Search Results

Search found 8286 results on 332 pages for 'defined'.

Page 257/332 | < Previous Page | 253 254 255 256 257 258 259 260 261 262 263 264  | Next Page >

  • Javascript CS-PRNG - 64-bit random

    - by Jack
    Hi, I need to generate a cryptographically secure 64-bit unsigned random integer in Javascript. The first problem is that Javascript only allows 64-bit signed integers, so 9223372036854775808 is the biggest supported integer without going into floating point use I think? To fix this I can use a big number library, no problem. My Method: var randNum = SHA256( randBigInt(128, 0) ) % 2^64; Where SHA256() is a secure hash function and randBigInt() is defined below as a non-crypto PRNG, im giving it a 128bit seed so brute force shouldn't be a problem. randBigInt(n,s) //return an n-bit random BigInt (n>=1). If s=1, then the most significant of those n bits is set to 1. Is this a secure method to generate a cryptographically secure 64-bit random int? And importantly does taking the 2^64 mod guarantee 100% I have a 64-bit number? An abstract example, say this number is prime (it isn't i know), I will use it in the Galois Field [2^p], where p must be 64bits so that every possible 1-63bit number is a field element. In this query, my random int must be larger than any 63-bit number. And Im not sure im correct in taking the 2^64 mod of a 256bit hash output. Thanks (hope that makes sense)

    Read the article

  • problem in html, table class text stretching out.

    - by Andy
    Hey people, I've got a slight problem after weeks of html programming. I've got a large table which I use to construct tabs with, details don't really matter. On every tab there is a tab title (which is defined as one single cell in a table with a class from a .css) and under it there are other rows and columns for the table. sample code for the single table with the single cell in it: <table class='tabcontainer_title'><tr><td class='tabcontainer_title'>TEXT</td></tr></table> This table is again positioned in one cell of the table outside it, which has a different class 'tabcontainer_content' This is in the CSS: .tabcontainer_title{ background-color : #58af34; background-image : url(); text-align : right; vertical-align : top; margin-top : 0px; margin-right : 0px; margin-bottom : 0px; margin-left : 0px; padding-top : 5px; padding-right : 10px; padding-bottom : 5px; padding-left : 0px; font-size : 14px; font-style : normal; color : #000000; } .tabcontainer_content{ width : 100%; font-weight : bolder; background-color : #58af34; color : #000000; padding : 0px; border-collapse : collapse; } The problem I'm experiencing right now is that if there are like 3 rows in the table, which means there's a lot of emtpy space instead of those rows, the text in the tab title has a large margin from the top: but I haven't configured any margin to be present. When the table is full of rows though, hence the table is full, then the tab title holds no unnecessary empty space above the text. What am I missing here?

    Read the article

  • Problems updating a textBox ASP.NET

    - by Roger Filipe
    Hello, I'm starting in asp.net and am having some problems that I do not understand. The problem is this, I am building a site for news. Every news has a title and body. I have a page where I can insert news, this page uses a textbox for each of the fields (title and body), after clicking the submit button everything goes ok and saves the values in the database. And o have another page where I can read the news, I use labels for each of the camps, these labels are defined in the Page_Load. Now I'm having problems on the page where I can edit the news. I am loading two textboxes (title and body) in the Page_Load, so far so good, but then when I change the text and I click the submit button, it ignores the changes that I made in the text and saves the text loaded in Page_Load. This code doesn't show any database connection but you can understand what i'm talking about. protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { textboxTitle.Text = "This is the title of the news"; textboxBody.Text = "This is the body of the news "; } I load the page, make the changes in the text , and then click submit. protected void btnSubmit_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { String title = textboxTitle.Text; String body = textboxBody.Text; Response.Write("Title: " + title + " || "); Response.Write("Body: " + body ); } Nothing happens, the text in the textboxes is always the one I loaded in the page_load, how do I update the Text in the textboxes?

    Read the article

  • Better use a tuple or numpy array for storing coordinates

    - by Ivan
    Hi, I'm porting an C++ scientific application to python, and as I'm new to python, some problems come to my mind: 1) I'm defining a class that will contain the coordinates (x,y). These values will be accessed several times, but they only will be read after the class instantiation. Is it better to use an tuple or an numpy array, both in memory and access time wise? 2) In some cases, these coordinates will be used to build a complex number, evaluated on a complex function, and the real part of this function will be used. Assuming that there is no way to separate real and complex parts of this function, and the real part will have to be used on the end, maybe is better to use directly complex numbers to store (x,y)? How bad is the overhead with the transformation from complex to real in python? The code in c++ does a lot of these transformations, and this is a big slowdown in that code. 3) Also some coordinates transformations will have to be performed, and for the coordinates the x and y values will be accessed in separate, the transformation be done, and the result returned. The coordinate transformations are defined in the complex plane, so is still faster to use the components x and y directly than relying on the complex variables? Thank you

    Read the article

  • How to compare 2 complex spreadsheets running in parallel for consistency with each other?

    - by tbone
    I am working on converting a large number of spreadsheets to use a new 3rd party data access library (converting from third party library #1 to third party library #2). fyi: a call to a UDF (user defined function) is placed in a cell, and when that is refreshed, it pulls the data into a pivot table below the formula. Both libraries behave the same and produce the same output, except, small irregularites can arise, such as an additional field being shown in the output pivot table using library #2, which can affect formulas on the sheet if data is being read from the pivot table without using GetPivotData. So I have ~100 of these very complicated (20+ worksheets per workbook) spreadsheets that I have to convert, and run in parallel for a period of time, to see if the output using the new data access library matches the old library. Is there some clever approach to do this, so I don't have to spend a large amount of time analyzing each sheet to determine the specific elements to compare? Two rough ideas that come to mind: 1. just create a Validator workbook that has the same # of worksheets, and simply do a Worbook1!Worksheet1!A1 - Worbook2!Worksheet3!A1 for every possible cell on each sheet 2. roughly the equivalent of #1, but just traverse the cells in the 2 books using VBA, and log any cells that do not match. I don't particularly like either idea, can anyone think of something better than this, maybe some 3rd party utility I could buy?

    Read the article

  • How to store unlimited characters in Oracle 11g?

    - by vicky21
    We have a table in Oracle 11g with a varchar2 column. We use a proprietary programming language where this column is defined as string. Maximum we can store 2000 characters (4000 bytes) in this column. Now the requirement is such that the column needs to store more than 2000 characters (in fact unlimited characters). The DBAs don't like BLOB or LONG datatypes for maintenance reasons. The solution that I can think of is to remove this column from the original table and have a separate table for this column and then store each character in a row, in order to get unlimited characters. This tble will be joined with the original table for queries. Is there any better solution to this problem? UPDATE: The proprietary programming language allows to define variables of type string and blob, there is no option of CLOB. I understand the responses given, but I cannot take on the DBAs. I understand that deviating from BLOB or LONG will be developers' nightmare, but still cannot help it.

    Read the article

  • Find all ways to insert zeroes into a bit pattern

    - by James
    I've been struggling to wrap my head around this for some reason. I have 15 bits that represent a number. The bits must match a pattern. The pattern is defined in the way the bits start out: they are in the most flush-right representation of that pattern. So say the pattern is 1 4 1. The bits will be: 000000010111101 So the general rule is, take each number in the pattern, create that many bits (1, 4 or 1 in this case) and then have at least one space separating them. So if it's 1 2 6 1 (it will be random): 001011011111101 Starting with the flush-right version, I want to generate every single possible number that meets that pattern. The # of bits will be stored in a variable. So for a simple case, assume it's 5 bits and the initial bit pattern is: 00101. I want to generate: 00101 01001 01010 10001 10010 10100 I'm trying to do this in Objective-C, but anything resembling C would be fine. I just can't seem to come up with a good recursive algorithm for this. It makes sense in the above example, but when I start getting into 12431 and having to keep track of everything it breaks down.

    Read the article

  • Is it undefined behavior in the case of the private functions call in the initializer list?

    - by Alexey Malistov
    Consider the following code: struct Calc { Calc(const Arg1 & arg1, const Arg2 & arg2, /* */ const ArgN & argn) : arg1(arg1), arg2(arg2), /* */ argn(argn), coef1(get_coef1()), coef2(get_coef2()) { } int Calc1(); int Calc2(); int Calc3(); private: const Arg1 & arg1; const Arg2 & arg2; // ... const ArgN & argn; const int coef1; // I want to use const because const int coef2; // no modification is needed. int get_coef1() const { // calc coef1 using arg1, arg2, ..., argn; // undefined behavior? } int get_coef2() const { // calc coef2 using arg1, arg2, ..., argn and coef1; // undefined behavior? } }; struct Calc is not completely defined when I call get_coef1 and get_coef2 Is this code valid? Can I get UB?

    Read the article

  • How to add deploy.jar to classpath?

    - by dma_k
    I am facing the problem: I need to add ${java.home}/lib/deploy.jar JAR file to classpath in the runtime (dynamically from java). The solution with Thread#setContextClassLoader(ClassLoader) (mentioned here) does not work because of this bug (if somebody can explain what is really a problem – you are welcome). The solution with -Xbootclasspath/a:"%JAVA_HOME%/jre/lib/deploy.jar" does not work well for me, because I want to have "pure executable jar" as a deliverable: no wrapping scripts please (more over %JAVA_HOME% may not be defined in user's environment in Windows for example, plus I need to write a script per platform) The solution with merging deploy.jar file into my deliverable works only if I make a build on Windows platform. Unfortunately, when the deliverable is produced on build server running on Linux, I got Linux-dependant JAR, which does not execute on Windows – it fails with the trace below. I have read How the Java Launcher Finds Classes and Java programming dynamics: Java classes and class loading articles but I've got no extra ideas, how to correctly handle this situation. Any advices or solutions are very welcomed. Trace: java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: Could not initialize class com.sun.deploy.config.Config at com.sun.deploy.net.proxy.UserDefinedProxyConfig.getBrowserProxyInfo(UserDefinedProxyConfig.java:43) at com.sun.deploy.net.proxy.DynamicProxyManager.reset(DynamicProxyManager.java:235) at com.sun.deploy.net.proxy.DeployProxySelector.reset(DeployProxySelector.java:59) ... java.lang.NullPointerException at com.sun.deploy.net.proxy.DynamicProxyManager.getProxyList(DynamicProxyManager.java:63) at com.sun.deploy.net.proxy.DeployProxySelector.select(DeployProxySelector.java:166)

    Read the article

  • Creating a function in Postgresql that does not return composite values

    - by celenius
    I'm learning how to write functions in Postgresql. I've defined a function called _tmp_myfunction() which takes in an id and returns a table (I also define a table object type called _tmp_mytable) -- create object type to be returned CREATE TYPE _tmp_mytable AS ( id integer, cost double precision ); -- create function which returns query CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION _tmp_myfunction( id integer ) RETURNS SETOF _tmp_mytable AS $$ BEGIN RETURN QUERY SELECT id, cost FROM sales WHERE id = sales.id; END; $$ LANGUAGE plpgsql; This works fine when I use one id and call it using the following approach: SELECT * FROM _tmp_myfunction(402); What I would like to be able to do is to call it, but to use a column of values instead of just one value. However, if I use the following approach I end up with all values of the table in one column, separated by commas: -- call function using all values in a column SELECT _tmp_myfunction(t.id) FROM transactions as t; I understand that I can get the same result if I use SELECT _tmp_myfunction(402); instead of SELECT * FROM _tmp_myfunction(402); but I don't know how to construct my query in such a way that I can separate out the results.

    Read the article

  • How does XAML set readonly CLR properties

    - by Igor Zevaka
    I am trying to create an application bar in code for WinPhone7. The XAML that does it goes like this: <PhoneApplicationPage.ApplicationBar> <shellns:ApplicationBar Visible="True" IsMenuEnabled="True"> <shellns:ApplicationBar.Buttons> <shellns:ApplicationBarIconButton IconUri="/images/appbar.feature.search.rest.png" /> </shellns:ApplicationBar.Buttons> </shellns:ApplicationBar> </PhoneApplicationPage.ApplicationBar> So I thought I'd just rewrite it in C#: var appbar = new ApplicationBar(); var buttons = new List<ApplicationBarIconButton>(); buttons.Add(new ApplicationBarIconButton(new Uri("image.png", UrlKind.Relative)); appbar.Buttons = buttons; //error CS0200: Property or indexer 'Microsoft.Phone.Shell.ApplicationBar.Buttons' cannot be assigned to -- it is read only The only problem is that Buttons property does not have a set accessor and is defined like so: public sealed class ApplicationBar { //...Rest of the ApplicationBar class from metadata public IList Buttons { get; } } How come this can be done in XAML and not C#? Is there a special way that the objects are constructed using this syntax? More importantly, how can I recreate this in code?

    Read the article

  • Python and the self parameter

    - by Svend
    I'm having some issues with the self parameter, and some seemingly inconsistent behavior in Python is annoying me, so I figure I better ask some people in the know. I have a class, Foo. This class will have a bunch of methods, m1, through mN. For some of these, I will use a standard definition, like in the case of m1 below. But for others, it's more convinient to just assign the method name directly, like I've done with m2 and m3. import os def myfun(x, y): return x + y class Foo(): def m1(self, y, z): return y + z + 42 m2 = os.access m3 = myfun f = Foo() print f.m1(1, 2) print f.m2("/", os.R_OK) print f.m3(3, 4) Now, I know that os.access does not take a self parameter (seemingly). And it still has no issues with this type of assignment. However, I cannot do the same for my own modules (imagine myfun defined off in mymodule.myfun). Running the above code yields the following output: 3 True Traceback (most recent call last): File "foo.py", line 16, in <module> print f.m3(3, 4) TypeError: myfun() takes exactly 2 arguments (3 given) The problem is that, due to the framework I work in, I cannot avoid having a class Foo at least. But I'd like to avoid having my mymodule stuff in a dummy class. In order to do this, I need to do something ala def m3(self,a1, a2): return mymodule.myfun(a1,a2) Which is hugely redundant when you have like 20 of them. So, the question is, either how do I do this in a totally different and obviously much smarter way, or how can I make my own modules behave like the built-in ones, so it does not complain about receiving 1 argument too many.

    Read the article

  • Providing less than operator for one element of a pair

    - by Koszalek Opalek
    What would be the most elegant way too fix the following code: #include <vector> #include <map> #include <set> using namespace std; typedef map< int, int > row_t; typedef vector< row_t > board_t; typedef row_t::iterator area_t; bool operator< ( area_t const& a, area_t const& b ) { return( a->first < b->first ); }; int main( int argc, char* argv[] ) { int row_num; area_t it; set< pair< int, area_t > > queue; queue.insert( make_pair( row_num, it ) ); // does not compile }; One way to fix it is moving the definition of less< to namespace std (I know, you are not supposed to do it.) namespace std { bool operator< ( area_t const& a, area_t const& b ) { return( a->first < b->first ); }; }; Another obvious solution is defining less than< for pair< int, area_t but I'd like to avoid that and be able to define the operator only for the one element of the pair where it is not defined.

    Read the article

  • NHibernate query against the key field of a dictionary (map)

    - by Carl Raymond
    I have an object model where a Calendar object has an IDictionary<MembershipUser, Perms> called UserPermissions, where MembershipUser is an object, and Perms is a simple enumeration. This is in the mapping file for Calendar as <map name="UserPermissions" table="CalendarUserPermissions" lazy="true" cascade="all"> <key column="CalendarID"/> <index-many-to-many class="MembershipUser" column="UserGUID" /> <element column="Permissions" type="CalendarPermission" not-null="true" /> </map> Now I want to execute a query to find all calendars for which a given user has some permission defined. The permission is irrelevant; I just want a list of the calendars where a given user is present as a key in the UserPermissions dictionary. I have the username property, not a MembershipUser object. How do I build that using QBC (or HQL)? Here's what I've tried: ISession session = SessionManager.CurrentSession; ICriteria calCrit = session.CreateCriteria<Calendar>(); ICriteria userCrit = calCrit.CreateCriteria("UserPermissions.indices"); userCrit.Add(Expression.Eq("Username", username)); return calCrit.List<Calendar>(); This constructed invalid SQL -- the WHERE clause contained WHERE membership1_.Username = @p0 as expected, but the FROM clause didn't include the MemberhipUsers table. Also, I really had to struggle to learn about the .indices notation. I found it by digging through the NHibernate source code, and saw that there's also .elements and some other dotted notations. Where's a reference to the allowed syntax of an association path? I feel like what's above is very close, and just missing something simple.

    Read the article

  • RSpec: Can't convert Image to String when using Nested Resource.

    - by darrint
    I'm having trouble with and RSpec view test. I'm using nested resources and the model with a belongs_to association. Here's what I have so far: describe "/images/edit.html.erb" do include ImagesHelper before(:each) do @image_pool = stub_model(ImagePool, :new_record => false, :base_path => '/') assigns[:image] = @image = stub_model(Image, :new_record? => false, :source_name => "value for source_name", :image_pool => @image_pool) end it "renders the edit image form" do render response.should have_tag("form[action=#{image_path(@image)}][method=post]") do with_tag('input#image_source_name[name=?]', "image[source_name]") end end end The error I'm receiving: ActionView::TemplateError in '/images/edit.html.erb renders the edit image form' can't convert Image into String On line #3 of app/views/images/edit.html.erb 1: <h1>Editing image</h1> 2: 3: <% form_for(@image) do |f| %> 4: <%= f.error_messages %> 5: 6: <p> app/views/images/edit.html.erb:3 /opt/dtcm/railstest/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/rspec-rails-1.3.2/lib/spec/rails/extensions/action_view/base.rb:27:in `render_with_mock_proxy' /opt/dtcm/railstest/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/rspec-rails-1.3.2/lib/spec/rails/example/view_example_group.rb:170:in `render' Looking at the rails code where the exception occurs is not very revealing. Any ideas on how I can narrow down what is going on here? One thing I tried was calling form_for directly from the example and I got a different error griping about lack of 'polymorphic_path' defined on Spec::Rails::Example::ViewExampleGroup::Subclass_4:0xblah. Not sure if that actually means anything.

    Read the article

  • If the dependency is a unique snapshot version and install is called, what does maven select?

    - by chrsk
    Imagine two projects. The first is the framework-core project which is in version 1.1.0 and has several snapshot builds. The other is the example-business project which has the following dependency to framework-core on the build-iteration number 9. <dependency> <groupId>org.example</groupId> <artifactId>framework-core</artifactId> <version>1.1.0-20100518.134928-9</version> </dependency> What happens if mvn install is called on the framework-core? I found out that the artifact is copied to the folder and is named to *.1.1.0-SNAPSHOT.jar (as expected). This lead me to the assumption that this version is only used if even this 1.1.0-SNAPSHOT version is defined as dependency and not the precise build. To test something local without deploying it to the maven repository: call mvn install, change the dependency to 1.1.0-SNAPSHOT -- and the artifact just installed is used? Or is it possible to overwrite the specific build (with using the install lifecycle phase)?

    Read the article

  • How to control dojo widget classes, or how to get fine-grained control of style

    - by djna
    I am creating a UI with dojo that is emulting some aspects of an existing thick client application. I need to programatically put two different menu bars on the same page. I have successfully created the two menu bars using new dijit.Menu(); new dijit.MenuItem(); and so on. Now I want to give them slightly different presentation styles. As I'm going to have quite a few pages of this sort my first thought is to use different CSS style classes. And that's the problem: when I create the Menu and it's items we get quite a set of HTML objects, each with CSS classes specified by dojo, and the classes are the same for the items associated with either menu. How can I best get specific control for any one menu? I could determine the dojo-generated ids for each item, and specify styles by ids, but that seems like hard work. Is there an sensible way to control the classes defined by dojo, or a nice CSS way to select only the items associated with one menu bar?

    Read the article

  • keyUp event heard?: Overridden NSView method

    - by Old McStopher
    UPDATED: I'm now overriding the NSView keyUp method from a NSView subclass set to first responder like below, but am still not seeing evidence that it is being called. @implementation svsView - (BOOL)acceptsFirstResponder { return YES; } - (void)keyUp:(NSEvent *)event { //--do key up stuff-- NSLog(@"key up'd!"); } @end --ORIGINAL POST-- I'm new to Cocoa and Obj-C and am trying to do a (void)keyUp: from within the implementation of my controller class (which itself is of type NSController). I'm not sure if this is the right place to put it, though. I have a series of like buttons each set to a unique key equivalent (IB button attribute) and each calls my (IBAction)keyInput method which then passes the identity of each key onto another object. This runs just fine, but I also want to track when each key is released. --ORIGINAL [bad] EXAMPLE-- @implementation svsController //init //IBActions - (IBAction)keyInput:(id)sender { //--do key down stuff-- } - (void)keyUp:(NSEvent *)event { //--do key up stuff-- } @end Upon fail, I also tried the keyUp as an IBAction (instead of void), like the user-defined keyInput is, and hooked it up to the appropriate buttons in Interface Builder, but then keyUp was only called when the keys were down and not when released. (Which I kind of figured would happen.) Pardon my noobery, but should I be putting this method in another class or doing something differently? Wherever it is, though, I need it be able to access objects owned by the controller class. Thanks for any insight you may have.

    Read the article

  • delete multi-line block of text with internal flag in povray file

    - by Sibo Lin
    I have a pov-ray file, which defines a lot of cylinders and spheres. Sometimes these shapes are defined to have "color@", which makes the povray unrenderable. One solution I've found is to delete the offending cylinders and spheres. So a file that contains this text cylinder { < -0.17623, 0.24511, -0.27947>, < -0.15220, 0.22658, -0.26472>, 0.00716 texture { colorO } } sphere { < -0.00950, 0.00357, 0.00227>, 0.00716 texture { color@ } } cylinder { < -0.00950, 0.00357, 0.00227>, < 0.00327, 0.00169, 0.00108>, 0.00716 texture { color@ } } sphere { < 0.15373, 0.00601, 0.18223>, 0.00716 texture { colorO } } would turn into this text cylinder { < -0.17623, 0.24511, -0.27947>, < -0.15220, 0.22658, -0.26472>, 0.00716 texture { colorO } } sphere { < 0.15373, 0.00601, 0.18223>, 0.00716 texture { colorO } } Is there some way to do this replacement with a shell script? Preferably in tcsh. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • using STI and ActiveRecordBase<> with full FindAll

    - by oillio
    Is it possible to use generic support with single table inheritance, and still be able to FindAll of the base class? As a bonus question, will I be able to use ActiveRecordLinqBase< as well? I do love those queries. More detail: Say I have the following classes defined: public interface ICompany { int ID { get; set; } string Name { get; set; } } [ActiveRecord("companies", DiscriminatorColumn="type", DiscriminatorType="String", DiscriminatorValue="NA")] public abstract class Company<T> : ActiveRecordBase<T>, ICompany { [PrimaryKey] private int Id { get; set; } [Property] public String Name { get; set; } } [ActiveRecord(DiscriminatorValue="firm")] public class Firm : Company<Firm> { [Property] public string Description { get; set; } } [ActiveRecord(DiscriminatorValue="client")] public class Client : Company<Client> { [Property] public int ChargeRate { get; set; } } This works fine for most cases. I can do things like: var x = Client.FindAll(); But sometimes I want all of the companies. If I was not using generics I could do: var x = (Company[]) FindAll(Company); Client a = (Client)x[0]; Firm b = (Firm)x[1]; Is there a way to write a FindAll that returns an array of ICompany's that can then be typecast into their respective types? Something like: var x = (ICompany[]) FindAll(Company<ICompany>); Client a = (Client)x[0]; Or maybe I am going about implementing the generic support all wrong?

    Read the article

  • Mysql Performance Question - Essentially about normalizing efficiency

    - by freqmode
    Hi there. Just a quick question about database performance. I'll outline my site purpose below as background. I'm creating a dictionary site that saves the words users define to a database. What I'm wondering is whether or not to create a words table for each user or to keep one massive words table. This site will be used for entire schools so the single words table would be massive! The database structure is as follows: A user table with: User_ID PRIMARY KEY Username First Last Password Email Country Research Standings SendInfo Donated JoinedOn LastLogin Logins Correct Attempts Admin Active And one word table with: User_ID PRIMARY KEY Word Vocab Spell Defined DefinedAttempted Spelled SpelledAttempted Sentenced SentencedAttempted So what I'm asking is , performance-wise, should I create a new table for each user when they join the site - each user could have hundreds or thousands of words over time? Or is it better to have one massive table with thousands and thousands of records and filter by User_ID. I don't think I'll perform many table joins. My gut feeling is to create a new table for each user, but I thought I'd ask for expert advice! Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Calling jQuery method from onClick attribute in HTML

    - by Russell
    I am relatively new to implementing JQuery throughout an entire system, and I am enjoying the opportunity. I have come across one issue I would love to find the correct resolve for. Here is a simple case example of what I want to do: I have a button on a page, and on the click event I want to call a jquery function I have defined. Here is the code I have used to define my method (Page.js): (function($) { $.fn.MessageBox = function(msg) { alert(msg); }; }); And here is my HTML page: <HTML> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="C:\Sandpit\jQueryTest\jquery-1.3.2.js"></script> <script language="javascript" src="Page.js"></script> </head> <body> <div class="Title">Welcome!</div> <input type="button" value="ahaha" onclick="$().MessageBox('msg');" /> </body> </HTML> (The above code displays the button, but clicking does nothing.) I am aware I could add the click event in the document ready event, however it seems more maintainable to put events in the HTML element instead. However I have not found a way to do this. Is there a way to call a jquery function on a button element (or any input element)? Or is there a better way to do this? Thanks

    Read the article

  • LDAP/AD Integrated Group/Membership Management Package suitable for embedding in an application

    - by Ernest
    In several web applications, it is often necessary to define groups of users for purposes of membership as well as role management. For example, in one of our applications we would like to user a group of "Network Engineers" and another group that consists of "Managers" of such Network Engineers. The information we need is contact details of members of each group. So far, we have written our own tools to allow the administrator of the application to add/delete/move groups and their memberships and either store them in a XML file or a database. Increasingly, companies already have the groups we want defined in LDAP/AD, so it would be best to create a pointer in our application to the correspoding group in LDAP. Although there are a number of LDAP libraries and LDAP browsers available and we could code this and provide a web front end to get a list of available groups and their members, we are wondering if there is already a "component framework" available that would readily provide this LDAP browsing functionality that we could just embed this into our application. Something between a library and a full LDAP browser product ? (To clarify, the use case is for an admin of our web application to create a locally relevant group name and then map it to an exiting LDAP group. To enable this in the UI, we would like to present a way for the admin to browse available groups in the company LDAP server, view their membership, and select the LDAP group they would like to map to the locally relevant group name. In a second step, we would then synchronize the members of that LDAP group and their contact details to a store in our application ) Appreciate any pointers.

    Read the article

  • How to easily map c++ enums to strings

    - by Roddy
    I have a bunch of enum types in some library header files that I'm using, and I want to have a way of converting enum values to user strings - and vice-versa. RTTI won't do it for me, because the 'user strings' need to be a bit more readable than the enumerations. A brute force solution would be a bunch of functions like this, but I feel that's a bit too C-like. enum MyEnum {VAL1, VAL2,VAL3}; String getStringFromEnum(MyEnum e) { switch e { case VAL1: return "Value 1"; case VAL2: return "Value 2"; case VAL1: return "Value 3"; default: throw Exception("Bad MyEnum"); } } I have a gut feeling that there's an elegant solution using templates, but I can't quite get my head round it yet. UPDATE: Thanks for suggestions - I should have made clear that the enums are defined in a third-party library header, so I don't want to have to change the definition of them. My gut feeling now is to avoid templates and do something like this: char * MyGetValue(int v, char *tmp); // implementation is trivial #define ENUM_MAP(type, strings) char * getStringValue(const type &T) \ { \ return MyGetValue((int)T, strings); \ } ; enum eee {AA,BB,CC}; - exists in library header file ; enum fff {DD,GG,HH}; ENUM_MAP(eee,"AA|BB|CC") ENUM_MAP(fff,"DD|GG|HH") // To use... eee e; fff f; std::cout<< getStringValue(e); std::cout<< getStringValue(f);

    Read the article

  • SOLR not searching on certain fields

    - by andy
    hey guys, just installed solr, edited the schema.xml, and am now trying to index it and search on it with some test data. In the XML file I'm sending to SOLR, one of my fields look like this: <field name="PageContent"><![CDATA[<p>some text in a paragrah tag</p>]]></field> There's HTML there, so I've wrapped it in CDATA. In my SOLR schema.xml, the definition for that field looks like this: <field name="PageContent" type="text" indexed="true" stored="true"/> When I ran the POSTing tool, everything went ok, but when I search for content which I know is inside the PageContent field, I get no results. However, when I set the node to PageContent, it works. But if I set it to any other field, it doesn't search in PageContent. Am I doing something wrong? what's the issue? thanks very much for any help cheers! UPDATE Just to clarify on the error. I've uploaded a "doc" with the following data: <field name="PageID">928</field> <field name="PageName">some name</field> <field name="PageContent"><![CDATA[<p>html content</p>]]></field> In my schema I've defined the fields as such: <field name="PageID" type="integer" indexed="true" stored="true" required="true"/> <field name="PageName" type="text" indexed="true" stored="true"/> <field name="PageContent" type="text" indexed="true" stored="true"/> And: <uniqueKey>PageID</uniqueKey> <defaultSearchField>PageName</defaultSearchField> Now, when I use the Solr admin tool and search for "some name" I get a result. But, if I search for "html content", or "html", or "content", or "928", I get no results why? cool, thanks!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 253 254 255 256 257 258 259 260 261 262 263 264  | Next Page >