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  • IS operator behaving a bit strangely

    - by flockofcode
    1) According to my book, IS operator can check whether expression E (E is type) can be converted to the target type only if E is either a reference conversion, boxing or unboxing. Since in the following example IS doesn’t check for either of the three types of conversion, the code shouldn’t work, but it does: int i=100; if (i is long) //returns true, indicating that conversion is possible l = i; 2) a) B b; A a = new A(); if (a is B) b = (B)a; int i = b.l; class A { public int l = 100; } class B:A { } The above code always causes compile time error “Use of unassigned variable”. If condition a is B evaluates to false, then b won’t be assigned a value, but if condition is true, then it will. And thus by allowing such a code compiler would have no way of knowing whether the usage of b in code following the if statement is valid or not ( due to not knowing whether a is b evaluates to true or false) , but why should it know that? Intsead why couldn’t runtime handle this? b) But if instead we’re dealing with non reference types, then compiler doesn’t complain, even though the code is identical.Why? int i = 100; long l; if (i is long) l = i; thank you

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  • Firefox "intelligently" and silently fixes incorrect file references in CSS and Scripts at runtime.

    - by bobsoap
    Well this is a really weird issue, I really didn't find anything on this elsewhere so I thought I'd address it here. Say I have an "image.jpg" and accidentally reference it in the CSS like so: url(imag.jpg) Note the missing "e". Now for me, Firefox is so incredibly clever that it will still find the correct image, but NOT SPIT OUT A WARNING. So I assume that everything is ok. But later, when I test the page in any other browser, all of a sudden the image doesn't display (and rightly so). That's because Firefox thought it was a good idea to correct my error without telling me. This becomes more critical with scripts. Firefox will also auto-correct a typo in a reference. I just wasted a whole hour scratching my head and trying to debug an ajax function in Webkit - turns out, I just had a typo where I included the file. Why on earth does Firefox do this without telling, and where the heck can I turn this off? This has first occured somewhere around FF 3.0 and still persists in 3.6.3. /rant an thank fo any inpu ;)

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  • Is there a jQuery Equivalent of YUI 2 Custom Event Publish/Subscribe Event Model?

    - by Abe
    Hello! I learned how to develop in Javascript using the YUI 2 library and was wondering if there is a jQuery equivalent of Custom Events (http://developer.yahoo.com/yui/event/#customevent) Specifically, I want to be able to define custom events without having to attach the listeners initially. In YUI, I would create a page class and declare different custom events that can be subscribed to. Below is some example code to demonstrate what I want to do, but with jQuery function ListPage() { var me = this; this.initEvent = new YAHOO.util.CustomEvent("initEvent"); this.init = function() { // initialize events, DOM, etc this.initEvent.fire(me); } } In application Javascript, I would then like to subscribe to the initEvent. var page = new ListPage(); page.initEvent.subscribe( function (type, args) { // do stuff here } ); page.init(); Are there any tutorials/examples of something this in jQuery? I understand I can do something similar using bind() and trigger(), but the impression I get is I have to pass in the event handler when I call bind(). Is it possible in jQuery to create the custom event, but pass in the event handler later? I hope my question makes sense. thanks!

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  • mvc design in a card game

    - by Hong
    I'm trying to make a card game. some classes I have are: CardModel, CardView; DeckModel, DeckView. The deck model has a list of card model, According to MVC, if I want to send a card to a deck, I can add the card model to the deck model, and the card view will be added to the deck view by a event handler. So I have a addCard(CardModel m) in the DeckModel class, but if I want to send a event to add the card view of that model to the deck view, I only know let the model has a reference to view. So the question is: If the card model and deck model have to have a reference to their view classes to do it? If not, how to do it better? Update, the code: public class DeckModel { private ArrayList<CardModel> cards; private ArrayList<EventHandler> actionEventHandlerList; public void addCard(CardModel card){ cards.add(card); //processEvent(event x); //must I pass a event that contain card view here? } CardModel getCards(int index){ return cards.get(index); } public synchronized void addEventHandler(EventHandler l){ if(actionEventHandlerList == null) actionEventHandlerList = new ArrayList<EventHandler>(); if(!actionEventHandlerList.contains(l)) actionEventHandlerList.add(l); } public synchronized void removeEventHandler(EventHandler l){ if(actionEventHandlerList!= null && actionEventHandlerList.contains(l)) actionEventHandlerList.remove(l); } private void processEvent(Event e){ ArrayList list; synchronized(this){ if(actionEventHandlerList!= null) list = (ArrayList)actionEventHandlerList.clone(); else return; } for(int i=0; i<actionEventHandlerList.size(); ++i){ actionEventHandlerList.get(i).handle(e); } } }

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  • Why are my bound parameters all identical (using Linq)?

    - by Scott Stafford
    When I run this snippet of code: string[] words = new string[] { "foo", "bar" }; var results = from row in Assets select row; foreach (string word in words) { results = results.Where(row => row.Name.Contains(word)); } I get this SQL: -- Region Parameters DECLARE @p0 VarChar(5) = '%bar%' DECLARE @p1 VarChar(5) = '%bar%' -- EndRegion SELECT ... FROM [Assets] AS [t0] WHERE ([t0].[Name] LIKE @p0) AND ([t0].[Name] LIKE @p1) Note that @p0 and @p1 are both bar, when I wanted them to be foo and bar. I guess Linq is somehow binding a reference to the variable word rather than a reference to the string currently referenced by word? What is the best way to avoid this problem? (Also, if you have any suggestions for a better title for this question, please put it in the comments.) Note that I tried this with regular Linq also, with the same results (you can paste this right into Linqpad): string[] words = new string[] { "f", "a" }; string[] dictionary = new string[] { "foo", "bar", "jack", "splat" }; var results = from row in dictionary select row; foreach (string word in words) { results = results.Where(row => row.Contains(word)); } results.Dump(); Dumps: bar jack splat

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  • In Castle Windsor, can I register a Interface component and get a proxy of the implementation?

    - by Thiado de Arruda
    Lets consider some cases: _windsor.Register(Component.For<IProductServices>().ImplementedBy<ProductServices>().Interceptors(typeof(SomeInterceptorType)); In this case, when I ask for a IProductServices windsor will proxy the interface to intercept the interface method calls. If instead I do this : _windsor.Register(Component.For<ProductServices>().Interceptors(typeof(SomeInterceptorType)); then I cant ask for windsor to resolve IProductServices, instead I ask for ProductServices and it will return a dynamic subclass that will intercept virtual method calls. Of course the dynamic subclass still implements 'IProductServices' My question is : Can I register the Interface component like the first case, and get the subclass proxy like in the second case?. There are two reasons for me wanting this: 1 - Because the code that is going to resolve cannot know about the ProductServices class, only about the IProductServices interface. 2 - Because some event invocations that pass the sender as a parameter, will pass the ProductServices object, and in the first case this object is a field on the dynamic proxy, not the real object returned by windsor. Let me give an example of how this can complicate things : Lets say I have a custom collection that does something when their items notify a property change: private void ItemChanged(object sender, PropertyChangedEventArgs e) { int senderIndex = IndexOf(sender); SomeActionOnItemIndex(senderIndex); } This code will fail if I added an interface proxy, because the sender will be the field in the interface proxy and the IndexOf(sender) will return -1.

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  • Conditional compilation hackery in C# - is there a way to pull this off?

    - by Chris
    I have an internal API that I would like others to reference in their projects as a compiled DLL. When it's a standalone project that's referenced, I use conditional compilation (#if statements) to switch behavior of a key web service class depending on compilation symbols. The problem is, once an assembly is generated, it appears that it's locked into whatever the compilation symbols were when it was originally compiled - for instance, if this assembly is compiled with DEBUG and is referenced by another project, even if the other project is built as RELEASE, the assembly still acts as if it was in DEBUG as it doesn't need recompilation. That makes sense, just giving some background. Now I'm trying to work around that so I can switch the assembly's behavior by some other means, such as scanning the app/web config file for a switch. The problem is, some of the assembly's code I was switching between are attributes on methods, for example: #if PRODUCTION [SoapDocumentMethodAttribute("https://prodServer/Service_Test", RequestNamespace = "https://prodServer", ResponseNamespace = "https://prodServer")] #else [SoapDocumentMethodAttribute("https://devServer/Service_Test", RequestNamespace = "https://devServer", ResponseNamespace = "https://devServer")] #endif public string Service_Test() { // test service } Though there might be some syntactical sugar that allows me to flip between two attributes of the same type in another fashion, I don't know it. Any ideas? The alternative method would be to reference the entire project instead of the assembly, but I'd rather stick with just referencing the compiled DLL if I can. I'm also completely open to a whole new approach to solve the problem if that's what it takes.

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  • Does std::vector change its address? How to avoid

    - by kunigami
    Since vector elements are stored contiguously, I guess it may not have the same address after some push_back's , because the initial allocated space could not suffice. I'm working on a code where I need a reference to an element in a vector, like: int main(){ vector<int> v; v.push_back(1); int *ptr = &v[0]; for(int i=2; i<100; i++) v.push_back(i); cout << *ptr << endl; //? return 0; } But it's not necessarily true that ptr contains a reference to v[0], right? How would be a good way to guarantee it? My first idea would be to use a vector of pointers and dynamic allocation. I'm wondering if there's an easier way to do that? PS.: Actually I'm using a vector of a class instead of int, but I think the issues are the same.

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  • Creating a function to grab data from an Oracle database (array by ID)

    - by Nick
    I'm trying to create a function that will simply allow me to pass an SQL statement into it, and it will generate an array based on a unique ID I pass it: function oracleGetGata($query, $id="id") { global $conn; $sql = OCI_Parse($conn, $query); OCI_Execute($sql); OCI_Fetch_All($sql, $results, null, null, OCI_FETCHSTATEMENT_BY_ROW); return $results; }   For example I'd like this query $array = oracleGetData('select * from table') to return something like: [1] => Array ( [Title] => Title 1 [Description] => Description 1 ) [2] => Array ( [Title] => Title 2 [Description] => Description 2 ) [3] => Array ( [Title] => Title 3 [Description] => Description 3 )   Rather than what it's returning at the moment: [0] => Array ( [ID] => 3 [TITLE] => Title 3 [DESCRIPTION] => Description 3 ) [1] => Array ( [ID] => 1 [TITLE] => Title 1 [DESCRIPTION] => Description 1 ) [2] => Array ( [ID] => 2 [TITLE] => Title 2 [DESCRIPTION] => Description 2 )   I'd really appreciate any help with this, as the function would save me lots of time! Thank you.

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  • What is the meaning of @ModelAttribute annotation at method argument level?

    - by beemaster
    Spring 3 reference teaches us: When you place it on a method parameter, @ModelAttribute maps a model attribute to the specific, annotated method parameter I don't understand this magic spell, because i sure that model object's alias (key value if using ModelMap as return type) passed to the View after executing of the request handler method. Therefore when request handler method executes the model object's name can't be mapped to the method parameter. To solve this contradiction i went to stackoverflow and found this detailed example. The author of example said: // The "personAttribute" model has been passed to the controller from the JSP It seems, he is charmed by Spring reference... To dispel the charms i deployed his sample app in my environment and cruelly cut @ModelAttribute annotation from method MainController.saveEdit. As result the application works without any changes! So i conclude: the @ModelAttribute annotation is not needed to pass web form's field values to the argument's fields. Then i stuck to the question: what is the mean of @ModelAttribute annotation? If the only mean is to set alias for model object in View, then why this way better than explicitly adding of object to ModelMap?

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  • Django url rewrites and passing a parameter from Javascript

    - by William T Wild
    As a bit of a followup question to my previous , I need to pass a parameter to a view. This parameter is not known until the JS executes. In my URLConf: url(r'^person/device/program/oneday/(?P<meter_id>\d+)/(?P<day_of_the_week>\w+)/$', therm_control.Get_One_Day_Of_Current_Thermostat_Schedule.as_view(), name="one-day-url"), I can pass it this URL and it works great! ( thanks to you guys). http://127.0.0.1:8000/personview/person/device/program/oneday/149778/Monday/ In My template I have this: var one_day_url = "{% url personview:one-day-url meter_id=meter_id day_of_the_week='Monday' %}"; In my javascript: $.ajax({ type: 'GET', url: one_day_url , dataType: "json", timeout: 30000, beforeSend: beforeSendCallback, success: successCallback, error: errorCallback, complete: completeCallback }); When this triggers it works fine except I dont necessarily want Monday all the time. If I change the javascript to this: var one_day_url = "{% url personview:one-day-url meter_id=meter_id %}"; and then $.ajax({ type: 'GET', url: one_day_url + '/Monday/', dataType: "json", timeout: 30000, beforeSend: beforeSendCallback, success: successCallback, error: errorCallback, complete: completeCallback }); I get the Caught NoReverseMatch while rendering error. I assume because the URLconf still wants to rewrite to include the ?P\w+) . I seems like if I change the URL conf that breaks the abailty to find the view , and if I do what I do above it gives me the NoREverseMatch error. Any guidance would be appreciated.

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  • What else I must do allow my method to handle any type of objects

    - by NewHelpNeeder
    So to allow any type object I must use generics in my code. I have rewrote this method to do so, but then when I create an object, for example Milk, it won't let me pass it to my method. Ether there's something wrong with my generic revision, or Milk object I created is not good. How should I pass my object correctly and add it to linked list? This is a method that causes error when I insert an item: public void insertFirst(T dd) // insert at front of list { Link newLink = new Link(dd); // make new link if( isEmpty() ) // if empty list, last = newLink; // newLink <-- last else first.previous = newLink; // newLink <-- old first newLink.next = first; // newLink --> old first first = newLink; // first --> newLink } This is my class I try to insert into linked list: class Milk { String brand; double size; double price; Milk(String a, double b, double c) { brand = a; size = b; price = c; } } This is test method to insert the data: public static void main(String[] args) { // make a new list DoublyLinkedList theList = new DoublyLinkedList(); // this causes: // The method insertFirst(Comparable) in the type DoublyLinkedList is not applicable for the arguments (Milk) theList.insertFirst(new Milk("brand", 1, 2)); // insert at front theList.displayForward(); // display list forward theList.displayBackward(); // display list backward } // end main() } // end class DoublyLinkedApp Declarations: class Link<T extends Comparable<T>> {} class DoublyLinkedList<T extends Comparable<T>> {}

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  • Would like some modelling tips for dependent values

    - by orjan
    I'm working on a model for a simple fishing competition and I have some issues with my design. The main class for the fishing game is Capture and it looks like this: public class Capture : Entity { public virtual int Weight { get; set; } public virtual int Length { get; set; } public virtual DateTime DateForCapture { get; set; } public virtual User CapturedBy { get; set; } public virtual Species Species { get; set; } } So far there´s no problem but I'm not really sure how to model the game. Every Species is connected to a reference weight that changes from year to year The number of point for a capture is its Weight divided by the current reference weight for the species. One way to solve the problem is to connect a capture to SpeciesReferenceWeight instead of Species public class SpeciesReferenceWeight : Entity { public virtual Species Species { get; set; } public virtual int ReferenceWeight { get; set; } public virtual int Year { get; set; } } But in that way that Capture is connected to the implementation details of the game and from my point of view a capture is still a capture even if it's not included in a game. The result I'm aiming for is like: http://hornalen.net/fishbonkern/2007/ that I wrote a couple of years ago with brute force sql and no domain model. I would be very happy for all kinds of feeback on this issue.

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  • Is there an alias for 'this' in TypeScript?

    - by Todd
    I've attempted to write a class in TypeScript that has a method defined which acts as an event handler callback to a jQuery event. class Editor { textarea: JQuery; constructor(public id: string) { this.textarea = $(id); this.textarea.focusin(onFocusIn); } onFocusIn(e: JQueryEventObject) { var height = this.textarea.css('height'); // <-- This is not good. } } Within the onFocusIn event handler, TypeScript sees 'this' as being the 'this' of the class. However, jQuery overrides the this reference and sets it to the DOM object associated with the event. One alternative is to define a lambda within the constructor as the event handler, in which case TypeScript creates a sort of closure with a hidden _this alias. class Editor { textarea: JQuery; constructor(public id: string) { this.textarea = $(id); this.textarea.focusin((e) => { var height = this.textarea.css('height'); // <-- This is good. }); } } My question is, is there another way to access the this reference within the method-based event handler using TypeScript, to overcome this jQuery behavior?

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  • Getter/Setter Problem in Java?

    - by Praveen Chandrasekaran
    Hi Folks, I want to pass the String value between the classes both are same package. so i created the the classs like the code: public class Map_Delegate { String myLatitude; String myLongitude; String myName; private String TAG = "Map_Delegate"; public String getMyName() { return this.myName; } public void setMyName(String value) { Log.v(TAG, value); this.myName = value; } public String getMyLatitude() { return this.myLatitude; } public void setMyLatitude(String value) { Log.v(TAG, value); this.myLatitude = value; } public String getMyLongitude() { return this.myLongitude; } public void setMyLongitude(String value) { Log.v(TAG, value); this.myLongitude = value; } } But it can't pass the value. I done like this code to set the value: Map_Delegate map = new Map_Delegate(); map.setMyName(first_name_temp + " " + last_name_temp); map.setMyLatitude(homeLatitude_temp); map.setMyLongitude(homeLongitude_temp); code to get the value: Map_Delegate map = new Map_Delegate(); name_val = getMyName(); lat_val = getMyLatitude(); long_val = getMyLongitude(); Why get the Null value can you Guess? All classes in the same package and public .AnyIdea?

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  • Basic Application Organization + Publishing (.NET 4.0)

    - by keynesiancross
    Hi all, I'm trying to figure out the best way to keep my program organized. Currently I have many class files in one project file, but some of these classes do things that are very different, and some I would like to expose to other applications in the future. One thought I had to organizing my application was to create multiple project files, with one "Main" project, which would interact with all the other projects and their relevant classes as needed. Does this make sense? I was wondering if anyone had any suggestions in regards to using multiple project files in one solution (and how do you create something like this?), and if it makes sense to have multiple namespaces in one solution... Cheers ----Edit Below---- Sorry, my fault. Currently my program is all in one console project. Within this project I have several classes, some of which basically launch a BackgroundWorker and run an endless loop pulling data. The BackgroundWorker then passes this data back to the main business logic as needed. I'm hoping to seperate this data pull material (including the background worker material) into one project file, and the rest of the business logic into another project file. The projects will have to pass objects between eachother though (the data to the main business logic, and the business logic will pass startup parameteres to the dataPull project)... Hopefully this adds a bit more detail.

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  • How to use a variable in a function expression which is injected in a page?

    - by anonymous
    I'm trying to inject a function into a webpage via Chrome extension content script by: function inject(code) { var actualCode = '(' + code + ')();'; var script = document.createElement('script'); script.textContent = actualCode; (document.head||document.documentElement).appendChild(script); script.parentNode.removeChild(script); } var myObj = person; // myObj/person is passed in from elsewhere var fn = function() { alert(myObj.name); }; inject(fn); // myObj undefined My issue is, since fn is a function expression, I can't pass in myObj.personName. So my question is, how can I construct a function expression that includes a variable? Do I do some sort of string concatenation instead? I also tried to pass the object to the function, as follows: function inject(code, myObj) { var actualCode = '(' + code + ')(' + myObj +');'; ... But this did not work, and caused a "Uncaught SyntaxError: Unexpected identifier" error. Related: Building a Chrome Extension - Inject code in a page using a Content script

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  • 2 dimensional arrays passed to a function in c++

    - by John Marcus
    I'm working on doing calculations in a two dimensional array but keep getting a nasty error. i call the function by : if(checkArray(array)) and try to pass it in like this: bool checkArray(double array[][10]) //or double *array[][10] to no avail the error is error: cannot convert ‘double ()[(((unsigned int)(((int)n) + -0x00000000000000001)) + 1)]’ to ‘double’ for argument ‘1’ to ‘bool checkArray(double*)’ code snippet //array declaration int n = 10; double array[n][n]; //function call to pass in array while(f != 25) { cout<<endl; cout<<endl; if(checkArray(array)) //this is the line of the error { cout<<"EXIT EXIT EXIT"<<endl; } f++; } //function declaration bool checkArray(double *array)//, double newArray[][10]) { double length = sizeof(array); for(int i = 0; i < length; i++) for(int j = 0; j < length;j++) { double temp = array[i][j]; } }

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  • best way to avoid sql injection

    - by aauser
    I got similar domain model 1) User. Every user got many cities. @OneToMany(targetEntity=adv.domain.City.class...) 2) City. Every city got many districts @OneToMany(targetEntity=adv.domain.Distinct.class) 3) Distintc My goal is to delete distinct when user press delete button in browser. After that controller get id of distinct and pass it to bussiness layer. Where method DistinctService.deleteDistinct(Long distinctId) should delegate deliting to DAO layer. So my question is where to put security restrictions and what is the best way to accomplish it. I want to be sure that i delete distinct of the real user, that is the real owner of city, and city is the real owner of distinct. So nobody exept the owner can't delete ditinct using simple url like localhost/deleteDistinct/5. I can get user from httpSession in my controller and pass it to bussiness layer. After that i can get all cities of this user and itrate over them to be sure, that of the citie.id == distinct.city_id and then delete distinct. But it's rather ridiculous in my opinion. Also i can write sql query like this ... delete from t_distinct where t_distinct.city_id in (select t_city.id from t_city left join t_user on t_user.id = t_city.owner_id where t_user.id = ?) and t_distinct.id = ? So what is the best practice to add restrictions like this. I'm using Hibernate, Spring, Spring MVC by the way.. Thank you

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  • How can I have a Label change dynamically based on a Slider Value?

    - by duney
    I'm writing a grade calculator and I currently have a slider with a textbox beside it which displays the current value of the slider: <Slider Name="gradeSlider" Grid.Row="3" Grid.Column="2" VerticalAlignment="Center" Minimum="40" Maximum="100" IsSnapToTickEnabled="True" TickFrequency="5" TickPlacement="BottomRight"/> <TextBox Name="targetGrade" Grid.Row="3" Grid.Column="3" Width="30" Height="23" Text="{Binding ElementName=gradeSlider, Path=Value}" TextAlignment="Center"/> However I'm struggling to include a label which will show display a different grade classification based on the slider's value range. I'd have thought that I could create the label: <Label Name="gradeClass" Grid.Row="2" Grid.Column="2" HorizontalAlignment="Center" VerticalAlignment="Bottom"/> And then use code: string gradeText; if (gradeSlider.Value >= 40 && gradeSlider.Value < 50) { gradeText = "Pass"; gradeClass.Content = gradeText; } else if (gradeSlider.Value >= 50 && gradeSlider.Value < 60) { gradeText = "2:2"; gradeClass.Content = gradeText; } else { gradeText = "so on..."; gradeClass.Content = gradeText; } But the label just stays as "Pass" whatever the slider value. Could somebody please advise me as to where I'm going wrong? I tried using Content = "{Binding Source = gradeText}" on the Label xaml and removing the gradeClass.Content's in the code but it complained that gradeText was declared but never used. Many thanks to anyone who can help.

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  • Overlay an image over video using OpenGL ES shaders

    - by BlueVoodoo
    I am trying to understand the basic concepts of OpenGL. A week into it, I am still far from there. Once I am in glsl, I know what to do but I find getting there is the tricky bit. I am currently able to pass in video pixels which I manipulate and present. I have then been trying to add still image as an overlay. This is where I get lost. My end goal is to end up in the same fragment shader with pixel data from both my video and my still image. I imagine this means I need two textures and pass on two pixel buffers. I am currently passing the video pixels like this: glGenTextures(1, &textures[0]); //target, texture glBindTexture(GL_TEXTURE_2D, textures[0]); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_MIN_FILTER, GL_LINEAR); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_MAG_FILTER, GL_LINEAR); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_WRAP_S, GL_CLAMP_TO_EDGE); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_WRAP_T, GL_CLAMP_TO_EDGE); glTexImage2D(GL_TEXTURE_2D, 0, GL_RGBA, width, height, 0, GL_BGRA, GL_UNSIGNED_BYTE, buffer); Would I then repeat this process on textures[1] with the second buffer from the image? If so, do I then bind both GL_TEXTURE0 and GL_TEXTURE1? ...and would my shader look something like this? uniform sampler2D videoData; uniform sampler2D imageData; once I am in the shader? It seems no matter what combination I try, image and video always ends up being just video data in both these. Sorry for the many questions merged in here, just want to clear my many assumptions and move on. To clarify the question a bit, what do I need to do to add pixels from a still image in the process described? ("easy to understand" sample code or any types of hints would be appreciated).

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  • Saving Data to Relational Database (Entity Framework)

    - by sheefy
    I'm having a little bit of trouble saving data to a database. Basically, I have a main table that has associations to other tables (Example Below). Tbl_Listing ID UserID - Associated to ID in User Table CategoryID - Associated to ID in Category Table LevelID - Associated to ID in Level Table. Name Address Normally, it's easy for me to add data to the DB (using Entity Framework). However, I'm not sure how to add data to the fields with associations. The numerous ID fields just need to hold an int value that corresponds with the ID in the associated table. For example; when I try to access the column in the following manner I get a "Object reference not set to an instance of an object." error. Listing NewListing = new Listing(); NewListing.Tbl_User.ID = 1; NewListing.Tbl_Category.ID = 2; ... DBEntities.AddToListingSet(NewListing); DBEntities.SaveChanges(); I am using NewListing.Tbl_User.ID instead of NewListing.UserID because the UserID field is not available through intellisense. If I try and create an object for each related field I get a "The relationship between the two objects cannot be defined because they are attached to different ObjectContext objects." error. With this method, I am trying to add the object without the .ID shown above - example NewListing.User = UserObject. I know this should be simple as I just want to reference the ID from the associated table in the main Listing's table. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks in advance, -S

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  • Select Query Joined on Two Fields?

    - by btollett
    I've got a few tables in an access database: ID | LocationName 1 | Location1 2 | Location2 ID | LocationID | Date | NumProductsDelivered 1 | 1 | 12/10 | 3 2 | 1 | 01/11 | 2 3 | 1 | 02/11 | 2 4 | 2 | 11/10 | 1 5 | 2 | 12/10 | 1 ID | LocationID | Date | NumEmployees | EmployeeType 1 | 1 | 12/10 | 10 | 1 (=Permanent) 2 | 1 | 12/10 | 3 | 2 (=Temporary) 3 | 1 | 12/10 | 1 | 3 (=Support) 4 | 2 | 10/10 | 1 | 1 5 | 2 | 11/10 | 2 | 1 6 | 2 | 11/10 | 1 | 2 7 | 2 | 11/10 | 1 | 3 8 | 2 | 12/10 | 2 | 1 9 | 2 | 12/10 | 1 | 3 What I want to do is pass in the LocationID as a parameter and get back something like the following table. So, if I pass in 2 as my LocationID, I should get: Date | NumProductsDelivered | NumPermanentEmployees | NumSupportEmployees 10/10 | | 1 | 11/10 | 1 | 2 | 1 12/10 | 1 | 2 | 1 It seems like this should be a pretty simple query. I really don't even need the first table except as a way to fill in the combo box on the form from which the user chooses which location they want a report for. Unfortunately, everything I've done has resulted in me getting a lot more data than I should be getting. My confusion is in how to set up the join (presumably that's what I'm looking for here) given that I want both the date and locationID to be the same for each row in the result set. Any help would be much appreciated. Thanks.

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  • JavaScript: Is there a better way to retain your array but efficiently concat or replace items?

    - by Michael Mikowski
    I am looking for the best way to replace or add to elements of an array without deleting the original reference. Here is the set up: var a = [], b = [], c, i, obj; for ( i = 0; i < 100000; i++ ) { a[ i ] = i; b[ i ] = 10000 - i; } obj.data_list = a; Now we want to concatenate b INTO a without changing the reference to a, since it is used in obj.data_list. Here is one method: for ( i = 0; i < b.length; i++ ) { a.push( b[ i ] ); } This seems to be a somewhat terser and 8x (on V8) faster method: a.splice.apply( a, [ a.length, 0 ].concat( b ) ); I have found this useful when iterating over an "in-place" array and don't want to touch the elements as I go (a good practice). I start a new array (let's call it keep_list) with the initial arguments and then add the elements I wish to retain. Finally I use this apply method to quickly replace the truncated array: var keep_list = [ 0, 0 ]; for ( i = 0; i < a.length; i++ ){ if ( some_condition ){ keep_list.push( a[ i ] ); } // truncate array a.length = 0; // And replace contents a.splice.apply( a, keep_list ); There are a few problems with this solution: there is a max call stack size limit of around 50k on V8 I have not tested on other JS engines yet. This solution is a bit cryptic Has anyone found a better way?

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  • Using AJAX to POST data to PHP database, then refresh

    - by cb74656
    Currently I have a button: <ul> <li><button onclick="display('1')">1</button></li> <li><button onclick="display('2')">2</button></li> <li><button onclick="display('3')">3</button></li> </ul> That when pressed, calls a javascript function, and displays PHP based on which button is pressed using AJAX. I figured this out all on my own. The AJAX gets a PHP file with a postgres query that outputs a table of data to a div. Now I want to be able to add, via form, new data and have it refresh (without reloading the page, yannknow?). I've tried a couple of things, and have hit roadblocks every time. My initial idea was to have the form submit the data using a javascript function and AJAX, then call my "display()" function after the query to reload the content. I just can't figure it out using GoogleFu. Based on my current idea, I'd like help with the following: How do I pass the form data to a javascript function. How do I use POST to pass that data to PHP using AJAX? I'm super new to javascript and AJAX. I've looked into jquery as it seems like that's the way to go, but I can't figure it out. If there's a better way to do this, I'm open to suggestions. Please forgive any misuse of nomenclature. EDIT: Once I solve this problem..., I'll have all the tools needed to finish the project preliminarily.

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