Search Results

Search found 7529 results on 302 pages for 'replace'.

Page 240/302 | < Previous Page | 236 237 238 239 240 241 242 243 244 245 246 247  | Next Page >

• Bind button visibility to the expresion (C#)

  - by drasto

  I have a delete button in each row of GridView (component ASP.NET). I want some of the delete buttons to be invisible. The visibility of the delete button should depend on the data that are back the row. GridView is backed by EntityDataSource. GridView displays entities called Category, one instance in each row. Entity Category has (besides others) also a field of type EntityCollection. Name of that field is Items. Basically I want to allow user to delete a row only if the Items field of backing Category entity is an empty collection. I cannot make up the binding of Visible property. I have no experience with bindings and Google does not really help. This is how the button looks right now: <asp:Button ID="DeleteButton" runat="server" CommandName="Delete" Text="Delete" Visible=??? ></asp:Button> I don't know what should replace ???. The button schold be visible only when this expression evaluates to true: ((SimpleEShop.Model.Category) dataItem).Items.LongCount() <= 0 where dataItem variable contains data of current row in the table. What is the binding that I need ?

  Read the article

• SharePoint randomly replacing file names in web parts?

  - by nvuono

  Ok SharePoint is driving me crazy and I need to see if anyone has encountered a similar problem or knows of a solution: I have a content editor webpart with some HTML including links to PDF files that I've modified slightly to append an employee number querystring ie: <a href="http://moss.company.com/group/home/EPermits /Blank%20Form%20Templates/_blank_breach_permit.pdf?empNum=">New Breach Permit</a> And SharePoint seems to randomly replace the filename with aab04168 or some other similar characters: <a href="http://moss.company.com/group/home/EPermits /Blank%20Form%20Templates/aab04168?empNum=">New Breach Permit</a> After this happened a few times with no explanation I tried changing the content editor webpart to look directly at a documentLinks.html file located in the Shared Documents folder of the SharePoint site and guess what... SharePoint edited that document and replaced my filenames with random characters in there too! Figuring that filenames beginning with an underscore could be triggering some internal SharePoint procedures I've renamed all the files to remove the starting underscore--unfortunately the problem isn't immediately reproducible and I'm waiting right now to see if I run into any more trouble. edit: the underscore in the filename didn't help... my documentLinks.html wound up getting modified and all the hrefs were replaced with random characters again. Now I'm setting the hrefs in javascript with the filename text concatenated together from multiple strings. linkEle.href = ".../EPermits/Blank%20Form%20Templates/blank" + "_Chemical_Usage.pdf?empNum=" + empNumber;

  Read the article

• Please take a stab at this VB.Net Oracle-related sample and help me with String.Format.

  - by Hamish Grubijan

  If the database is not Oracle, it is MS SQl 2008. My task: if Oracle, add two more parameters when calling a stored proc. Oracle and MSFT stored procs are generated; Oracle ones have 3 extra parameters: Vret_val out number, Vparam2 in out number, Vparam3 in out number, ... the rest (The are not actually named Vparam2 and Vparam3, but this should not matter). So, the code for a helper VB.Net class that calls a stored proc: Imports System.Data.Odbc Imports System.Configuration Dim objCon As OdbcConnection = Nothing Dim objAdapter As OdbcDataAdapter Dim cmdCommand As New OdbcCommand Dim objDataTable As DataTable Dim sconnection As String Try sconnection = mConnectionString objAdapter = New OdbcDataAdapter objCon = New OdbcConnection(sconnection) objCon.Open() objAdapter.SelectCommand = cmdCommand objAdapter.SelectCommand.Connection = objCon objAdapter.SelectCommand.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure objAdapter.SelectCommand.CommandTimeout = Globals.mReportTimeOut If Not mIsOracle Then objAdapter.SelectCommand.CommandText = String.Format("{{call {0}}}", spName) Else Dim returnValue As New OdbcParameter returnValue.Direction = ParameterDirection.Output returnValue.ParameterName = "@Vret_val" returnValue.OdbcType = OdbcType.Numeric objAdapter.SelectCommand.Parameters.Add(returnValue) objAdapter.SelectCommand.CommandText = String.Format("{{call {0}(?)}}", spName) End If Try objDataTable = New DataTable(spName) objAdapter.Fill(objDataTable) Catch ex As Exception ... Question: I am puzzled as to what String.Format("{{call {0}(?)}}", spName) does, in particular the (?) part. My understanding of the String.Format is that it will simply replace {0} with spName. The {{, }}, and (?) do throw me off because { reminds me of formatting, (?) hints at some advanced regex use. Unfortunately I am getting little help from a key person who is on vacation without a leash [smart]phone. I am guessing that I simply add 5 more lines for each additional parameter, and change String.Format("{{call {0}(?)}}", spName) to String.Format("{{call {0}(?,?,?)}}", spName). I forgot to mention that I am coding this "blindly" - I have a compiler to help me, but no environment set up to test this. This will be over in a few days, but I need to do my best to try finishing it on time :) Thanks.

  Read the article

• BeginInvoke on ObservableCollection not immediate.

  - by Padu Merloti

  In my code I subscribe to an event that happens on a different thread. Every time this event happens, I receive an string that is posted to the observable collection: Dispatcher currentDispatcher = Dispatcher.CurrentDispatcher; var SerialLog = new ObservableCollection<string>(); private void hitStation_RawCommandSent(object sender, StringEventArgs e) { string command = e.Value.Replace("\r\n", ""); Action dispatchAction = () => SerialLog.Add(command); currentDispatcher.BeginInvoke(dispatchAction, DispatcherPriority.Render); } The code below is in my view model (could be in the code behind, it doesn't matter in this case). When I call "hitstation.PrepareHit", the event above gets called a couple times, then I wait and call "hitStation.HitBall", and the event above gets called a couple more times. private void HitBall() { try { try { Mouse.OverrideCursor = Cursors.Wait; //prepare hit hitStation.PrepareHit(hitSpeed); Thread.Wait(1000); PlayWarning(); //hit hitStation.HitBall(hitSpeed); } catch (TimeoutException ex) { MessageBox.Show("Timeout hitting ball: " + ex.Message); } } finally { Mouse.OverrideCursor = null; } } The problem I'm having is that the ListBox that is bound to my SerialLog gets updated only when the HitBall method finishes. I was expecting seeing a bunch of updates from the PrepareHit, a pause and then a bunch more updates from the HitBall. I've tried a couple of DispatcherPriority arguments, but they don't seem to have any effect.

  Read the article

• Different EF Property DataType than Storage Layer Possible?

  - by dj_kyron

  Hi, I am putting together a WCF Data Service for PatientEntities using Entity Framework. My solution needs to address these requirements: Property DateOfBirth of entity Patient is stored in SQL Server as string. It would be ideal if the entity class did not also use the "string" type but rather a DateTime type. (I would expect this to be possible since we're abstracting away from the storage layer). Where could a conversion mechanism be put in place that would convert to and from DateTime/string so that the entity and SQL Server are in sync?. I cannot change the storage layer's structure, so I have to work around it. WCF Data Services (Read-only, so no need for saving changes) need to be used since clients will be able to use LINQ expressions to consume the service. They can generate results based on any given query scenario they need and not be constrained by a single method such as GetPatient(int ID). I've tried to use DTOs, but run into problem of mapping the ObjectContext to a DTO, I don't think that is theoretically possible...or too complicated if it is. I've tried to use Self Tracking Entities but they require the metadata from the .edmx file if I'm correct, and this isn't allowing a different property data type. I also want to add customizations to my Entity getter methods so that a property "MRN" of type "string" needs to have .Replace("MR~", string.Empty) performed before it is returned. I can add this to the getter methods but the problem with that is Entity Framework will overwrite that next time it refreshes the entity classes. Is there a permanent place I can put these? Should I use POCO instead? How would that work with WCF Data Services? Where would the service grab the metadata?

  Read the article

• How to use a loop to download HTML with paging?

  - by Nai

  I want to loop through this URL and download the HTML. https://www.googleapis.com/customsearch/v1?key=AIzaSyAAoPQprb6aAV-AfuVjoCdErKTiJHn-4uI&cx=017576662512468239146:omuauf_lfve&q=" + searchTermFormat + "&num=10" +"&start=" + i start and num controls the paging of the URL. So if &start=2, and &num=10, it will scrape 10 results from page 2. Given that Google has a max limit of num = 10, how can I write a loop that loops through the HTML and scrape the results for the first 10 pages? This is what I have so far which just scrapes the first page. //input search term Console.WriteLine("What is your search query?:"); string searchTerm = Console.ReadLine(); //concantenate the strings using + symbol to make it URL friendly for google string searchTermFormat = searchTerm.Replace(" ", "+"); //create a new instance of Webclient and use DownloadString method from the Webclient class to extract download html WebClient client = new WebClient(); int i = 1; string Json = client.DownloadString("https://www.googleapis.com/customsearch/v1?key=AIzaSyAAoPQprb6aAV-AfuVjoCdErKTiJHn-4uI&cx=017576662512468239146:omuauf_lfve&q=" + searchTermFormat + "&num=10" + "&start=" + i); //create a new instance of JavaScriptSerializer and deserialise the desired content JavaScriptSerializer js = new JavaScriptSerializer(); GoogleSearchResults results = js.Deserialize<GoogleSearchResults>(Json); //output results to console Console.WriteLine(js.Serialize(results)); Console.ReadLine();

  Read the article

• Concatenate CLOB-rows with PL/SQL

  - by david K

  Hi, I've got a table which has an id and a clob content like: Create Table v_example_l ( nip number, xmlcontent clob ); We insert our data: Insert into V_EXAMPLE_L (NIP,XMLCONTENT) Values (17852,'<section><block><name>delta</name><content>548484646846484</content></block></section>'); Insert into V_EXAMPLE_L (NIP,XMLCONTENT) Values (17852,'<section><block><name>omega</name><content>545648468484</content></block></section>'); Insert into V_EXAMPLE_L (NIP,XMLCONTENT) Values (17852,'<section><block><name>gamma</name><content>54564846qsdqsdqsdqsd8484</content></block></section>'); I'm trying to do a function that concatenates the rows of the clob that gone be the result of a select, i mean without having to give multiple parameter about the name of table or such, i should only give here the column that contain the clobs, and it should handle the rest. CREATE OR REPLACE function assemble_clob(q varchar2) return clob is v_clob clob; tmp_lob clob; hold VARCHAR2(4000); --cursor c2 is select xmlcontent from V_EXAMPLE_L where id=17852 cur sys_refcursor; begin OPEN cur FOR q; LOOP FETCH cur INTO tmp_lob; EXIT WHEN cur%NOTFOUND; --v_clob := v_clob || XMLTYPE.getClobVal(tmp_lob.xmlcontent); v_clob := v_clob || tmp_lob; END LOOP; return (v_clob); --return (dbms_xmlquery.getXml( dbms_xmlquery.set_context("Select 1 from dual")) ) end assemble_clob; The function is broken... (if anybody could give me a help, thanks a lot, and i'm noob in sql so ....). Thanks!

  Read the article

• LINQ Join on Dictionary<K,T> where only K is changed.

  - by Stacey

  Assuming type TModel, TKey, and TValue. In a dictionary where KeyValuePair is declared, I need to merge TKey into a separate model of KeyValuePair where TKey in the original dictionary refers to an identifier in a list of TModel that will replace the item in the Dictionary. public TModel { public Guid Id { get; set; } // ... } public Dictionary<Guid, TValue> contains the elements. TValue relates to the TModel. The serialized/stored object is like this.. public SerializedModel { public Dictionary<Guid,TValue> Items { get; set; } } So I need to construct a new model... KeyValueModel { public Dictionary<TModel, TValue> { get; set; } } KeyValueModel kvm = = (from tModels in controller.ModelRepository.List<Models.Models>() join matchingModels in storedInformation.Items on tModels.Id equals matchingModels select tModels).ToDictionary( c => c.Id, storedInformation.Items.Values ) This linq query isn't doing what I'm wanting, but I think I'm at least headed in the right direction. Can anyone assist with the query? The original object is stored as a KeyValuePair. I need to merge the Guid Keys in the Dictionary to their actual related objects in another object (List) so that the final result is KeyValuePair. And as for what the query is not doing for me... it isn't compiling or running. It just says that "Join is not valid".

  Read the article

• how to recieve text sms to specific port..

  - by Umesh

  recieve text sms to specific port.. I have been looking for an answer to this question but but to no avail. This question has been popped a few times but nobody seems to have a clear answer. my code is as follows.. --MANIFEST FILE-- <receiver android:name=".SMSRecieve" android:enabled="true" <intent-filter <action android:name="android.intent.action.DATA_SMS_RECEIVED"/ <data android:scheme="sms" / <data android:host="localhost" / <data android:port="15005" / </intent-filter </receiver --SMS sending method-- String messageText = msgTxt.getText().toString(); short SMS_PORT = 15005; SmsManager smsManager = SmsManager.getDefault(); smsManager.sendDataMessage("5556", null, SMS_PORT, messageText.getBytes(), null, null); --Broadcast Reciever code-- static final String ACTION = "android.intent.action.DATA_SMS_RECEIVED"; //static final String ACTION = "android.provider.Telephony.SMS_RECEIVED";(tried this too, but failed) if (intent.getAction().equals(SMSNotifyExample.ACTION)) { ...do some work.. } I also tried to replace android:name to "android.provider.Telephony.SMS_RECEIVED" but the result is the same. my application does not recieve the SMS on the specified port. Once i remove the following line its works fine <data android:scheme="sms" / <data android:host="localhost" / <data android:port="15005" / could you suggest me what am i missing??

  Read the article

• Porting - Shared Memory x32 & x64 processes

  - by dpb

  A 32 bit host Windows application setups shared memory (using memory mapped file / CreateFileMapping() API), and then other 32 bit client processes use this shared memory to communicate with each other. I am planning to port the host application to 64 bit platform and once it is ready, I intend that both 32 bit and 64 bit client processes should be able to use the shared memory setup by the main 64 bit host application. The original code written for host x32 application uses "size_t" almost everywhere, since this differs from 4 bytes to 8 bytes as we move from x32 to x64, I am looking for replacing it. I intend to replace "size_t" by "unsigned long long", so that its size will be same on 32 bit & 64 bit. Can you please suggest me better alternative? Also, will the use of "unsigned long long" have performance impact on x32 app .. i guess yes? Research Done - Found very useful articles - a) 20 issue in porting from 32 bit to 64 bit (www.viva64.com) b) No way to restrict/change "size_t" on x64 platform to 4 bytes using compiler flags or any hooks/crooks since it is typedef

  Read the article

• How to pass a Dictionary variable to another procedure

  - by salvationishere

  I am developing a C# VS2008/SQL Server website application. I've never used the Dictionary class before, but I am trying to replace my Hashtable with a Dictionary variable. Here is a portion of my aspx.cs code: ... Dictionary<string, string> openWith = new Dictionary<string, string>(); for (int col = 0; col < headers.Length; col++) { @temp = (col + 1); @tempS = @temp.ToString(); @tempT = "@col" + @temp.ToString(); ... openWith.Add(@tempT, headers[col]); } ... for (int r = 0; r < myInputFile.Rows.Count; r++) { resultLabel.Text = ADONET_methods.AppendDataCT(myInputFile, openWith); } But this is giving me a compiler error on this last line: Argument '2': cannot convert from 'System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary' to 'string' How do I pass the entire openWith variable to AppendDataCT? AppendDataCT is the method that calls my SQL stored proc. I want to pass in the whole row where each row has a unique set of values that I want to add to my database table. For example, if each row requires values for cells A, B, and C, then I want to pass these 3 values to AppendDataCT, where all of these values are strings. How do I do this with Dictionary?

  Read the article

• Javascript problem with location.href.

  - by Patrick

  Hello! I have a textbox and whenever the user presses a key it's checked to see if the user pressed enter. If the enter key is pressed, i want to add all the info in the textbox and transfer the user to a different url. <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> function checkEnter(e){ //e is event object passed from function invocation var characterCode; if(e && e.which){ //if which property of event object is supported (NN4) e = e; characterCode = e.which; //character code is contained in NN4's which property } else{ e = event; characterCode = e.keyCode; //character code is contained in IE's keyCode property } if (characterCode == 13) { //if generated character code is equal to ascii 13 (if enter key) var searchLink = '/Search/?Keywords=' + document.getElementById('<%= searchBox.ClientID %>').value; transferUser(searchLink); return false; } else{ return true; } } function transferUser(url) { window.location.href = url; window.location.replace(url); } </script> Search: <input name="ctl00$searchBox" type="text" id="ctl00_searchBox" class="header_line_search_box_textbox" onKeyPress="checkEnter(event);" /> I have tried every possible combination, but nothing happens. The site just refreshes itself. I also need somehow to convert the text from the user to html safe, must like the HttpUtility.EncodeUrl in aspx.

  Read the article

• Javascript Rich Display WYSIWYG Component/Methodology

  - by Laramie

  quick back story-- I am working on ASP.Net based template editor that lets authors create text templates using Javascript inserted placeholder tags that will be filled in with dynamic text when the templates are used to display the final results. For example the author might create a template like The word [%12#add] was generated dynamically. The application would eventually replace the tag with a dynamic word down the road (though it's not specifically relevant to this post) The word foo was generated dynmamically. Depending on the circumstances, the template may be created in a text input, textarea or a modified version of the Ajax Control Toolkit HTML Editor. There might be 40 or more of these editable elements on the page, so using lots of stripped down or modified HTML editors would probably bog the page down too much. The problem is that the tags such as [%12#add] are displayed inline with the user text and the result is confusing and aesthetically gross. The goal is parse the contens of the source element and when a tags such as [%12#add] are encountered, display something prettier and less cryptic to the user such as a stylable element or image wherever tags such as [%12#add] occur. The application still needs the template text with the tags on postback. So the user might see The word tag placeholder was generated dynamically. but the original template would still be the value of the text input box The word [%12#add] was generated dynamically. It seems HTML editors like the ACT version and FckEditor accomplish this by rendering their output in an IFrame, but rather than kill myself trying to roll a lighter specialized version myself, I thought I'd ask if anyone knows of an existing free component or approach that has already tackled this. With good reason, I don't think S.O. allows HTML formatting, but the bold "tag placeholder" above would ideally be something like tag placeholder.

  Read the article

• Testing for interface implementation in WCF/SOA

  - by rabidpebble

  I have a reporting service that implements a number of reports. Each report requires certain parameters. Groups of logically related parameters are placed in an interface, which the report then implements: [ServiceContract] [ServiceKnownType(typeof(ExampleReport))] public interface IService1 { [OperationContract] void Process(IReport report); } public interface IReport { string PrintedBy { get; set; } } public interface IApplicableDateRangeParameter { DateTime StartDate { get; set; } DateTime EndDate { get; set; } } [DataContract] public abstract class Report : IReport { [DataMember] public string PrintedBy { get; set; } } [DataContract] public class ExampleReport : Report, IApplicableDateRangeParameter { [DataMember] public DateTime StartDate { get; set; } [DataMember] public DateTime EndDate { get; set; } } The problem is that the WCF DataContractSerializer does not expose these interfaces in my client library, thus I can't write the generic report generating front-end that I plan to. Can WCF expose these interfaces, or is this a limitation of the serializer? If the latter case, then what is the canonical approach to this OO pattern? I've looked into NetDataContractSerializer but it doesn't seem to be an officially supported implementation (which means it's not an option in my project). Currently I've resigned myself to including the interfaces in a library that is common between the service and the client application, but this seems like an unnecessary extra dependency to me. Surely there is a more straightforward way to do this? I was under the impression that WCF was supposed to replace .NET remoting; checking if an object implements an interface seems to be one of the most basic features required of a remoting interface?

  Read the article

• postgres stored procedure problem

  - by easyrider

  Hi all, Ich have a problem in postgres function: CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION getVar(id bigint) RETURNS TABLE (repoid bigint, suf VARCHAR, nam VARCHAR) AS $$ declare rec record; BEGIN FOR rec IN (WITH RECURSIVE children(repoobjectid,variant_of_object_fk, suffix, variantname) AS ( SELECT repoobjectid, variant_of_object_fk, '' as suffix,variantname FROM b2m.repoobject_tab WHERE repoobjectid = id UNION ALL SELECT repo.repoobjectid, repo.variant_of_object_fk, suffix || '..' , repo.variantname FROM b2m.repoobject_tab repo, children WHERE children.repoobjectid = repo.variant_of_object_fk) SELECT repoobjectid,suffix,variantname FROM children) LOOP RETURN next; END LOOP; RETURN; END; It can be compiled, but if y try to call it select * from getVar(18) I got 8 empty rows with 3 columns. If i execute the following part of procedure with hard-coded id parameter: WITH RECURSIVE children(repoobjectid,variant_of_object_fk, suffix, variantname) AS ( SELECT repoobjectid, variant_of_object_fk, '' as suffix,variantname FROM b2m.repoobject_tab WHERE repoobjectid = 18 UNION ALL SELECT repo.repoobjectid, repo.variant_of_object_fk, suffix || '..' , repo.variantname FROM b2m.repoobject_tab repo, children WHERE children.repoobjectid = repo.variant_of_object_fk) SELECT repoobjectid,suffix,variantname FROM children I got exactly, what i need 8 rows with data: repoobjectid suffix variantname 18 19 .. for IPhone 22 .. for Nokia 23 .... OS 1.0 and so on. What is going wrong ? Please help. Thanx in advance

  Read the article

• Increment non unique field during SQL insert

  - by phill

  I'm not sure how to word this cause I am a little confused at the moment, so bare with me while I attempt to explain, I have a table with the following fields: OrderLineID, OrderID, OrderLine, and a few other unimportant ones. OrderLineID is the primary key and is always unique(which isn't a problem), OrderID is a foreign key that isn't unique(also not a problem), and OrderLine is a value that is not unique in the table, but should be unique for any OrderIDs that are the same...so if that didn't make sense, perhaps a picture OrderLineID, OrderID, OrderLine 1 1 1 2 1 2 3 1 3 4 2 1 5 2 2 For all OrderIDs there is a unique OrderLine. I am trying to create an insert statement that gets the max OrderLine value for a specific OrderId so I can increment it, but it's not working so well and I could use a little help. What I have right now is below, I build the sql statement in a program and replace OrderID # with an actual value. I am pretty sure the problem is with the nested select statement, and incrementing the result, but I can't find any examples that do this since my google skills are weak apparently.... INSERT INTO tblOrderLine (OrderID, OrderLine) VALUES (<OrderID #>, (SELECT MAX(OrderLine) FROM tblOrderLine WHERE orderID = <same OrderID #>)+1) any help would be nice.

  Read the article

• How much effort do you have to put in to get gains from using SSE?

  - by John

  Case One Say you have a little class: class Point3D { private: float x,y,z; public: operator+=() ...etc }; Point3D &Point3D::operator+=(Point3D &other) { this->x += other.x; this->y += other.y; this->z += other.z; } A naive use of SSE would simply replace these function bodies with using a few intrinsics. But would we expect this to make much difference? MMX used to involve costly state cahnges IIRC, does SSE or are they just like other instructions? And even if there's no direct "use SSE" overhead, would moving the values into SSE registers and back out again really make it any faster? Case Two Instead, you're working with a less OO-based code base. Rather than an array/vector of Point3D objects, you simply have a big array of floats: float coordinateData[NUM_POINTS*3]; void add(int i,int j) //yes it's unsafe, no overlap check... example only { for (int x=0;x<3;++x) { coordinateData[i*3+x] += coordinateData[j*3+x]; } } What about use of SSE here? Any better? In conclusion Is trying to optimise single vector operations using SSE actually worthwhile, or is it really only valuable when doing bulk operations?

  Read the article

• iPhone SDK allow touches to affect multiple views

  - by Parad0x13

  I have a main view that has has two buttons on it that control methods to display the next image and display the previous image. In this case the 'Image' is a class that inherits from UIImageView and has multiple pictures on it that you can interact with, and I call this class a 'Pane'. The pane itself handles all the user interaction itself while the main view controls the display of next and previous panes with the buttons. Here is my dilemma, because the pane fully covers the main view it wont allow for the user to tap the buttons on the main view! So once a pane pops up you cannot change it via the buttons! Is there a way to allow touches through transparent parts of a view, or if not how in the world do I achieve this?! I cannot pass touchesBegan or any of those methods from the pane to the superview because all of the button touch methods are created in the xib file. I cannot insert the pane under the control panel because then you wouldn't be able to interact with the pane. And as far as I know theres no way to pass touch events to every single pane within the paneHoldingArray that belongs to the main view I cannot add the command buttons inside of the pane because I want to be able to replace the command button's image with a thumbprint render of the next/previous pane. I've been stuck on this for a very long time, please somebody help me out with a fix action or a new way to re-engineer the code so that it will work!

  Read the article

• ASP.NET MVC2 and Browser Caching

  - by Dan

  Hi I have a web application that fetches a lot of content via ajax. For example when a user edits some data, the browser will send the changes using an ajax post and then do an ajax get to get fresh content and replace an existing div on the page with that content. This was working just find with MVC1, but in MVC2 I would get inconsistent results. I've found that MVC1 by default included an Expires item in the response headers set to the current time, but in MVC2 the Expires header is missing. This is a problem with some browsers (IE8) actually using the cached version of the ajax get instead of the fresh version. To deal with the problem I created a simple ActionFilterAttribute that sets the reponse cache to NoCache (see below), which works, but it seems kind of sillly to decorate every controller with this attribute. Is there a global way to set this for every controller? Is this a bug in MVC2 and it really should be setting the expires on every ActionResult/view/page? Don't most MVC programs deal with data entry where stale data is a very bad thing? Thanks Dan public class ResponseNoCachingAttribute : ActionFilterAttribute { public override void OnResultExecuted(ResultExecutedContext filterContext) { base.OnResultExecuted(filterContext); filterContext.HttpContext.Response.Cache.SetCacheability(System.Web.HttpCacheability.NoCache); } }

  Read the article

• Getting broken link error whle Using App Engine service accounts

  - by jade

  I'm following this tutorial https://developers.google.com/bigquery/docs/authorization#service-accounts-appengine Here is my main.py code import httplib2 from apiclient.discovery import build from google.appengine.ext import webapp from google.appengine.ext.webapp.util import run_wsgi_app from oauth2client.appengine import AppAssertionCredentials # BigQuery API Settings SCOPE = 'https://www.googleapis.com/auth/bigquery' PROJECT_NUMBER = 'XXXXXXXXXX' # REPLACE WITH YOUR Project ID # Create a new API service for interacting with BigQuery credentials = AppAssertionCredentials(scope=SCOPE) http = credentials.authorize(httplib2.Http()) bigquery_service = build('bigquery', 'v2', http=http) class ListDatasets(webapp.RequestHandler): def get(self): datasets = bigquery_service.datasets() listReply = datasets.list(projectId=PROJECT_NUMBER).execute() self.response.out.write('Dataset list:') self.response.out.write(listReply) application = webapp.WSGIApplication( [('/listdatasets(.*)', ListDatasets)], debug=True) def main(): run_wsgi_app(application) if __name__ == "__main__": main() Here is my app.yaml file code application: bigquerymashup version: 1 runtime: python api_version: 1 handlers: - url: /favicon\.ico static_files: favicon.ico upload: favicon\.ico - url: .* script: main.py And yes i have added app engine service account name in google api console Team tab with can edit permissions. When upload the app and try to access the link it says Oops! This link appears to be broken. Ealier i ran this locally and tried to access it using link localhost:8080.Then i thought may be running locally might be giving the error so i uploaded my code to http://bigquerymashup.appspot.com/ but still its giving error.

  Read the article

• Custom control doesn't fire validation

  - by Ed Woodcock

  I've written a custom ASP.net control that descends from LinkButton and overrides the Render() method. I'm using it to replace ImageButtons in the site I'm working on so we don't have to have an image for each button. This control works fine, does the required post-backs etc., however it doesn't fire the validators in its validation group. This is obviously an issue. The code for the control is (condensed) as follows: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; public class CustomButton : LinkButton { public string SpanCssClass { get; set; } protected override void Render(HtmlTextWriter writer) { if (!Visible) { return; } writer.AddAttribute(HtmlTextWriterAttribute.Name, UniqueID); writer.AddAttribute(HtmlTextWriterAttribute.Id, ClientID); writer.AddAttribute(HtmlTextWriterAttribute.Class, CssClass); string postback = string.IsNullOrEmpty(OnClientClick) ? "javascript:__doPostBack('" + UniqueID + "','');" : OnClientClick; writer.AddAttribute(HtmlTextWriterAttribute.Href, postback); writer.RenderBeginTag(HtmlTextWriterTag.A); writer.AddAttribute(HtmlTextWriterAttribute.Class, SpanCssClass); writer.RenderBeginTag(HtmlTextWriterTag.Span); writer.Write(Text); writer.RenderEndTag(); writer.RenderEndTag(); } } Does anyone know why this would not be causing the validators to fire? I was under the impression that leaving all the other methods in LinkButton un-overridden would leave all the other functionality the same!

  Read the article

• how to get jquery.couch.app.js to work with IE8

  - by fuzzy lollipop

  I have tested this on Windows XP SP3 and Windows 7 Ultimate in IE7 and IE8 (in all compatiblity modes) and it fails the same way on both. I am running the latest HEAD from the the couchapp repository. This works fine on my OSX 10.6.3 development machine. I have tested with Chrome 4.1.249.1064 (45376) and Firefox 3.6 and they both work fine. As do the Safari 4 and Firefox 3.6 on OSX 10.6.3 Here is the error message Webpage error details User Agent: Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 8.0; Windows NT 6.1; Trident/4.0; SLCC2; .NET CLR 2.0.50727; .NET CLR 3.5.30729; .NET CLR 3.0.30729; Media Center PC 6.0) Timestamp: Wed, 28 Apr 2010 03:32:55 UTC Message: Object doesn't support this property or method Line: 159 Char: 7 Code: 0 URI: http://192.168.0.105:5984/test/_design/test/vendor/couchapp/jquery.couch.app.js and here is the "offending" bit of code, which works on Chrome, Firefox and Safari just fine. If says the failure is on the like that qs.forEach() from the file jquery.couch.app.js 157 var qs = document.location.search.replace(/^\?/,'').split('&'); 158 var q = {}; 159 qs.forEach(function(param) { 160 var ps = param.split('='); 161 var k = decodeURIComponent(ps[0]); 162 var v = decodeURIComponent(ps[1]); 163 if (["startkey", "endkey", "key"].indexOf(k) != -1) { 164 q[k] = JSON.parse(v); 165 } else { 166 q[k] = v; 167 } 168 });

  Read the article

• WPF - How to stop an ItemsControl psuedo-grid's columns from dancing/jumping around during layout

  - by Drew Noakes

  Several other questions on SO have come to the same conclusion I have -- using an ItemsControl with a DataTemplate for each item constructed to position items such that they resemble a grid is much simpler (especially to format) than using a ListView. The code resembles: <StackPanel Grid.IsSharedSizeScope="True"> <!-- Header --> <Grid> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="Auto" SharedSizeGroup="Column1" /> <ColumnDefinition Width="Auto" SharedSizeGroup="Column2" /> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <TextBlock Grid.Column="0" Text="Column Header 1" /> <TextBlock Grid.Column="1" Text="Column Header 2" /> </Grid> <!-- Items --> <ItemsControl ItemsSource="{Binding Path=Values, Mode=OneWay}"> <ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Grid> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="Auto" SharedSizeGroup="Column1" /> <ColumnDefinition Width="Auto" SharedSizeGroup="Column2" /> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <TextBlock Grid.Column="0" Text="{Binding ColumnProperty1}" /> <TextBlock Grid.Column="1" Text="{Binding ColumnProperty2}" /> </Grid> </DataTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> </ItemsControl> </StackPanel> The problem I'm seeing is that whenever I swap the object to which the ItemsSource is bound (it's an ObservableCollection that I replace the reference to, rather than clear and re-add), the entire 'grid' dances about for a few seconds. Presumably it is making a few layout passes to get all the Auto-width columns to match up. This is very distracting for my users and I'd like to get it sorted out. Has anyone else seen this?

  Read the article

• Submit form with JS

  - by Thomas

  Im working with a shopping cart plugin and that uses a basic form on the product page to submit values like price, product name, etc.. The problem is that the plugin uses a standard submit button to send the values and I would like to replace said button with a prettier custom jquery rollover. In order to make this happen I used some JS and tossed a link around my custom submit button: <a href="#" onclick="document.forms[0].submit()" value="Add to Cart" onsubmit="return ReadForm(this, true);"> <img class="fade" src="style/img/add_btn.jpg" style="background: url(style/img/add_ro.png);" alt=""/> </a> The form submits and the user is redirected to the homepage but the data in the form doesn't seem to get submitted and the product never gets added to the 'cart' page. I suspect that the form is getting submitted but I am failing to fire some additional JS function that submits the data. The plugin adds some JS to the top of the page: <!-- // function ReadForm (obj1, tst) { // Read the user form var i,j,pos; val_total="";val_combo=""; for (i=0; i<obj1.length; i++) { // run entire form obj = obj1.elements[i]; // a form element if (obj.type == "select-one") { // just selects if (obj.name == "quantity" || obj.name == "amount") continue; pos = obj.selectedIndex; // which option selected val = obj.options[pos].value; // selected value val_combo = val_combo + "(" + val + ")"; } } // Now summarize everything we have processed above val_total = obj1.product_tmp.value + val_combo; obj1.product.value = val_total; } //--> If you want to check out the the site in question, take a look here and click 'add to cart button': http://hardtopdepot.com/?p=34 You can see the cart at the top: http://hardtopdepot.com/?page_id=50 Any help would be super appreciated- thanks!

  Read the article

• PHP: Best solution for links breaking in a mod_rewrite app

  - by psil

  I'm using mod rewrite to redirect all requests targeting non-existent files/directories to index.php?url=* This is surely the most common thing you do with mod_rewrite yet I have a problem: Naturally, if the page url is "mydomain.com/blog/view/1", the browser will look for images, stylesheets and relative links in the "virtual" directory "mydomain.com/blog/view/". Problem 1: Is using the base tag the best solution? I see that none of the PHP frameworks out there use the base tag, though. I'm currently having a regex replace all the relative links to point to the right path before output. Is that "okay"? Problem 2: It is possible that the server doesn't support mod_rewrite. However, all public files like images, stylesheets and the requests collector index.php are located in the directory /myapp/public. Normally mod_rewrite points all request to /public so it seems as if public was actually the root directory too all users. However if there is no mod_rewrite, I then have to point the users to /public from the root directory with a header() call. That means, however that all links are broken again because suddenly all images, etc. have to be called via /public/myimage.jpg Additional info: When there is no mod_rewrite the above request would look like this: mydomain.com/public/index.php/blog/view/1 What would be the best solutions for both problems?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 236 237 238 239 240 241 242 243 244 245 246 247  | Next Page >