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  • Basic Application Organization + Publishing (.NET 4.0)

    - by keynesiancross
    Hi all, I'm trying to figure out the best way to keep my program organized. Currently I have many class files in one project file, but some of these classes do things that are very different, and some I would like to expose to other applications in the future. One thought I had to organizing my application was to create multiple project files, with one "Main" project, which would interact with all the other projects and their relevant classes as needed. Does this make sense? I was wondering if anyone had any suggestions in regards to using multiple project files in one solution (and how do you create something like this?), and if it makes sense to have multiple namespaces in one solution... Cheers ----Edit Below---- Sorry, my fault. Currently my program is all in one console project. Within this project I have several classes, some of which basically launch a BackgroundWorker and run an endless loop pulling data. The BackgroundWorker then passes this data back to the main business logic as needed. I'm hoping to seperate this data pull material (including the background worker material) into one project file, and the rest of the business logic into another project file. The projects will have to pass objects between eachother though (the data to the main business logic, and the business logic will pass startup parameteres to the dataPull project)... Hopefully this adds a bit more detail.

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  • NSManagedObject How To Reload

    - by crissag
    I have a view that consists of a table of existing objects and an Add button, which allows the user to create a new object. When the user presses Add, the object is created in the list view controller, so that the object will be part of that managed object context (via the NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName: method). The Add view has a property for the managed object. In the list view controller, I create an Add view controller, set the property to the managed object I created, and then push the Add view on to the navigation stack. In the Add view, I have two buttons for save and cancel. In the save, I save the managed object and pass the managed object back to the list view controller via a delegate method. If the user cancels, then I delete the object and pass nil back to the list view controller. The complication I am having in the add view is related to a UIImagePickerController. In the Add view, I have a button which allows the user to take a photo of the object (or use an existing photo from the photo library). However, the process of transferring to the UIImagePickerController and having the user use the camera, is resulting in a didReceiveMemoryWarning in the add view controller. Further, the view was unloaded, which also caused my NSManagedObject to get clobbered. My question is, how to you go about reloading the NSManagedObject in the case where it was released because of the low memory situation?

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  • Variable won't store in session

    - by Mittens
    So I'm trying to store the "rank" of a user when they log in to a control panel which displays different options depending on the given rank. I used the same method as I did for storing and displaying the username, which is displayed on the top of each page and works just fine. I can't for the life of me figure out why it won't work for the rank value, but I do know that it is not saving it in the session. Here is the bit that's not working; $username = ($_POST['username']); $password = hash('sha512', $_POST['password']); $dbhost = 'mysql:host=¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦;dbname=¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦'; $dbuser = '¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦'; $dbpassword = '¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦'; try { $db = new PDO($dbhost, $dbuser, $dbpassword); $statement = $db->prepare("select password from users where email = :name"); $statement->execute(array(':name' => $username)); $result = $statement->fetch(); $pass = $result[password]; $rank = $result[rank];} catch(PDOException $e) {echo $e->getMessage();} if ($password == $pass) { session_start(); $_SESSION['username'] = $username; $_SESSION['rank'] = $rank; header('Location: http://¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦¦.ca/manage.php'); } else{ include'../../includes/head.inc'; echo '<h1>Incorrect username or password.</h1>'; include'../../includes/footer.inc'; } I'm also new to the whole PDO thing, hence why my method of authenticating the password is pretty sketchy.

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  • Trying to build a dynamic PHP mysql_query string to update a row and getting back the updated row

    - by adardesign
    I have a form that jQuery tracks the onChage .change() event so when something is changed it runs a ajax request and i pass in the column, id, and the values in the url. Here i have the PHP code that should update the data. My question is now how do i build the mySQl string dynamically. and how do i echo back the changes/updates that where just changed on the db. Here is the PHP code i am trying to work with. <?php require_once('Connections/connect.php'); ?> <?php $id = $_GET['id']; $collumn = $_GET['collumn']; $val = $_GET['val']; ?> <?php mysql_select_db($myDB, $connection); // here i try to build the query string and pass in the passed in values $sqlUpdate = 'UPDATE `plProducts`.`allPens` SET `$collumn` = '$val' WHERE `allPens`.`prodId` = '$id' LIMIT 1;'; // here i want to echo back the updated row (or the updated data) $seeResults = mysql_query($sqlUpdate, $connection); echo $seeResults ?>

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  • VB.NET CInt(Long) behaving differently in 32- and 64-bit environments

    - by LocoDelAssembly
    Hello everybody, this is my first message here. Today I had a problem converting a Long (Int64) to an Integer (Int32). The problem is that my code was always working in 32-bit environments, but when I try THE SAME executable in a 64-bit computer it crashes with a System.OverflowException exception. I've prepared this test code in VS2008 in a new project with default settings: Module Module1 Sub Main() Dim alpha As Long = -1 Dim delta As Integer Try delta = CInt(alpha And UInteger.MaxValue) Console.WriteLine("CINT OK") delta = Convert.ToInt32(alpha And UInteger.MaxValue) Console.WriteLine("Convert.ToInt32 OK") Catch ex As Exception Console.WriteLine(ex.GetType().ToString()) Finally Console.ReadLine() End Try End Sub End Module On my 32-bit setups (Windows XP SP3 32-bit and Windows 7 32-bit) it prints "CINT OK", but in the 64-bit computer (Windows 7 64-bit) that I've tested THE SAME executable it prints the exception name only. Is this behavior documented? I tried to find a reference but failed miserably. For reference I leave the MSIL code too: .method public static void Main() cil managed { .entrypoint .custom instance void [mscorlib]System.STAThreadAttribute::.ctor() = ( 01 00 00 00 ) // Code size 88 (0x58) .maxstack 2 .locals init ([0] int64 alpha, [1] int32 delta, [2] class [mscorlib]System.Exception ex) IL_0000: nop IL_0001: ldc.i4.m1 IL_0002: conv.i8 IL_0003: stloc.0 IL_0004: nop .try { .try { IL_0005: ldloc.0 IL_0006: ldc.i4.m1 IL_0007: conv.u8 IL_0008: and IL_0009: conv.ovf.i4 IL_000a: stloc.1 IL_000b: ldstr "CINT OK" IL_0010: call void [mscorlib]System.Console::WriteLine(string) IL_0015: nop IL_0016: ldloc.0 IL_0017: ldc.i4.m1 IL_0018: conv.u8 IL_0019: and IL_001a: call int32 [mscorlib]System.Convert::ToInt32(int64) IL_001f: stloc.1 IL_0020: ldstr "Convert.ToInt32 OK" IL_0025: call void [mscorlib]System.Console::WriteLine(string) IL_002a: nop IL_002b: leave.s IL_0055 } // end .try catch [mscorlib]System.Exception { IL_002d: dup IL_002e: call void [Microsoft.VisualBasic]Microsoft.VisualBasic.CompilerServices.ProjectData::SetProjectError(class [mscorlib]System.Exception) IL_0033: stloc.2 IL_0034: nop IL_0035: ldloc.2 IL_0036: callvirt instance class [mscorlib]System.Type [mscorlib]System.Exception::GetType() IL_003b: callvirt instance string [mscorlib]System.Type::ToString() IL_0040: call void [mscorlib]System.Console::WriteLine(string) IL_0045: nop IL_0046: call void [Microsoft.VisualBasic]Microsoft.VisualBasic.CompilerServices.ProjectData::ClearProjectError() IL_004b: leave.s IL_0055 } // end handler } // end .try finally { IL_004d: nop IL_004e: call string [mscorlib]System.Console::ReadLine() IL_0053: pop IL_0054: endfinally } // end handler IL_0055: nop IL_0056: nop IL_0057: ret } // end of method Module1::Main I suspect that the instruction that is behaving differently is either conv.ovf.i4 or the ldc.i4.m1/conv.u8 pair. If you know what is going on here please let me know Thanks

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  • Separation of business logic

    - by bruno
    When I was optimizing my architecture of our applications in our website, I came to a problem that I don't know the best solution for. Now at the moment we have a small dll based on this structure: Database <-> DAL <-> BLL the Dal uses Business Objects to pass to the BLL that will pass it to the applications that uses this dll. Only the BLL is public so any application that includes this dll, can see the bll. In the beginning, this was a good solution for our company. But when we are adding more and more applications on that Dll, the bigger the Bll is getting. Now we dont want that some applications can see Bll-logic from other applications. Now I don't know what the best solution is for that. The first thing I thought was, move and separate the bll to other dll's which i can include in my application. But then must the Dal be public, so the other dll's can get the data... and that I seems like a good solution. My other solution, is just to separate the bll in different namespaces, and just include only the namespaces you need in the applications. But in this solution, you can get directly access to other bll's if you want. So I'm asking for your opinions.

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  • mvc design in a card game

    - by Hong
    I'm trying to make a card game. some classes I have are: CardModel, CardView; DeckModel, DeckView. The deck model has a list of card model, According to MVC, if I want to send a card to a deck, I can add the card model to the deck model, and the card view will be added to the deck view by a event handler. So I have a addCard(CardModel m) in the DeckModel class, but if I want to send a event to add the card view of that model to the deck view, I only know let the model has a reference to view. So the question is: If the card model and deck model have to have a reference to their view classes to do it? If not, how to do it better? Update, the code: public class DeckModel { private ArrayList<CardModel> cards; private ArrayList<EventHandler> actionEventHandlerList; public void addCard(CardModel card){ cards.add(card); //processEvent(event x); //must I pass a event that contain card view here? } CardModel getCards(int index){ return cards.get(index); } public synchronized void addEventHandler(EventHandler l){ if(actionEventHandlerList == null) actionEventHandlerList = new ArrayList<EventHandler>(); if(!actionEventHandlerList.contains(l)) actionEventHandlerList.add(l); } public synchronized void removeEventHandler(EventHandler l){ if(actionEventHandlerList!= null && actionEventHandlerList.contains(l)) actionEventHandlerList.remove(l); } private void processEvent(Event e){ ArrayList list; synchronized(this){ if(actionEventHandlerList!= null) list = (ArrayList)actionEventHandlerList.clone(); else return; } for(int i=0; i<actionEventHandlerList.size(); ++i){ actionEventHandlerList.get(i).handle(e); } } }

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  • C++ Conceptual problem with (Pointer) Pointers

    - by Ptr
    I have a structure usually containing a pointer to an int. However, in some special cases, it is necessary that this int pointer points to another pointer which then points to an int. Wow: I mentioned the word pointer 5 times so far! Is this even possible? I thought about it that way: Instead of using a second int pointer, which is most likely not possible as my main int pointer can only point to an int and not to another int pointer, I could make it a reference like this: int intA = 1; int intB = 2; int& intC = intB; int* myPointers[ 123 ]; myPointers[ 0 ] = &intA; myPointers[ 1 ] = &intB; myPointers[ 3 ] = &intC; So the above would do what I want: The reference to intB (intC) behaves quite like I want it to (If it gets changed it also changes intB) The problem: I can't change references once they are set, right? Or is there a way? Everything in short: How do I get a value to work with * (pointers) and ** (pointers to pointers)?

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  • Redirection Still not working (updated on earlier question)

    - by NoviceCoding
    So earlier I asked this question: JQuery Login Redirect. Code Included The php file is sending the following: $return['error'] = false; $return['msg'] = 'You have successfully logged in!!'; I've tried all the suggestions, quoting the error on php and ajax end, 2 equals instead of 3, I've also tried DNE true which should be the same as an else statement: $(document).ready(function(){ $('#submit').click(function() { $('#waiting').show(500); $('#empty').show(500); $('#reg').hide(0); $('#message').hide(0); $.ajax({ type : 'POST', url : 'logina.php', dataType : 'json', data: { type : $('#typeof').val(), login : $('#login').val(), pass : $('#pass').val(), }, success : function(data){ $('#waiting').hide(500); $('#empty').show(500); $('#message').removeClass().addClass((data.error === true) ? 'error' : 'success') .text(data.msg).show(500) if(data.error != true) window.location.replace("http://blahblah.com/usercp.php"); if (data.error === true) $('#reg').show(500); $('#empty').hide() }, error : function(XMLHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown) { $('#waiting').hide(500); $('#message').removeClass().addClass('error') .text("There was an Error. Please try again.").show(500); $('#reg').show(500); $('#empty').hide(); Recaptcha.reload(); } }); return false; }); And it still wont work. Any ideas on how to make a redirection work if login is successful and error returns false? Also while I am asking, can I put a .delay(3000) 3s at the end of window.location.replace("http://blahblah.com/usercp.php")?

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  • How can I have a Label change dynamically based on a Slider Value?

    - by duney
    I'm writing a grade calculator and I currently have a slider with a textbox beside it which displays the current value of the slider: <Slider Name="gradeSlider" Grid.Row="3" Grid.Column="2" VerticalAlignment="Center" Minimum="40" Maximum="100" IsSnapToTickEnabled="True" TickFrequency="5" TickPlacement="BottomRight"/> <TextBox Name="targetGrade" Grid.Row="3" Grid.Column="3" Width="30" Height="23" Text="{Binding ElementName=gradeSlider, Path=Value}" TextAlignment="Center"/> However I'm struggling to include a label which will show display a different grade classification based on the slider's value range. I'd have thought that I could create the label: <Label Name="gradeClass" Grid.Row="2" Grid.Column="2" HorizontalAlignment="Center" VerticalAlignment="Bottom"/> And then use code: string gradeText; if (gradeSlider.Value >= 40 && gradeSlider.Value < 50) { gradeText = "Pass"; gradeClass.Content = gradeText; } else if (gradeSlider.Value >= 50 && gradeSlider.Value < 60) { gradeText = "2:2"; gradeClass.Content = gradeText; } else { gradeText = "so on..."; gradeClass.Content = gradeText; } But the label just stays as "Pass" whatever the slider value. Could somebody please advise me as to where I'm going wrong? I tried using Content = "{Binding Source = gradeText}" on the Label xaml and removing the gradeClass.Content's in the code but it complained that gradeText was declared but never used. Many thanks to anyone who can help.

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  • C#: Passing data to forms UI using BeginInvoke

    - by Bi
    Hi I am a C# newbie and have a class that needs to pass row information to a grid in the windows form. What is the best way to do it? I have put in some example code for better understanding. Thanks. public class GUIController { private My_Main myWindow; public GUIController( My_Main window ) { myWindow = window; } public void UpdateProducts( List<myProduct> newList ) { object[] row = new object[3]; foreach (myProduct product in newList) { row[0] = product.Name; row[1] = product.Status; row[2] = product.Day; //HOW DO I USE BeginInvoke HERE? } } } And the form class below: public class My_Main : Form { //HOW DO I GO ABOUT USING THIS DELEGATE? public delegate void ProductDelegate( string[] row ); public static My_Main theWindow = null; static void Main( ) { Application.EnableVisualStyles(); Application.SetCompatibleTextRenderingDefault(false); theWindow = new My_Main(); Application.Run(theWindow); } private void My_Main_Load( object sender, EventArgs e ) { /// Create GUIController and pass the window object gui = new GUIController( this ); } public void PopulateGrid( string[] row ) { ProductsGrid.Rows.Add(row); ProductsGrid.Update(); } } Thanks!

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  • Saving Data to Relational Database (Entity Framework)

    - by sheefy
    I'm having a little bit of trouble saving data to a database. Basically, I have a main table that has associations to other tables (Example Below). Tbl_Listing ID UserID - Associated to ID in User Table CategoryID - Associated to ID in Category Table LevelID - Associated to ID in Level Table. Name Address Normally, it's easy for me to add data to the DB (using Entity Framework). However, I'm not sure how to add data to the fields with associations. The numerous ID fields just need to hold an int value that corresponds with the ID in the associated table. For example; when I try to access the column in the following manner I get a "Object reference not set to an instance of an object." error. Listing NewListing = new Listing(); NewListing.Tbl_User.ID = 1; NewListing.Tbl_Category.ID = 2; ... DBEntities.AddToListingSet(NewListing); DBEntities.SaveChanges(); I am using NewListing.Tbl_User.ID instead of NewListing.UserID because the UserID field is not available through intellisense. If I try and create an object for each related field I get a "The relationship between the two objects cannot be defined because they are attached to different ObjectContext objects." error. With this method, I am trying to add the object without the .ID shown above - example NewListing.User = UserObject. I know this should be simple as I just want to reference the ID from the associated table in the main Listing's table. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks in advance, -S

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  • IS operator behaving a bit strangely

    - by flockofcode
    1) According to my book, IS operator can check whether expression E (E is type) can be converted to the target type only if E is either a reference conversion, boxing or unboxing. Since in the following example IS doesn’t check for either of the three types of conversion, the code shouldn’t work, but it does: int i=100; if (i is long) //returns true, indicating that conversion is possible l = i; 2) a) B b; A a = new A(); if (a is B) b = (B)a; int i = b.l; class A { public int l = 100; } class B:A { } The above code always causes compile time error “Use of unassigned variable”. If condition a is B evaluates to false, then b won’t be assigned a value, but if condition is true, then it will. And thus by allowing such a code compiler would have no way of knowing whether the usage of b in code following the if statement is valid or not ( due to not knowing whether a is b evaluates to true or false) , but why should it know that? Intsead why couldn’t runtime handle this? b) But if instead we’re dealing with non reference types, then compiler doesn’t complain, even though the code is identical.Why? int i = 100; long l; if (i is long) l = i; thank you

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  • JavaScript: Is there a better way to retain your array but efficiently concat or replace items?

    - by Michael Mikowski
    I am looking for the best way to replace or add to elements of an array without deleting the original reference. Here is the set up: var a = [], b = [], c, i, obj; for ( i = 0; i < 100000; i++ ) { a[ i ] = i; b[ i ] = 10000 - i; } obj.data_list = a; Now we want to concatenate b INTO a without changing the reference to a, since it is used in obj.data_list. Here is one method: for ( i = 0; i < b.length; i++ ) { a.push( b[ i ] ); } This seems to be a somewhat terser and 8x (on V8) faster method: a.splice.apply( a, [ a.length, 0 ].concat( b ) ); I have found this useful when iterating over an "in-place" array and don't want to touch the elements as I go (a good practice). I start a new array (let's call it keep_list) with the initial arguments and then add the elements I wish to retain. Finally I use this apply method to quickly replace the truncated array: var keep_list = [ 0, 0 ]; for ( i = 0; i < a.length; i++ ){ if ( some_condition ){ keep_list.push( a[ i ] ); } // truncate array a.length = 0; // And replace contents a.splice.apply( a, keep_list ); There are a few problems with this solution: there is a max call stack size limit of around 50k on V8 I have not tested on other JS engines yet. This solution is a bit cryptic Has anyone found a better way?

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  • Does std::vector change its address? How to avoid

    - by kunigami
    Since vector elements are stored contiguously, I guess it may not have the same address after some push_back's , because the initial allocated space could not suffice. I'm working on a code where I need a reference to an element in a vector, like: int main(){ vector<int> v; v.push_back(1); int *ptr = &v[0]; for(int i=2; i<100; i++) v.push_back(i); cout << *ptr << endl; //? return 0; } But it's not necessarily true that ptr contains a reference to v[0], right? How would be a good way to guarantee it? My first idea would be to use a vector of pointers and dynamic allocation. I'm wondering if there's an easier way to do that? PS.: Actually I'm using a vector of a class instead of int, but I think the issues are the same.

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  • Trouble accessing Mutable array

    - by Jared Gross
    Im having trouble with my for loop where I am trying to index user names. I am able to separate my original array into individual objects but am not able to send the value to a new array that I need to reference later on. The value and count for userNames in my self.userNamesArray = userNames; line is correct. But right after that when I log self.userNamesArray, I get (null). Any tips cause I'm not completely sure I'm cheers! .h @property (nonatomic, copy) NSMutableArray *userNamesArray; .m - (void)viewWillAppear:(BOOL)animated { self.friendsRelation = [[PFUser currentUser] objectForKey:@"friendsRelation"]; PFQuery *query = [self.friendsRelation query]; [query orderByAscending:@"username"]; [query findObjectsInBackgroundWithBlock:^(NSArray *objects, NSError *error) { if (error) { NSLog(@"Error: %@ %@", error, [error userInfo]); } else { self.friends = objects; NSArray *users = [self.friends valueForKey:@"username"]; NSLog(@"username:%@", users); //Create an array of name wrappers and pass to the root view controller. NSMutableArray *userNames = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithCapacity:[self.friends count]]; for (NSString *user in users) { componentsSeparatedByCharactersInSet:charSet]; NSArray *nameComponents = [user componentsSeparatedByString:@" "]; UserNameWrapper *userNameWrapper = [[UserNameWrapper alloc] initWithUserName:nil nameComponents:nameComponents]; [userNames addObject:userNameWrapper]; } self.userNamesArray = userNames; NSLog(@"userNamesArray:%@",self.userNamesArray); [self.tableView reloadData]; } Here's the code where I need to reference the self.userNamesArray where again, it is comping up nil. - (void)setUserNamesArray:(NSMutableArray *)newDataArray { if (newDataArray != self.userNamesArray) { self.userNamesArray = [newDataArray mutableCopy]; if (self.userNamesArray == nil) { self.sectionsArray = nil; NSLog(@"user names empty"); } else { [self configureSections]; } } }

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  • Not crawling the same content twice

    - by sirrocco
    I'm building a small application that will crawl sites where the content is growing (like on stackoverflow) the difference is that the content once created is rarely modified. Now , in the first pass I crawl all the pages in the site. But next, the paged content of that site - I don't want to re-crawl all of it , just the latest additions. So if the site has 500 pages, on the second pass if the site has 501 pages then I would only crawl the first and second pages. Would this be a good way to handle the situation ? In the end, the crawled content will end up in lucene - creating a custom search engine. So, I would like to avoid crawling multiple times the same content. Any better ideas ? EDIT : Let's say the site has a page : Results that will be accessed like so : Results?page=1 , Results?page=2 ...etc I guess that keeping a track of how many pages there were at the last crawl and just crawl the difference would be enough. ( maybe using a hash of each result on the page - if I start running into the same hashes - I should stop)

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  • Does ReleaseStringUTF do more than free memory?

    - by Bayou Bob
    Consider the following C code segments. Segment 1: char * getSomeString(JNIEnv *env, jstring jstr) { char * retString; retString = (*env)->GetStringUTFChars(env, jstr, NULL); return retString; } void useSomeString(JNIEnv *env, jobject jobj, char *mName) { jclass cl = (*env)->GetObjectClass(env, jobj); jmethodId mId = (*env)->GetMethodID(env, cl, mName, "()Ljava/lang/String;"); jstring jstr = (*env)->CallObjectMethod(env, obj, id, NULL); char * myString = getSomeString(env, jstr); /* ... use myString without modifing it */ free(myString); } Because myString is freed in useSomeString, I do not think I am creating a memory leak; however, I am not sure. The JNI spec specifically requires the use of ReleaseStringUTFChars. Since I am getting a C style 'char *' pointer from GetStringUTFChars, I believe the memory reference exists on the C stack and not in the JAVA heap so it is not in danger of being Garbage Collected; however, I am not sure. I know that changing getSomeString as follows would be safer (and probably preferable). Segment 2: char * getSomeString(JNIEnv *env, jstring jstr) { char * retString; char * intermedString; intermedString = (*env)->GetStringUTFChars(env, jstr, NULL); retString = strdup(intermedString); (*env)->ReleaseStringUTFChars(env, jstr, intermedString); return retString; } Because of our 'process' I need to build an argument on why getSomeString in Segment 2 is preferable to Segment 1. Is anyone aware of any documentation or references which detail the behavior of GetStringUTFChars and ReleaseStringUTFChars in relation to where memory is allocated or what (if any) additional bookkeeping is done (i.e. local Reference Pointer to the Java Heap being created, etc). What are the specific consequences of ignoring that bookkeeping. Thanks in advance.

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  • .NET remoting: System references wrong .NET dll, but how to cure ?

    - by Quandary
    Question: I defined an interface like below. The problem now is, that when I add the dll (API.dll) as reference in an asp.net project, it references a wrong API.dll, though I referenced the correct dll. In turn, it doesn't find GetLDAPlookup, but there is another method that is not in defined here, but in an older version of API.dll... I rebuilt the dll I referenced, so it is definitely the latest version that I added as reference. Do I have to add another GUID, or something ? Imports System.Runtime.InteropServices Namespace RemoteObject ''' <summary> ''' Defines server interface which will be deployed on every client ''' </summary> ''' <GuidAttribute("921DE547-32FA-40BB-961A-EA390B7AE27D")> _ Public Interface IServerMethods ''' <summary> ''' Function to call the server from the client ''' </summary> ''' <param name="strMessage">Some text</param> ''' Sub ServerPrint(ByVal strMessage As String) ''' <summary> ''' Function to call the server from the client ''' </summary> ''' <param name="strMessage">Some text</param> ''' <returns>Some interesting text</returns> ''' Function GetLDAPlookup(ByVal strMessage As String) As System.Data.DataSet End Interface End Namespace

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  • What is the meaning of @ModelAttribute annotation at method argument level?

    - by beemaster
    Spring 3 reference teaches us: When you place it on a method parameter, @ModelAttribute maps a model attribute to the specific, annotated method parameter I don't understand this magic spell, because i sure that model object's alias (key value if using ModelMap as return type) passed to the View after executing of the request handler method. Therefore when request handler method executes the model object's name can't be mapped to the method parameter. To solve this contradiction i went to stackoverflow and found this detailed example. The author of example said: // The "personAttribute" model has been passed to the controller from the JSP It seems, he is charmed by Spring reference... To dispel the charms i deployed his sample app in my environment and cruelly cut @ModelAttribute annotation from method MainController.saveEdit. As result the application works without any changes! So i conclude: the @ModelAttribute annotation is not needed to pass web form's field values to the argument's fields. Then i stuck to the question: what is the mean of @ModelAttribute annotation? If the only mean is to set alias for model object in View, then why this way better than explicitly adding of object to ModelMap?

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  • In Castle Windsor, can I register a Interface component and get a proxy of the implementation?

    - by Thiado de Arruda
    Lets consider some cases: _windsor.Register(Component.For<IProductServices>().ImplementedBy<ProductServices>().Interceptors(typeof(SomeInterceptorType)); In this case, when I ask for a IProductServices windsor will proxy the interface to intercept the interface method calls. If instead I do this : _windsor.Register(Component.For<ProductServices>().Interceptors(typeof(SomeInterceptorType)); then I cant ask for windsor to resolve IProductServices, instead I ask for ProductServices and it will return a dynamic subclass that will intercept virtual method calls. Of course the dynamic subclass still implements 'IProductServices' My question is : Can I register the Interface component like the first case, and get the subclass proxy like in the second case?. There are two reasons for me wanting this: 1 - Because the code that is going to resolve cannot know about the ProductServices class, only about the IProductServices interface. 2 - Because some event invocations that pass the sender as a parameter, will pass the ProductServices object, and in the first case this object is a field on the dynamic proxy, not the real object returned by windsor. Let me give an example of how this can complicate things : Lets say I have a custom collection that does something when their items notify a property change: private void ItemChanged(object sender, PropertyChangedEventArgs e) { int senderIndex = IndexOf(sender); SomeActionOnItemIndex(senderIndex); } This code will fail if I added an interface proxy, because the sender will be the field in the interface proxy and the IndexOf(sender) will return -1.

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  • Value types of variable size

    - by YellPika
    I'm trying to code a small math library in C#. I wanted to create a generic vector structure where the user could define the element type (int, long, float, double, etc.) and dimensions. My first attempt was something like this... public struct Vector<T> { public readonly int Dimensions; public readonly T[] Elements; // etc... } Unfortunately, Elements, being an array, is also a reference type. Thus, doing this, Vector<int> a = ...; Vector<int> b = a; a[0] = 1; b[0] = 2; would result in both a[0] and b[0] equaling 2. My second attempt was to define an interface IVector<T>, and then use Reflection.Emit to automatically generate the appropriate type at runtime. The resulting classes would look roughly like this: public struct Int32Vector3 : IVector<T> { public int Element0; public int Element1; public int Element2; public int Dimensions { get { return 3; } } // etc... } This seemed fine until I found out that interfaces seem to act like references to the underlying object. If I passed an IVector to a function, and changes to the elements in the function would be reflected in the original vector. What I think is my problem here is that I need to be able to create classes that have a user specified number of fields. I can't use arrays, and I can't use inheritance. Does anyone have a solution? EDIT: This library is going to be used in performance critical situations, so reference types are not an option.

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  • Conditional compilation hackery in C# - is there a way to pull this off?

    - by Chris
    I have an internal API that I would like others to reference in their projects as a compiled DLL. When it's a standalone project that's referenced, I use conditional compilation (#if statements) to switch behavior of a key web service class depending on compilation symbols. The problem is, once an assembly is generated, it appears that it's locked into whatever the compilation symbols were when it was originally compiled - for instance, if this assembly is compiled with DEBUG and is referenced by another project, even if the other project is built as RELEASE, the assembly still acts as if it was in DEBUG as it doesn't need recompilation. That makes sense, just giving some background. Now I'm trying to work around that so I can switch the assembly's behavior by some other means, such as scanning the app/web config file for a switch. The problem is, some of the assembly's code I was switching between are attributes on methods, for example: #if PRODUCTION [SoapDocumentMethodAttribute("https://prodServer/Service_Test", RequestNamespace = "https://prodServer", ResponseNamespace = "https://prodServer")] #else [SoapDocumentMethodAttribute("https://devServer/Service_Test", RequestNamespace = "https://devServer", ResponseNamespace = "https://devServer")] #endif public string Service_Test() { // test service } Though there might be some syntactical sugar that allows me to flip between two attributes of the same type in another fashion, I don't know it. Any ideas? The alternative method would be to reference the entire project instead of the assembly, but I'd rather stick with just referencing the compiled DLL if I can. I'm also completely open to a whole new approach to solve the problem if that's what it takes.

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  • best way to avoid sql injection

    - by aauser
    I got similar domain model 1) User. Every user got many cities. @OneToMany(targetEntity=adv.domain.City.class...) 2) City. Every city got many districts @OneToMany(targetEntity=adv.domain.Distinct.class) 3) Distintc My goal is to delete distinct when user press delete button in browser. After that controller get id of distinct and pass it to bussiness layer. Where method DistinctService.deleteDistinct(Long distinctId) should delegate deliting to DAO layer. So my question is where to put security restrictions and what is the best way to accomplish it. I want to be sure that i delete distinct of the real user, that is the real owner of city, and city is the real owner of distinct. So nobody exept the owner can't delete ditinct using simple url like localhost/deleteDistinct/5. I can get user from httpSession in my controller and pass it to bussiness layer. After that i can get all cities of this user and itrate over them to be sure, that of the citie.id == distinct.city_id and then delete distinct. But it's rather ridiculous in my opinion. Also i can write sql query like this ... delete from t_distinct where t_distinct.city_id in (select t_city.id from t_city left join t_user on t_user.id = t_city.owner_id where t_user.id = ?) and t_distinct.id = ? So what is the best practice to add restrictions like this. I'm using Hibernate, Spring, Spring MVC by the way.. Thank you

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  • Using AJAX to POST data to PHP database, then refresh

    - by cb74656
    Currently I have a button: <ul> <li><button onclick="display('1')">1</button></li> <li><button onclick="display('2')">2</button></li> <li><button onclick="display('3')">3</button></li> </ul> That when pressed, calls a javascript function, and displays PHP based on which button is pressed using AJAX. I figured this out all on my own. The AJAX gets a PHP file with a postgres query that outputs a table of data to a div. Now I want to be able to add, via form, new data and have it refresh (without reloading the page, yannknow?). I've tried a couple of things, and have hit roadblocks every time. My initial idea was to have the form submit the data using a javascript function and AJAX, then call my "display()" function after the query to reload the content. I just can't figure it out using GoogleFu. Based on my current idea, I'd like help with the following: How do I pass the form data to a javascript function. How do I use POST to pass that data to PHP using AJAX? I'm super new to javascript and AJAX. I've looked into jquery as it seems like that's the way to go, but I can't figure it out. If there's a better way to do this, I'm open to suggestions. Please forgive any misuse of nomenclature. EDIT: Once I solve this problem..., I'll have all the tools needed to finish the project preliminarily.

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