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• Problem with Wicket and SignInExample in IE8

  - by KJQ

  I have an interesting problem with Wicket. I'm basically duplicating the 'authentication' example from the v1.4.x in SVN. It works fine in FireFox and Chrome but not in IE8. When in IE8, after I click the submit button it returns with a 404 error but i can manually paste the "destination" url in and it goes there fine (as an authenticated user). Another scenario is, I try to login, it gives me a 404, I hit refresh (looking at the html source I see the page version incremented), relogin and it works fine. So to summarize: I login the first time in IE8 and it returns a 404 error, hit refresh and ogin again and it works fine. I login the first time in IE8 and it returns a 404 error, manually paste the destination url in the browser and it goes there fine as if im logged in. I've compared everything between IE8 and FireFox from the rendered source and the code is not doing anything special but I cannot figure out what the differences are? Thanks. KJQ

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• Strange issue with jQueryUI and .htaccess RewriteRule

  - by dosboy

  I have the following rule in my .htaccess which redirects any requests for /labs/... to /projects/...: RewriteRule ^labs/(.+)$ projects/$1 [L] Where projects is a local folder on my web server. I'm using jQueryUI on a page in a subfolder of projects, say projects/project1/index.php. When I hit http://mydomain.com/projects/project1/ everything is fine. However if I hit http://mydomain.com/labs/project1/ almost everything is fine, except that I get the following warning in my JS console: Resource interpreted as image but transferred with MIME type text/html. ui-bg_highlight-soft_60_4ca20b_1x100.png And my jQueryUI button loses its glossy look. I don't even know where to begin to try to solve this. But if anyone has any suggestions I'd greatly appreciate it.

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• Login Functionality For Silverlight Application

  - by peter

  Hi All, I have a silverlight application that requires the user to login. The problem is when you hit the refresh button on the web page it reloads the site, and requires the user to login again. What I want it to do is act like ASP .NET where the user will remain logged in for 20 minutes even if they hit the refresh button. What mechanism is ASP .NET using to achieve this? Does it use session variables for instance, and how does it expire after 20 minutes? Thanks.

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• .NET Performance: Deep Recursion vs Queue

  - by JeffN825

  I'm writing a component that needs to walk large object graphs, sometimes 20-30 levels deep. What is the most performant way of walking the graph? A. Enqueueing "steps" so as to avoid deep recursion or B. A DFS (depth first search) which may step many levels deep and have a "deep" stack trace at times. I guess the question I'm asking is: Is there a performance hit in .NET for doing a DFS that causes a "deep" stack trace? If so, what is the hit? And would I better better off with some BFS by means of queueing up steps that would have been handled recursively in a DFS? Sorry if I'm being unclear. Thanks.

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• debugging c# silverlight projects from vb web application

  - by dave lowe

  Hi, I have a problem whereby I cannot debug a c# silverlight application project that is hosted from within a visual basic web application. I add breakpoints to the main App constructor and the symbols are loaded ok but my breakpoints are never hit. I have concluded that it is a vb/c# interop problem as to test i did the following. Created a new c# web application project Added a c# silverlight application Added a new vb web application project Added references to the silverlight project from both web apps set a breakpoint in App.xaml.cs constructor if i run the c# webapp the break points are hit whereas if i run the vb webapp they are not. has anyone come across this before or can anyone suggest a solution please? Many Thanks

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• .Net - interop assemblies taking 15 seconds to load when being referenced in a function

  - by Jon

  This is a C# console application. I have a function that does something like this: static void foo() { Application powerpointApp; Presentation presentation = null; powerpointApp = new Microsoft.Office.Interop.PowerPoint.ApplicationClass(); } That's all it does. When it is called there is a fifteen second delay before the function gets hit. I added something like this: static void MyAssemblyLoadEventHandler(object sender, AssemblyLoadEventArgs args) { Console.WriteLine(DateTime.Now.ToString() + " ASSEMBLY LOADED: " + args.LoadedAssembly.FullName); Console.WriteLine(); } This gets fired telling me that my interop assemblies have been loaded about 10 milliseconds before my foo function gets hit. What can I do about this? The program needs to call this function (and eventually do something else) once and then exit so I need for these assemblies to be cached or something. Ideas?

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• Image input onclick event being fired when enter button Pressed

  - by Anthony

  I have a strange problem where an onclick event on an input image is being fired when i hit enter in input text box <form id="MyForm" action="/someaction"> <input type="image" src="someimage.jpg" onclick="doStuff();$('#MyForm').submit();" /> <input type="text" name="textInput"/> </form> When the cursor is in the text box and i hit enter, rather than the form being submitted it calls the onclick event on the image input. Any ideas whats going on ?

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• Visual studio 2010 colourizers, intellisense and the rest. Where to start!!

  - by Owen

  Ok, before I begin I realize that there is a lot of documentation on this subject but I have thus far failed to get even basic colourization working for VS2010. My goal is to simply get to a point where I can open a document and everything is coloured red, from here I can implement the relevant parsing logic. Here's what I have tried/found: 1) Downloaded all the relevent SDK's and such- Found the ook sample (http://code.msdn.microsoft.com/ookLanguage) - didn't build, didn't work. 2) Knowing almost nothing about MEF read through "Implementing a Language Service By Using the Managed Package Framework" - http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb166533(v=VS.100).aspx This was pretty much a copy and paste of all the basic stuff here, and also updating some references which were out of date with the sample see: http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en-US/vsx/thread/a310fe67-afd2-4592-b295-3fc86fec7996 Now, I have got to a point where when running the package MEF appears to have hooked up correctly (I know this because with the debugger open I can see that the packages initialize and FDoIdle methods are being hit). When I open a file of the extension I have registered with the ProvideLanguageExtensionAttribute everything dies as if in an endless loop, yet no debug symbols hit (though they are loaded). Looking at the ook sample and the MEF examples they seem to be totally different approaches to the same problem. In the ook sample there are notions of Clasifications and Completion controllers which aren't mentioned in the MEF example. Also, they don't seem to create a Package or Language service, so I have no idea how it should work? With the MEF example, my assumption is that I need to hook into the "IScanner.ScanTokenAndProvideInfoAboutIt" to provide syntax highlighting? Which would be fine if I could ever hit this method. So my first question I guess is which approach should I be taking here? Or do they both somehow tie together? My second questions is, where can I find a basic fully working project that implements bog standard basic syntax highlighting and intellisense or VS2010? Thirdly, in the MEF example when I created a Package there were a bunch of test projects created for me. I appears that the integration tests launch the VS2010 test rig somehow, but the test fails. It would be good to write my service with tests but I have no idea what/how I can test each interaction so any references to testing Language services would be helpful. Finally, please throw any resource/book links my way that I may find useful. Cheers, Chris. N.B. Sorry I realize this is part question part rant, but I have never been so confused.

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• Autocomplete for generic types in Eclipse

  - by AvrDragon

  "Refer to objects by their interfaces" is a good practise, as mentioned in Effective Java. So for example i prefer List<String> al = new ArrayList<String>(); over ArrayList<String> al = new ArrayList<String>(); in my code. One annoying thing is that if i type ArrayList<String> al = new and then hit Ctrl+Space in Eclipse i get ArrayList<String>() as propostal. But if i type List al = new and then hit Ctrl+Space i will get only propostal to define anonymous inner class, but not propostals such as new ArrayList<String>(), what is 99% the case, or for example new Vector<String>(). Is there any way to get the subclasses as propostals for generic types?

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• When mocking a class with Moq, how can I CallBase for just specific methods?

  - by Daryn

  I really appreciate Moq's Loose mocking behaviour that returns default values when no expectations are set. It's convenient and saves me code, and it also acts as a safety measure: dependencies won't get unintentionally called during the unit test (as long as they are virtual). However, I'm confused about how to keep these benefits when the method under test happens to be virtual. In this case I do want to call the real code for that one method, while still having the rest of the class loosely mocked. All I have found in my searching is that I could set mock.CallBase = true to ensure that the method gets called. However, that affects the whole class. I don't want to do that because it puts me in a dilemma about all the other properties and methods in the class that hide call dependencies: if CallBase is true then I have to either Setup stubs for all of the properties and methods that hide dependencies -- Even though my test doesn't think it needs to care about those dependencies, or Hope that I don't forget to Setup any stubs (and that no new dependencies get added to the code in the future) -- Risk unit tests hitting a real dependency. Q: With Moq, is there any way to test a virtual method, when I mocked the class to stub just a few dependencies? I.e. Without resorting to CallBase=true and having to stub all of the dependencies? Example code to illustrate (uses MSTest, InternalsVisibleTo DynamicProxyGenAssembly2) In the following example, TestNonVirtualMethod passes, but TestVirtualMethod fails - returns null. public class Foo { public string NonVirtualMethod() { return GetDependencyA(); } public virtual string VirtualMethod() { return GetDependencyA();} internal virtual string GetDependencyA() { return "! Hit REAL Dependency A !"; } // [... Possibly many other dependencies ...] internal virtual string GetDependencyN() { return "! Hit REAL Dependency N !"; } } [TestClass] public class UnitTest1 { [TestMethod] public void TestNonVirtualMethod() { var mockFoo = new Mock<Foo>(); mockFoo.Setup(m => m.GetDependencyA()).Returns(expectedResultString); string result = mockFoo.Object.NonVirtualMethod(); Assert.AreEqual(expectedResultString, result); } [TestMethod] public void TestVirtualMethod() // Fails { var mockFoo = new Mock<Foo>(); mockFoo.Setup(m => m.GetDependencyA()).Returns(expectedResultString); // (I don't want to setup GetDependencyB ... GetDependencyN here) string result = mockFoo.Object.VirtualMethod(); Assert.AreEqual(expectedResultString, result); } string expectedResultString = "Hit mock dependency A - OK"; }

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• Javascript/Jquery - Reset text box view area after tab

  - by JK

  I don't know what this is called so its hard to google for it. If you have a plain html input type=text with a small width eg 20 and then type more characters than can be displayed, it shows the last characters you type. And the first ones are scrolled out of view: This is my long text // this is the whole string my long string // this is what is actually visible in the input box How do I make it so that when you hit tab, the view area resets so that the start of the string is visible and the end is hidden? my long string // this is what is visible in the input box when typing This is my // this is what is I want to be visible in the input box after you hit tab What do you call this, and how do you do it?

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• Force reload/refresh when pressing the back button

  - by FlyingCat

  I will try my best to explain this. I have an application that show the 50+ projects in my view page. The user can click the individual project and go to the update page to update the project information. Everything works fine except that after user finish updating the individual project information and hit 'back' button on the browser to the previous view page. The old project information (before update) is still there. The user has to hit refresh to see the updated information. It not that bad, but I wish to provide better user experience. Any idea to fix this? Thanks a lot.

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• Is there any harm in running session_start() multiple times as the page request is being built (in p

  - by sprugman

  Presumably there's some tiny performance hit, but beyond that?

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• SQL Database application written in Visual Basic in Visual Studio 2010

  - by TID

  Hello, I am writing a program and part of it is to store the keyed entry in a database on an sql server when the enter key is hit. The database is small and simple with only three entry spots in the table. one for the tracking number, one for the date entered, and one for the time entered. The only thing the user will see is the tracking number text box and an enter button. the date and time will be auto entered when the enter key is hit. i am relatively new to databases so i cannot figure out how to send the data to the database. The database is already configured, just need to get the program and the database talking to eachother. Thanks.

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• Javascript - Function call will not enter function body

  - by Mike S

  I have a function acting as a constructor that, when called, gets as far as the function definition in the debugger, but never to the function body. Is there a common reason this may happen that I am overlooking? Example code below: myconstructor.js function MyConstructor(optionalParam) { //this breakpoint gets hit var newobj = {}; //breakpoint never hit //code to check for null parameter //other code }; main.js var myConstructor = new MyConstructor(); There must be something I have overlooked, but I can't see what that is. Neither firefox/firebug nor VS report errors or warnings. Thanks!

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• How to deal with accelerators for disabled controls?

  - by sharptooth

  I have a dialog created from a template. It has controls listed in the template in the following order: some irrelevant controls a label with an accelerator (let's pretend it's Alt-A) an edit box OK and Cancel buttons Normally when I hit Alt-A the keybord focus is transferred to the edit box - just as needed. However I sometimes need to disable to edit box. If I hit Alt-A when the edit box is disabled the effect is that the OK button is pressed and that is definitely not what I want. I would prefer to have no action taken in this case. What could I do to workaround this?

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• didSelectRowAtIndexPath being called after viewDidLoad of the called view

  - by Serguei Fedorov

  I am trying to pass variables over to the new view. I have the following code: appDelegate *dataCenter = (AppDelegate*)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; dataCenter.myVariable = [array objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; in the didSelectRowAtIndexPath of the calling view. However, the issue that I have is that this variable is empty in the vewDidLoad function of the next view, simply because it fired off BEFORE the didSelectRowAtIndexPath of the calling view. I am using storyboard to link the views together. Both are UITableView. If I hit back and then reselect the table element it is then set, granted that by the time I hit back and then selected again, the variable got set. Is there any way to for the order of execution? I really don't want to do UI view switching on the back end. Any help is greatly appreciated!

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• How to use SSRS to retrieve HTML snippets with embedded images the easy way

  - by Ram

  I have a web-app that retrieves reports from our SSRS server dynamically - we hit a URL and out pops some HTML4.0 which I stuff into a div for the user to view. I recently tried adding a report that has an embedded image (in the RDL itself) and the image doesn't make it through. What does make it through is an IMG SRC reference back to the SSRS box but we do not allow end users to hit the SSRS box directly... users query the web-app and the web-app interacts with the SSRS service. There is an option to render in MHTML (note that we typically use rs:command=RenderHTML with rs:format=HTML4.0) - the blob returned appears to be valid MIME but does not seem friendly for stuffing into a DIV... am I missing something obvious? My next step is to parse the MIME, swizzle the references and stuff the whole thing back into the page but I feel like this is the hardway. What is the easy way to retrieve HTML snippet reports out of SSRS with embedded images?

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• Sorting a listview (Win32/C++)

  - by Zenox

  I'm trying to sort a listview when the user clicks on the column header. I am catching the LVN_COLUMNCLICK notification like so: case LVN_COLUMNCLICK: { NMLISTVIEW* pListView = (NMLISTVIEW*)lParam; BOOL test = ListView_SortItems ( m_hDuplicateObjectsList, ListViewCompareProc, pListView->iSubItem ); break; } However it seems to fail. My test variable is FALSE and my ListViewCompareProc never gets hit (it has a simple return 1 while I am trying to hit a debug point inside of it). Is there something I am missing for sorting a listview?

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• jquery scroll to a px count from top and then set a div to be fixed from the top for the rest of the scroll

  - by estern

  I am looking to change a div's css when i scroll to a certain point down the page, a certain amount of pixels from the top of the page. On page load i would have a div positioned statically. Once I started to scroll down the page and i hit a point from the top (say 100px for demo purposes) i want to change that static div to become fixed like 20px from the top. Which would be done via the css() property of jquery. THis would allow it to stay at that fixed 20px all the way down the page. What jquery property can i use to know when i hit that 100px mark. I want this to also revert once someone gets back to the top so that the div is put back to where it was when the page loaded and not 20px from the top. Any ideas?

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• Amazon SimpleDB - Is there a way to list all Attributes in a Domain?

  - by beer-drinker

  Hi, I'm using C# and the AWSSDK library form Amazon to test a few things in SimpleDB. All going well so far. However, I am trying to come up with a neat way of retrieving all Attributes that are applicable to a Domain. This is proving to be tricky without having to retrieve an Item, and obviously I can get the list of attributes then. But what if I have 100,000 Items in a Domain. Let's say the first 70,000 Items in a "Person" Domain have: FirstName, LastName, Address And then I hit a Item that has FirstName, LastName, Address, Phone And then I hit another Item around the 80,000 mark which has: FirstName, LastName, Email, Phone In the above example, for the Person Domain, how would I get a list that contains: FirstName, LastName, Address, Email, Phone ...without performing a ridiculous number of select statements? Many thanks!

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• C# - Saving a DataGridView to file and loading

  - by Rekar

  Hello, To start off, what I have is a simple Winforms app, with just a save and load button, and with a datagridview control to hold data. What I am looking to do is input some data into the control, hit the save button, and it save all the data to a file locally on the computer, and when I hit load, it loads the file and populates the control appropriately, keeping all rows, columns, and data the same as when saved. Although it sounds fairly simple to me, I cant seem to figure a good way to save and load the data. Can I get a few pointers or examples to get myself started? Thank you.

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• Function to get the font and calculate the width of the string not working on first instance

  - by user3627265

  I'm trying to calculate the width of the string based on the font style and size. The user will provide the string, the font style and the font size, and then after giving all the data the user will hit the submit button and the function will trigger. Basically this script works but only when the submit button is hit twice or the font is selected twice,. I mean if you selec DNBlock as a font, it will not work for first time, but the second time you hit submit, it will then work. I'm not sure where is the problem here, but when I used the default font style like Arial, times new roman etc it works perfectly fine. Any Idea on this? I suspected that the font style is not being rendered by the script or something. Correct me if I'm wrong. Thanks //Repeat String String.prototype.repeat = function( num ) { return new Array( num + 1 ).join( this ); } //Calculate the width of string String.prototype.textWidth = function() { var fntStyle = document.getElementById("fntStyle").value; if(fntStyle == "1") { var fs = "DNBlock"; } else if(fntStyle == "2") { var fs = "DNBlockDotted"; } else if(fntStyle == "3") { var fs = "DNCursiveClassic"; } else if(fntStyle == "4") { var fs = "DNCursiveDotted"; } else if(fntStyle == "5") { var fs = "FoundationCursiveDots-Regul"; } var f = document.getElementById("fntSize").value.concat('px ', fs), o = $('<div>' + this + '</div>') .css({'position': 'absolute', 'float': 'left', 'white-space': 'nowrap', 'visibility': 'hidden', 'font': f}) .appendTo($('body')), w = o.width(); o.remove(); return w; } //Trigger the event $("#handwriting_gen").submit(function () { var rptNO = parseInt($('#rptNO').val()); $("[name='txtLine[]']").each(function(){ alert(this.value.repeat(rptNO).textWidth()); if(this.value.repeat(rptNO).textWidth() > 1000) { $(this).focus(); $(this).css({"background-color":"#f6d9d4"}).siblings('span.errorMsg').text('Text is too long.'); event.preventDefault(); } }); });

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• apache2 namevirtualhost resolving wrong site

  - by joe

  Running apache 2.2.6. I'm setting up a development environment. dev and production will be hosted on the same machine, same IP address. DNS entries like prod.domain.com and dev.domain.com point to the same IP. * Imprortant: it is required that dev and prod are otherwise completely separate. Each will run it's own apache instance. Each will use it's own apache configuration. Each, prod and dev, will host http and https. I have this set up and working, but not as restrictive as I'd like. For instance, the production config: NameVirtualHost *:80 NameVirtualHost *:443 <VirtualHost *:80 > ServerName prod.domain.com # ... etc </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost *:443 > ServerName prod.domain.com # ... etc </VirtualHost> The dev site is set up similarly, using ports 8080 and 4443. Each site works fine. But assuming both apaches are running, one can also hit "cross-site" by mistake. So, inadvertently hitting prod.domain.com:8080 successfully returns a page from the dev site. It would be much better if this failed completely. This is a bit more difficult to solve (for me) because of the need for two apache configs. If all in one, the single process would have full knowledge of everything. So, I tried to solve this with brute force, including virtual hosts for the "other" site, with something that would fail, like no access to documentroot. But apache then inexplicably finds the "wrong" virtual host. Here's the full config for production, with the dummy dev configs. NameVirtualHost *:80 NameVirtualHost *:443 # ---------------------------------------------- # DUMMY HOSTS <VirtualHost *:8080 > ServerName dev.domain.com:8080 DocumentRoot /tmp/ <Directory /tmp/ > Order deny,allow Deny from all </Directory> </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost *:4443 > ServerName dev.domain.com:4443 DocumentRoot /tmp/ <Directory /tmp/ > Order deny,allow Deny from all </Directory> </VirtualHost> # ---------------------------------------------- # REAL PRODUCTION HOSTS <VirtualHost *:80 > ServerName prod.domain.com:80 DocumentRoot /something/valid/ <Directory /something/valid/> Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost *:443 > ServerName prod.domain.com:443 DocumentRoot /something/valid/ <Directory /something/valid/> Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> # .... other valid ssl setup </VirtualHost> Here's the strange thing. With this configuration, a prod.domain.com:80 hit succeeds. But a prod.domain.com:443 hit fails, because it finds the dev.domain.com:4443 instead. I've also tried removing the port from the ServerName, but it still doesn't work. Sorry for the long question. Hopefully this is enough information. Thanks in advance for any help.

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• Trouble with site-to-site OpenVPN & pfSense not passing traffic

  - by JohnCC

  I'm trying to get an OpenVPN tunnel going on pfSense 1.2.3-RELEASE running on embedded routers. I have a local LAN 10.34.43.0/254. The remote LAN is 10.200.1.0/24. The local pfSense is configured as the client, and the remote is configured as the server. My OpenVPN tunnel is using the IP range 10.99.89.0/24 internally. There are also some additional LANs on the remote side routed through the tunnel, but the issue is not with those since my connectivity fails before that point in the chain. The tunnel comes up fine and the logs look healthy. What I find is this:- I can ping and telnet to the remote LAN and the additional remote LANs from the local pfSense box's shell. I cannot ping or telnet to any remote LANs from the local network. I cannot ping or telnet to the local network from the remote LAN or the remote pfSense box's shell. If I tcpdump the tun interfaces on both sides and ping from the local LAN, I see the packets hit the tunnel locally, but they do not appear on the remote side (nor do they appear on the remote LAN interface if I tcpdump that). If I tcpdump the tun interfaces on both sides and ping from the local pfSense shell, I see the packets hit the tunnel locally, and exit the remote side. I can also tcpdump the remote LAN interface and see them pass there too. If I tcpdump the tun interfaces on both sides and ping from the remote pfSense shell, I see the packets hit the remote tun but they do not emerge from the local one. Here is the config file the remote side is using:- #user nobody #group nobody daemon keepalive 10 60 ping-timer-rem persist-tun persist-key dev tun proto udp cipher BF-CBC up /etc/rc.filter_configure down /etc/rc.filter_configure server 10.99.89.0 255.255.255.0 client-config-dir /var/etc/openvpn_csc push "route 10.200.1.0 255.255.255.0" lport <port> route 10.34.43.0 255.255.255.0 ca /var/etc/openvpn_server0.ca cert /var/etc/openvpn_server0.cert key /var/etc/openvpn_server0.key dh /var/etc/openvpn_server0.dh comp-lzo push "route 205.217.5.128 255.255.255.224" push "route 205.217.5.64 255.255.255.224" push "route 165.193.147.128 255.255.255.224" push "route 165.193.147.32 255.255.255.240" push "route 192.168.1.16 255.255.255.240" push "route 192.168.2.16 255.255.255.240" Here is the local config:- writepid /var/run/openvpn_client0.pid #user nobody #group nobody daemon keepalive 10 60 ping-timer-rem persist-tun persist-key dev tun proto udp cipher BF-CBC up /etc/rc.filter_configure down /etc/rc.filter_configure remote <host> <port> client lport 1194 ifconfig 10.99.89.2 10.99.89.1 ca /var/etc/openvpn_client0.ca cert /var/etc/openvpn_client0.cert key /var/etc/openvpn_client0.key comp-lzo You can see the relevant parts of the routing tables extracted from pfSense here http://pastie.org/5365800 The local firewall permits all ICMP from the LAN, and my PC is allowed everything to anywhere. The remote firewall treats its LAN as trusted and permits all traffic on that interface. Can anyone suggest why this is not working, and what I could try next?

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