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  • using STI and ActiveRecordBase<> with full FindAll

    - by oillio
    Is it possible to use generic support with single table inheritance, and still be able to FindAll of the base class? As a bonus question, will I be able to use ActiveRecordLinqBase< as well? I do love those queries. More detail: Say I have the following classes defined: public interface ICompany { int ID { get; set; } string Name { get; set; } } [ActiveRecord("companies", DiscriminatorColumn="type", DiscriminatorType="String", DiscriminatorValue="NA")] public abstract class Company<T> : ActiveRecordBase<T>, ICompany { [PrimaryKey] private int Id { get; set; } [Property] public String Name { get; set; } } [ActiveRecord(DiscriminatorValue="firm")] public class Firm : Company<Firm> { [Property] public string Description { get; set; } } [ActiveRecord(DiscriminatorValue="client")] public class Client : Company<Client> { [Property] public int ChargeRate { get; set; } } This works fine for most cases. I can do things like: var x = Client.FindAll(); But sometimes I want all of the companies. If I was not using generics I could do: var x = (Company[]) FindAll(Company); Client a = (Client)x[0]; Firm b = (Firm)x[1]; Is there a way to write a FindAll that returns an array of ICompany's that can then be typecast into their respective types? Something like: var x = (ICompany[]) FindAll(Company<ICompany>); Client a = (Client)x[0]; Or maybe I am going about implementing the generic support all wrong?

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  • How to add deploy.jar to classpath?

    - by dma_k
    I am facing the problem: I need to add ${java.home}/lib/deploy.jar JAR file to classpath in the runtime (dynamically from java). The solution with Thread#setContextClassLoader(ClassLoader) (mentioned here) does not work because of this bug (if somebody can explain what is really a problem – you are welcome). The solution with -Xbootclasspath/a:"%JAVA_HOME%/jre/lib/deploy.jar" does not work well for me, because I want to have "pure executable jar" as a deliverable: no wrapping scripts please (more over %JAVA_HOME% may not be defined in user's environment in Windows for example, plus I need to write a script per platform) The solution with merging deploy.jar file into my deliverable works only if I make a build on Windows platform. Unfortunately, when the deliverable is produced on build server running on Linux, I got Linux-dependant JAR, which does not execute on Windows – it fails with the trace below. I have read How the Java Launcher Finds Classes and Java programming dynamics: Java classes and class loading articles but I've got no extra ideas, how to correctly handle this situation. Any advices or solutions are very welcomed. Trace: java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: Could not initialize class com.sun.deploy.config.Config at com.sun.deploy.net.proxy.UserDefinedProxyConfig.getBrowserProxyInfo(UserDefinedProxyConfig.java:43) at com.sun.deploy.net.proxy.DynamicProxyManager.reset(DynamicProxyManager.java:235) at com.sun.deploy.net.proxy.DeployProxySelector.reset(DeployProxySelector.java:59) ... java.lang.NullPointerException at com.sun.deploy.net.proxy.DynamicProxyManager.getProxyList(DynamicProxyManager.java:63) at com.sun.deploy.net.proxy.DeployProxySelector.select(DeployProxySelector.java:166)

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  • Providing less than operator for one element of a pair

    - by Koszalek Opalek
    What would be the most elegant way too fix the following code: #include <vector> #include <map> #include <set> using namespace std; typedef map< int, int > row_t; typedef vector< row_t > board_t; typedef row_t::iterator area_t; bool operator< ( area_t const& a, area_t const& b ) { return( a->first < b->first ); }; int main( int argc, char* argv[] ) { int row_num; area_t it; set< pair< int, area_t > > queue; queue.insert( make_pair( row_num, it ) ); // does not compile }; One way to fix it is moving the definition of less< to namespace std (I know, you are not supposed to do it.) namespace std { bool operator< ( area_t const& a, area_t const& b ) { return( a->first < b->first ); }; }; Another obvious solution is defining less than< for pair< int, area_t but I'd like to avoid that and be able to define the operator only for the one element of the pair where it is not defined.

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  • Are function-local typedefs visible inside C++0x lambdas?

    - by GMan - Save the Unicorns
    I've run into a strange problem. The following simplified code reproduces the problem in MSVC 2010 Beta 2: template <typename T> struct dummy { static T foo(void) { return T(); } }; int main(void) { typedef dummy<bool> dummy_type; auto x = [](void){ bool b = dummy_type::foo(); }; // auto x = [](void){ bool b = dummy<bool>::foo(); }; // works } The typedef I created locally in the function doesn't seem to be visible in the lambda. If I replace the typedef with the actual type, it works as expected. Here are some other test cases: // crashes the compiler, credit to Tarydon int main(void) { struct dummy {}; auto x = [](void){ dummy d; }; } // works as expected int main(void) { typedef int integer; auto x = [](void){ integer i = 0; }; } I don't have g++ 4.5 available to test it, right now. Is this some strange rule in C++0x, or just a bug in the compiler? From the results above, I'm leaning towards bug. Though the crash is definitely a bug. For now, I have filed two bug reports. All code snippets above should compile. The error has to do with using the scope resolution on locally defined scopes. (Spotted by dvide.) And the crash bug has to do with... who knows. :) Update According to the bug reports, they have both been fixed for the next release of Visual Studio 2010.

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  • Python calling class methods with the wrong number of parameters

    - by Hussain
    I'm just beginning to learn python. I wrote an example script to test OOP in python, but something very odd has happened. When I call a class method, Python is calling the function with one more parameter than given. Here is the code: 1. class Bar: 2. num1,num2 = 0,0 3. def __init__(num1,num2): 4. num1,num2 = num1,num2 5. def foo(): 6. if num1 num2: 7. print num1,'is greater than ',num2,'!' 8. elif num1 is num2: 9. print num1,' is equal to ',num2,'!' 10. else: 11. print num1,' is less than ',num2,'!' 12. a,b,t = 42,84,bar(a,b) 13. t.foo 14. 15. t.num1 = t.num1^t.num2 16. t.num2 = t.num2^t.num1 17. t.num1 = t.num1^t.num2 18. 19. t.foo 20. And the error message I get: python test.py Traceback (most recent call last): File "test.py", line 12, in a,b,t = 42,84,bar(a,b) NameError: name 'bar' is not defined Can anyone help? Thanks in advance

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  • Calling jQuery method from onClick attribute in HTML

    - by Russell
    I am relatively new to implementing JQuery throughout an entire system, and I am enjoying the opportunity. I have come across one issue I would love to find the correct resolve for. Here is a simple case example of what I want to do: I have a button on a page, and on the click event I want to call a jquery function I have defined. Here is the code I have used to define my method (Page.js): (function($) { $.fn.MessageBox = function(msg) { alert(msg); }; }); And here is my HTML page: <HTML> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="C:\Sandpit\jQueryTest\jquery-1.3.2.js"></script> <script language="javascript" src="Page.js"></script> </head> <body> <div class="Title">Welcome!</div> <input type="button" value="ahaha" onclick="$().MessageBox('msg');" /> </body> </HTML> (The above code displays the button, but clicking does nothing.) I am aware I could add the click event in the document ready event, however it seems more maintainable to put events in the HTML element instead. However I have not found a way to do this. Is there a way to call a jquery function on a button element (or any input element)? Or is there a better way to do this? Thanks

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  • How to vertically align text in a button with a background drawable?

    - by neutrino
    I had a simple button set up with a background image defined like android:background="?attr/button" where ?attr/button was a reference to a simple 9-patch png. Everything worked fine, text in the button was aligned correctly. Then I needed to have a different background for a pressed state of the button. So I changed that to android:background="@drawable/state_button" where @drawable/state_button is an xml with the following states <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <selector xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android"> <item android:state_pressed="true" android:drawable="@drawable/button_pressed" /> <!-- pressed --> <item android:state_focused="true" android:drawable="@drawable/button_pressed" /> <!-- focused --> <item android:drawable="@drawable/button" /> <!-- default --> </selector> And after that I can't align the text properly. If I put android:gravity="center_vertical" the text is drawn about 1/4 of the button height from the top. I double-checked my 9-patch images, everything seems fine with them. And I also tried having regular pngs for the background, it also doesn't change anything.

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  • Clone existing structs with different alignment in Visual C++

    - by Crend King
    Is there a way to clone an existing struct with different member alignment in Visual C++? Here is the background: I use an 3rd-party library, which uses several structs. To fill up the structs, I pass the address of the struct instances to some functions. Unfortunately, the functions only returns unaligned buffer, so that data of some members are always wrong. /Zp is out of choice, since it breaks the other parts of the program. I know #pragma pack modifies the alignment of the following struct, but I would like to avoid copying the structs into my code, for the definitions in the library might change in the future. Sample code: test.h: struct am_aligned { BYTE data1[10]; ULONG data2; }; test.cpp: #include "test.h" // typedef alignment(1) struct am_aligned am_unaligned; int APIENTRY wWinMain(HINSTANCE hInstance, HINSTANCE hPrevInstance, LPTSTR lpCmdLine, int nCmdShow) { char buffer[20] = {}; for (int i = 0; i < sizeof(unaligned_struct); i++) { buffer[i] = i; } am_aligned instance = *(am_aligned*) buffer; return 0; } Consider am_aligned is defined in the library header file. am_unaligned is my custom declaration, and only effective in test.cpp. The commented line does not work of course. instance.data2 is 0x0f0e0d0c, while 0x0d0c0b0a is desired. Thanks for help!

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  • How do I call an Obj-C method from Javascript?

    - by gnfti
    Hi all, I'm developing a native iPhone app using Phonegap, so everything is done in HTML and JS. I am using the Flurry SDK for analytics and want to use the [FlurryAPI logEvent:@"EVENT_NAME"]; method to track events. Is there a way to do this in Javascript? So when tracking a link I would imagine using something like <a onClick="flurryTrackEvent("Click_Rainbows")" href="#Rainbows">Rainbows</a> <a onClick="flurryTrackEvent("Click_Unicorns")" href="#Unicorns">Unicorns</a> "FlurryAPI.h" has the following: @interface FlurryAPI : NSObject { } + (void)startSession:(NSString *)apiKey; + (void)logEvent:(NSString *)eventName; + (void)logEvent:(NSString *)eventName withParameters:(NSDictionary *)parameters; + (void)logError:(NSString *)errorID message:(NSString *)message exception:(NSException *)exception; + (void)setUserID:(NSString *)userID; + (void)setEventLoggingEnabled:(BOOL)value; + (void)setServerURL:(NSString *)url; + (void)setSessionReportsOnCloseEnabled:(BOOL)sendSessionReportsOnClose; @end I'm only interested in the logEvent method(s). If it's not clear by now, I'm comfortable with JS but a recovering Obj-C noob. I've read the Apple docs but the examples described there are all for newly declared methods and I imagine this could be simpler to implement because the Obj-C method(s) are already defined. Thank you in advance for any input.

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  • linear combinations in python/numpy

    - by nmaxwell
    greetings, I'm not sure if this is a dumb question or not. Lets say I have 3 numpy arrays, A1,A2,A3, and 3 floats, c1,c2,c3 and I'd like to evaluate B = A1*c1+ A2*c2+ A3*c3 will numpy compute this as for example, E1 = A1*c1 E2 = A2*c2 E3 = A3*c3 D1 = E1+E2 B = D1+E3 or is it more clever than that? In c++ I had a neat way to abstract this kind of operation. I defined series of general 'LC' template functions, LC for linear combination like: template<class T,class D> void LC( T & R, T & L0,D C0, T & L1,D C1, T & L2,D C2) { R = L0*C0 +L1*C1 +L2*C2; } and then specialized this for various types, so for instance, for an array the code looked like for (int i=0; i<L0.length; i++) R.array[i] = L0.array[i]*C0 + L1.array[i]*C1 + L2.array[i]*C2; thus avoiding having to create new intermediate arrays. This may look messy but it worked really well. I could do something similar in python, but I'm not sure if its nescesary. Thanks in advance for any insight. -nick

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  • ASP.NET MVC URL Routing problem

    - by Sadegh
    hi, i have defined a route as below: context.MapRoute("SearchEngineWebSearch", "search/web/{query}/{index}/{size}", new { controller = "search", action = "web", query = "", index = 0, size = 5 }); and action method to handle request match with that: public System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Web(string query = "", int index = 0, int size = 5) { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(query)) return RedirectToRoute("SearchEngineBasicSearch"); var search = new Search(); var results = search.PerformSearch(query, index, size); ViewData["Query"] = query; if (results != null && results.Count() > 0) { ViewData["Results"]= results; return View("Web"); } else return View("Not-Found"); } and form to sent parameter to action method: <% using (Html.BeginForm("Web", "Search", FormMethod.Post)) { %> <input name="query" type="text" value="<%: ViewData["Query"]%>" class="search-field" /> <input type="submit" value="Search" class="search-button" /> <input type="hidden" name="index" value="2" /> <input type="hidden" name="size" value="2" /> <%} %> now after click on submit and sending value to action method all route values updated but url values still is equals to first time of sending parameter. for example if i sent for first time request such as http://localhost/search/web/google and for next time http://localhost/search/web/yahoo, query parameter which passed to action method is yahoo but url after postback is http://localhost/search/web/google still! can anybody help me plz? ;)

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  • Spawning a thread in python

    - by morpheous
    I have a series of 'tasks' that I would like to run in separate threads. The tasks are to be performed by separate modules. Each containing the business logic for processing their tasks. Given a tuple of tasks, I would like to be able to spawn a new thread for each module as follows. from foobar import alice, bob charles data = getWorkData() # these are enums (which I just found Python doesn't support natively) :( tasks = (alice, bob, charles) for task in tasks # Ok, just found out Python doesn't have a switch - @#$%! # yet another thing I'll need help with then ... switch case alice: #spawn thread here - how ? alice.spawnWorker(data) No prizes for guessing I am still thinking in C++. How can I write this in a Pythonic way using Pythonic 'enums' and 'switch'es, and be able to run a module in a new thread. Obviously, the modules will all have a class that is derived from a ABC (abstract base class) called Plugin. The spawnWorker() method will be declared on the Plugin interface and defined in the classes implemented in the various modules. Maybe, there is a better (i.e. Pythonic) way of doing all this?. I'd be interested in knowing

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  • LDAP/AD Integrated Group/Membership Management Package suitable for embedding in an application

    - by Ernest
    In several web applications, it is often necessary to define groups of users for purposes of membership as well as role management. For example, in one of our applications we would like to user a group of "Network Engineers" and another group that consists of "Managers" of such Network Engineers. The information we need is contact details of members of each group. So far, we have written our own tools to allow the administrator of the application to add/delete/move groups and their memberships and either store them in a XML file or a database. Increasingly, companies already have the groups we want defined in LDAP/AD, so it would be best to create a pointer in our application to the correspoding group in LDAP. Although there are a number of LDAP libraries and LDAP browsers available and we could code this and provide a web front end to get a list of available groups and their members, we are wondering if there is already a "component framework" available that would readily provide this LDAP browsing functionality that we could just embed this into our application. Something between a library and a full LDAP browser product ? (To clarify, the use case is for an admin of our web application to create a locally relevant group name and then map it to an exiting LDAP group. To enable this in the UI, we would like to present a way for the admin to browse available groups in the company LDAP server, view their membership, and select the LDAP group they would like to map to the locally relevant group name. In a second step, we would then synchronize the members of that LDAP group and their contact details to a store in our application ) Appreciate any pointers.

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  • Ruby and public_method_defined? : strange behaviour

    - by aXon
    Hi there Whilst reading through the book "The well grounded Rubyist", I came across some strange behaviour. The idea behind the code is using one's own method_missing method. The only thing I am not able to grasp is, why this code gets executed, as I do not have any Person.all_with_* class methods defined, which in turn means that the self.public_method_defined?(attr) returns true (attr is friends and then hobbies). #!/usr/bin/env ruby1.9 class Person PEOPLE = [] attr_reader :name, :hobbies, :friends def initialize(mame) @name = name @hobbies = [] @friends = [] PEOPLE << self end def has_hobby(hobby) @hobbies << hobby end def has_friend(friend) @friends << friend end def self.method_missing(m,*args) method = m.to_s if method.start_with?("all_with_") attr = method[9..-1] if self.public_method_defined?(attr) PEOPLE.find_all do |person| person.send(attr).include?(args[0]) end else raise ArgumentError, "Can't find #{attr}" end else super end end end j = Person.new("John") p = Person.new("Paul") g = Person.new("George") r = Person.new("Ringo") j.has_friend(p) j.has_friend(g) g.has_friend(p) r.has_hobby("rings") Person.all_with_friends(p).each do |person| puts "#{person.name} is friends with #{p.name}" end Person.all_with_hobbies("rings").each do |person| puts "#{person.name} is into rings" end The output is is friends with is friends with is into rings which is really understandable, as there is nothing to be executed.

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  • How to easily map c++ enums to strings

    - by Roddy
    I have a bunch of enum types in some library header files that I'm using, and I want to have a way of converting enum values to user strings - and vice-versa. RTTI won't do it for me, because the 'user strings' need to be a bit more readable than the enumerations. A brute force solution would be a bunch of functions like this, but I feel that's a bit too C-like. enum MyEnum {VAL1, VAL2,VAL3}; String getStringFromEnum(MyEnum e) { switch e { case VAL1: return "Value 1"; case VAL2: return "Value 2"; case VAL1: return "Value 3"; default: throw Exception("Bad MyEnum"); } } I have a gut feeling that there's an elegant solution using templates, but I can't quite get my head round it yet. UPDATE: Thanks for suggestions - I should have made clear that the enums are defined in a third-party library header, so I don't want to have to change the definition of them. My gut feeling now is to avoid templates and do something like this: char * MyGetValue(int v, char *tmp); // implementation is trivial #define ENUM_MAP(type, strings) char * getStringValue(const type &T) \ { \ return MyGetValue((int)T, strings); \ } ; enum eee {AA,BB,CC}; - exists in library header file ; enum fff {DD,GG,HH}; ENUM_MAP(eee,"AA|BB|CC") ENUM_MAP(fff,"DD|GG|HH") // To use... eee e; fff f; std::cout<< getStringValue(e); std::cout<< getStringValue(f);

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  • Having Issue with Bounded Wildcards in Generic

    - by Sanjiv
    I am new to Java Generics, and I'm currently experimenting with Generic Coding....final goal is to convert old Non-Generic legacy code to generic one... I have defined two Classes with IS-A i.e. one is sub-class of other. public class Parent { private String name; public Parent(String name) { super(); this.name = name; } } public class Child extends Parent{ private String address; public Child(String name, String address) { super(name); this.address = address; } } Now, I am trying to create a list with bounded Wildcard. and getting Compiler Error. List<? extends Parent> myList = new ArrayList<Child>(); myList.add(new Parent("name")); // compiler-error myList.add(new Child("name", "address")); // compiler-error myList.add(new Child("name", "address")); // compiler-error Bit confused. please help me on whats wrong with this ?

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  • Google Maps API v3 not working

    - by user1496322
    I've been banging my head on the wall after going through the documentation on this several times! I can't seem to get past the API error to get the map to appear on my site. I am getting the following error message from the web page where I want the map to be displayed: ~~~~~~~~~~~ Google has disabled use of the Maps API for this application. The provided key is not a valid Google API Key, or it is not authorized for the Google Maps Javascript API v3 on this site. If you are the owner of this application, you can learn about obtaining a valid key here: https://developers.google.com/maps/documentation/javascript/tutorial#Obtaining_Key ~~~~~~~~~~~ I have (several times now) gone into my account and 1) enabled the Maps v3 API service. 2) Generated a new API key. and 3) added my allowed referrers to the key. (both www.domain.com and domain.com URLs) I have the following added to the head of the web page: < script src="http://maps.googleapis.com/maps/api/js?sensor=false&key=MY_API_KEY_HERE" type="text/JavaScript" language="JavaScript" And... I have the following javascript function that executes when a link is clicked on the page: alert("viewMap()"); var map = new GMap3(document.getElementById("map_canvas")); var geocoder = new GClientGeocoder(); var address = "1600 Amphitheatre Parkway, Mountain View"; alert("Calling getLatLng ..."); geocoder.getLatLng(address, function(point) { var latitude = point.y; var longitude = point.x; // do something with the lat lng alert("Lat:"+latitude+" - Lng:"+longitude); }); The initial 'viewMap' alert is displayed and then is followed by the 'Google has disbled use...' error message. The error console is also showing 'GMap3 is not defined'. Can anyone please assist with showing me the errors of my ways?!?!? Thank you in advance for any help you can provide. -Dennis

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  • SOAP web services in haskell?

    - by Dave
    I have to write a bunch of small web services. They must be defined by a WSDL and work via SOAP-RPC, in order to work with an existing workflow engine and service registry framework. I can, however, serve them on a service stack/platform of my choice. I'm presently writing them in Java, and it's not too bad. But I'm thinking my life might be easier if I was able to write these services in Haskell. Searching on Google, it looks like, once upon a time, someone else had the same idea and started a project called "HAIFA". However, it looks like HAIFA hasn't been maintained for some years, and I couldn't find any other frameworks supporting serving up services written in Haskell as SOAP web services. Does anyone know of any other frameworks that will allow me to easily write SOAP-based web services using Haskell? If not, has anyone done this manually (i.e., use XML libraries from hackage to process the incoming soap-rpc requests, and create soap-rpc compliant replies)? Was it difficult to do? Any gotchas? Was it worth the effort? Thanks in advance!

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  • SQLAlchemy & Complex Queries

    - by user356594
    I have to implement ACL for an existing application. So I added the a user, group and groupmembers table to the database. I defined a ManyToMany relationship between user and group via the association table groupmembers. In order to protect some ressources of the app (i..e item) I added a additional association table auth_items which should be used as an association table for the ManyToMany relationship between groups/users and the specific item. item has following columns: user_id -- user table group_id -- group table item_id -- item table at least on of user_id and group_id columns are set. So it's possible to define access for a group or for a user to a specific item. I have used the AssociationProxy to define the relationship between users/groups and items. I now want to display all items which the user has access to and I have a really hard time doing that. Following criteria are used: All items which are owned by the user should be shown (item.owner_id = user.id) All public items should be shown (item.access = public) All items which the user has access to should be shown (auth_item.user_id = user.id) All items which the group of the user has access to should be shown. The first two criteria are quite straightforward, but I have a hard time doing the 3rd one. Here is my approach: clause = and_(item.access == 'public') if user is not None: clause = or_(clause,item.owner == user,item.users.contains(user),item.groups.contains(group for group in user.groups)) The third criteria produces an error. item.groups.contains(group for group in user.groups) I am actually not sure if this is a good approach at all. What is the best approach when filtering manytomany relationships? How I can filter a manytomany relationship based on another list/relationship? Btw I am using the latest sqlalchemy (6.0) and elixir version Thanks for any insights.

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  • Problem with .release behavior in file_operations

    - by Yannick
    Hello, I'm dealing with a problem in a kernel module that get data from userspace using a /proc entry. I set open/write/release entries for my own defined /proc entry, and manage well to use it to get data from userspace. I handle errors in open/write functions well, and they are visible to user as open/fopen or write/fwrite/fprintf errors. But some of the errors can only be checked at close (because it's the time all the data is available). In these cases I return something different than 0, which I supposed to be in some way the value 'close' or 'fclose' will return to user. But whatever the value I return my close behave like if all is fine. To be sure I replaced all the release() code by a simple 'return(-1);' and wrote a program that open/write/close the /proc entry, and prints the close return value (and the errno). It always return '0' whatever the value I give. Behavior is the same with 'fclose', or by using shell mechanism (echo "..." /proc/my/entry). Any clue about this strange behavior that is not the one claimed in many tutorials I found? BTW I'm using RHEL5 kernel (2.6.18, redhat modified), on a 64bit system. Thanks. Regards, Yannick

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  • Why would the IE Developer Toolbar claim a style is applied, yet that supposed fact is not reflected

    - by Deane
    I have a situation where IE7 is simply not applying styles, even though it claims it is. I have an element on my page. In the CSS, I have defined a rule that should apply "display: none" to it, so it should not be displayed. It's still displaying. I downloaded the IE Developer Toolbar, and found the element in the DOM selector. I right-clicked and selected "Applied Styles." Right there, IE claims that it is applying my "display: none" rule. In fact, the "Applied Styles" dialog confirms everything I think I know about my CSS and how it should be applied. Yet the element remains. Now, I'm not asking anyone to debug my CSS here. I'm asking, if the IE Developer Toolbar claims/confirms this element should be gone, but it's still there...what does that mean, exactly? Since the Toolbar is on my side, I think my CSS is fine. Is there some IE7 bug I'm not considering? Edit: One thing that might be relevant: the LINK elements that load the stylesheets are applied to the page in Javascript, via "document.write". I'm starting to suspect that has something to do with it.

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  • Are bad data issues that common?

    - by Water Cooler v2
    I've worked for clients that had a large number of distinct, small to mid-sized projects, each interacting with each other via properly defined interfaces to share data, but not reading and writing to the same database. Each had their own separate database, their own cache, their own file servers/system that they had dedicated access to, and so they never caused any problems. One of these clients is a mobile content vendor, so they're lucky in a way that they do not have to face the same problems that everyday business applications do. They can create all those separate compartments where their components happily live in isolation of the others. However, for many business applications, this is not possible. I've worked with a few clients, one of whose applications I am doing the production support for, where there are "bad data issues" on an hourly basis. Yeah, it's that crazy. Some data records from one of the instances (lower than production, of course) would have been run a couple of weeks ago, and caused some other user's data to get corrupted. And then, a data script will have to be written to fix this issue. And I've seen this happening so much with this client that I have to ask. I've seen this happening at a moderate rate with other clients, but this one just seems to be out of order. If you're working with business applications that share a large amount of data by reading and writing to/from the same database, are "bad data issues" that common in your environment?

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  • No idea how to solve SICP exercise 1.11

    - by Javier Badia
    This is not homework. Exercise 1.11: A function f is defined by the rule that f(n) = n if n<3 and f(n) = f(n - 1) + 2f(n - 2) + 3f(n - 3) if n 3. Write a procedure that computes f by means of a recursive process. Write a procedure that computes f by means of an iterative process. Implementing it recursively is simple enough. But I couldn't figure out how to do it iteratively. I tried comparing with the Fibonacci example given, but I didn't know how to use it as an analogy. So I gave up (shame on me) and Googled for an explanation, and I found this: (define (f n) (if (< n 3) n (f-iter 2 1 0 n))) (define (f-iter a b c count) (if (< count 3) a (f-iter (+ a (* 2 b) (* 3 c)) a b (- count 1)))) After reading it, I understand the code and how it works. But what I don't understand is the process needed to get from the recursive defintion of the function to this. I don't get how the code formed in someone's head. Could you explain the thought process needed to arrive at the solution?

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  • What are the arguments against the inclusion of server side scripting in JavaScript code blocks?

    - by James Wiseman
    I've been arguing for some time against embedding server-side tags in JavaScript code, but was put on the spot today by a developer who seemed unconvinced The code in question was a legacy ASP application, although this is largely unimportant as it could equally apply to ASP.NET or PHP (for example). The example in question revolved around the use of a constant that they had defined in ServerSide code. 'VB Const MY_CONST: MY_CONST = 1 If sMyVbVar = MY_CONST Then 'Do Something End If //JavaScript if (sMyJsVar === "<%= MY_CONST%>"){ //DoSomething } My standard arguments against this are: Script injection: The server-side tag could include code that can break the JavaScript code Unit testing. Harder to isolate units of code for testing Code Separation : We should keep web page technologies apart as much as possible. The reason for doing this was so that the developer did not have to define the constant in two places. They reasoned that as it was a value that they controlled, that it wasn't subject to script injection. This reduced my justification for (1) to "We're trying to keep the standards simple, and defining exception cases would confuse people" The unit testing and code separation arguments did not hold water either, as the page itself was a horrible amalgam of HTML, JavaScript, ASP.NET, CSS, XML....you name it, it was there. No code that was every going to be included in this page could possibly be unit tested. So I found myself feeling like a bit of a pedant insisting that the code was changed, given the circumstances. Are there any further arguments that might support my reasoning, or am I, in fact being a bit pedantic in this insistence?

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  • Setting objct literal property value via asynchronous callback.

    - by typeof
    I'm creating a self-contained javascript utility object that detects advanced browser features. Ideally, my object would look something like this: Support = { borderRadius : false, // values returned by functions gradient : false, // i am defining dataURI : true }; My current problem deals with some code I'm adapting from Weston Ruter's site which detects dataURI support. It attempts to use javascript to create an image with a dataURI source, and uses onload/onerror callbacks to check the width/height. Since onload is asynchronous, I lose my scope and returning true/false does not assign true/false to my object. Here is my attempt: Support = { ... dataURI : function(prop) { prop = prop; // keeps in closure for callback var data = new Image(); data.onload = data.onerror = function(){ if(this.width != 1 || this.height != 1) { that = false; } that = true; } data.src = "data:image/gif;base64,R0lGODlhAQABAIAAAAAAAP///ywAAAAAAQABAAACAUwAOw=="; return -1; }(this) }; I'm executing the anonymous function immediately, passing this (which I hoped was a reference to Support.dataURI), but unfortunately references the window object -- so the value is always -1. I can get it to work by using an externally defined function to assign the value after the Support object is created... but I don't think it's very clean that way. Is there a way for it to be self-contained? Can the object literal's function reference the property it's assigned to?

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