Search Results

Search found 8286 results on 332 pages for 'defined'.

Page 260/332 | < Previous Page | 256 257 258 259 260 261 262 263 264 265 266 267  | Next Page >

• Why would the IE Developer Toolbar claim a style is applied, yet that supposed fact is not reflected

  - by Deane

  I have a situation where IE7 is simply not applying styles, even though it claims it is. I have an element on my page. In the CSS, I have defined a rule that should apply "display: none" to it, so it should not be displayed. It's still displaying. I downloaded the IE Developer Toolbar, and found the element in the DOM selector. I right-clicked and selected "Applied Styles." Right there, IE claims that it is applying my "display: none" rule. In fact, the "Applied Styles" dialog confirms everything I think I know about my CSS and how it should be applied. Yet the element remains. Now, I'm not asking anyone to debug my CSS here. I'm asking, if the IE Developer Toolbar claims/confirms this element should be gone, but it's still there...what does that mean, exactly? Since the Toolbar is on my side, I think my CSS is fine. Is there some IE7 bug I'm not considering? Edit: One thing that might be relevant: the LINK elements that load the stylesheets are applied to the page in Javascript, via "document.write". I'm starting to suspect that has something to do with it.

  Read the article

• Asp.net Hidden field not having value in code behind, but *is* retaining value after postbacks

  - by KallDrexx

  In my ASCX, I have an asp.net hidden field defined as <asp:HiddenField ID="hdnNewAsset" runat="server" />. In the Code Behind I have the following code: protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { _service = new ArticleDataService(PortalId); if (!IsPostBack) { string rawId = Request[ArticleQueryParams.ArticleId]; DisplayArticleDetails(rawId); } if (hdnNewAsset.Value.Trim() != string.Empty) ProcessNewAsset(); } Now, in my frontend, I have a javascript function to react to an event and set the hidden field and trigger a postback: function assetSelected(assetGuid) { $('input[id*="hdnNewAsset"]').val(assetGuid); __doPostBack() } What's happening is that my hidden field is being set in the markup (chrome shows [ <input type=?"hidden" name=?"dnn$ctr466$Main$ctl00$hdnNewAsset" id=?"dnn_ctr466_Main_ctl00_hdnNewAsset" value=?"98d88e72-088c-40a4-9022-565a53dc33c4">? ] for $('input[id*="hdnNewAsset"]')). However, when the postback occurs, hdnNewAsset.Value is an empty string. What's even more puzzling is that at the beginning of Page_Load Request.Params["dnn$ctr466$Main$ctl00$hdnNewAsset"] shows 98d88e72-088c-40a4-9022-565a53dc33c4, and after the postback my hidden field has the same value (so the hidden field is persisting across postbacks), yet I cannot access this value via hdnNewAsset.Value. Can anyone see what I"m doing wrong?

  Read the article

• WCF Async callback setup for polled device

  - by Mark Pim

  I have a WCF service setup to control a USB fingerprint reader from our .Net applications. This works fine and I can ask it to enroll users and so on. The reader allows identification (it tells you that a particular user has presented their finger, as opposed to asking it to verify that a particular user's finger is present), but the device must be constantly polled while in identification mode for its status - when a user is detected the status changes. What I want is for an interested application to notify the service that it wants to know when a user is identified, and provide a callback that gets triggered when this happens. The WCF service will return immediately and spawn a thread in the background to continuously poll the device. This polling could go on for hours at a time if no one tries to log in. What's the best way to acheive this? My service contract is currently defined as follows: [ServiceContract (CallbackContract=typeof(IBiometricCallback))] public interface IBiometricWcfService { ... [OperationContract (IsOneWay = true)] void BeginIdentification(); ... } public interface IBiometricCallback { ... [OperationContract(IsOneWay = true)] void IdentificationFinished(int aUserId, string aMessage, bool aSuccess); ... } In my BeginIdentification() method can I easily spawn a worker thread to poll the device, or is it easier to make the WCF service asynchronous?

  Read the article

• multiple definition in header file

  - by Jérôme

  Here is a small code-example from which I'd like to ask a question : complex.h : #ifndef COMPLEX_H #define COMPLEX_H #include <iostream> class Complex { public: Complex(float Real, float Imaginary); float real() const { return m_Real; }; private: friend std::ostream& operator<<(std::ostream& o, const Complex& Cplx); float m_Real; float m_Imaginary; }; std::ostream& operator<<(std::ostream& o, const Complex& Cplx) { return o << Cplx.m_Real << " i" << Cplx.m_Imaginary; } #endif // COMPLEX_H complex.cpp : #include "complex.h" Complex::Complex(float Real, float Imaginary) { m_Real = Real; m_Imaginary = Imaginary; } main.cpp : #include "complex.h" #include <iostream> int main() { Complex Foo(3.4, 4.5); std::cout << Foo << "\n"; return 0; } When compiling this code, I get the following error : multiple definition of operator<<(std::ostream&, Complex const&) I've found that making this fonction inline solves the problem, but I don't understand why. Why does the compiler complain about multiple definition ? My header file is guarded (with #define COMPLEX_H). And, if complaining about the operator<< fonction, why not complain about the public real() fonction, which is defined in the header as well ? And is there another solution as using the inline keyword ?

  Read the article

• SELECT * FROM <table> BETWEEN <value typed in a JTextField> AND <idem>

  - by Rodrigo Sieja Bertin

  In this part of the program, the JInternalFrame file FrmMovimento, I made a button called Visualizar ("View"). Based on what we type on the text fields, it must show the interval the user defined. There are these JTextFields: Code from: _ To: _ Asset: _ And these JFormattedTextFields: Date from: _ To: _ There are registers appearing already in the JDesktopPane from JInternalFrame FrmListarMov, if I use another SELECT statement selecting all registers, for example. But not if I type as I did in the title: public List<MovimentoVO> Lista() throws ErroException, InformacaoException{ List<MovimentoVO> listaMovimento = new ArrayList<> (); try { MySQLDAO.getInstancia().setAutoCommit(false); try (PreparedStatement stmt = MySQLDAO.getInstancia().prepareStatement( "SELECT * FROM Cadastro2 WHERE Codigo BETWEEN "+ txtCodDeMov +" AND "+ txtCodAteMov +";") { ResultSet registro = stmt.executeQuery(); while(registro.next()){ MovimentoVO Movimento = new MovimentoVO(); Movimento.setCodDeMov(registro.getInt(1)); Movimento.setCodAteMov(registro.getInt(2)); Movimento.setAtivoMov(registro.getString(3)); Movimento.setDataDeMov(registro.getString(4)); Movimento.setDataAteMov(registro.getString(5)); listaMovimento.add(Movimento); } } } catch (SQLException ex) { throw new ErroException(ex.getMessage()); } catch (InformacaoException ex) { throw ex; } return listaMovimento; } In the SELECT line, txtCodDeMov is how I named the JTextField of "Code from" and txtCodAtemov is how I named the JTextField of the first "To". Oh, I'm using NetBeans 7.1.2 (Build 201204101705) and MySQL Ver 14.14 Distrib 5.1.63 in a Linux Mint 12 64-bits.

  Read the article

• Are bad data issues that common?

  - by Water Cooler v2

  I've worked for clients that had a large number of distinct, small to mid-sized projects, each interacting with each other via properly defined interfaces to share data, but not reading and writing to the same database. Each had their own separate database, their own cache, their own file servers/system that they had dedicated access to, and so they never caused any problems. One of these clients is a mobile content vendor, so they're lucky in a way that they do not have to face the same problems that everyday business applications do. They can create all those separate compartments where their components happily live in isolation of the others. However, for many business applications, this is not possible. I've worked with a few clients, one of whose applications I am doing the production support for, where there are "bad data issues" on an hourly basis. Yeah, it's that crazy. Some data records from one of the instances (lower than production, of course) would have been run a couple of weeks ago, and caused some other user's data to get corrupted. And then, a data script will have to be written to fix this issue. And I've seen this happening so much with this client that I have to ask. I've seen this happening at a moderate rate with other clients, but this one just seems to be out of order. If you're working with business applications that share a large amount of data by reading and writing to/from the same database, are "bad data issues" that common in your environment?

  Read the article

• Synth LaF JLabel DISABLED color

  - by mmoris

  Hi all, Using the Synth LaF, I am unable to set a JLabel's FOREGROUND color for the DISABLED state. has anybody succeeded in doing this? Here is my label's style definition in my LaF.xml file. <style id="whiteLabelStyle"> <opaque value="false"/> <font name="Bitstream Vera Sans" size="16" /> <state> <color type="FOREGROUND" value="WHITE"/> </state> <state value="DISABLED"> <color type="FOREGROUND" value="BLACK"/> </state> </style> <bind style="whiteLabelStyle" type="name" key="WhiteOrbitLabel"/> Please not that all the other styles defined in my LaF.xml file are rendered properly in my application including my label's WHITE normal state color (it just never goes to black when I do lbl.setEnabled(false) Also, going through the Synth code, I have found the following comment in SynthStyle.getColor if ((context.getComponentState() & SynthConstants.DISABLED) != 0) { //This component is disabled, so return the disabled color. //In some cases this means ignoring the color specified by the //developer on the component. In other cases it means using a //specified disabledTextColor, such as on JTextComponents. //For example, JLabel doesn't specify a disabled color that the //developer can set, yet it should have a disabled color to the //text when the label is disabled. This code allows for that. if (c instanceof JTextComponent) { JTextComponent txt = (JTextComponent)c; Color disabledColor = txt.getDisabledTextColor(); if (disabledColor == null || disabledColor instanceof UIResource) { return getColorForState(context, type); } } else if (c instanceof JLabel && (type == ColorType.FOREGROUND || type == ColorType.TEXT_FOREGROUND)){ return getColorForState(context, type); } But I could not figure out how to set a disabled color for a JLabel Thanks for your help!

  Read the article

• No idea how to solve SICP exercise 1.11

  - by Javier Badia

  This is not homework. Exercise 1.11: A function f is defined by the rule that f(n) = n if n<3 and f(n) = f(n - 1) + 2f(n - 2) + 3f(n - 3) if n 3. Write a procedure that computes f by means of a recursive process. Write a procedure that computes f by means of an iterative process. Implementing it recursively is simple enough. But I couldn't figure out how to do it iteratively. I tried comparing with the Fibonacci example given, but I didn't know how to use it as an analogy. So I gave up (shame on me) and Googled for an explanation, and I found this: (define (f n) (if (< n 3) n (f-iter 2 1 0 n))) (define (f-iter a b c count) (if (< count 3) a (f-iter (+ a (* 2 b) (* 3 c)) a b (- count 1)))) After reading it, I understand the code and how it works. But what I don't understand is the process needed to get from the recursive defintion of the function to this. I don't get how the code formed in someone's head. Could you explain the thought process needed to arrive at the solution?

  Read the article

• Drupal 6: getting particular fields from Node Reference types...

  - by artmania

  Hi friends, I'm a drupal newbie... <?php print $node->field_date[0]['view']; ?> I can get the custom created CCK fields' value and display in tpl.php files as above... that's fine. my question is how can I get the Node reference fields' in-fields? for example, I have an event content type, and I have defined Node Reference for Location (title, address, img, etc.). When I write the code below, it displays all location content; <?php print $node->field_location[0]['view']; ?> but I need to get only address field from this location content type. sth like below would be great :D but not working; <?php print $node->field_location[0]['field_address']['view']; ?> so how can get that? appreciate helps so much! thanks a lot!

  Read the article

• InvalidOperationException: The Undo operation encountered a context that is different from what was

  - by McN

  I got the following exception: Exception Type: System.InvalidOperationException Exception Message: The Undo operation encountered a context that is different from what was applied in the corresponding Set operation. The possible cause is that a context was Set on the thread and not reverted(undone). Exception Stack: at System.Threading.SynchronizationContextSwitcher.Undo() at System.Threading.ExecutionContextSwitcher.Undo() at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.runFinallyCode(Object userData, Boolean exceptionThrown) at System.Runtime.CompilerServices.RuntimeHelpers.ExecuteBackoutCodeHelper(Object backoutCode, Object userData, Boolean exceptionThrown) at System.Runtime.CompilerServices.RuntimeHelpers.ExecuteCodeWithGuaranteedCleanup(TryCode code, CleanupCode backoutCode, Object userData) at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.RunInternal(ExecutionContext executionContext, ContextCallback callback, Object state) at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.Run(ExecutionContext executionContext, ContextCallback callback, Object state) at System.Net.ContextAwareResult.Complete(IntPtr userToken) at System.Net.LazyAsyncResult.ProtectedInvokeCallback(Object result, IntPtr userToken) at System.Net.Sockets.BaseOverlappedAsyncResult.CompletionPortCallback(UInt32 errorCode, UInt32 numBytes, NativeOverlapped* nativeOverlapped) at System.Threading._IOCompletionCallback.PerformIOCompletionCallback(UInt32 errorCode, UInt32 numBytes, NativeOverlapped* pOVERLAP) Exception Source: mscorlib Exception TargetSite.Name: Undo Exception HelpLink: The application is a Visual Studio 2005 (.Net 2.0) console application. It is a server for multiple TCP/IP connections, doing asynchronous socket reads and synchronous socket writes. In searching for an answer I came across this post which talks about a call to Application.Doevents() which I don't use in my code. I also found this post which has a resolution involved with Component which I also don't use in my code. The application does reference a library that I created that contains custom user controls and components, but they are not being used by the application. Question: What caused this to happen and how do I prevent this from happening again? Or a more realistic question: What does this exception actually mean? How is "context" defined in this situation? Anything that can help me understand what is going on would be very much appreciated.

  Read the article

• Ajax not working in visual studio 2005

  - by sachin

  I am trying to do an ajax website, but my ajax is not working. I checked my GAC and system.web,extensions dll is available. Why it is not working .? I am also not getting any errors. I tried many ways. I wrote the below code to test ajax. <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="Default.aspx.cs" Inherits="_Default" %> <%@ Register Assembly="System.Web.Extensions" Namespace="System.Web.UI" TagPrefix="asp" %> <%@ Register Assembly="AjaxControlToolkit" Namespace="AjaxControlToolkit" TagPrefix="cc1" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" > <head runat="server"> <title>Untitled Page</title> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <cc1:ToolkitScriptManager ID="ToolkitScriptManager1" runat="server"> </cc1:ToolkitScriptManager> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <cc1:CalendarExtender ID="CalendarExtender1" runat="server" TargetControlID="TextBox1"> </cc1:CalendarExtender> </div> </form> </body> </html> JAvascript error that i got 1.Type is not defined http://localhost:1467/testnew/Default.aspx?_TSM_HiddenField_=ToolkitScriptManager1_HiddenField&_TSM_CombinedScripts_=%3b%3bAjaxControlToolkit%2c+Version%3d1.0.20229.20821%2c+Culture%3dneutral%2c+PublicKeyToken%3d28f01b0e84b6d53e%3aen-US%3ac5c982cc-4942-4683-9b48-c2c58277700f%3ae2e86ef9%3aa9a7729d%3a9ea3f0e2%3a9e8e87e9%3a1df13a87%3a4c9865be%3aba594826%3a507fcf1b%3ac7a4182e

  Read the article

• Associative Array / Object can't be read in functions

  - by Matrym

  At the very beginning of the javascript file, I have: var lbp = {}; lbp.defaults = { minLength: 40 }; I can successfully alert it afterwards, with: alert(lbp.defaults.minLength); But as soon as I put it inside a function, when I alert, I get "Undefined". What gives, and how do I avoid this? Is it absolutely necessary to pass this variable into each function, for example, by doing: function(lbp) { alert(lbp.defaults.minLength); } I would have thought that defining it first, it would attain global scope and not be required to be passed in? Thanks in advance for enlightening me :) ==================================== EDIT: The problem seems like it might be my initialize function is itself defined within lbp. Is there any way to use this function var, and still use lbp vars inside it? lbp.initialize = function() { alert(lbp.defaults.minLength); }; The full bit of code looks like this: <script type="text/javascript"> var lbp = { defaults: { minLength: 40 } }; lbp.initialize = function() { alert(lbp.defaults.minLength); }; window.onload = lbp.initialize; </script>

  Read the article

• What is a reasonable OSGi development workflow?

  - by levand

  I'm using OSGi for my latest project at work, and it's pretty beautiful as far as modularity and functionality. But I'm not happy with the development workflow. Eventually, I plan to have 30-50 separate bundles, arranged in a dependency graph - supposedly, this is what OSGi is designed for. But I can't figure out a clean way to manage dependencies at compile time. Example: You have bundles A and B. B depends on packages defined in A. Each bundle is developed as a separate Java project. In order to compile B, A has to be on the javac classpath. Do you: Reference the file system location of project A in B's build script? Build A and throw the jar into B's lib directory? Rely on Eclipse's "referenced projects" feature and always use Eclipse's classpath to build (ugh) Use a common "lib" directory for all projects and dump the bundle jars there after compilation? Set up a bundle repository, parse the manifest from the build script and pull down the required bundles from the repository? No. 5 sounds the cleanest, but also like a lot of overhead.

  Read the article

• What does this structure actually do?

  - by LGTrader

  I found this structure code in a Julia Set example from a book on CUDA. I'm a newbie C programmer and cannot get my head around what it's doing, nor have I found the right thing to read on the web to clear it up. Here's the structure: struct cuComplex { float r; float i; cuComplex( float a, float b ) : r(a), i(b) {} float magnitude2( void ) { return r * r + i * i; } cuComplex operator*(const cuComplex& a) { return cuComplex(r*a.r - i*a.i, i*a.r + r*a.i); } cuComplex operator+(const cuComplex& a) { return cuComplex(r+a.r, i+a.i); } }; and it's called very simply like this: cuComplex c(-0.8, 0.156); cuComplex a(jx, jy); int i = 0; for (i=0; i<200; i++) { a = a * a + c; if (a.magnitude2() > 1000) return 0; } return 1; So, the code did what? Defined something of structure type 'cuComplex' giving the real and imaginary parts of a number. (-0.8 & 0.156) What is getting returned? (Or placed in the structure?) How do I work through the logic of the operator stuff in the struct to understand what is actually calculated and held there? I think that it's probably doing recursive calls back into the stucture float magnitude2 (void) { return return r * r + i * i; } probably calls the '*' operator for r and again for i, and then the results of those two operations call the '+' operator? Is this correct and what gets returned at each step? Just plain confused. Thanks!

  Read the article

• Program to find the result of primitive recursive functions

  - by alphomega

  I'm writing a program to solve the result of primitive recursive functions: 1 --Basic functions------------------------------ 2 3 --Zero function 4 z :: Int -> Int 5 z = \_ -> 0 6 7 --Successor function 8 s :: Int -> Int 9 s = \x -> (x + 1) 10 11 --Identity/Projection function generator 12 idnm :: Int -> Int -> ([Int] -> Int) 13 idnm n m = \(x:xs) -> ((x:xs) !! (m-1)) 14 15 --Constructors-------------------------------- 16 17 --Composition constructor 18 cn :: ([Int] -> Int) -> [([Int] -> Int)] -> ([Int] -> Int) 19 cn f [] = \(x:xs) -> f 20 cn f (g:gs) = \(x:xs) -> (cn (f (g (x:xs))) gs) these functions and constructors are defined here: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Primitive_recursive_function The issue is with my attempt to create the compositon constructor, cn. When it gets to the base case, f is no longer a partial application, but a result of the function. Yet the function expects a function as the first argument. How can I deal with this problem? Thanks.

  Read the article

• SQL n:m Inheritance join

  - by Nightmares

  I want to join a table which contains n:m relationship between groups. (Groups are defined in a separate table). This table only has entries listing a member_group_id and a parent_group_id. Given this structure: id(int) | member_group_id(int) | parent_group_id(int) The "base" query looks like this: select p1.group_id, p2.group_id, p1.member_group_id, p2.member_group_id from group_member_group as p1 join group_member_group as p2 on p2.member_group_id = p1.member_group_id The "base" query correctly shows all relationships (I checked by doing it manually.) The problem is when I try to apply a where clause to this query to filter for a specific group as "point of origin" (the first group for which I want all parent groups) it returns only the closest parents. For example like this: select p1.group_id, p2.group_id, p1.member_group_id, p2.member_group_id from group_member_group as p1 join group_member_group as p2 on p2.member_group_id = p1.member_group_id where p1.group_id = 1 Can anyone give a clue how I can fix this? Or a different approach to realize this. (I suppose I could always do this in my C++ source code on the server side but I would have to transfer a entire table which has a high growth potential to the application server.) UPDATE: select p1.group_id, p2.group_id, p1.member_group_id, p2.member_group_id from group_member_group as p1 join group_member_group as p2 on p2.group_id = p1.member_group_id Typing mistake confirmed. Now I don't get past first level of inheritance period. Thanks at denied for pointing that out.

  Read the article

• BinaryFormatter in C# a good way to read files?

  - by mr-pac

  I want to read a binary file which was created outside of my program. One obvious way in C# to read a binary file is to define class representing the file and then use a BinaryReader and read from the file via the Read* methods and assign the return values to the class properties. What I don't like with the approach is that I manually have to write code that reads the file, although the defined structure represents how the file is stored. I also have to keep the order correct when I read. After looking a bit around I came across the BinaryFormatter which can automatically serialize and deserialze object in binary format. One great advantage would be that I can read and also write the file without creating additional code. However I wonder if this approach is good for files created from other programs on not just serialized .NET objects. Take for example a graphics format file like BMP. Would it be a good idea to read the file with a BinaryFormatter or is it better to manually and write via BinaryReader and BinaryWriter? Or are there any other approaches which suit better? I'am not looking for concrete examples but just for an advice what is the best way to implement that.

  Read the article

• How to use custom UITableViewCell from Interface Builder?

  - by Krumelur

  I want to be able to design my own UITableViewCell in IB. But I keep getting a null ref exception when trying to access the label I defined in IB. Here's what I'm doing: In Interface Builder: I removed the "View" and added a UITableViewCell instead. Changed the class of the UITableViewCell to "TestCellView". Added a UILabel to the cell. Added an outlet "oLblText" to TestCellView and connected the UILabel to it. Changed the identifier of the class to "TestCellView". Implement TestCellView.xib.cs public partial class TestCellView : UITableViewCell { public TestCellView(string sKey) : base(UITableViewCellStyle.Default, sKey) { } public TestCellView(IntPtr oHandle) : base(oHandle) { } public string TestText { get { return this.oLblText.Text; } set { // HERE I get the null ref exception! this.oLblText.Text = value; } } } ** The TestCellView.designer.cs** [MonoTouch.Foundation.Register("TestCellView")] public partial class TestCellView { private MonoTouch.UIKit.UILabel __mt_oLblText; #pragma warning disable 0169 [MonoTouch.Foundation.Connect("oLblText")] private MonoTouch.UIKit.UILabel oLblText { get { this.__mt_oLblText = ((MonoTouch.UIKit.UILabel)(this.GetNativeField("oLblText"))); return this.__mt_oLblText; } set { this.__mt_oLblText = value; this.SetNativeField("oLblText", value); } } } In my table's source: public override UITableViewCell GetCell (UITableView tableView, NSIndexPath indexPath) { TestCellView oCell = (TestCellView)tableView.DequeueReusableCell("myCell"); if(oCell == null) { // I suppose this is wrong but how to do it correctly? // this == my UITableViewSource. NSBundle.MainBundle.LoadNib("TestCellView", this, null); oCell = new TestCellView("myCell"); } oCell.TestText = "Cell " + indexPath.Row; return oCell; } Please note that I do NOT want a solution that involves a UIViewController for every cell. I have seen a couple of examples on the web doing this. I just think it is total overkill. What am I doing wrong?

  Read the article

• Speed of QHash lookups using QStrings as keys.

  - by Ryan R.

  I need to draw a dynamic overlay on a QImage. The component parts of the overlay are defined in XML and parsed out to a QHash<QString, QPicture> where the QString is the name (such as "crosshairs") and the QPicture is the resolution independent drawing. I then draw components of the overlay as they are needed at a position determined during runtime. Example: I have 10 pictures in my QHash composing every possible element in a HUD. During a particular frame of video I need to draw 6 of them at different positions on the image. During the next frame something has changed and now I only need to draw 4 of them but 2 of those positions have changed. Now to my question: If I am trying to do this quickly, should I redefine my QHash as QHash<int, QPicture> and enumerate the keys to counteract the overhead caused by string comparisons; or are the comparisons not going to make a very big impact on performance? I can easily make the conversion to integer keys as the XML parser and overlay composer are completely separate classes; but I would like to use a consistent data structure across the application. Should I overcome my desire for consistency and re-usability in order to increase performance? Will it even matter very much if I do?

  Read the article

• Creating DOM elements on the fly - check if the data is not harmful

  - by user313353

  I already posted a question closely related to the this one. I watched the Mix10 video with P. Haacked and S. Hanselman. I am building an AJAX-powered site whose input forms are created on the fly. All the code to accomplish this is done within a script tag or a javascript file. For example the following DOM elements are created when the page loads and are wrapped into an existing div defined in a view: $('#myform').append('); $('#myform').append(''); When I click the submit button I need to get the values of the input form whose id is 'Name': $("#Name").val() and then I return a Json object: { Name: name }; For this kind of scenario there is no way to use Html.Encode() or AntiXss.HtmlEncode() on the client-side. The only way to check if the input is not harmful is done on the server-side (via a service layer). This seems a limitation. All is fine if and only if a view has a set of predefined inputs. When it is time to create them on the fly, the situation is different. Have you thought of that situation guys? Thanks for the attention you have put on this. Roland Brussels, Belgium

  Read the article

• Combining two-part SQL query into one query

  - by user332523

  Hello, I have a SQL query that I'm currently solving by doing two queries. I am wondering if there is a way to do it in a single query that makes it more efficient. Consider two tables: Transaction_Entries table and Transactions, each one defined below: Transactions - id - reference_number (varchar) Transaction_Entries - id - account_id - transaction_id (references Transactions table) Notes: There are multiple transaction entries per transaction. Some transactions are related, and will have the same reference_number string. To get all transaction entries for Account X, then I would do SELECT E.*, T.reference_number FROM Transaction_Entries E JOIN Transactions T ON (E.transaction_id=T.id) where E.account_id = X The next part is the hard part. I want to find all related transactions, regardless of the account id. First I make a list of all the unique reference numbers I found in the previous result set. Then for each one, I can query all the transactions that have that reference number. Assume that I hold all the rows from the previous query in PreviousResultSet UniqueReferenceNumbers = GetUniqueReferenceNumbers(PreviousResultSet) // in Java foreach R in UniqueReferenceNumbers // in Java SELECT * FROM Transaction_Entries where transaction_id IN (SELECT * FROM Transactions WHERE reference_number=R Any suggestions how I can put this into a single efficient query?

  Read the article

• Modifying CSS class property values on the fly with JavaScript / jQuery

  - by JPN

  all. I've run into a unique situation that I have so far been unable to find a solution for: dynamically assigning a value to a CSS style. I know how to use jQuery to assign width, height, etc. to an element, but what I'm trying to do is actually change the value defined in the stylesheet so that the dynamically-created value can be assigned to multiple elements. What I'm building is a slideshow of images that occupy the full viewport, recalculating the image's width, height, and left properties on resize so that the image is always centered, favors width over height, except when the viewport is taller than it is wide (resizing does not reload the page, just fires a function to resize the image). I have successfully been able to get it to work on one image, and now I'm trying to determine the best way to assign those property values to all images in the slideshow without having to specify those three things individually for every image. Can the values of properties in a class be modified on the fly? I'm sure the answer is out there, I'm probably just not using the correct terminology in my searches. Hope I did a good job of describing the problem. TIA.

  Read the article

• PowerShell function arguments: Can the first one be optional first?

  - by Johannes Rössel

  I have an advanced function in PowerShell, which roughly looks like this: function Foo { [CmdletBinding] param ( [int] $a = 42, [int] $b ) } The idea is that it can be run with either two, one or no arguments. However, the first argument to become optional is the first one. So the following scenarios are possible to run the function: Foo a b # the normal case, both a and b are defined Foo b # a is omitted Foo # both a and b are omitted However, normally PowerShell tries to fit the single argument into a. So I thought about specifying the argument positions explicitly, where a would have position 0 and b position 1. However, to allow for only b specified I tried putting a into a parameter set. But then b would need a different position depending on the currently-used parameter set. Any ideas how to solve this properly? I'd like to retain the parameter names (which aren't a and b actually), so using $args is probably a last resort. I probably could define two parameter sets, one with two mandatory parameters and one with a single optional one, but I guess the parameter names have to be different in that case, then, right?

  Read the article

• Firefox add-on development: Register global dynamic custom keyboard shortcuts

  - by dezwart

  I have been tasked with developing a Firefox add-on that is capable of registering global keyboard shortcuts (ones that will work throughout all areas of Firefox) that will open up the side-bar and execute an XMLRPC request based on previously recorded input. The idea here is that there will be many potential XMLRPC requests that the user will want to execute via a keyboard shortcut. Currently, the add-on is capable of handling pre-defined static keyboard shortcuts via the Firefox overlay. What I would like to achieve, is to allow the user to register their own dynamic custom keyboard shortcut. There is an add-on that currently has some of this functionality, called Keyconfig. I'm not keen on having to ask users to install a second add-on to define their own shortcuts. It also seems that using the dynamic keyboard shortcut registration method in Keyconfig would require the user to close all Firefox windows before the dynamic shortcut is made available. What I would like to know is: Is an XPCOM component the best way to register dynamic keyboard shortcuts from within a Firefox add-on? Is there a way to register the keyboard shortcut so that it is immediately available to all Firefox windows, without having to close the windows beforehand?

  Read the article

• Testing form submission with Cucumber

  - by picardo

  I wrote a simple Cuke feature for a form on a demo site. The feature looks like this. Given I am on the home page When I set the "Start Date" to "2010-10-25" And I set the "End Date" to "2011-1-3" And I press the "Go" button Then I should see "Cake Shop" The idea is that after I press the Go button, a new page will load, showing a list of results, and one of the results should be "Cake Shop." But I have not managed to get this to work. Is there something that I am missing? Edit: here is the step definitions. Given /^I am on the "([^"]*)" page$/ do |page| visit root_path end When /^I set the "([^"]*)" to "([^"]*)"$/ do |field, date| fill_in field, :with=>date end When /^I press the "([^"]*)" button$/ do |arg1| click_button('Go') end The final step is defined in web_steps.rb I believe....and it's always there that it's failing. Then I should see "Cake Shop" # features/step_definitions/web_steps.rb:107 expected #has_content?("Cake Shop") to return true, got false (RSpec::Expectations::ExpectationNotMetError) ./features/step_definitions/web_steps.rb:110:in block (2 levels) in <top (required)>' ./features/step_definitions/web_steps.rb:14:in with_scope' ./features/step_definitions/web_steps.rb:108:in /^(?:|I )should see "([^"]*)"(?: within "([^"]*)")?$/' features/specify_timerange.feature:12:in Then I should see "Cake Shop"'

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 256 257 258 259 260 261 262 263 264 265 266 267  | Next Page >