not trying to do: I'm not trying to call a JavaScript function on a web page from my code behind. I'm not trying to load a WebBrowser control. I don't want to have the JavaScript perform an AJAX call to a server. What I want to do is write unit tests in JavaScript and have then unit tests output JSON, even plain text would be fine. Then I want to have a generic C# class/executible that can load the file containing the JS, run the JS unit tests, scrap/load the results, and return a pass/fail with details during a post-build task. I think it's possible using the old ActiveX ScriptControl, but it seems like there ought to be a .NET way to do this without using SilverLight, the DLR, or anything else that hasn't shipped yet. Anyone have any ideas? update: From Brad Abrams blog namespace Microsoft.JScript.Vsa { [Obsolete("There is no replacement for this feature. Please see the ICodeCompiler documentation for additional help. http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?linkid=14202")] Clarification: We have unit tests for our JavaScript functions that are written in JavaScript using the JSUnit framework. Right now during our build process, we have to manually load a web page and click a button to ensure that all of the JavaScript unit tests pass. I'd like to be able to execute the tests during the post-build process when our automated C# unit tests are run and report the success/failure alongside of out C# unit tests and use them as an indicator as to whether or not the build is broken.

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  • Pitfalls of the Architecture - Database based HTTP Request/Response Parsing

    - by Sam
    We have a current eCommerce Site that runs on ASP.NET and we hired a consultant to develop an new site bases on SOA. The new site architecture is as follows Web Application : Single Page Web Application (built on javascript/jquery templates - do not use any MVVM frameworks) that uses some javascript thrown all over the place. Service Layer : Very very light Service Layer that does not do anything other than calling a single stored procedure and pass in the entire http request. Database : The entire site content is in the database. The database does the heavy lifting of parsing the request and based on the HTTP method and some input parameter calls the appropriate Store Procedures or views and renders the result in JSON/XML. We have been told by them that this is built on latest and greatest technologies. I have a lot of concerns and of them given are the few Load on the Database SEO concerns for single page application as this is a public facing website Scalablity? Is this SOA? Cross Browser compatability (Site does not work in < IE9) Realistic implementaion of Single page application I know something is not right but I just need to validate my concerns here. Please help me.

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  • overridePendingTransition doesn't work

    - by Ixx
    Have found already some people asking the same, but the solutions didn't work for me. I see no animation. Calling it this way: Intent intent = new Intent(this, MyActivity.class); startActivity(intent); overridePendingTransition(R.anim.fadein, R.anim.fadeout); fadein.xml and fadeout.xml are in the anim folder: fadein.xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <set xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" > <alpha android:duration="1000" android:fromAlpha="0.0" android:interpolator="@android:anim/accelerate_interpolator" android:toAlpha="1.0" /> </set> fadeout.xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <set xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android"> <alpha android:duration="1000" android:fromAlpha="1.0" android:interpolator="@android:anim/accelerate_interpolator" android:toAlpha="0.0" /> </set> Using min. API 7: manifest: <uses-sdk android:minSdkVersion="7"/> API 7 is also in my project.properties file: target=android-7 What am I doing wrong? P.D. Removing the lines with the interpolator doesn't change anything. Already seen / tried: overridePendingTransition doesn't work overridePendingTransition does not work when flag_activity_reorder_to_front is used Fade in Activity from previous Activity in Android Fade in Activity from previous Activity in Android Activity transition in Android

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  • how to install a file handle in perl class

    - by Haiyuan Zhang
    please looku up the following code first. #! /usr/bin/perl package foo; sub new { my $pkg = shift; my $self = {}; my $self->{_fd} = undef; bless $self, $pkg; return $self; } sub Setfd { my $self = shift; my $fd = shift; $self_->{_fd} = $fd; } sub write { my $self = shift; print $self->{_fd} "hello word"; } my $foo = new foo; My intention is to store a file handle within a class using hash. the file handle is undefined at first, but can be initilized afterwards by calling Setfd function. then write can be called to actually write string "hello word" to a file indicated by the file handle, supposed that the file handle is the result of a success "write" open. but, perl compiler just complains that there are syntax error in the "print" line. can anyone of you tells me what's wrong here? thanks in advance.

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  • Trouble using 'eval' to define a toplevel function when called from within an object.

    - by mschaef
    I've written (in JavaScript) an interactive read-eval-print-loop that is encapsulated within an object. However, I recently noticed that toplevel function definitions specified to the interpreter do not appear to be 'remembered' by the interpreter. After some diagnostic work, I've reduced the core problem to this: var evaler = { eval: function (str) { return eval(str); }, }; eval("function t1() { return 1; }"); // GOOD evaler.eval("function t2() { return 2; }"); // FAIL After running this script, I have a definition for t1, and no defintion for t2. The act of calling eval from within evaler is sufficiently different from the toplevel call that the global definition does not get recorded. What does happen is that the call to evaler.eval returns a function object, so I'm presuming that t2 is being defined and stored in some other set of bindings that I don't have access to. (It's not defined as a member in evaler.) Is there any easy fix for this? I've tried all sorts of fixes, and haven't stumbled upon one that works. (Most of what I've done has centered around putting the call to eval in an anonymous function, and altering the way that's called, chainging __parent__, etc.) Any thoughts on how to fix this?

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  • Java Inheritance doubt in parameterised collection

    - by Gala101
    It's obvious that a parent class's object can hold a reference to a child, but does this not hold true in case of parameterised collection ?? eg: Car class is parent of Sedan So public void doSomething(Car c){ ... } public void caller(){ Sedan s = new Sedan(); doSomething(s); } is obviously valid But public void doSomething(Collection<Car> c){ ... } public void caller(){ Collection<Sedan> s = new ArrayList<Sedan>(); doSomething(s); } Fails to compile Can someone please point out why? and also, how to implement such a scenario where a function needs to iterate through a Collection of parent objects, modifying only the fields present in parent class, using parent class methods, but the calling methods (say 3 different methods) pass the collection of three different subtypes.. Ofcourse it compiles fine if I do as below: public void doSomething(Collection<Car> c){ ... } public void caller(){ Collection s = new ArrayList<Sedan>(); doSomething(s); }

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  • How can I execute a Java program within a php script?

    - by user450775
    I am writing a simple web upload script. The goal is to upload a file using php, and then calling a java program to process this file. I have done the work for uploading the file, but I cannot get a java program to be successfully run from within the php script. I have tried exec(), shell_exec(), and system() with no results. For the command, I have used "java Test", "java < directory /Test", "/usr/bin/java < directory /Test", I have even set up the application as a jar file with no results. The actual line of code I have used is: echo shell_exec("java Test"); Usually there is no output. However, if I have just shell_exec("java"), then the last line of the help from java ("show splash screen with specified image") is displayed, which shows that the command has been executed. If I use, for example, shell_exec("whoami") I get "nobody" returned, which is correct. The only thing the java file does is create a file so that I can see that the application has been successfully run (the application runs successfully if I run it on the command line). I have set the permissions for the java file to 777 to rule out any possibility of permission errors. I have been struggling with this for a while trying all sorts of options with no results - the file is never created (the file is created with an absolute path so it's not being created and I just can't find the file). Does anyone have any ideas? Thanks.

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  • Javascript function working strangely during the first call in CHROME ?

    - by Sohil
    HI all, Below mentioned javascript code works fine in all browsers including chrome(from second call onwards). function call(val){ url = window.location.href; indexnum = url.lastIndexOf("/"); str = url.slice(indexnum+1); window.location.href = url.replace(str, "sample.php?src_q=") + val; } I am calling this function on onclick of a link as below <?php echo "<a href='#' onclick='javascript:call(\"$fieldvalue\");'>$fieldvalue</a>" ?> Normal Behaviour : In all browser after clicking on the link new formed url is url://localhost/mysite/sample.php?src_q=val Strange Behaviour : When I click on the link for the first time in chrome value of variable val gets replaced by url and its value as follows http://localhost/mysite/sample.php?src_q=http://localhost/mysite/val This strange behaviour happens during the first click in chrome. From the second call onwards in the same tab, the value of variable val works fine and I get desired url. I tried to google on it, but couldn't found any explanation. Thanks in advance.

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  • Get class constant names in php?

    - by user151841
    I have a php class with some class constants that indicate the status of an instance. When I'm using the class, after I run some methods on it, I do some checks to make sure that the status is what I expect it to be. For instance, after calling some methods, I expect the status to be MEANINGFUL_STATUS_NAME. $objInstance->method1(); $objInstance->method2(); if ( $objInstance->status !== class::MEANINGFUL_STATUS_NAME ) { throw new Exception("Status is wrong, should not be " . class::MEANINGFUL_STATUS_NAME . "."); } However, this gives me the exception message "Status is wrong, should not be 2" when what I really want to see is "Status is wrong, should not be MEANINGFUL_STATUS_NAME" So I've lost the meaningfulness of the constant name. I was thinking of making an 'translation table' array, so I can take the constant values and translate them back into their name, but this seems cumbersome. How should I translate this back, so I get an error message that gives me a better idea of what went wrong?

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  • Tree iterator, can you optimize this any further?

    - by Ron
    As a follow up to my original question about a small piece of this code I decided to ask a follow up to see if you can do better then what we came up with so far. The code below iterates over a binary tree (left/right = child/next ). I do believe there is room for one less conditional in here (the down boolean). The fastest answer wins! The cnt statement can be multiple statements so lets make sure this appears only once The child() and next() member functions are about 30x as slow as the hasChild() and hasNext() operations. Keep it iterative <-- dropped this requirement as the recursive solution presented was faster. This is C++ code visit order of the nodes must stay as they are in the example below. ( hit parents first then the children then the 'next' nodes). BaseNodePtr is a boost::shared_ptr as thus assignments are slow, avoid any temporary BaseNodePtr variables. Currently this code takes 5897ms to visit 62200000 nodes in a test tree, calling this function 200,000 times. void processTree (BaseNodePtr current, unsigned int & cnt ) { bool down = true; while ( true ) { if ( down ) { while (true) { cnt++; // this can/will be multiple statesments if (!current->hasChild()) break; current = current->child(); } } if ( current->hasNext() ) { down = true; current = current->next(); } else { down = false; current = current->parent(); if (!current) return; // done. } } }

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  • howto catch jQuery for multiple links but not all

    - by user247245
    I'm trying to dig into jQuery but would like some feedback on how to do things the best way, I have a list with items, which each contains a hidden div that should show upon click on it's parent, list div:ed item1 with link hidden div div:ed item2 with link hidden div .. My current solution is to trace the calling link by it's id and then reusing that ID for showing the correct hidden one: $(document).ready(function() { //jQ should only trigger on links with id="cmLinkINT" $("a").click(function() { //see if it's a comment request. var s = $(this).attr("id"); if (s.indexOf('cmLink') != -1) { //ok, it was a 'show'-link, get the id.. var j = s.substring(6); //ok, now I have the id i want to show (detailsINT) return false; } }); }); What's not clear to me is the best approach, Should I use id for requesting a or trace the id of the parent div. How to avoid that the code triggers on any link? Class? Thankful for any feedback, regards //t

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  • Is it OK to set state within Event Raising methods?

    - by Greg
    I ran across this pattern in the code of a library I'm using. It sets state within the event raising method, but only if the event is not null. protected virtual void OnMyEvent(EventArgs e) { if(MyEvent != null) { State = "Executing"; // Only sets state if MyEvent != null. MyEvent(this,e); } } Which means that the state is not set when overriding the method: protected override void OnMyEvent(EventArgs e) { base.OnMyEvent(e); Debug.Assert( State == "Executing" ); // This fails } but is only set when handling the event: foo.MyEvent += (o, args) => Debug.Assert(State == "Executing"); // This passes Setting state within the if(MyEvent != null) seems like bad form, but I've checked the Event Design Guidelines and it doesn't mention this. Do you think this code is incorrect? If so, why? (Reference to design guidelines would be helpful). Edit for Context: It's a Control, I'm trying to create subclass of it, and the state that it's setting is calling EnsureChildControls() conditionally based upon there being an event handler. I can call EnsureChildControls() myself, but I consider that something of a hack.

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  • GNU Makefile: multiple outputs from single rule + preventing intermediate files from being deleted

    - by makesaurus
    This is sort of a continuation of question from link text. The problem is that there is a rule generating multiple outputs from a single input, and the command is time-consuming so we would prefer to avoid recomputation. Now there is an additional twist, that we want to keep files from being deleted as intermediate files, and rules involve wildcards to allow for parameters. The solution suggested was that we set up the following rule: file-a.out: program file.in ./program file.in file-a.out file-b.out file-c.out file-b.out: file-a.out @ file-c.out: file-b.out @ Then, calling make file-c.out creates both and we avoid issues with running make in parallel with -j switch. All fine so far. The problem is the following. Because the above solution sets up a chain in the DAG, make considers it differently; the files file-a.out and file-b.out are treated as intermediate files, and they by default get deleted as unnecessary as soon as file-c.out is ready. A way of avoiding that was mentioned somewhere here, and consists of adding file-a.out and file-b.out as dependencies of a target .SECONDARY, which keeps them from being deleted. Unfortunately, this does not solve my case because my rules use wildcard patters; specifically, my rules look more like this: file-a-%.out: program file.in ./program $* file.in file-a-$*.out file-b-$*.out file-c-$*.out file-b-%.out: file-a-%.out @ file-c-%.out: file-b-%.out @ so that one can pass a parameter that gets included in the file name, for example by running make file-c-12.out The solution that make documentation suggests is to add these as implicit rules to the list of dependencies of .PRECIOUS, thus keeping these files from being deleted. The solution with .PRECIOUS works, but it also prevents these files from being deleted when a rule fails and files are incomplete. Is there any other way to make this work?

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  • Need help getting parent reference to child view controller

    - by Andy
    I've got the following code in one of my view controllers: - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { switch (indexPath.section) { case 0: // "days" section tapped { DayPicker *dayPicker = [[DayPicker alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewStylePlain]; dayPicker.rowLabel = self.activeDaysLabel; dayPicker.selectedDays = self.newRule.activeDays; [self.navigationController pushViewController:dayPicker animated:YES]; [dayPicker release]; break; ... Then, in the DayPicker controller, I do some stuff to the dayPicker.rowLabel property. Now, when the dayPicker is dismissed, I want the value in dayPicker.rowLabel to be used as the cell.textLabel.text property in the cell that called the controller in the first place (i.e., the cell label becomes the option that was selected within the DayPicker controller). I thought that by using the assignment operator to set dayPicker.rowLabel = self.activeDaysLabel, the two pointed to the same object in memory, and that upon dismissing the DayPicker, my first view controller, which uses self.activeDaysLabel as the cell.textLabel.text property for the cell in question, would automagically pick up the new value of the object. But no such luck. Have I missed something basic here, or am I going about this the wrong way? I originally passed a reference to the calling view controller to the child view controller, but several here told me that was likely to cause problems, being a circular reference. That setup worked, though; now I'm not sure how to accomplish the same thing "the right way." As usual, thanks in advance for your help.

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  • List with non-null elements ends up containing null. A synchronization issue?

    - by Alix
    Hi. First of all, sorry about the title -- I couldn't figure out one that was short and clear enough. Here's the issue: I have a list List<MyClass> list to which I always add newly-created instances of MyClass, like this: list.Add(new MyClass()). I don't add elements any other way. However, then I iterate over the list with foreach and find that there are some null entries. That is, the following code: foreach (MyClass entry in list) if (entry == null) throw new Exception("null entry!"); will sometimes throw an exception. I should point out that the list.Add(new MyClass()) are performed from different threads running concurrently. The only thing I can think of to account for the null entries is the concurrent accesses. List<> isn't thread-safe, after all. Though I still find it strange that it ends up containing null entries, instead of just not offering any guarantees on ordering. Can you think of any other reason? Also, I don't care in which order the items are added, and I don't want the calling threads to block waiting to add their items. If synchronization is truly the issue, can you recommend a simple way to call the Add method asynchronously, i.e., create a delegate that takes care of that while my thread keeps running its code? I know I can create a delegate for Add and call BeginInvoke on it. Does that seem appropriate? Thanks.

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  • Python 2.6 does not like appending to existing archives in zip files

    - by user313661
    Hello, In some Python unit tests of a program I'm working on we use in-memory zipfiles for end to end tests. In SetUp() we create a simple zip file, but in some tests we want to overwrite some archives. For this we do "zip.writestr(archive_name, zip.read(archive_name) + new_content)". Something like import zipfile from StringIO import StringIO def Foo(): zfile = StringIO() zip = zipfile.ZipFile(zfile, 'a') zip.writestr( "foo", "foo content") zip.writestr( "bar", "bar content") zip.writestr( "foo", zip.read("foo") + "some more foo content") print zip.read("bar") Foo() The problem is that this works fine in Python 2.4 and 2.5, but not 2.6. In Python 2.6 this fails on the print line with "BadZipfile: File name in directory "bar" and header "foo" differ." It seems that it is reading the correct file bar, but that it thinks it should be reading foo instead. I'm at a loss. What am I doing wrong? Is this not supported? I tried searching the web but could find no mention of similar problems. I read the zipfile documentation, but could not find anything (that I thought was) relevant, especially since I'm calling read() with the filename string. Any ideas? Thank you in advance!

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  • Django: How to override a related sets "add" method?

    - by MB_
    I am working on a django project and i want to send a signal when something get's added to some models related set, e.g. we have an owner wo has a set of collectables and each time the method owner.collectable_set.add(something) is getting called i want signal like "collectable_added" or something. signals are clear to me, but in which manager(?) the "add" method sits that i want to override is unclear to me. edit: Upon the request of Xaver to provide more details. You can easily override a models "save" method, by simply defining it and calling the super-"save" so it get's properly saved with some extra functionality for example. But i wonder where to override a related sets "add" method. gosh, i think i haven't brought in any further details. but i think it even should be clear what i want to do from the first paragraph. edit2: This is the method i want to override. Is it recommended to do so or do you suggest another way to place the sending of the signal?

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  • Implementing deadlock condition

    - by Bhaskar
    I am trying to implementing deadlock condition but somehow I am not able to get it working. Both the threads Thread1 and Thread2 are entering in the run function but only one of them enters in Sub/Sum depending on who entered run first. Example : if Thread2 entered run first the it will call sub() and Thread1 never calls sum(). I have also added sleep time so that Thread2 sleeps before calling sum() and Thread1 gets enough time to enter Sum() but Thread1 never enters. public class ExploringThreads { public static void main(String[] args) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub threadexample a1 = new threadexample(); Thread t1 = new Thread(a1, "Thread1"); Thread t2 = new Thread(a1,"Thread2"); t1.start(); t2.start(); } } class threadexample implements Runnable{ public int a = 10; public void run(){ if(Thread.currentThread().getName().equals("Thread1")) sum(); else if(Thread.currentThread().getName().equals("Thread2")) sub(); } public synchronized void sum() { try { Thread.sleep(2000); } catch (InterruptedException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } System.out.println(Thread.currentThread().getName()+"In Sum"); sub(); } public synchronized void sub() { try { Thread.sleep(2000); } catch (InterruptedException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } System.out.println(Thread.currentThread().getName()+"In Sub"); sum(); } }

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  • C#: Determine Type for (De-)Serialization

    - by dbemerlin
    Hi, i have a little problem implementing some serialization/deserialization logic. I have several classes that each take a different type of Request object, all implementing a common interface and inheriting from a default implementation: This is how i think it should be: Requests interface IRequest { public String Action {get;set;} } class DefaultRequest : IRequest { public String Action {get;set;} } class LoginRequest : DefaultRequest { public String User {get;set;} public String Pass {get;set;} } Handlers interface IHandler<T> { public Type GetRequestType(); public IResponse HandleRequest(IModel model, T request); } class DefaultHandler<T> : IHandler<T> // Used as fallback if the handler cannot be determined { public Type GetRequestType() { return /* ....... how to get the Type of T? ((new T()).GetType()) ? .......... */ } public IResponse HandleRequest(IModel model, T request) { /* ... */ } } class LoginHandler : DefaultHandler<LoginRequest> { public IResponse HandleRequest(IModel mode, LoginRequest request) { } } Calling class Controller { public ProcessRequest(String action, String serializedRequest) { IHandler handler = GetHandlerForAction(action); IRequest request = serializer.Deserialize<handler.GetRequestType()>(serializedRequest); handler(this.Model, request); } } Is what i think of even possible? My current Solution is that each handler gets the serialized String and is itself responsible for deserialization. This is not a good solution as it contains duplicate code, the beginning of each HandleRequest method looks the same (FooRequest request = Deserialize(serializedRequest); + try/catch and other Error Handling on failed deserialization). Embedding type information into the serialized Data is not possible and not intended. Thanks for any Hints.

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  • In Safari, using jQuery a Form Input Text Field does not receive focus after alert is displayed. Why

    - by Rob
    I have an ASPX web form. I use jQuery to simply my Javascript. I use a Javascript validation script to validate each of the form fields' values. If an error occurs, I popup an alert with an error message. Then I transfer focus to the underlying element. Here are examples I have tried. Using jQuery: var Form_FieldDef = function(name) { this.name = name; this.SetFocus = function() { $('#' + this.name)[0].focus(); } this.Validate = function() { var isvalid = true; if ( $.trim($('#' + this.name).val()) == '') { alert("Your entry is empty"); this.SetFocus(); isvalid = false; } return isvalid; } } This works on IE7, IE8, Opera, Chrome, and Firefox. It does not work on Safari 4 on PC. I don't have a Mac. So I changed the SetFocus method to this. this.SetFocus = function() { var fld = document.getElementById(this.name); if (fld != null) fld.focus(); } This works on IE7, IE8, Opera, Chrome, and Firefox. It does not work on Safari 4 on PC. I stepped through the code with VS 2008 debugger, and I'm calling the focus method on the underlying element.

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  • What is the optimal way to animate a drawable within a view using the animator classes?

    - by littleFluffyKitty
    I have read about Property Animation and Hardware Acceleration but I am still uncertain what is the most efficient way to use the animator classes. (For the sake of this question I don't need to support devices before Honeycomb. So I want to use the animator classes.) For example, say I have a View. In this view I have a BitmapDrawable that I want to fade in. There are also many other elements within the view that won't change. What property or object would be best to use with the animator? The drawable? A paint that I am drawing the bitmap with in onDraw? Something else? How can this be done to be most efficient with hardware acceleration? Will this require calling invalidate for each step of the animation or is there a way to animate just the drawable and not cause the rest of the view to be redrawn completely for each step of the animation? I guess I imagine an optimal case would be the rest of the view not having to be completely redrawn in software, but rather hardware acceleration efficiently fading the drawable. Any suggestions or pointers to recommended approaches? Thanks!

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  • MVC Validator.TryValidateObject does not validate custom atrribute, validateAllProperties = true

    - by nealsu
    When calling Validator.TryValidateObject with validateAllProperties = true my custom validation attribute does not get triggered. The ValidationResult does not contain an entry for my erroneous property value. Below is the model, attribute and code used to test this. //Model public class Model { [AmountGreaterThanZero] public int? Amount { get; set; } } //Attribute public sealed class AmountGreaterThanZero: ValidationAttribute { private const string errorMessage = "Amount should be greater than zero."; public AmountGreaterThanZero() : base(errorMessage) { } public override string FormatErrorMessage(string name) { return errorMessage; } protected override ValidationResult IsValid(object value, ValidationContext validationContext) { if (value != null) { if ((int)value <= 0) { var message = FormatErrorMessage(validationContext.DisplayName); return new ValidationResult(message); } } return null; } } //Validation Code var container = new Container(); container.ModelList = new List<Model>() { new Model() { Amount = -5 } }; var validationContext = new ValidationContext(container, null, null); var validationResults = new List<ValidationResult>(); var modelIsValid = Validator.TryValidateObject(container, validationContext, validationResults, true); Note: That the validation works fine and ValidationResult returns with correct error message if I use the TryValidateProperty method.

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  • game currency convert: math efficient

    - by Comradsky
    For variables:4 text views named diamondText, goldText, silverText, and bronzeText;money variable unsigned int money;and an NSTimer, every .1 sec,runs function: -(void)updateMoney{ money++; bronzeText.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d",money]; silverText.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d",money%10]; goldText.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d",money%100]; diamondText.text= [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d",money%1000]; } Given that my currency is diamond = 10 gold = 10 silver = 10 bronze = 1; What would be most efficient way to calculate and display the money labels? How would you store this variable, with GameCenter and NSDictionary or GameCenter and something else? More details are below if you don't understand. To clarify: bronze has the last 2 numbers, silver has the next 2 numbers, and so on. I understand I could use 4 ints or an array, but i would rather try to use this method, unless theres a much more efficient way. Example: When money = 1000;bronzeText = nothing, silverText = 10,goldText = nothing, diamondText = nothing; What other ways would you do this that you think would be more efficient? I will be calling a function (void)collisionDetector that detects if my player.frame crosses with a flyingObject.frame, and if that object is a coin it gives an added value to money and then calls (void)updateMoney. Im just using the timer to test this and spawn these flying objects.

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  • What is better for a student programming in C++ to learn for writing GUI: C# vs QT?

    - by flashnik
    I'm a teacher(instructor) of CS in the university. The course is based on Cormen and Knuth and students program algorithms in C++. But sometimes it is good to show how an algorithm works or just a result of task through GUI. Also in my opinion it's very imporant to be able to write full programs. They will have courses concerning GUI but a three years, later, in fact, before graduatuion. I think that they should be able to write simple GUI applications earlier. So I want to teach them it. How do you think, what is more useful for them to learn: programming GUI with QT or writing GUI in C# and calling unmanaged C++ library? Update. For developing C++ applications students use MS Visual studio, so C# is already installed. But QT AFAIK also can be integrated into VS. I have following pros of C# (some were suggested there in answers): The need to make an additional layer. It's more work, but it forces you explicitly specify contract between GUI and processing data. The border between GUI and algorithms becomes very clear. It's more popular among employers. At least, in Russia where we live. It's rather common to write performance-critical algorithms in C++ and PInvoke them from well-looking C# application/ASP.Net website. Maybe it is not so widespread in the rest of the world but in Russia Windows is very popular, especially in companies and corporations due to some reasons, so most of b2b applications are Windows applications. Rapid development. It's much quicker to code in .Net then in C++ due to many reasons. And the con is that it's a new language with own specific for students. And the mess with invoking calls to library.

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  • Can I pass a non-generic type where a generic type is expected?

    - by Water Cooler v2
    I want to define a set of classes that collect and persist data. I want to call them either on-demand basis, or in a chain-of-responsibility fashion, as the caller pleases. To support the chaining, I have declared my interface like so: interface IDataManager<T, K> { T GetData(K args); void WriteData(Stream stream); void WriteData(T data, Stream stream); IDataCollectionPolicy Policy; IDataManager<T, K> NextDataManager; } But the T's and K's for each concrete types will be different. If I give it like this: IDataManager<T, K> NextDataManager; I assume that the calling code will only be able to chain types that have the same T's and K's. Is there a way I can have it chain any type of IDataManager? One thing that occurs to me is to have IDataManager inherit from a non-generic IDataManager like so: interface IDataManager { } interface IDataManager<T, K>: IDataManager { T GetData(K args); void WriteData(Stream stream); void WriteData(T data, Stream stream); IDataCollectionPolicy Policy; IDataManager NextDataManager; } Is this going to work?

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