Search Results

Search found 7799 results on 312 pages for 'changing'.

Page 237/312 | < Previous Page | 233 234 235 236 237 238 239 240 241 242 243 244  | Next Page >

  • UITableViewController not redrawing new cell text label after popViewControllerAnimated

    - by crunchyt
    I have a problemetic UITableViewController fails to redraw an updated cell after a child view is removed. Here's what's happening. After changing data in a child view, the parent view controller reloads the source data array and runs [tableView reloadData] via a PostNotification. After this triggers, I use popViewControllerAnimated to return to the parent UITableViewController (this pops the child view off the stack, and reveals the controller one level up). However, my updated data does not appear in the parent view controller! According to the debugger, the cell's label has been updated, but the visible label does not change. However, if I scroll-flick the table, momentarily moving the updated cell out of view, when it reappears the label is updated! I also try calling [tableView reloadData] via viewWillAppear but the issue still persists. Here is some additional info that may be helpful. I have a 3 views structured like this: 1/ SettingsViewController : UITableViewController 2/ -- UserView : UITableViewController 3/ ---- UserDetailsView : UIViewController <UIActionSheetDelegate> I am calling UserDetailsView from inside UserView as follows: UserDetailsView *userDetailsView = [[UserDetailsView alloc] init]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:userDetailsView animated:YES]; If I return to the top-most controller (SettingsViewController) and then load the problematic controller (UserView), everything is drawn correctly. It is only when returning from a child view that this issue occurs. Thank you in advance for your suggestions.

    Read the article

  • Searching for flexible way to specify conenction string used by APS.NET membership

    - by bzamfir
    Hi, I develop an asp.net web application and I use ASP.NET membership provider. The application uses the membership schema and all required objects inside main application database However, during development I have to switch to various databases, for different development and testing scenarios. For this I have an external connection strings section file and also an external appsettings section, which allow me to not change main web.config but switch the db easily, by changing setting only in appsettings section. My files are as below: <connectionStrings configSource="connections.config"> </connectionStrings> <appSettings file="local.config"> .... ConnectionStrings looks as usual: <connectionStrings> <add name="MyDB1" connectionString="..." ... /> <add name="MyDB2" connectionString="..." ... /> .... </connectionStrings> And local.config as below <appSettings> <add key="ConnectionString" value="MyDB2" /> My code takes into account to use this connection string But membership settings in web.config contains the connection string name directly into the setting, like <add name="MembershipProvider" connectionStringName="MyDB2" ...> .... <add name="RoleProvider" connectionStringName="MyDB2" ...> Because of this, every time I have to edit them too to use the new db. Is there any way to config membership provider to use an appsetting to select db connection for membership db? Or to "redirect" it to read connection setting from somewhere else? Or at least to have this in some external file (like local.config) Maybe is some easy way to wrap asp.net membership provider intio my own provider which will just read connection string from where I want and pass it to original membership provider, and then just delegate the whole membership functionality to asp.net membership provider. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Rails: Should partials be aware of instance variables?

    - by Alexandre
    Ryan Bates' nifty_scaffolding, for example, does this edit.html.erb <%= render :partial => 'form' %> new.html.erb <%= render :partial => 'form' %> _form.html.erb <%= form_for @some_object_defined_in_action %> That hidden state makes me feel uncomfortable, so I usually like to do this edit.html.erb <%= render :partial => 'form', :locals => { :object => @my_object } %> _form.html.erb <%= form_for object %> So which is better: a) having partials access instance variables or b) passing a partial all the variables it needs? I've been opting for b) as of late, but I did run into a little pickle: some_action.html.erb <% @dad.sons.each do |a_son| %> <%= render :partial => 'partial', :locals => { :son => a_son } %> <% end %> _partial.html.erb The son's name is <%= son.name %> The dad's name is <%= son.dad.name %> son.dad makes a database call to fetch the dad! So I would either have to access @dad, which would be going back to a) having partials access instance variables or I would have to pass @dad in locals, changing render :partial to <%= render :partial = 'partial', :locals = { :dad = @dad, :son = a_son } %, and for some reason passing a bunch of vars to my partial makes me feel uncomfortable. Maybe others feel this way as well. Hopefully that made some sense. Looking for some insight into this whole thing... Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Problem with JSONResult

    - by vikitor
    Hi, I' still newby to this so I'll try to explain what I'm doing. Basically what I want is to load a dropdownlist depending on the value of a previous one, and I want it to load the data and appear when the other one is changed. This is the code I've written in my controller: public ActionResult GetClassesSearch(bool ajax, string phylumID, string kingdom){ IList<TaxClass> lists = null; int _phylumID = int.Parse(phylumID); int _kingdom = int.Parse(kingdom); lists = _taxon.getClassByPhylumSearch(_phylumID, _kingdom); return Json(lists.count); } and this is how I call the method from the javascript function: function loadClasses(_phylum) { var phylum = _phylum.value; $.getJSON("/Suspension/GetClassesSearch/", { ajax: true, phylumID: phylum, kingdom: kingdom }, function(data) { alert(data); alert('no fallo') document.getElementById("pClass").style.display = "block"; document.getElementById("sClass").options[0] = new Option("-select-", "0", true, true); //for (i = 0; i < data.length; i++) { // $('#sClass').addOption(data[i].classID, data[i].className); //} }); } The thing is that just like this it works, I pass the function the number of classes within a selected phylum, and it displays the pclass element, the problem gets when I try to populate the slist with data (which should contain the objects retrieved from the database), because when there is data returned by the database changing return Json(lists) instead of return Json(lists.count) I keep getting the same error: A circular reference was detected while serializing an object of type 'SubSonic.Schema.DatabaseColumn'. I've been going round and round debugging and making tests but I can't make it work, and it is suppossed to be a simple thing, but I'm missing something. I have commented the for loop because I'm not quite sure if that's the way you access the data, because I've not been able to make it work when it finds records. Can anyone help me? Thanks in advance, Victor

    Read the article

  • Fastest image iteration in Python

    - by Greg
    I am creating a simple green screen app with Python 2.7.4 but am getting quite slow results. I am currently using PIL 1.1.7 to load and iterate the images and saw huge speed-ups changing from the old getpixel() to the newer load() and pixel access object indexing. However the following loop still takes around 2.5 seconds to run for an image of around 720p resolution: def colorclose(Cb_p, Cr_p, Cb_key, Cr_key, tola, tolb): temp = math.sqrt((Cb_key-Cb_p)**2+(Cr_key-Cr_p)**2) if temp < tola: return 0.0 else: if temp < tolb: return (temp-tola)/(tolb-tola) else: return 1.0 .... for x in range(width): for y in range(height): Y, cb, cr = fg_cbcr_list[x, y] mask = colorclose(cb, cr, cb_key, cr_key, tola, tolb) mask = 1 - mask bgr, bgg, bgb = bg_list[x,y] fgr, fgg, fgb = fg_list[x,y] pixels[x,y] = ( (int)(fgr - mask*key_color[0] + mask*bgr), (int)(fgg - mask*key_color[1] + mask*bgg), (int)(fgb - mask*key_color[2] + mask*bgb)) Am I doing anything hugely inefficient here which makes it run so slow? I have seen similar, simpler examples where the loop is replaced by a boolean matrix for instance, but for this case I can't see a way to replace the loop. The pixels[x,y] assignment seems to take the most amount of time but not knowing Python very well I am unsure of a more efficient way to do this. Any help would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Loading through Ajax request and bookmarked URL

    - by Varun
    I am working on a ticket system, having the following requirement: The home page is divided into two sections: Sec-1. Some filter options are shown here.(like closed-tickets, open-tickets, all-tickets, tickets-assigned-to-me etc.). You can select one or more of these filters. sec-2. List of tickets satisfying above filters will be displayed here. Now this is what I want: As I change the filters -- the change should be reflected in the URL, so that one is able to bookmark it. -- an ajax request will go and list of tickets satisfying the selected filters will be updated in sec-2. I want the same code to be used to load the tickets in both ways- (a) by selecting that set of filters and (b) by using the bookmark to reload the page. I have little idea on how to do it: The URL will contain the selected filters.(appended after #) changing filters on the page will modify the hash part of URL and call a function (say ajaxHandler()) to parse the URL to get the filters and then make an ajax request to get the list of tickets to be displayed in section2. and I will call the same function ajaxHandler() in window.onload. Is this the way? Any suggestions?

    Read the article

  • catching a deadlock in a simple odd-even sending

    - by user562264
    I'm trying to solve a simple problem with MPI, my implementation is MPICH2 and my code is in fortran. I have used the blocking send and receive, the idea is so simple but when I run it it crashes!!! I have absolutely no idea what is wrong? can anyone make quote on this issue please? there is a piece of the code: integer,parameter::IM=100,JM=100 REAL,ALLOCATABLE ::T(:,:),TF(:,:) CALL MPI_COMM_RANK(MPI_COMM_WORLD,RNK,IERR) CALL MPI_COMM_SIZE(MPI_COMM_WORLD,SIZ,IERR) prv = rnk-1 nxt = rnk+1 LIM = INT(IM/SIZ) IF (rnk==0) THEN ALLOCATE(TF(IM,JM)) prv = MPI_PROC_NULL ELSEIF(rnk==siz-1) THEN NXT = MPI_PROC_NULL LIM = LIM+MOD(IM,SIZ) END IF IF (MOD(RNK,2)==0) THEN CALL MPI_SEND(T(2,:),JM+2,MPI_REAL,PRV,10,MPI_COMM_WORLD,IERR) CALL MPI_RECV(T(1,:),JM+2,MPI_REAL,PRV,20,MPI_COMM_WORLD,STAT,IERR) ELSE CALL MPI_RECV(T(LIM+2,:),JM+2,MPI_REAL,NXT,10,MPI_COMM_WORLD,STAT,IERR) CALL MPI_SEND(T(LIM+1,:),JM+2,MPI_REAL,NXT,20,MPI_COMM_WORLD,IERR) END IF as I understood even processes are not receiving anything while the odd ones finish sending successfully, in some cases when I added some print to observe what is going on I saw that the variable NXT is changing during the sending procedure!!! for example all the odd process was sending message to process 0 not their next one!

    Read the article

  • OpenGL-ES: Change (multiply) color when using color arrays?

    - by arberg
    Following the ideas in OpenGL ES iPhone - drawing anti aliased lines, I am trying to draw stroked anti-aliased lines and I am successful so far. After line is draw by the finger, I wish to fade the path, that is I need to change the opacity (color) of the entire path. I have computed a large array of vertex positions, vertex colors, texture coordinates, and indices and then I give these to opengl but I would like reduce the opacity of all the drawn triangles without having to change each of the color coordinates. Normally I would use glColor4f(r,g,b,a) before calling drawElements, but it has no effect due to the color array. I am working on Android, but I believe it shouldn't make the big difference, as long as it is OpenGL-ES 1.1 (or 1.0). I have the following code : gl.glEnable(GL10.GL_BLEND); gl.glBlendFunc(GL10.GL_ONE, GL10.GL_ONE_MINUS_SRC_ALPHA); gl.glEnableClientState(GL10.GL_COLOR_ARRAY); gl.glShadeModel(GL10.GL_SMOOTH); gl.glEnableClientState(GL10.GL_VERTEX_ARRAY); gl.glEnableClientState(GL10.GL_TEXTURE_COORD_ARRAY); gl.glEnable(GL10.GL_TEXTURE_2D); // Should set rgb to greyish, and alpha to half-transparent, the greyish is // just there to make the question more general its the alpha i'm interested in gl.glColor4f(.75f, .75f, .75f, 0.5f); gl.glVertexPointer(mVertexSize, GL10.GL_FLOAT, 0, mVertexBuffer); gl.glColorPointer(4, GL10.GL_FLOAT, 0, mColorBuffer); gl.glTexCoordPointer(2, GL10.GL_FLOAT, 0, mTexCoordBuffer); gl.glDrawElements(GL10.GL_TRIANGLES, indexCount, GL10.GL_UNSIGNED_SHORT, mIndexBuffer.position(startIndex)); If I disable the color array gl.glEnableClientState(GL10.GL_COLOR_ARRAY);, then the glColor4f works, if I enable the color array it does nothing. Is there any way in OpenGl-ES to change the coloring without changing all the color coordinates? I think that in OpenGl one might use a fragment shader, but it seems OpenGL does not have a fragment shader (not that I know how to use one).

    Read the article

  • no statement parsed and wrong number or types of arguments - cfstoredproc

    - by Travis
    I have an Oracle procedure - editBacklog which I'm calling from a CFM page via cfstoredproc. After several changes to the procedure I started getting ORA-06550: line 1, column 7: PLS-00306: wrong number or types of arguments in call to 'EDITBACKLOG'. I've gotten this before and found that if I changed the name of the procedure it starts working again. I changed the name to editBacklog2 and it worked as I expected it to. I changed the name back to editBacklog and got the same error. I changed the name back to editBacklog2 again and started getting ORA-01003: no statement parsed. NOTHING has changed at this point except for the names. I changed the name yet again to editBacklog3 and it works as expected. As of right now editBacklog = ORA-06550 editBacklog2 = ORA-01003 editBacklog3 = works (kinda) This whole thing started when I was trying to fix an ORA-01821: date format not recognized error. I fear when I start changing things I'll start getting the same lame behavior described above. Either Oracle or CF is messing with me and I'll end up liking one of them less because of it. I assume it's probably cfstoredproc caching metadata or something but neither google, livedocs, or OTN have much to say about my situation. I'm not the SA or DBA. Anyone have any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Refresh User Control without Refreshing the Page

    - by Shrewdy
    hi, I have a page and on that page i have a button and a user control. I want to refresh the user control without refreshing the page. I know i cannot do it otherwise so i did is... (wrapped my user control inside the Update Panel.) <asp:TextBox ID="txtName" runat="server"></asp:TextBox><br /> <asp:Button ID="btnAdd" runat="server" Text="Add name to list" OnClick="btnAdd_Click" /><br /><br /> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="upShowNames" runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <uc1:ShowNames ID="ucShowNames" runat="server" /> </ContentTemplate> <Triggers> <asp:AsyncPostBackTrigger ControlID="btnAdd" /> </Triggers> </asp:UpdatePanel> but i still the control wont refresh. i also tried calling the update panels .Update() method by changing its UpdateMode to Conditional but that does not work either... does any one know how can we do it then... any help will be greatly appreciated....thank you!!

    Read the article

  • Regression Testing and Deployment Strategy

    - by user279516
    I'd like some advice on a deployment strategy. If a development team creates an extensive framework, and many (20-30) applications consume it, and the business would like application updates at least every 30 days, what is the best deployment strategy? The reason I ask is that there seems to be a lot of waste (and risk) in using an agile approach of deploying changes monthly, if 90% of the applications don't change. What I mean by this is that the framework can change during the month, and so can a few applications. Because the framework changed, all applications should be regression-tested. If, say, 10 of the applications don't change at all during the year, then those 10 applications are regression-tested EVERY MONTH, when they didn't have any feature changes or hot fixes. They had to be tested simply because the business is rolling updates every month. And the risk that is involved... if a mission-critical application is deployed, that takes a few weeks, and multiple departments, to test, is it realistic to expect to have to constantly regression-test this application? One option is to make any framework updates backward-compatible. While this would mean that applications don't need to change their code, they would still need to be tested because the underlying framework changed. And the risk involved is great; a constantly changing framework (and deploying this framework) means the mission-critical app can never just enjoy the same code base for a long time. These applications share the same database, hence the need for the constant testing. I'm aware of TDD and automated tests, but that doesn't exist at the moment. Any advice?

    Read the article

  • AutoMapper How To Map Object A To Object B Differently Depending On Context

    - by IanT8
    Calling all AutoMapper gurus! I'd like to be able to map object A to object B differently depending on context at runtime. In particular, I'd like to ignore certain properties in one mapping case, and have all properties mapped in another case. What I'm experiencing is that Mapper.CreateMap can be called successfully in the different mapping cases however, once CreateMap is called, the map for a particular pair of types is set and is not subsequently changed by succeeding CreateMap calls which might describe the mapping differently. I found a blog post which advocates Mapper.Reset() to get round the problem, however, the static nature of the Mapper class means that it is only a matter of time before a collision and crash occur. Is there a way to do this? What I think I need is to call Mapper.CreateMap once per appdomain, and later, be able to call Mapper.Map with hints about which properties should be included / excluded. Right now, I'm thinking about changing the source code by writing a non-static mapping class that holds the mapping config instance based. Poor performance, but thread safe. What are my options. What can be done? Automapper seems so promising.

    Read the article

  • Character encoding issues when generating MD5 hash cross-platform

    - by rogueprocess
    This is a general question about character encoding when using MD5 libraries in various languages. My concern is: suppose I generate an MD5 hash using a native Python string object, like this: message = "hello world" m = md5() m.update(message) Then I take a hex version of that MD5 hash using: m.hexdigest() and send the message & MD5 hash via a network, let's say, a JMS message or a HTTP request. Now I get this message in a Java program in the form of a native Java string, along with the checksum. Then I generate an MD5 hash using Java, like this (using the Commons Codec library): String md5 = org.apache.commons.codec.digest.DigestUtils.DigestUtils.md5Hex(s) My feeling is that this is wrong because I have not specified character encodng at either end. So the original hash will be based on the bytes of the Python version of the string; the Java one will be based on the bytes of the Java version of the string , these two byte sequences will often not be the same - is that right? So really I need to specify "UTF-8" or whatever at both ends right? (I am actually getting an intermittent error in my code where the MD5 checksum fails, and I suspect this is the reason - but because it's intermittent, it's difficult to say if changing this fixes it or not. ) Thank you!

    Read the article

  • Configuring ASP.NET MVC ActionLink format with GoDaddy shared hosting

    - by Maxim Z.
    Background I have a GoDaddy shared Windows hosting plan and I'm running into a small issue with multiple domains. Many people have previously reported such an issue, but I am not interested in trying to resolve that problem altogether; all I want to accomplish is to change the format of my ActionLinks. Issue Let's say the domain that is mapped to my root hosting directory is example.com. GoDaddy forces mapping of other domains to subdirectories of the root. For example, my second domain, example1.com, is mapped to example.com/example1. I uploaded my ASP.NET MVC site to such a subdirectory, only to find that ActionLinks that are for navigation have the following format: http://example1.com/example1/Controller/Action In other words, even when I use the domain that is mapped to the subdirectory, the subdirectory is still used in the URL. However, I noticed that I can also access the same path by going to: http://example1.com/Controller/Action (leaving out the subdirectory) What I want to achieve I want to have my ActionLinks automatically drop the subdirectory, as it is not required. Is this possible without changing the ActionLinks into plain-old URLs?

    Read the article

  • Big problem with regular expression in Lex (lexical analyzer)

    - by Nazgulled
    Hi, I have some content like this: author = "Marjan Mernik and Viljem Zumer", title = "Implementation of multiple attribute grammar inheritance in the tool LISA", year = 1999 author = "Manfred Broy and Martin Wirsing", title = "Generalized Heterogeneous Algebras and Partial Interpretations", year = 1983 author = "Ikuo Nakata and Masataka Sassa", title = "L-Attributed LL(1)-Grammars are LR-Attributed", journal = "Information Processing Letters" And I need to catch everything between double quotes for title. My first try was this: ^(" "|\t)+"title"" "*=" "*"\"".+"\"," Which catches the first example, but not the other two. The other have multiple lines and that's the problem. I though about changing to something with \n somewhere to allow multiple lines, like this: ^(" "|\t)+"title"" "*=" "*"\""(.|\n)+"\"," But this doesn't help, instead, it catches everything. Than I though, "what I want is between double quotes, what if I catch everything until I find another " followed by ,? This way I could know if I was at the end of the title or not, no matter the number of lines, like this: ^(" "|\t)+"title"" "*=" "*"\""[^"\""]+"," But this has another problem... The example above doesn't have it, but the double quote symbol (") can be in between the title declaration. For instance: title = "aaaaaaa \"X bbbbbb", And yes, it will always be preceded by a backslash (\). Any suggestions to fix this regexp?

    Read the article

  • dynamic naming of UIButtons within a loop - objective-c, iphone sdk

    - by von steiner
    Dear Members, Scholars. As it may seem obvious I am not armed with Objective C knowledge. Levering on other more simple computer languages I am trying to set a dynamic name for a list of buttons generated by a simple loop (as the following code suggest). Simply putting it, I would like to have several UIButtons generated dynamically (within a loop) naming them dynamically, as well as other related functions. button1,button2,button3 etc.. After googling and searching Stackoverlow, I haven't arrived to a clear simple answer, thus my question. - (void)viewDidLoad { // This is not Dynamic, Obviously UIButton *button0 = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeRoundedRect]; [button0 setTitle:@"Button0" forState:UIControlStateNormal]; button0.tag = 0; button0.frame = CGRectMake(0.0, 0.0, 100.0, 100.0); button0.center = CGPointMake(160.0,50.0); [self.view addSubview:button0]; // I can duplication the lines manually in terms of copy them over and over, changing the name and other related functions, but it seems wrong. (I actually know its bad Karma) // The question at hand: // I would like to generate that within a loop // (The following code is wrong) float startPointY = 150.0; // for (int buttonsLoop = 1;buttonsLoop < 11;buttonsLoop++){ NSString *tempButtonName = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"button%i",buttonsLoop]; UIButton tempButtonName = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeRoundedRect]; [tempButtonName setTitle:tempButtonName forState:UIControlStateNormal]; tempButtonName.tag = tempButtonName; tempButtonName.frame = CGRectMake(0.0, 0.0, 100.0, 100.0); tempButtonName.center = CGPointMake(160.0,50.0+startPointY); [self.view addSubview:tempButtonName]; startPointY += 100; } }

    Read the article

  • Gmail like URL scheme

    - by Varun
    I am working on a ticket system, having the following requirement: The home page is divided into two sections: Sec-1. Some filter options are shown here.(like closed-tickets, open-tickets, all-tickets, tickets-assigned-to-me etc.). You can select one or more of these filters. sec-2. List of tickets satisfying above filters will be displayed here. Now this is what I want: As I change the filters -- the change should be reflected in the URL, so that one is able to bookmark it. -- an ajax request will go and list of tickets satisfying the selected filters will be updated in sec-2. I want the same code to be used to load the tickets in both ways- (a) by selecting that set of filters and (b) by using the bookmark to reload the page. I have little idea on how to do it: The URL will contain the selected filters.(appended after #) changing filters on the page will modify the hash part of URL and call a function (say ajaxHandler()) to parse the URL to get the filters and then make an ajax request to get the list of tickets to be displayed in section2. and I will call the same function ajaxHandler() in window.onload. I feel this is what Yahoo maps does. What's the best way to implement such URL scheme? Am I headed in the right direction?

    Read the article

  • PHP doesn't properly URL-decode POST values, or is the bug somewhere else?

    - by Vilx-
    I have a PHP website that integrates with PayPal. As part of it's normal operation it sends a POST request to a user defined URL about every transaction (and some other events). It's called IPN for those who know. All was/is working just fine, until we moved to a new hosting provider last week. This naturally resulted in downtime, changing DNS entries, PHP misconfigurations, etc. In short - PayPal was unable to send the notifications for a few days. Now, this is not that bad, because there is an option just for that - you can log into PayPal, go to the appropriate menu item, and have it resend the failed notifications. Which we did, and it resulted in over 400 error emails. The problem is that normally the email of the receiver ($_POST['business']) is received by PHP as [email protected], but when resending it comes out as my%40business.com. And the request validation goes crazy. Obviously either something somewhere is missing a call to urldecode() or something is doing one too many urlencode(). But who? Is this a bug in PHP? I've never had such a problem before, not with any POST data ever. Perhaps PayPal has a bug? Wouldn't be surprising, but then this should have been caught ages ago. Or perhaps I'm doing something wrong and I should really be calling the urldecode() myself?

    Read the article

  • Why do Asp.net timers/updatepanels leak memory and can it be fixed/worked around?

    - by KallDrexx
    I have built a suite of internal websites for our company to manage some of our processes. I have been noticing that these pages have massive memory leaks that cause the pages to be using well over 150mb of memory, which is ridiculous for a webpage that consists of a single form and a GridView that is displaying 7-10 rows of data at a time, sometimes with the data not changing for a whole day. This data does need to be refreshed on a semi-regular basis so that we always see the latest results and can act on them. After some testing it appears that the memory leak is extremely easy to reproduce, and very noticeable. I created a page with the following asp.net markup: <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <asp:scriptmanager ID="Scriptmanager1" runat="server"></asp:scriptmanager> <asp:Timer ID="timer1" runat="server" Interval="1000" /> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdatePanel1" runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> </div> </form> </body> There is absolutely no code behind for this. This is the entirety of the page. Running this site in Chrome shows the memory usage shoot up to 25 megs in the span of 20-30 seconds. Leaving it running for a few minutes makes the memory go up to the 70 megs and such. Am I using timers and update panels wrong, or is this a pure Asp.net issue with no work around?

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET page content doesn't change

    - by WtFudgE
    Hi, I created an application which has a menu where it's items are created dynamicly. The menu acts as a language menu. <body runat="server"> <form id="Form1" runat="server"> <table class="TableLayout"> <tr> <td class="TopNav" align="right"> <asp:Menu runat="server" ID="LanguageMenu" Orientation="Horizontal" OnMenuItemClick="LanguageMenu_MenuItemClick"> <LevelMenuItemStyles> <asp:MenuItemStyle CssClass="TopNavItem" /> </LevelMenuItemStyles> <StaticHoverStyle CssClass="TopNavItemHover" /> </asp:Menu> </td> </tr> ... I use session variables to set my current language. however if I click on the menu to change the session variable: public void LanguageMenu_MenuItemClick(Object sender, MenuEventArgs e) { Session["language"] = e.Item.Text; } The page reloads with the following code: sportsPath = String.Format(@"{0}{1}\Sports\", xmlPath, Session["language"]); //create LeftNavigation string[] sports = Directory.GetFiles(sportsPath); LeftNavigation.Items.Clear(); foreach (string sport in sports) { string text = sport.Replace(sportsPath, "").Replace(".xml", ""); MenuItem item = new MenuItem(); item.Text = text; LeftNavigation.Items.Add(item); } The thing is the content doesn't change, only after I click on something else. If I skip through my code after clicking on the menuItem I can see that it passes the code and it should change, however for some reason the page needs another extra trigger to modify it's content. I also see the page reloading so I don't understand why it's not changing immediatly. I guess I'm not understanding the asp.net logic just quite yet. What am I doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • How to check absolute control visibility and how to be notified for changes of absolute visibility

    - by portakalla
    I have several controls inside my form and I perform several changes (Text, Font, BackColor etc.) on these controls. My changes are necessary only if the controls are visible. So, I want to stop performing my changes on controls that are not visible. I want to keep changing my controls when they become visible again. I can use Control.Visible and Control.VisibleChanged, however they are not satisfactory for my purpose. The problem is, VisibleChanged is not fired when control becomes invisible due to its parent (i.e. because its parent became invisible). Interestingly, it is fired when control becomes visible again. Is there a way to be notified for visibility changes without recursively listening parent visibility changes? I also want to be notified when another form is placed over my form and some of my controls become non-visible. I call this absolute visibility. (Is there another term for it?) Is there an event that I can use for this purpose? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Why does Tfs2010 build my Wix project before anything else?

    - by bwerks
    Hi all, A similar question was asked and answered about a year ago, but was either a different issue (everything was in beta) or misdiagnosed. It's located here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/688162/msbuild-task-fails-because-any-cpu-solution-is-built-out-of-order. My issue is that I have a wix installer project, and after upgrading to Tfs2010 on monday, the build fails on linking because it can't find the build product of the Wpf application in the project. After some digging, it's because it hasn't been built yet. Building in Vs2010 works as normal. The wix project is set to depend on the Wpf project, and when viewing Project Build Order in the IDE, everything looks as normal. The problem was originally encountered with only two platform definitions in the solution; x86 and x64. There are also two flavors, Debug and Release, and TFSBuild.proj is set to build all four combinations. There was no occurence of AnyCPU anywhere. Per the referenced question above, I tried changing the Wpf project to use AnyCPU so that it would be built first. At this point, the wix project used the exact configuration and the Wpf project used the flavor with AnyCPU. However, doing so didn't seem to change anything. I'm using the Tfs2010 RTM, Vs2010 RTM, and the most recent version of Wix, which at the time of this writing is 3.5.1602.0, from 2010-04-02. Anyone else running into this?

    Read the article

  • PHP Codeigniter Undefined Offset Error

    - by Matt
    Hello, I am building a Codeigniter shopping cart. On the cart details page I have a form input field allowing the user to type in the quantity required of a product, and a submit button to post the information to the update function. When there is just one item in the cart, when updating the quantity everything works as it should. However, when there is more than one item, changing the quantity of an item and clicking submit results in a ‘Undefined Offset 1: error on the following code in the Model (specifically the two lines within the array) : function validate_update_cart() { $total = $this->cart->total_items(); $item = $this->input->post('rowid'); $qty = $this->input->post('qty'); for($i=0;$i < $total;$i++) { $data = array( 'rowid' => $item[$i], 'qty' => $qty[$i] ); $this->cart->update($data); } } This is the View code to which the above refers: <form action="<?php echo base_url(); ?>home/update" method="post"> <div><input type="hidden" name="rowid[]" value="<?php echo $item['rowid']; ?>"/></div> <div><input type="text" name="qty[]" value="<?php echo $item['qty']; ?>" maxlength="2" class="chg-qty"/></div> <div><input type="submit" value="update" class="update-quantity"/></div> </form> And this is the Controller: function update() { $this->products_model->validate_update_cart(); redirect('cart'); } Please can anyone explain why this is happening? Many thanks, Matt

    Read the article

  • Issues in Convergence of Sequential minimal optimization for SVM

    - by Amol Joshi
    I have been working on Support Vector Machine for about 2 months now. I have coded SVM myself and for the optimization problem of SVM, I have used Sequential Minimal Optimization(SMO) by Mr. John Platt. Right now I am in the phase where I am going to grid search to find optimal C value for my dataset. ( Please find details of my project application and dataset details here http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2284059/svm-classification-minimum-number-of-input-sets-for-each-class) I have successfully checked my custom implemented SVM`s accuracy for C values ranging from 2^0 to 2^6. But now I am having some issues regarding the convergence of the SMO for C 128. Like I have tried to find the alpha values for C=128 and it is taking long time before it actually converges and successfully gives alpha values. Time taken for the SMO to converge is about 5 hours for C=100. This huge I think ( because SMO is supposed to be fast. ) though I`m getting good accuracy? I am screwed right not because I can not test the accuracy for higher values of C. I am actually displaying number of alphas changed in every pass of SMO and getting 10, 13, 8... alphas changing continuously. The KKT conditions assures convergence so what is so weird happening here? Please note that my implementation is working fine for C<=100 with good accuracy though the execution time is long. Please give me inputs on this issue. Thank You and Cheers.

    Read the article

  • ifconfig networking telnet

    - by jhon
    Hi guys, I'm newbie around networking, I have a question: what I want is to telnet a specific IP/server, let us say 192.168.128.1 then, I try $telnet 192.168.128.1 Trying... and that's all.. I never get connected one of my friends made some script that "fixes" it, AFTER running it I was able to connect to the server using $telnet 192.168.128.1 $ user: unfortunately I lost that script, so I'm here requesting your help. Reading my old notes, I remember that the script performed some modification to the entries listed by ifconfig -a, I also have the ifconfig's output (copy & paste) $ ifconfig -a adapter0: flags=5e080863,c0<UP,BROADCAST,NOTRAILERS,RUNNING,SIMPLEX,MULTICAST,GROUPRT,64BIT,CHECKSUM_OFFLOAD(ACTIVE),PSEG,LARGESEND,CHAIN> inet 192.168.128.150 netmask 0xffffff00 broadcast 192.168.128.255 tcp_sendspace 131072 tcp_recvspace 65536 rfc1323 0 adapter1: flags=5e080863,c0<UP,BROADCAST,NOTRAILERS,RUNNING,SIMPLEX,MULTICAST,GROUPRT,64BIT,CHECKSUM_OFFLOAD(ACTIVE),PSEG,LARGESEND,CHAIN> inet 192.168.251.150 netmask 0xffffff00 broadcast 192.168.251.255 tcp_sendspace 131072 tcp_recvspace 65536 rfc1323 0 adapter2: flags=5e080863,c0<UP,BROADCAST,NOTRAILERS,RUNNING,SIMPLEX,MULTICAST,GROUPRT,64BIT,CHECKSUM_OFFLOAD(ACTIVE),PSEG,LARGESEND,CHAIN> inet 192.168.250.150 netmask 0xffffff00 broadcast 192.168.250.255 tcp_sendspace 131072 tcp_recvspace 65536 rfc1323 0 lo0: flags=e08084b<UP,BROADCAST,LOOPBACK,RUNNING,SIMPLEX,MULTICAST,GROUPRT,64BIT> inet 127.0.0.1 netmask 0xff000000 broadcast 127.255.255.255 inet6 ::1/0 tcp_sendspace 131072 tcp_recvspace 131072 rfc1323 1 more than commands, I'm looking for some explanation why does "adding/changing" those entries enables me to connect to the server. I do not see the server ip (i.e 192.168.128.1) listed above. thanks

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 233 234 235 236 237 238 239 240 241 242 243 244  | Next Page >