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  • ObjectDisposedException when .Show()'ing a form that shouldn't be disposed.

    - by user320781
    ive checked out some of the other questions and obviously the best solution is to prevent the behavior that causes this issue in the first place, but the problem is very intermittent, and very un-reproduceable. I basically have a main form, with sub forms. The sub forms are shown from menus and/or buttons from the main form like so: private void myToolStripMenuItem_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { xDataForm.Show(); xDataForm.Activate(); } catch (ObjectDisposedException) { MessageBox.Show("ERROR 10103"); ErrorLogging newLogger = new ErrorLogging("10103"); Thread errorThread = new Thread(ErrorLogging.writeErrorToLog); errorThread.Start(); } } and the sub forms are actually in the main form(for better or worse. i would actually like to change this but would be a considerable amount of time to do so): public partial class FormMainScreen : Form { Form xDataForm = new xData(); ...(lots more here) public FormMainScreen(int pCount, string pName) { InitializeComponent(); ... } ... } The Dispose function for the sub form is modified so that, the 'close' and 'X' buttons actually hide the form so we dont have to re-create it every time. When the main screen closes, it sets a "flag" to 2, so the other forms know that it is actually ok to close; protected override void Dispose(bool disposing) { if (FormMainScreen.isExiting == 2) { if (disposing && (components != null)) { components.Dispose(); } base.Dispose(disposing); } else { if (xData.ActiveForm != null) { xData.ActiveForm.Hide(); } } } So, the question is, why would this work over and over and over again flawlessly, but, literally, about every 1/1000 of the time, cause an exception, or rather, why is my form being disposed? I had a suspicion that the garbage collector was getting confused, because it occurs slightly more frequently after it has been running for many hours.

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  • wrapping user controls in a transaction

    - by Hans Gruber
    I'm working on heavily dynamic and configurable CMS system. Therefore, many pages are composed of a dynamically loaded set of user controls. To enable loose coupling between containers (pages) and children (user controls), all user controls are responsible for their own persistence. Each User Control is wired up to its data/service layer dependencies via IoC. They also implement an IPersistable interface, which allows the container .aspx page to issue a Save command to its children without knowledge of the number or exact nature of these user controls. Note: what follows is only pseudo-code: public class MyUserControl : IPersistable, IValidatable { public void Save() { throw new NotImplementedException(); } public bool IsValid() { throw new NotImplementedException(); } } public partial class MyPage { public void btnSave_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { foreach (IValidatable control in Controls) { if (!control.IsValid) { throw new Exception("error"); } } foreach (IPersistable control in Controls) { if (!control.Save) { throw new Exception("error"); } } } } I'm thinking of using declarative transactions from the System.EnterpriseService namespace to wrap the btnSave_Click in a transaction in case of an exception, but I'm not sure how this might be achieved or any pitfalls to such an approach.

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  • jQuery AJAX request (Rails 3) gets redirected and returns empty message body!

    - by elsurudo
    I'm trying to do a manual jQuery AJAX request the following way: $("#user_plan_id").change(function() { $("#plan_container").load('/plans/' + this.value); }); I have the "rails.js" file included in my header, and a "<%= csrf_meta_tag %". I see from my log that the request IS getting to the server (although without the authenticity token... does rails.js even do this?), but the response is a 302 (Found) rather than 200, and no data actually gets rendered. Any ideas? Edit: I now see that the first request redirects, and the proper partial gets rendered on the redirect. However, the 2nd response's body (on the client-side) is still empty. I'm guessing jQuery uses the first response and doesn't have a listener set up for the redirect. How do I get around this? Also, another note: the page doing the requesting is an HTTPS page. Here is what my log says: Started GET "/plans/221168073" for 127.0.0.1 at Tue Jun 15 01:24:06 -0400 2010 Processing by PlansController#show as HTML Parameters: {"id"=>"221168073"} DEPRECATION WARNING: Using #request_uri is deprecated. Use fullpath instead. (called from ensure_proper_protocol at /Users/ernestsurudo/Sites/vidfolia/vendor/plugins/ssl_requirement/lib/ssl_requirement.rb:57) Redirected to http://vidfolia.com/plans/221168073 Completed 302 Found in 1ms Perhaps it has something to do with the deprecation warning?

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  • Trying to get django app to work with mod_wsgi on CentOS 5

    - by David
    I'm running CentOS 5, and am trying to get a django application working with mod_wsgi. I'm using .wsgi settings I got working on Ubuntu. Here is the error: [Thu Mar 04 10:52:15 2010] [error] [client 10.1.0.251] SystemError: dynamic module not initialized properly [Thu Mar 04 10:52:15 2010] [error] [client 10.1.0.251] mod_wsgi (pid=23630): Target WSGI script '/data/hosting/cubedev/apache/django.wsgi' cannot be loaded as Python module. [Thu Mar 04 10:52:15 2010] [error] [client 10.1.0.251] mod_wsgi (pid=23630): Exception occurred processing WSGI script '/data/hosting/cubedev/apache/django.wsgi'. [Thu Mar 04 10:52:15 2010] [error] [client 10.1.0.251] Traceback (most recent call last): [Thu Mar 04 10:52:15 2010] [error] [client 10.1.0.251] File "/data/hosting/cubedev/apache/django.wsgi", line 8, in [Thu Mar 04 10:52:15 2010] [error] [client 10.1.0.251] import django.core.handlers.wsgi [Thu Mar 04 10:52:15 2010] [error] [client 10.1.0.251] File "/opt/python2.6/lib/python2.6/site-packages/django/core/handlers/wsgi.py", line 1, in [Thu Mar 04 10:52:15 2010] [error] [client 10.1.0.251] from threading import Lock [Thu Mar 04 10:52:15 2010] [error] [client 10.1.0.251] File "/opt/python2.6/lib/python2.6/threading.py", line 13, in [Thu Mar 04 10:52:15 2010] [error] [client 10.1.0.251] from functools import wraps [Thu Mar 04 10:52:15 2010] [error] [client 10.1.0.251] File "/opt/python2.6/lib/python2.6/functools.py", line 10, in [Thu Mar 04 10:52:15 2010] [error] [client 10.1.0.251] from _functools import partial, reduce [Thu Mar 04 10:52:15 2010] [error] [client 10.1.0.251] SystemError: dynamic module not initialized properly And here is my .wsgi file import os import sys os.environ['PYTHON_EGG_CACHE'] = '/tmp/django/' os.environ['DJANGO_SETTINGS_MODULE'] = 'cube.settings' sys.path.append('/data/hosting/cubedev') import django.core.handlers.wsgi application = django.core.handlers.wsgi.WSGIHandler()

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  • lambda traits inconsistency across C++0x compilers

    - by Sumant
    I observed some inconsistency between two compilers (g++ 4.5, VS2010 RC) in the way they match lambdas with partial specializations of class templates. I was trying to implement something like boost::function_types for lambdas to extract type traits. Check this for more details. In g++ 4.5, the type of the operator() of a lambda appears to be like that of a free standing function (R (*)(...)) whereas in VS2010 RC, it appears to be like that of a member function (R (C::*)(...)). So the question is are compiler writers free to interpret any way they want? If not, which compiler is correct? See the details below. template <typename T> struct function_traits : function_traits<decltype(&T::operator())> { // This generic template is instantiated on both the compilers as expected. }; template <typename R, typename C> struct function_traits<R (C::*)() const> { // inherits from this one on VS2010 RC typedef R result_type; }; template <typename R> struct function_traits<R (*)()> { // // inherits from this one g++ 4.5 typedef R result_type; }; int main(void) { auto lambda = []{}; function_traits<decltype(lambda)>::result_type *r; // void * } This program compiles on both g++ 4.5 and VS2010 but the function_traits that are instantiated are different as noted in the code.

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  • Return type from DAL class (Sql ce, Linq to Sql)

    - by bretddog
    Hi, Using VS2008 and Sql CE 3.5, and preferably Linq to Sql. I'm learning database, and unsure about DAL methods return types and how/where to map the data over to my business objects: I don't want direct UI binding. A business object class UserData, and a class UserDataList (Inherits List(Of UserData)), is represented in the database by the table "Users". I use SQL Compact and run SqlMetal which creates dbml/designer.vb file. This gives me a class with a TableAttribute: <Table()> _ Partial Public Class Users I'm unsure how to use this class. Should my business object know about this class, such that the DAL can return the type Users, or List(Of Users) ? So for example the "UserDataService Class" is a part of the DAL, and would have for example the functions GetAll and GetById. Will this be correct : ? Public Class UserDataService Public Function GetAll() As List(Of Users) Dim ctx As New MyDB(connection) Dim q As List(Of Users) = From n In ctx.Users Select n Return q End Function Public Function GetById(ByVal id As Integer) As Users Dim ctx As New MyDB(connection) Dim q As Users = (From n In ctx.Users Where n.UserID = id Select n).Single Return q End Function And then, would I perhaps have a method, say in the UserDataList class, like: Public Class UserDataList Inherits List(Of UserData) Public Sub LoadFromDatabase() Me.clear() Dim database as New UserDataService dim users as List(Of Users) users = database.GetAll() For each u in users dim newUser as new UserData newUser.Id = u.Id newUser.Name = u.Name Me.Add(newUser) Next End Sub End Class Is this a sensible approach? Would appreciate any suggestions/alternatives, as this is my first attempt on a database DAL. cheers!

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  • wrapping aspx user controls commands in a transaction

    - by Hans Gruber
    I'm working on heavily dynamic and configurable CMS system. Therefore, many pages are composed of a dynamically loaded set of user controls. To enable loose coupling between containers (pages) and children (user controls), all user controls are responsible for their own persistence. Each User Control is wired up to its data/service layer dependencies via IoC. They also implement an IPersistable interface, which allows the container .aspx page to issue a Save command to its children without knowledge of the number or exact nature of these user controls. Note: what follows is only pseudo-code: public class MyUserControl : IPersistable, IValidatable { public void Save() { throw new NotImplementedException(); } public bool IsValid() { throw new NotImplementedException(); } } public partial class MyPage { public void btnSave_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { foreach (IValidatable control in Controls) { if (!control.IsValid) { throw new Exception("error"); } } foreach (IPersistable control in Controls) { if (!control.Save) { throw new Exception("error"); } } } } I'm thinking of using declarative transactions from the System.EnterpriseService namespace to wrap the btnSave_Click in a transaction in case of an exception, but I'm not sure how this might be achieved or any pitfalls to such an approach.

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  • Saving Abstract and Sub classes to database

    - by bretddog
    Hi, I have an abstract class "StrategyBase", and a set of sub classes, StrategyA/B/C etc. The sub classes use some of the properties of the base class, and have some individual properties. My question is how to save this to a database. I'm currently using SqlCE, and Linq-To-Sql by creating entity classes automatically with SqlMetal.exe. I've seen there are three solutions shown in this question, but I'm not able to see how these solutions will work or not with SqlMetal/entity classes. Though it seems to me the "concrete table inheritance" would probably work without any manual modifying. What about the other two, would they be problematic? For "Single Table Inheritance" wouldn't all classes get all variables, even though they don't need them? And for the "Class table inheritance" solution I can't really see at all how that will map into the entity-classes for a useful purpose. I may note that I extend these partial entity classes for making the classes of my business objects. I may also consider moving to EntityFramework instead of SqlMetal/Linq2Sql, so would be nice also to know if that makes any difference to what schema is easy to implement. One likely important thing to note is that I will constantly be develop new strategies, which makes me have to modify the program code, and probably the database shcema; when adding a new strategy. Sorry the question is a bit "all over the place", but hopefully it's some clear advantages/disadvantages here that you may be able to advice. ? Cheers!

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  • ListBox selector odd behavior when there are dupes

    - by byte1918
    I'm working on a bigger project atm, but I made this simple example to show you what happens.. using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Windows; namespace txt { public partial class MainWindow { public MainWindow() { InitializeComponent(); } private void Window_Loaded(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { var obsLst = new List<Info> { new Info { name = "asd" }, new Info { name = "asd" }, new Info { name = "asd" }, new Info { name = "asd" } }; var temp = new List<Info>(); for (var i = 1; i <= 3; i++) { temp.Add(obsLst[0]); //I add 3 of the same item from obsLst to temp } lst.DataContext = temp; //lst = ListBox } } public class Info { public string name { get; set; } } } The ListBox ItemsSource is set to {Binding}.. When I start the application I get 3 txt.Info objects displayed and if I click any of them, 2 or even all of them get selected aswell. From my understanding the problem relies in the fact that the listbox selector cannot differentiate between the items and therefor doesn't know which one I selected. Here's a picture of what it looks like.. I only clicked on the second txt.Info item. I found a solution where someone said that I have to specify the DisplayMemberPath, but I can't really do that in the other project because I have a datatemplate for the object. Any ideas on how I could fix this would be great.. Thx in advance.

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  • c# sending sms from computer

    - by I__
    i have this code: private SerialPort port = new SerialPort("COM1", 115200, Parity.None, 8, StopBits.One); Console.WriteLine("Incoming Data:"); port.WriteTimeout = 5000; port.ReadTimeout = 5000; // Attach a method to be called when there is data waiting in the port's buffer port.DataReceived += new SerialDataReceivedEventHandler(port_DataReceived); // Begin communications port.Open(); #region PhoneSMSSetup port.Write("AT+CMGF=1\r\n"); Thread.Sleep(500); port.Write("AT+CNMI=2,2\r\n"); Thread.Sleep(500); port.Write("AT+CSCA=\"+4790002100\"\r\n"); Thread.Sleep(500); #endregion // Enter an application loop which keeps this thread alive Application.Run(); i got it from here: http://www.experts-exchange.com/Programming/Languages/C_Sharp/Q_22832563.html i have a new winforms empty application: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.ComponentModel; using System.Data; using System.Drawing; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Windows.Forms; namespace WindowsFormsApplication1 { public partial class Form1 : Form { public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); } private void Form1_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { } } } can you please tell me: where exactly would i paste the code? how do i get the code to run? i am sending AT COMMANDS to my cell phone that is attached to the computer

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  • Check if file is locked or catch error for trying to open

    - by Duncan Matheson
    I'm trying to handle the problem where a user can try to open, with an OpenFileDialog, a file that is open by Excel. Using the simple FileInfo.OpenRead(), it chucks an IOException, "The process cannot access the file 'cakes.xls' because it is being used by another process." This would be fine to display to the user except that the user will actually get "Debugging resource strings are unavailable" nonsense. It seems not possible to open a file that is open by another process, since using FileInfo.Open(FileMode.Open, FileAccess.Read, FileShare.ReadWrite) chucks a SecurityException, "File operation not permitted. Access to path 'C:\whatever\cakes.xls' is denied.", for any file. Rather unhelpful. So it's down to either finding some way of checking if the file is locked, or trying to catch the IOException. I don't want to catch all IOExceptions and assume they're all locked file errors, so I need some sort of way of classifying this type of exception as this error... but the "Debugging resource strings" nonsense along with the fact that that message itself is probably localized makes it tricky. I'm partial trust, so I can't use Marshal.GetHRForException. So: Is there any sensible way of either check if a file is locked, or at least determining if this problem occurred without just catching all IOExceptions?

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  • First could access the repository next cannot

    - by Banani
    Hi! I have configured svnserve (1.6.5,plain, without apache) on Fedora 12. I could ran the following svn subcommands which access the repository after configuration. Such as, commit, update,checkout, list. But, when next time ( after stopping,ctrl-c and then starting svnserve)I tried above commands, could not access the repository. This is happening both from local and remote machine. I ran svn and svnserve as below. 'svn commit svn://127.0.0.1/myrepository/' from local client. 'svnserve -d --foregorund --listen-port=3690 -r /path-to-repository/mypository/' To understand the problem better, I created another repository and found similar behavior . Frist I could access the repository and next I could not. I tried doing strace on svnserve, but don't uderstand much of it. Below is the partial output. accept(3, {sa_family=AF_INET, sin_port=htons(54425), sin_addr=inet_addr("127.0.0 .1")}, [16]) = 4 fcntl64(4, F_GETFD) = 0 fcntl64(4, F_SETFD, FD_CLOEXEC) = 0 waitpid(-1, 0xbfcdf31c, WNOHANG|WSTOPPED) = -1 ECHILD (No child processes) clone(child_stack=0, flags=CLONE_CHILD_CLEARTID|CLONE_CHILD_SETTID|SIGCHLD, chil d_tidptr=0xb7743758) = 9737 close(4) = 0 accept(3, 0xbfcdf2bc, [128]) = ? ERESTARTSYS (To be restarted) --- SIGCHLD (Child exited) @ 0 (0) --- sigreturn() = ? (mask now []) waitpid(-1, [{WIFEXITED(s) && WEXITSTATUS(s) == 0}], WNOHANG|WSTOPPED) = 9737 waitpid(-1, 0xbfcdf31c, WNOHANG|WSTOPPED) = -1 ECHILD (No child processes) My question: Why user are not able to access the repository anymore? What information the strace output gives about this problem? Any help is much appreciated. Thanks. Banani

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  • Security Exception when using Custom ASP.NET Healthmonitoring event in medium trust

    - by Elementenfresser
    Hi, I'm using custom healthmonitoring events in ASP.NET We recently moved to a new server with default High Trust Permissions. Literature says that healthmonitoring and custom events should work under Medium or higher trust (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb398933.aspx). Problem is - it doesn't. In less than full trust I get a SecurityException saying The application attempted to perform an operation not allowed by the security policy It works in Full trust or when I remove the inheritance of System.Web.Management.WebErrorEvent. Any suggestions anyone? Here is the super simple code behind with a custom event defined: public partial class Default : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { CallCustomEvent(); } catch (Exception ex) { Response.Write(ex.Message); throw ex; } } /// <summary> /// this metho is never called due to lacking permissions... /// </summary> private void CallCustomEvent() { try { //do something useful here } catch (Exception) { //code to instantiate the forbidden inheritance... WebBaseEvent.Raise(new CustomEvent()); } } } /// <summary> /// custom error inheriting WebErrorEvent which is not allowed in high trust? can't believe that... /// </summary> public class CustomEvent : WebErrorEvent { public CustomEvent() : base("test", HttpContext.Current.Request, 100001, new ApplicationException("dummy")) { } } and the Web Config excerpt for high trust: <system.web> <trust level="High" originUrl="" />

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  • Very strange Application.ThreadException behaviour.

    - by Brann
    I'm using the Application.ThreadException event to handle and log unexpected exceptions in my winforms application. Now, somewhere in my application, I've got the following code (or rather something equivalent, but this dummy code is enough to reproduce my issue) : try { throw new NullReferenceException("test"); } catch (Exception ex) { throw new Exception("test2", ex); } I'm clearly expecting my Application_ThreadException handler to be passed the "test2" exception, but this is not always the case. Typically, if another thread marshals my code to the UI, my handler receives the "test" exception, exactly as if I hadn't caught "test" at all. Here is a short sample reproducing this behavior. I have omitted the designer's code. static class Program { [STAThread] static void Main() { Application.ThreadException += new System.Threading.ThreadExceptionEventHandler(Application_ThreadException); Application.EnableVisualStyles(); Application.SetCompatibleTextRenderingDefault(false); Application.Run(new Form1()); } static void Application_ThreadException(object sender, System.Threading.ThreadExceptionEventArgs e) { Console.WriteLine(e.Exception.Message); } } public partial class Form1 : Form { public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); button1.Click+=new EventHandler(button1_Click); System.Threading.Thread t = new System.Threading.Thread(new System.Threading.ThreadStart(ThrowEx)); t.Start(); } private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { throw new NullReferenceException("test"); } catch (Exception ex) { throw new Exception("test2", ex); } } void ThrowEx() { this.BeginInvoke(new EventHandler(button1_Click)); } } The output of this program on my computer is : test ... here I click button1 test2 I've reproduced this on .net 2.0,3.5 and 4.0. Does someone have a logical explanation ?

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  • Linq to SQL code generator features

    - by Anders Abel
    I'm very fond of Linq to SQL and the programming model it encourages. I think that in many cases when you are in control of both the database schema and the code it is not worth the effort to have different relational and object models for the data. Working with Linq to SQL makes it simple to have type safe data access from .NET, using the partial extension methods to implement business rules. Unfortunately I do not like the dbml designer due to the lack of a schema refresh function. So far I have used SqlMetal, but that lacks the customization options of the dbml designer. Because of that I've started working on a tool which regenerates the whole code file like SqlMetal, but has the ability to do the customizations that are available in the dbml designer (and maybe more in the future). The customizations will be described in an xml file which only contains those parts that shouldn't have default values. This should keep the xml file size down as well as the maintenance burden of it. To help me focus on the right features, I would like to know: What would be your favourite feature in a linq to sql code generator?

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  • Atomically maintaining a counter using Sub-sonic ActiveRecord

    - by cantabilesoftware
    I'm trying to figure out the correct way to atomically increment a counter in one table and use that incremented value as an pseudo display-only ID for a record in another. What I have is a companies table and a jobs table. I want each company to have it's own set of job_numbers. I do have an auto increment job_id, but those numbers are shared across all companies. ie: the job numbers should generally increment without gaps for each company. ie: companies(company_id, next_job_number) jobs(company_id, job_id, job_number) Currently I'm doing this (as a method on the partial job class): public void SaveJob() { using (var scope = new System.Transactions.TransactionScope()) { if (job_id == 0) { _db.Update<company>() .SetExpression("next_job_number").EqualTo("next_job_number+1") .Where<company>(x => x.company_id == company_id) .Execute(); company c = _db.companies.SingleOrDefault(x => x.company_id == company_id); job_number = c.next_job_number; } // Save the job this.Save(); scope.Complete(); } } It seems to work, but I'm not sure if there are pitfalls here? It just feels wrong, but I'm not sure how else to do it. Any advice appreciated.

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  • Setting Class-Level Variable to Use Between Event Handlers

    - by lush
    I'm having a hard time understanding why the following code doesn't work. I'm sure it's something remedial that I'm missing or not understanding. I currently have a page that asks for user input. If, based on the input and logged in user, I find data from this page already in the database, I need to update the existing records rather than creating new ones, so I set a class-level bool to true. The problem is, when MyNextButton is clicked, PreviouslySubmitted is still false. So, I'm not sure how to make the value of this variable persist. Any advice is appreciated, thanks. public partial class MyForm : System.Web.UI.Page { private bool previouslySubmitted; protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { MyButton.Click += (o, i) => { q = from a in db.TableA where (a.SomeField == SomeValue) select a; if(q.Any()) { PreviouslySubmitted = true; //populate the form's fields with values from database for user to revise } } MyNextButton.Click += (o, i) => { if(PreviouslySubmitted) { //update database } else { //insert into database } }

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  • how to edit a text message ( sms ) as it arrives in windows mobile 6 using managed code

    - by x86shadow
    I want to make an application to be installed on two pocket PCs and send Encrypted text messages and receive and decrypt them on the other device. I already made an application that gets special text messages ( starting with !farenc! ) and I know how to Encrypt/Decrypt the messages as well but I don't know how to edit a text message as it's arrive ( for decryption ). please help. thanks in advance and sorry for my bad English using System; using System.Linq; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.ComponentModel; using System.Data; using System.Drawing; using System.Text; using System.Windows.Forms; using Microsoft.WindowsMobile; using Microsoft.WindowsMobile.PocketOutlook; using Microsoft.WindowsMobile.PocketOutlook.MessageInterception; namespace SMSDECRYPT { public partial class Form1 : Form { MessageInterceptor _SMSCatcher = new MessageInterceptor(InterceptionAction.Notify, true); MessageCondition _SMSFilter = new MessageCondition(); public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); _SMSFilter.Property = MessageProperty.Body; _SMSFilter.ComparisonType = MessagePropertyComparisonType.StartsWith; _SMSFilter.CaseSensitive = true; _SMSFilter.ComparisonValue = "!farenc!"; _SMSCatcher.MessageCondition = _SMSFilter; _SMSCatcher.MessageReceived += new MessageInterceptorEventHandler(_SMSCatcher_MessageReceived); } private void Form1_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { //... } void _SMSCatcher_MessageReceived(object sender, MessageInterceptorEventArgs e) { SmsMessage mySMS = (SmsMessage)e.Message; string sms = mySMS.Body.ToString(); sms = sms.Substring(8); //Decryption //... //Update the received message and replace it with the decrypted text //!!!HELP!!! } } }

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  • Detecting Inheritence during compile time

    - by Jagannath
    I am unable to figure out why this code is returning false. I had the first version of partial specialization. It did not work, I tried with the second version. It did not work either. UPDATE: I wanted to check if "Derived" is publicly derived from "Base". template<class TBase, class TDerived> struct IsDerived { public: enum { isDerived = false }; }; template<class TBase> struct IsDerived<TBase, TBase> { public: enum { isDerived = true }; }; template<class TBase> struct IsDerived<TBase&, TBase&> { public: enum { isDerived = true }; }; int main() { cout << ((IsDerived<Base&, Derived&>::isDerived) ? "true" : "false") << endl; cout << ((IsDerived<const Derived*, const Base*>::isDerived) ? "true" : "false") << endl; }

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  • Symfony 1.2 to 2.3 migration

    - by Bonswouar
    I've got a pretty big Symfony 1.2 project to migrate. First, I modified my .htaccess so I can have some pages handled by Symfony 2. What I'd like to do, to make the migration smoother, is to be able to render some SF2 action/templates/methods/... inside SF1. I added the autoloader to the SF1 app, so I can access to twig rendering methods and other stuff. But how can I call a SF2 action ? For example, if I want to migrate only the footer first, I would also need some php methods, not only rendering. That was previously in SF1 component, where should it be now ? If you've got any suggestion about the way of migrating, don't hesitate ! EDIT 1 : Apparently, the only way to do something like that is to render a full twig template, and/or in this template call some other partial twig templates with render(url, params). Here is my SF1 code to be able to render twig templates : public static function getTwig() { require_once __DIR__.'SF2_PATH/vendor/twig/extensions/lib/Twig/Extensions/Autoloader.php'; Twig_Autoloader::register(); $loader = new Twig_Loader_Filesystem( __DIR__.'SF2_PATH/sf2/src/VENDOR/BUNDLE/'); $twig = new Twig_Environment($loader, array( 'cache' => __DIR__.'SF2_PATH/sf2/app/cache/dev/twig', )); return $twig; } And so : $twig->loadTemplate('header.html.twig'); EDIT 2 : That doesn't seem to work, if in a twig template I try to render an other one with {{render(controller('BUNDLE:CONTROLER:ACTION', {})) }} for example Twig_Error : The function "controller" does not exist. And if I try to render the url Unknown tag name "render". I guess Symfony 2 twig functionalities are not loaded, how can I do that ? EDIT 3 : Ok, now I can do it, but I've got the following message... Twig_Error_Runtime An exception has been thrown during the rendering of a template ("Rendering a fragment can only be done when handling a master Request.") in ...

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  • Breeze Expand not working on WebAPI with EF

    - by Rodney
    I have published a WebAPI service which returns a list of items. I am implementing Breeze and have managed to get it basically working with filtering/sorting. However, the Expand is not working. http://www.ftter.com/desktopmodules/framework/api/dare/dares/?$filter=DareId%20eq%2010&expand%20eq%20ToUser You can see the ToUserId ForeignKey in the response above, but the ToUser properties are NULL (the user definitely exists) You can see the ToUser EF navigation property in the metadata. When I use .Include on the server side I can populate it with EF, but I don't want to do this. [HttpGet] [Queryable(AllowedQueryOptions = AllowedQueryOptions.All)] public HttpResponseMessage Dares() { var response = Request.CreateResponse(HttpStatusCode.OK, (IQueryable<Dare>)contextProvider.Context.Dares); return ControllerUtilities.GetResponseWithCorsHeader(response); } and here is the generated class from my EF model (using Database First) public partial class Dare { public int DareId { get; set; } public int ToUserId { get; set; } public virtual User ToUser { get; set; } }

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  • Trying to replace contents of a Div, with no luck

    - by bluedaniel
    Ive tried to use the Dom model with no bloody luck, getElementByID just doesnt work for me. I loathe to resort to a regex but not sure what else to do. The idea is to replace a <div id="content_div"> all sorts </div> with a new <div id="content_div"> NEW ALL SORTS HERE </div> and keep anything that was before or after it in the string. The string is a partial HTML string and more specifically out of the wordpress Posts DB. Any ideas? UPDATE: I tagged this question PHP but probably should of mentioned Im looking for a PHP solution only. Update: Code Example $content = ($wpdb->get_var( "SELECT `post_content` FROM $wpdb->posts WHERE ID = {$article[post_id]}" )); $doc = new DOMDocument(); $doc->validateOnParse = true; $doc->loadHTMLFile($content); $element = $doc->getElementById('div_to_edit'); So Ive tried a whole lot of code and this is what Ive got so far, probably not right but Ive been hacking at it for a little while now.

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  • Using C++ DLL in C# project

    - by Frank
    Hello, I got a C++ dll which has to be integrated in a C# project. I think I found the correct way to do it, but calling the dll gives me this error: System.BadImageFormatException: An attempt was made to load a program with an incorrect format. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x8007000B) This is the function in the dll: extern long FAR PASCAL convert (LPSTR filename); And this is the code I'm using in C# namespace Test{ public partial class Form1 : Form { [DllImport("convert.dll", SetLastError = true)] static extern Int32 convert([MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPStr)] string filename); private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // generate textfile string filename = "testfile.txt"; StreamWriter sw = new StreamWriter(filename); sw.WriteLine("line1"); sw.WriteLine("line2"); sw.Close(); // add checksum Int32 ret = 0; try { ret = convert(filename); Console.WriteLine("Result of DLL: {0}", ret.ToString()); } catch (Exception ex) { lbl.Text = ex.ToString(); } } }} Any ideas on how to proceed with this? Thanks a lot, Frank

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  • Expression Blend doesn't recognize command objects declared in code behind file

    - by Brian Ensink
    I have a WPF UserControl. The code behind file declares some RoutedUICommand objects which are referenced in the XAML. The application builds and runs just fine. However Expression Blend 3 cannot load the XAML in the designer and gives errors like this one: The member "ResetCameraCommand" is not recognized or accessible. The class and the member are both public. Building and rebuilding the project in Blend and restarting Blend hasn't helped. Any ideas what the problem is? Here are fragments of my XAML ... <UserControl x:Class="CAP.Visual.CameraAndLightingControl" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:local="clr-namespace:CAP.Visual;assembly=VisualApp" Height="100" Width="700"> <UserControl.CommandBindings> <CommandBinding Command="local:CameraAndLightingControl.ResetCameraCommand" Executed="ResetCamera_Executed" CanExecute="ResetCamera_CanExecute"/> </UserControl.CommandBindings> .... ... and the code behind C# namespace CAP.Visual { public partial class CameraAndLightingControl : UserControl { public readonly static RoutedUICommand ResetCameraCommand; static CameraAndLightingControl() { ResetCameraCommand = new RoutedUICommand("Reset Camera", "ResetCamera", typeof(CameraAndLightingControl)); }

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  • (500) Internal Server Error with C# and Web Dev 2008 Express

    - by user32848
    The code below is generic, found in a variety of places, including a book I have. I have used it as a base for a working program in VS 2005. Now I've resurrected it with my current Visual Web Developer 2008 Express Edition and I seem to have problems connecting it to my default development server (I don't have IIS on my XP). The error is: (500) Internal Server Error. Is this saying what I thought it did (above) or something else, and how do I solve this problem? using System; using System.Collections; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Configuration; using System.IO; using System.Net; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.Security; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; using System.Web.UI.WebControls.WebParts; using System.Web.UI.HtmlControls; using System.Text.RegularExpressions; public partial class _Default : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { string strResult = ""; string url = "http://weather.unisys.com"; WebResponse objResponse; WebRequest objRequest; try { objRequest = System.Net.HttpWebRequest.Create(url); } catch { objRequest = System.Net.HttpWebRequest.Create("http://"+ url); } objResponse = objRequest.GetResponse(); using (StreamReader sr = new StreamReader(objResponse.GetResponseStream())) { strResult = sr.ReadToEnd(); sr.Close(); } } }

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