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• WCF Duplex net.tcp issues on win7

  - by Tom

  We have a WCF service with multiple clients to schedule operations amongst clients. It worked great on XP. Moving to win7, I can only connect a client to the server on the same machine. At this point, I'm thinking it's something to do with IPv6, but I'm stumped as to how to proceed. Client trying to connect to a remote server gives the following exception: System.ServiceModel.EndpointNotFoundException: Could not connect to net.tcp://10.7.11.14:18297/zetec/Service/SchedulerService/Scheduler. The connection attempt lasted for a time span of 00:00:21.0042014. TCP error code 10060: A connection attempt failed because the connected party did not properly respond after a period of time, or established connection failed because connected host has failed to respond 10.7.11.14:18297. --- System.Net.Sockets.SocketException: A connection attempt failed because the connected party did not properly respond after a period of time, or established connection failed because connected host has failed to respond 10.7.11.14:18297 The service is configured like so: <system.serviceModel> <services> <service name="SchedulerService" behaviorConfiguration="SchedulerServiceBehavior"> <host> <baseAddresses> <add baseAddress="net.tcp://localhost/zetec/Service/SchedulerService"/> </baseAddresses> </host> <endpoint address="net.tcp://localhost:18297/zetec/Service/SchedulerService/Scheduler" binding="netTcpBinding" bindingConfiguration = "ConfigBindingNetTcp" contract="IScheduler" /> <endpoint address="net.tcp://localhost:18297/zetec/Service/SchedulerService/Scheduler" binding="netTcpBinding" bindingConfiguration = "ConfigBindingNetTcp" contract="IProcessingNodeControl" /> </service> </services> <bindings> <netTcpBinding> <binding name = "ConfigBindingNetTcp" portSharingEnabled="True"> <security mode="None"/> </binding> </netTcpBinding > </bindings> <behaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name="SchedulerServiceBehavior"> <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="true" /> <serviceThrottling maxConcurrentSessions="100"/> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors> </system.serviceModel> I've checked my firewall about a dozen times, but I guess there could be something I'm missing. Tried disabling windows firewall. I tried changing localhost to my ipv4 address to try to keep away from ipv6, I've tried removing any anti-ipv6 code.

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• C# file Decryption - Bad Data

  - by Jon

  Hi all, I am in the process of rewriting an old application. The old app stored data in a scoreboard file that was encrypted with the following code: private const String SSecretKey = @"?B?n?Mj?"; public DataTable GetScoreboardFromFile() { FileInfo f = new FileInfo(scoreBoardLocation); if (!f.Exists) { return setupNewScoreBoard(); } DESCryptoServiceProvider DES = new DESCryptoServiceProvider(); //A 64 bit key and IV is required for this provider. //Set secret key For DES algorithm. DES.Key = ASCIIEncoding.ASCII.GetBytes(SSecretKey); //Set initialization vector. DES.IV = ASCIIEncoding.ASCII.GetBytes(SSecretKey); //Create a file stream to read the encrypted file back. FileStream fsread = new FileStream(scoreBoardLocation, FileMode.Open, FileAccess.Read); //Create a DES decryptor from the DES instance. ICryptoTransform desdecrypt = DES.CreateDecryptor(); //Create crypto stream set to read and do a //DES decryption transform on incoming bytes. CryptoStream cryptostreamDecr = new CryptoStream(fsread, desdecrypt, CryptoStreamMode.Read); DataTable dTable = new DataTable("scoreboard"); dTable.ReadXml(new StreamReader(cryptostreamDecr)); cryptostreamDecr.Close(); fsread.Close(); return dTable; } This works fine. I have copied the code into my new app so that I can create a legacy loader and convert the data into the new format. The problem is I get a "Bad Data" error: System.Security.Cryptography.CryptographicException was unhandled Message="Bad Data.\r\n" Source="mscorlib" The error fires at this line: dTable.ReadXml(new StreamReader(cryptostreamDecr)); The encrypted file was created today on the same machine with the old code. I guess that maybe the encryption / decryption process uses the application name / file or something and therefore means I can not open it. Does anyone have an idea as to: A) Be able explain why this isn't working? B) Offer a solution that would allow me to be able to open files that were created with the legacy application and be able to convert them please? Thank you

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• Toolbar items in sub-nib

  - by roe

  This question has probably been asked before, but my google-fu must be inferior to everybody else's, cause I can't figure this out. I'm playing around with the iPhone SDK, and I'm building a concept app I've been thinking about. If we have a look at the skeleton generated with a navigation based app, the MainWindow.xib contains a navigation controller, and within that a root-view controller (and a navigation bar and toolbar if you play around with it a little). The root-view controller has the RootViewController-nib associated with it, which loads the table-view. So far so good. To add content to the tool bar and to the navigation bar, I'm supposed to add those to in the hierarchy below the Root View Controller (which works, no problem). However, what I can't figure out is, this is all still within the MainWindow.xib (or, at runtime, nib). How would I define a xib in order for it to pick up tool bar items from that? I want to do (the equivalent of, just reusing the name here) RootViewController *controller = [[RootViewController alloc] initWithNibName:nil bundle:nil]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:controller animated:YES]; [controller release]; and have the navigation controller pick-up on the tool bar items defined in that nib. The logical place to put it would be in the hierarchy under File's Owner (which is of type RootViewController), but it doesn't appear to be possible. Currently, I'm assigning these (navigationItem and toolbarItems) manually in the viewDidLoad method, or define them in the MainWindow.xib directly to be loaded when the app initializes. Any ideas? Edit I guess I'll try to explain with a picture. This is the Interface Builder of the main window, pretty much as it comes out of the wizard to create a navigation based project. I've added a toolbar item for clarity though. You can see the navigation controller, with a toolbar and a navigation bar, and the root view controller. Basically, the Root View Controller has a bar button item and a navigation item as you can see. The thing is, it's also got a nib associated with it, which, when loaded will instantiate a view, and assign it to the view outlet of the controller (which in that nib is File's Owner, of type RootViewController, as should be). How can I get the toolbar item, and the navigation item, into the other nib, the RootViewController.nib so I can remove them here. The RootViewController.nib adds everything else to the Root View Controller, why not these items? The background for this is that I want to simply instantiate RootViewController, initialize it with its own nib (i.e. initWithNibName:nil shown above), and push it onto the navigation controller, without having to add the navigation/toolbar items in coding (as I do it now).

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• iPhone UIWebView: loadData does not work with certain types (Excel, MSWord, PPT, RTF)

  - by Thomas Tempelmann

  My task is to display the supported document types on an iPhone with OS 3.x, such as .pdf, .rtf, .doc, .ppt, .png, .tiff etc. Now, I have stored these files only encrypted on disk. For security reasons, I want to avoid storing them unencrypted on disk. Hence, I prefer to use loadData:MIMEType:textEncodingName:baseURL: instead of loadRequest: to display the document because loadData allows me to pass the content in a NSData object, i.e. I can decrypt the file in memory and have no need to store it on disk, as it would be required when using loadRequest. The problem is that loadData does not appear to work with all file types: Testing shows that all picture types seem to work fine, as well as PDFs, while the more complex types don't. I get a errors such as: NSURLErrorDomain Code=100 NSURLErrorDomain Code=102 WebView appears to need a truly working URL for accessing the documents as a file, despite me offering all content via the NSData object already. Here's the code I use to display the content: [webView loadData:data MIMEType:type textEncodingName:@"utf-8" baseURL:nil]; The mime-type is properly set, e.g. to "application/msword" for .doc files. Does anyone know how I could get loadData to work with all types that loadRequest supports? Or, alternatively, is there some way I can tell which types do work for sure (i.e. officially sanctioned by Apple) with loadData? Then I can work twofold, creating a temp unencrypted file only for those cases that loadData won't like. Update Looks like I'm not the first one running into this. See here: http://osdir.com/ml/iPhoneSDKDevelopment/2010-03/msg00216.html So, I guess, that's the status quo, and nothing I can do about it. Someone suggested a work-around which might work, though: http://osdir.com/ml/iPhoneSDKDevelopment/2010-03/msg00219.html Basically, the idea is to provide a tiny http server that serves the file (from memory in my case), and then use loadRequest. This is probably a bit more memory-intensive, though, as both the server and the webview will probably both hold the entire contents in memory as two copies then, as opposed to using loadData, where both would rather share the same data object. (Mind you, I'll have to hold the decrypted data in memory, that's the whole point here).

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• Why does a user have to enter "Profile" data to enter data into other tables?

  - by Greg McNulty

  EDIT It appears the user has to enter some data for his profile, otherwise I get this error below. I guess if there is no profile data, the user can not continue to enter data in other tables by default? I do not want to make entering user profile data a requirement to use the rest of the sites functionality, how can I get around this? Currently I have been testing everything with the same user and everything has been working fine. However, when I created a new user for the very first time and tried to enter data into my custom table, I get the following error. The INSERT statement conflicted with the FOREIGN KEY constraint "FK_UserData_aspnet_Profile". The conflict occurred in database "C:\ISTATE\APP_DATA\ASPNETDB.MDF", table "dbo.aspnet_Profile", column 'UserId'. The statement has been terminated. Not sure why I am getting this error. I have the user controls set up in ASP.NET 3.5 however all I am using is my own table or at least that I am aware of. I have a custom UserData table that includes the columns: id, UserProfileID, CL, LL, SL, DateTime (id is the auto incremented int) The intent is that all users will add their data in this table and as I mentioned above it has been working fine for my original first user I created. However, when i created a new user I am getting this problem. Here is the code that updates the database. protected void Button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { //connect to database MySqlConnection database = new MySqlConnection(); database.CreateConn(); //create command object Command = new SqlCommand(queryString, database.Connection); //add parameters. used to prevent sql injection Command.Parameters.Add("@UID", SqlDbType.UniqueIdentifier); Command.Parameters["@UID"].Value = Membership.GetUser().ProviderUserKey; Command.Parameters.Add("@CL", SqlDbType.Int); Command.Parameters["@CL"].Value = InCL.Text; Command.Parameters.Add("@LL", SqlDbType.Int); Command.Parameters["@LL"].Value = InLL.Text; Command.Parameters.Add("@SL", SqlDbType.Int); Command.Parameters["@SL"].Value = InSL.Text; Command.ExecuteNonQuery(); } Source Error: Line 84: Command.ExecuteNonQuery();

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• Is there an algorithm for converting quaternion rotations to Euler angle rotations?

  - by Will Baker

  Is there an existing algorithm for converting a quaternion representation of a rotation to an Euler angle representation? The rotation order for the Euler representation is known and can be any of the six permutations (i.e. xyz, xzy, yxz, yzx, zxy, zyx). I've seen algorithms for a fixed rotation order (usually the NASA heading, bank, roll convention) but not for arbitrary rotation order. Furthermore, because there are multiple Euler angle representations of a single orientation, this result is going to be ambiguous. This is acceptable (because the orientation is still valid, it just may not be the one the user is expecting to see), however it would be even better if there was an algorithm which took rotation limits (i.e. the number of degrees of freedom and the limits on each degree of freedom) into account and yielded the 'most sensible' Euler representation given those constraints. I have a feeling this problem (or something similar) may exist in the IK or rigid body dynamics domains. Solved: I just realised that it might not be clear that I solved this problem by following Ken Shoemake's algorithms from Graphics Gems. I did answer my own question at the time, but it occurs to me it may not be clear that I did so. See the answer, below, for more detail. Just to clarify - I know how to convert from a quaternion to the so-called 'Tait-Bryan' representation - what I was calling the 'NASA' convention. This is a rotation order (assuming the convention that the 'Z' axis is up) of zxy. I need an algorithm for all rotation orders. Possibly the solution, then, is to take the zxy order conversion and derive from it five other conversions for the other rotation orders. I guess I was hoping there was a more 'overarching' solution. In any case, I am surprised that I haven't been able to find existing solutions out there. In addition, and this perhaps should be a separate question altogether, any conversion (assuming a known rotation order, of course) is going to select one Euler representation, but there are in fact many. For example, given a rotation order of yxz, the two representations (0,0,180) and (180,180,0) are equivalent (and would yield the same quaternion). Is there a way to constrain the solution using limits on the degrees of freedom? Like you do in IK and rigid body dynamics? i.e. in the example above if there were only one degree of freedom about the Z axis then the second representation can be disregarded. I have tracked down one paper which could be an algorithm in this pdf but I must confess I find the logic and math a little hard to follow. Surely there are other solutions out there? Is arbitrary rotation order really so rare? Surely every major 3D package that allows skeletal animation together with quaternion interpolation (i.e. Maya, Max, Blender, etc) must have solved exactly this problem?

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• Rails - embedded polymorphic comment list + add comment form - example?

  - by odigity

  Hey, all. Working on my first Rails app. I've searched all around - read a bunch of tutorials, articles, and forum posts, watched some screencasts, and I've found a few examples that come close to what I'm trying to do (notably http://railscasts.com/episodes/154-polymorphic-association and ep 196 about nested model forms), but not exactly. I have two models (Podcast and BlogPost) that need to be commentable, and I have a Comment model that is polymorphically related to both. The railscasts above had a very similar example (ep 154), but Ryan used a full set of nested routes, so there were specific templates for adding and editing comments. What I want to do is show the list of comments right on the Podcast or BlogPost page, along with an Add Comment form at the bottom. I don't need a separate add template/route, and I don't need the ability to edit, only delete. This is a pretty common design on the web, but I can't find a Rails example specifically about this pattern. Here's my current understanding: I need routes for the create and delete actions, of course, but there are no templates associated with those. I'm also guessing that the right approach is to create a partial that can be included at the bottom of both the Podcast and BlogPost show template. The logical name for the partial seems to me to be something like _comments.html.haml. I know it's a common convention to have the object passed to the partial be named after the template, but calling the object 'comments' seems to not match my use case, since what I really need to pass is the commentable object (Podcast or BlogPost). So, I guess I'd use the locals option for the render partial call? (:commentable = @podcast). Inside the partial, I could call commentable.comments to get the comments collection, render that with a second partial (this time with the conventional use case, calling the partial _comment.html.haml), then create a form that submits to... what? REST-wise, it should be a POST to the collection, which would be /podcast|blogpost/:id/comments, and I think the helper for that is podcast_comments_path(podcast) if it were a podcast - not sure what to do though, since I'm using polymorphic comments. That would trigger the Comment.create action, which would then need to redirect back to the podcast|blogpost path /podcast|blogpost/:id. It's all a bit overwhelming, which is why I was really hoping to find a screencast or example that specifically implements this design.

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• Tridion Installation

  - by Kevin Brydon

  I am currently upgrading an installation of Tridion from 5.3 to 2011 starting almost from scratch (aside from migrating the database), brand new virtual servers. I just want to ask for some advice on my current server setup... a sanity check. All servers are running Windows Server 2008. The pages on our website are all classic ASP. Database SQL Server cluster. The 5.3 database has been migrated using the DatabaseManager. This is pretty standard and works well (in test anyway). Content Manager A single server to run the Content Manager and the Publisher. There are around 10 people using it at any one time so not under a particularly heavy load. Content Data Store Filesystem located somewhere on the network. One directory for live and one for staging. Content Delivery Two servers (cd1 and cd2) each with the the following server roles installed. cd1 writes to a filesystem content data store for the live website, cd2 writes to the content data store for the staging website. Presentation Two public facing web servers (web1 and web2) serving both the live and staging websites. The web servers read directly from the content data store as its a filesystem. Each of the web servers have the Content Delivery Server installed so that I can use dynamic linking (and other features?). I've so far set up everything but the web servers. Any thoughts? edit Thanks to Ram S who linked me to a decent walkthrough, upvoted. I suppose I should have posed some questions as I didn't really ask a question. I guess I'm a little confused over the content deliver aspect. I have the Content Delivery split in two separate parts. cd1 and cd2 do the work of shifting information from the Content Manager to the Staging/Live web directories. web1 and web2 should do the work of serving the web pages to the outside world and will interact with the content data store (file system). Is this a correct setup? I need some parts of the Content Delivery on my web servers right? Theoretically I could get rid of the cd1 and cd2 servers and use web1 and web2 to do the deployment right? But I suspect this will put the web servers under unnecessary strain should there ever be a big publish. I've been reading the 2011 Installation Manual, Content Delivery section, and I'm finding it quite hard to get my head around!

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• Lawler's Algorithm Implementation Assistance

  - by Richard Knop

  Here is my implemenation of Lawler's algorithm in PHP (I know... but I'm used to it): <?php $jobs = array(1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6); $jobsSubset = array(2, 5, 6); $n = count($jobs); $processingTimes = array(2, 3, 4, 3, 2, 1); $dueDates = array(3, 15, 9, 7, 11, 20); $optimalSchedule = array(); foreach ($jobs as $j) { $optimalSchedule[] = 0; } $dicreasedCardinality = array(); for ($i = $n; $i >= 1; $i--) { $x = 0; $max = 0; // loop through all jobs for ($j = 0; $j < $i; $j++) { // ignore if $j already is in the $dicreasedCardinality array if (false === in_array($j, $dicreasedCardinality)) { // if the job has no succesor in $jobsSubset if (false === isset($jobs[$j+1]) || false === in_array($jobs[$j+1], $jobsSubset)) { // here I find an array index of a job with the maximum due date // amongst jobs with no sucessor in $jobsSubset if ($x < $dueDates[$j]) { $x = $dueDates[$j]; $max = $j; } } } } // move the job at the end of $optimalSchedule $optimalSchedule[$i-1] = $jobs[$max]; // decrease the cardinality of $jobs $dicreasedCardinality[] = $max; } print_r($optimalSchedule); Now the above returns an optimal schedule like this: Array ( [0] => 1 [1] => 1 [2] => 1 [3] => 3 [4] => 2 [5] => 6 ) Which doesn't seem right to me. The problem might be with my implementation of the algorithm because I am not sure I understand it correctly. I used this source to implement it: http://www.google.com/books?id=aSiBs6PDm9AC&pg=PA166&dq=lawler%27s+algorithm+code&lr=&hl=sk&cd=4#v=onepage&q=&f=false The description there is a little confusing. For example, I didn't quite get how is the subset D defined (I guess it is arbitrary). Could anyone help me out with this? I have been trying to find some sources with simpler explanation of the algorithm but all sources I found were even more complicated (with math proofs and such) so I am stuck with the link above. Yes, this is a homework, if it wasn't obvious. I still have few weeks to crack this but I have spent few days already trying to get how exactly this algorithm works with no success so I don't think I will get any brighter during that time.

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• How to GET a read-only vs editable resource in REST style?

  - by Val

  I'm fairly familiar with REST principles, and have read the relevant dissertation, Wikipedia entry, a bunch of blog posts and StackOverflow questions on the subject, but still haven't found a straightforward answer to a common case: I need to request a resource to display. Depending on the resource's state, I need to render either a read-only or an editable representation. In both cases, I need to GET the resource. How do I construct a URL to get the read-only or editable version? If my user follows a link to GET /resource/<id>, that should suffice to indicate to me that s/he needs the read-only representation. But if I need to server up an editable form, what does that URL look like? GET /resource/<id>/edit is obvious, but it contains a verb in the URL. Changing that to GET /resource/<id>/editable solves that problem, but at a seemingly superficial level. Is that all there is to it -- change verbs to adjectives? If instead I use POST to retrieve the editable version, then how do I distinguish between the POST that initially retrieves it, vs the POST that saves it? My (weak) excuse for using POST would be that retrieving an editable version would cause a change of state on the server: locking the resource. But that only holds if my requirements are to implement such a lock, which is not always the case. PUT fails for the same reason, plus PUT is not enabled by default on the Web servers I'm running, so there are practical reasons not to use it (and DELETE). Note that even in the editable state, I haven't made any changes yet; presumably when I submit the resource to the Web server again, I'd POST it. But to get something that I can later POST, the server has to first serve up a particular representation. I guess another approach would be to have separate resources at the collection level: GET /read-only/resource/<id> and GET /editable/resource/<id> or GET /resource/read-only/<id> and GET /resource/editable/<id> ... but that looks pretty ugly to me. Thoughts?

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• System.IO.IOException: file used by another process

  - by Srodriguez

  Dear all, I've been working in this small piece of code that seems trivial but still i cannot really see where is the problem. My functions does a pretty simple thing. Opens a file, copy its contents, replace a string inside and copy it back to the original file (a simple search and replace inside a text file then). I didn't really know how to do that as I'm adding lines to the original file, so i just create a copy of the file, (file.temp) copy also a backup (file.temp) then delete the original file(file) and copy the file.temp to file. I get an exception while doing the delete of the file. Here is the sample code: private static bool modifyFile(FileInfo file, string extractedMethod, string modifiedMethod) { Boolean result = false; FileStream fs = new FileStream(file.FullName + ".tmp", FileMode.Create, FileAccess.Write); StreamWriter sw = new StreamWriter(fs); StreamReader streamreader = file.OpenText(); String originalPath = file.FullName; string input = streamreader.ReadToEnd(); Console.WriteLine("input : {0}", input); String tempString = input.Replace(extractedMethod, modifiedMethod); Console.WriteLine("replaced String {0}", tempString); try { sw.Write(tempString); sw.Flush(); sw.Close(); sw.Dispose(); fs.Close(); fs.Dispose(); streamreader.Close(); streamreader.Dispose(); File.Copy(originalPath, originalPath + ".old", true); FileInfo newFile = new FileInfo(originalPath + ".tmp"); File.Delete(originalPath); File.Copy(fs., originalPath, true); result = true; } catch (Exception ex) { Console.WriteLine(ex); } return result; }` And the related exception System.IO.IOException: The process cannot access the file 'E:\mypath\myFile.cs' because it is being used by another process. at System.IO.__Error.WinIOError(Int32 errorCode, String maybeFullPath) at System.IO.File.Delete(String path) at callingMethod.modifyFile(FileInfo file, String extractedMethod, String modifiedMethod) Normally these errors come from unclosed file streams, but I've taken care of that. I guess I've forgotten an important step but cannot figure out where. Thank you very much for your help,

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• WSIT, Maven, and wsimport -- Can They Work Together?

  - by rtperson

  Hi all, I'm working on a small-ish multi-module project in Maven. We've separated the UI from the database layer using Web Services, and thanks to the jaxws-maven-plugin, the creation of the WSDL and WS client are more or less handled for us. (The plugin is essentially a wrapper around wsgen and wsimport.) So far so good. The problem comes when I try to layer WSIT security into the picture. NetBeans allows me to generate the security metadata easily, but wsimport seems completely incapable of dealing with anything beyond a Basic-auth level of security. Here's our current, insecure way of calling wsimport during a Maven build: <plugin> <groupId>org.codehaus.mojo</groupId> <artifactId>jaxws-maven-plugin</artifactId> <version>1.10</version> <executions> <execution> <goals> <goal>wsimport</goal> </goals> <configuration> <wsdlUrls> <wsdlUrl>${basedir}/../WebService/target/jaxws/wsgen/wsdl/WebService.wsdl</wsdlUrl> </wsdlUrls> <packageName>com.yourcompany.appname.ws.client</packageName> <sourceDestDir>${basedir}/src/main/java</sourceDestDir> <destDir>${basedir}/target/jaxws</destDir> </configuration> </execution> </executions> </plugin> I have tried playing around with xauthFile, xadditionalHeaders, passing javax.xml.ws.security.auth.username and password through args. I have also tried using wsimport from the command line to point to the Tomcat-generated WSDL, which has the additional security info. Nothing, however, seems to change the composition of the wsimport-generated files at all. So I guess my question here is, to get a WSIT-compliant client, am I stuck abandoning Maven and the jaxws plugin altogether? Is there a way to get a WSIT client to auto-generate? Or will I need to generate the client by hand? Let me know if you need any additional info beyond what I've written here. I'm deploying to Tomcat, although that doesn't seem to be an issue, as Maven seems happy to pull Metro into the deployed WAR file. Thanks in advance!

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• Keeping the DI-container usage in the composition root in Silverlight and MVVM

  - by adrian hara

  It's not quite clear to me how I can design so I keep the reference to the DI-container in the composition root for a Silverlight + MVVM application. I have the following simple usage scenario: there's a main view (perhaps a list of items) and an action to open an edit view for one single item. So the main view has to create and show the edit view when the user takes the action (e.g. clicks some button). For this I have the following code: public interface IView { IViewModel ViewModel {get; set;} } Then, for each view that I need to be able to create I have an abstract factory, like so public interface ISomeViewFactory { IView CreateView(); } This factory is then declared a dependency of the "parent" view model, like so: public class SomeParentViewModel { public SomeParentViewModel(ISomeViewFactory viewFactory) { // store it } private void OnSomeUserAction() { IView view = viewFactory.CreateView(); dialogService.ShowDialog(view); } } So all is well until here, no DI-container in sight :). Now comes the implementation of ISomeViewFactory: public class SomeViewFactory : ISomeViewFactory { public IView CreateView() { IView view = new SomeView(); view.ViewModel = ???? } } The "????" part is my problem, because the view model for the view needs to be resolved from the DI-container so it gets its dependencies injected. What I don't know is how I can do this without having a dependency to the DI-container anywhere except the composition root. One possible solution would be to have either a dependency on the view model that gets injected into the factory, like so: public class SomeViewFactory : ISomeViewFactory { public SomeViewFactory(ISomeViewModel viewModel) { // store it } public IView CreateView() { IView view = new SomeView(); view.ViewModel = viewModel; } } While this works, it has the problem that since the whole object graph is wired up "statically" (i.e. the "parent" view model will get an instance of SomeViewFactory, which will get an instance of SomeViewModel, and these will live as long as the "parent" view model lives), the injected view model implementation is stateful and if the user opens the child view twice, the second time the view model will be the same instance and have the state from before. I guess I could work around this with an "Initialize" method or something similar, but it doesn't smell quite right. Another solution might be to wrap the DI-container and have the factories depend on the wrapper, but it'd still be a DI-container "in disguise" there :) Any thoughts on this are greatly appreciated. Also, please forgive any mistakes or rule-breaking, since this is my first post on stackoverflow :) Thanks! ps: my current solution is that the factories know about the DI-container, and it's only them and the composition root that have this dependency.

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• Autoconf (newbie) -- building with static library

  - by EB

  I am trying to migrate from manual build to autoconf, which is working very nicely so far. But I have one static library that I can't figure out how to integrate. That library will NOT be located in the usual library locations - the location of the binary (.a file) and header (.h file) will be given as a configure argument. (Notably, even if I move the .a file to /usr/lib or anywhere else I can think of, it still won't work.) Manual compilation is working with these: gcc ... -I/path/to/header/file/directory /full/path/to/the/.a/file/itself (Uh, I actually don't understand why the .a file is referenced directly, not with -L or anything. Yes, I have a half-baked understanding of building C programs.) I can use the configure argument to successfully find the header (.h file) using AC_CHECK_HEADER. Inside the AC_CHECK_HEADER I then add the location to CPFLAGS and the #include of the header file in the actual C code picks it up nicely. Given a configure argument that has been put into $location and the name of the needed files are myprog.h and myprog.a (which are both in the same directory), here is what works so far: AC_CHECK_HEADER([$location/myprog.h], [AC_DEFINE([HAVE_MYPROG_H], [1], [found myprog.h]) CFLAGS="$CFLAGS -I$location"]) Where I run into difficulties is getting the binary (.a file) linked in. No matter what I try, I always get an error about undefined references to the function calls for that library. I'm pretty sure it's a linkage issue, because I can fuss with the C code and make an intentional error in the function calls to that library which produces earlier errors that indicate that the function prototypes have been loaded and used to compile. I tried adding the location that contains the .a file to LDFLAGS and then doing a AC_CHECK_LIB but it is not found. Maybe my syntax is wrong, or maybe I'm missing something more fundamental, which would not be surprising since I'm a newbie and don't really know what I'm doing. Here is what I have tried: AC_CHECK_HEADER([$location/myprog.h], [AC_DEFINE([HAVE_MYPROG_H], [1], [found myprog.h]) CFLAGS="$CFLAGS -I$location"; LDFLAGS="$LDFLAGS -L$location"; AC_CHECK_LIB(myprog)]) No dice. AC_CHECK_LIB is looking for -lmyprog I guess (or libmyprog?) so I'm not sure if that's a problem, so I tried this, too (omit AC_CHECK_LIB and include the .a directly in LDFLAGS), without luck: AC_CHECK_HEADER([$location/myprog.h], [AC_DEFINE([HAVE_MYPROG_H], [1], [found myprog.h]) CFLAGS="$CFLAGS -I$location"; LDFLAGS="$LDFLAGS -L$location/myprog.a"]) To emulate the manual compilation, I tried removing the -L but that doesn't help: AC_CHECK_HEADER([$location/myprog.h], [AC_DEFINE([HAVE_MYPROG_H], [1], [found myprog.h]) CFLAGS="$CFLAGS -I$location"; LDFLAGS="$LDFLAGS $location/myprog.a"]) I tried other combinations and permutations, but I think I might be missing something more fundamental....

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• SQLServer:Namespaces preventing access to query data

  - by Brian

  Hi A beginners question, hopefully easily answered. I've got an xml file I want to load into SQLServer 2008 and extract the useful informaiton. I'm starting simple and just trying to extract the name (\gpx\name). The code I have is: DECLARE @x xml; SELECT @x = xCol.BulkColumn FROM OPENROWSET (BULK 'C:\Data\EM.gpx', SINGLE_BLOB) AS xCol; -- confirm the xml data is in @x select @x as XML_Data -- try and get the name of the gpx section SELECT c.value('name[1]', 'varchar(200)') as Name from @x.nodes('gpx') x(c) Below is a heavily shortened version of the xml file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <gpx xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" version="1.0" creator="Groundspeak Pocket Query" xsi:schemaLocation="http://www.topografix.com/GPX/1/0 http://www.topografix.com/GPX/1/0/gpx.xsd http://www.groundspeak.com/cache/1/0 http://www.groundspeak.com/cache/1/0/cache.xsd" xmlns="http://www.topografix.com/GPX/1/0"> <name>EM</name> <desc>Geocache file generated by Groundspeak</desc> <author>Groundspeak</author> <email>[email protected]</email> <time>2010-03-24T14:01:36.4931342Z</time> <keywords>cache, geocache, groundspeak</keywords> <wpt lat="51.2586" lon="-2.213067"> <time>2008-03-30T07:00:00Z</time> <name>GC1APHM</name> <desc>Sandman's Noble Hoard by Sandman1973, Unknown Cache (2/3)</desc> <groundspeak:cache id="832000" available="True" archived="False" xmlns:groundspeak="http://www.groundspeak.com/cache/1/0"> <groundspeak:name>Sandman's Noble Hoard</groundspeak:name> <groundspeak:placed_by>Sandman1973</groundspeak:placed_by> </groundspeak:cache> </wpt> </gpx> If the first two lines are replaced with just: <gpx> the above example works correctly, however I then can't access groundspeak:name (/gpx/wpt/groundspeak:cache/groundspeak:name), so my guess its a problem with the namespace. Any help would be appriciated.

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• IE8 positioning, nightmare!

  - by Kyle Sevenoaks

  Well hi, guess what, I have an IE positioning issue! This is in 8, so god know what's going on in the other versions (checking later) Both the boxes call the same class, why is IE being so difficult? Here's how it's meant to look: And here's how it does look: CSS: (removed comments for ease of reading) div .roundbigboxkunde { background-image:url(../../upload/EW_kunde_info.png); background-position:top center; padding:10px; padding-top:10px; padding-bottom:20px; width:560px; height:1%; border-width:1px; border-color:#dddddd; border-radius:10px; -moz-border-radius:10px; -webkit-border-radius:10px; z-index:1; position:relative; overflow:hidden; } div .roundbigboxkundei { margin-top:10px; padding:10px; padding-top:10px; padding-bottom:10px; width:760px; height:1%; position:relative; overflow:hidden; And HTML: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <div class="roundbigboxkunde"> <div class="roundbigboxkundei"> <p id="nyk">&nbsp;</p> <div id="bg_box2"></div> <p class="required"> <label for="billing_firstName"><span class="label">Fornavn:</span></label> <fieldset class="error"><input name="billing_firstName" class="text" type="text" value="Kyle"/> <div class="errorText hidden"></div> </fieldset> </p> CONTENT CONTINUES </fieldset> Here is the page

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• C# Confusing Results from Performance Test

  - by aip.cd.aish

  I am currently working on an image processing application. The application captures images from a webcam and then does some processing on it. The app needs to be real time responsive (ideally < 50ms to process each request). I have been doing some timing tests on the code I have and I found something very interesting (see below). clearLog(); log("Log cleared"); camera.QueryFrame(); camera.QueryFrame(); log("Camera buffer cleared"); Sensor s = t.val; log("Sx: " + S.X + " Sy: " + S.Y); Image<Bgr, Byte> cameraImage = camera.QueryFrame(); log("Camera output acuired for processing"); Each time the log is called the time since the beginning of the processing is displayed. Here is my log output: [3 ms]Log cleared [41 ms]Camera buffer cleared [41 ms]Sx: 589 Sy: 414 [112 ms]Camera output acuired for processing The timings are computed using a StopWatch from System.Diagonostics. QUESTION 1 I find this slightly interesting, since when the same method is called twice it executes in ~40ms and when it is called once the next time it took longer (~70ms). Assigning the value can't really be taking that long right? QUESTION 2 Also the timing for each step recorded above varies from time to time. The values for some steps are sometimes as low as 0ms and sometimes as high as 100ms. Though most of the numbers seem to be relatively consistent. I guess this may be because the CPU was used by some other process in the mean time? (If this is for some other reason, please let me know) Is there some way to ensure that when this function runs, it gets the highest priority? So that the speed test results will be consistently low (in terms of time). EDIT I change the code to remove the two blank query frames from above, so the code is now: clearLog(); log("Log cleared"); Sensor s = t.val; log("Sx: " + S.X + " Sy: " + S.Y); Image<Bgr, Byte> cameraImage = camera.QueryFrame(); log("Camera output acuired for processing"); The timing results are now: [2 ms]Log cleared [3 ms]Sx: 589 Sy: 414 [5 ms]Camera output acuired for processing The next steps now take longer (sometimes, the next step jumps to after 20-30ms, while the next step was previously almost instantaneous). I am guessing this is due to the CPU scheduling. Is there someway I can ensure the CPU does not get scheduled to do something else while it is running through this code?

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• decrypt an encrypted value ?

  - by jim

  I have an old Paradox database (I can convert it to Access 2007) which contains more then 200,000 records. This database has two columns: the first one is named "Word" and the second one is named "Mean". It is a dictionary database and my client wants to convert this old database to ASP.NET and SQL. However, we don't know what key or method is used to encrypt or encode the "Mean" column which is in the Unicode format. The software itself has been written in Delphi 7 and we don't have the source code. My client only knows the credentials for logging in to database. The problem is decoding the Mean column. What I do have is the compiled windows application and the Paradox database. This software can decode the "Mean" column for each "Word" so the method and/or key is in its own compiled code(.exe) or one of the files in its directory. For example, we know that in the following row the "Zymurgy" exactly means "???? ??? ????? ?? ???? ????, ????? ?????" since the application translates it like that. Here is what the record looks like when I open the database in Access: Word Mean Zymurgy 5OBnGguKPdDAd7L2lnvd9Lnf1mdd2zDBQRxngsCuirK5h91sVmy0kpRcue/+ql9ORmP99Mn/QZ4= Therefore we're trying to discover how the value in the Mean column is converted to "???? ??? ????? ?? ???? ????, ????? ?????". I think the "Mean" column value in above row is encoded in Base64 string format, but decoding the Base64 string does not yet result in the expected text. The extensions for files in the win app directory are dll, CCC, DAT, exe (other than the main app file), SYS, FAM, MB, PX, TV, VAL. Any kind of help is appreciated. Additional information: guys! the creators are not that stupid to save the values only in encoded form. they're definitely encrypted them. so i guess we have to look for the key.

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• xslt (table) by matching the attribute value.

  - by Magesh

  i need to generate an xsl table for the xml below , for atrributes fname and lname.. i have done something worng in xpath i guess.could someone help me out writing an xsl table for the xml below.. <sparql> - <head> <variable name="s"/> <variable name="fname"/> <variable name="lname"/> </head> - <results> - <result> - <binding name="s"> <uri>http://tn.gov.in/Person/41</uri> </binding> - <binding name="fname"> <literal>Gayathri</literal> </binding> - <binding name="lname"> <literal>Vasudevan</literal> </binding> </result> - <result> - <binding name="s"> <uri>http://tn.gov.in/Person/43</uri> </binding> - <binding name="fname"> <literal>Vivek</literal> </binding> - <binding name="lname"> <literal>Vasudevan</literal> </binding> </result> - <result> - <binding name="s"> <uri>http://tn.gov.in/Person/37</uri> </binding> - <binding name="fname"> <literal>Magesh</literal> </binding> - <binding name="lname"> <literal>Vasudevan</literal> </binding> </result> - <result> - <binding name="s"> <uri>http://tn.gov.in/Person/39</uri> </binding> - <binding name="fname"> <literal>Vasudevan </literal> </binding> - <binding name="lname"> <literal>Srinivasan</literal> </binding> </result> </results>

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• CSS Background-Images Loading after HTML Images (Involves Javascript)

  - by Kevin C.

  I threw together a quick little microsite that you can see at http://monterraauction.com. If you don't have a super-fast connection (and nothing's cached), the very last items to load are the background-images that are used for CSS image-text replacement (primarily, that h1#head at the top, with a 7kb background image). Nothing debilitating, but it looks slightly awkward. And I'm asking this question as a matter of curiosity more than anything else ;) Also, please note that this occurs in Firefox, but not Chrome. Now, underneath the h1#head I have a jquery.cycle.lite-powered slideshow in div#photo. In the HTML markup there are a total of 13, heavy image files that make up each of the slides. If I remove all but the first slide, then the problem goes away! So the CSS background-images are loading after...those HTML images are done? But here's what's confusing: I check it out in YSlow...the CSS background-images have a much lower response time than all of the slides in #photo. Right after all the JS files finish loading, in fact. So why aren't they showing up first? I tried $('#photo img:last-child').load(function() { alert('Locked and Loaded!')});, but the background-images pop up a while before the alert does, so I'm assuming it's not waiting until the last slide has loaded (admittedly I'm a bit of JS noob so maybe I'm just making a wrong assumption). I also tried commenting out all the jquery.cycle.lite stuff, so that I knew I didn't have any JS manipulating the DOM elements in #photo, but that wasn't the problem. I tried putting all the JS at the bottom of the document, right before </body>, but that didn't work. Lastly, I tried turning off javascript, and of course the css background-image loads way before the images in #photo, so it's definitely a JS thing (amirite?) I guess the obvious solution here is to mark the slides up as LINKS rather than IMGs, and have Javascript insert those 12 extra slideshow images after the DOM is ready--users without javascript shouldn't need to download the extra images anyways. But again, I'm curious: Why does removing the extra HTML images from within #photo solve the problem? And why are the CSS background-images showing up after the HTML images have loaded, even though YSlow says the css background-images loaded first? Seeing as how it happens in FF but not Chrome, is it simply a browser issue? I appreciate any insight you guys could give me!

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• iPhone SDK 3/4 App will not run on a iPhone 2.x device even with deployment target set to 2.0!

  - by MarqueIV

  Ok... I know about the difference between the base/active SDKs and the deployment target. I have my base SDK set at 4.0 and the deployment target set at 2.0. I am not using any APIs post 2.x, conditional or otherwise. Since I can't debug on a 2.x device, after building it, I use the iPhone Configuration Utility to install the app on the device, which it does just fine. Problem is, it doesn't run! I just get a blank screen. The main window never comes up! Now before you ask... I had this same problem with the iPhone SDK 3.x. I upgraded to the 4.x hoping it would be solved. It wasn't. Yes the provisioning profile is installed. (Couldn't install the app if it wasn't.) This same compiled app works fine on 3.x devices. Same with 4.x devices. Just not 2.x devices. Again, no I am not using any post-2.x SDKs. To prove this I created a brand-new, window-based app from the 'New Project' dialog and the only changes I made was the background color of the window (to prove the XIB loaded) and I set the deployment target to 2.0 (It's still compiled against the 4.x SDK though.) Again, it runs fine on 3.x or 4.x devices, but just a black, blank screen on 2.x devices. I've tried this on three separate 2.x devices included one freshly restored. I've used three separate dev machines (MacBook Pro with the 3.x SDK, MacBook Pro with the 4.x SDK and a Mac Pro with the 3.x SDK.) Same result every time. I am stumped. The fact that even an unmodified project doesn't run really has me confused. Could it be the XIB file? Did they change the format from 2.x to something newer in the 3.x SDK? If so, how do I set it back to 2.x. (Again, this is just a complete guess.) But I'm really stumped! Mark

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• Downloading Python 2.5.4 (from official website) in order to install it

  - by brilliant

  I was quite hesitant about whether I should post this question here on "StackOverflow" or on "SuperUser", but finally decided to post it here as Python is more a programming language rather than a piece of software. I've been recently using Python 2.5.4 that is installed on my computer, but at the moment I am not at home (and won't be for about two weeks from now), so I need to install the same version of Python on another computer. This computer has Windows XP installed – just like the one that I have at home. The reason why I need Python 2.5.4 is because I am using “Google App Engine”, and I was told that it only supports Python 2.5 However, when I went to the official Python page for the download, I discovered that certain things have changed, and I don’t quite remember where exactly from that site I had downloaded Python 2.5.4 on my computer at home. I found this page: http://www.python.org/download/releases/2.5.4/ Here is how it looks: (If you can’t see it here, please check it out at this address: http://brad.cwahi.net/some_pictures/python_page.jpg ) A few things here are not clear to me. It says: “For x86 processors: python-2.5.4.msi For Win64-Itanium users: python-2.5.4.ia64.msi For Win64-AMD64 users: python-2.5.4.amd64.msi” First of all, I don’t know what processor I am using – whether mine is “x86” or not; and also, I don’t know whether I am an “Win64-Itanium” or an “Win64-AMD64” user. Are Itanium and AMD64 also processors? Later it says: “Windows XP and later already have MSI; many older machines will already have MSI installed.” I guess, it is my case, but then I am totally puzzled as to which link I should click as it seems now that I don’t need those three previous links (as MSI is already installed on Windows XP), but there is no fourth link provided for those who use “Windows XP” or older machines. Of course, there are these words after that: “Windows users may also be interested in Mark Hammond's win32all package, available from Sourceforge.” but it seems to me that it is something additional rather than the main file. So, my question is simple: Where in the official Python website I can download Python 2.5.4, precisely, which link I should click?

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• Asp.net MVC and MOSS 2010 integration

  - by Robert Koritnik

  Just a sidenote: I'm not sure whether I should post this to serverfault as well, because some MOSS admin may have some info for me as well? A bit of explanation first (without Asp.net MVC) Is it possible to integrate the two? Is it possible to write an application that would share at least credential information with MOSS? I have to write a MOSS application that has to do with these technologies: MOSS 2010 Personal client certificates authentication (most probably on USB keys) Active Directory Federation Services Separate SQL DB that would serve application specific data (separate as not being part of MOSS DB) How should it work? Users should authenticate using personal certificates into MOSS 2010 There would be a certain part of MOSS that would be related to my custom application This application should only authorize certain users via AD FS - I guess these users should have a certain security claim attached to them This application should manage users (that have access to this app) with additional (app specific) security claims related to this application (as additional application level authorization rights for individual application parts) This application should use custom SQL 2008 DB heavily with its own data This application should have the possibility to integrate with external systems as well (Exchange for instance to inject calendar entries, ERP systems etc) This application should be able to export its data (from its DB) to files. I don't know if it's possible, but it would be nice if the app could add these files to MOSS and attach authorization info to them so only users with sufficient rights would be able to view/open these files. Why Asp.net MVC then? I'm very well versed in Asp.net MVC (also with the latest version) and I haven't done anything on Sharepoint since version 2003 (which doesn't do me no good or prepare me for the latest version in any way shape or form). This project will most probably be a death march project so I would rather write my application as a UI rich Asp.net MVC application and somehow integrate it into MOSS. But not only via a link, because I would like to at least share credentials, so users wouldn't need to re-login when accessing my app. Using Asp.net MVC I would at least have the possibility to finish on time or be less death marching. Is this at all possible? Questions Is it possible to integrate Asp.net MVC into MOSS as described above? If integration is not possible, would it be possible to create a completely MOSS based application that would work as described? Which parts of MOSS 2010 should I use to accomplish what I need?

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• Android: SlidingDrawer disappears under SurfaceView

  - by ykrasik

  Hi, I'm trying to create a SlidingDrawer with LinearLayout content over a FrameLayout. At first it all seems fine, I get my SlidingDrawer's handle at the bottom of the screen. But then, if I start dragging the handle up and the content starts showing, it gets clipped by the border rectangle of the handle. If I drag the handle all the way up the entire content eventually gets shown, however if I now drag the handle down, it will be clipped by the border rectangle of the content. Also, if the handle is all the way up, as soon as I start dragging it the whole content disappears. I can still click on where the handle should be on the screen, drag it and the content would show, but I need to guess where the handle is. What seems to be causing this is the fact that I have a SurfaceView in the xml file just before SlidingDrawer. Removing the view from the xml solves this problem, however I need this view. Here's the xml: <FrameLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent"> <!-- Removing this DrawView from here solves the problem --> <com.package.DrawView android:id="@+id/main" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" /> <SlidingDrawer android:id="@+id/SlidingDrawer" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:allowSingleTap="true" android:animateOnClick="true" android:handle="@+id/slideHandleButton" android:content="@+id/contentLayout" android:padding="10dip"> <Button android:id="@+id/slideHandleButton" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:background="@drawable/sliding_button"> </Button> <LinearLayout android:id="@+id/contentLayout" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:orientation="vertical"> <Button android:id="@+id/clearButton" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="Test"> </Button> </LinearLayout> </SlidingDrawer> </FrameLayout> Java: package com.package; import android.app.Activity; import android.os.Bundle; public class SlideTest extends Activity { /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); } } package com.package; import android.content.Context; import android.util.AttributeSet; import android.view.SurfaceView; public class DrawView extends SurfaceView { public DrawView(Context context, AttributeSet attrs) { super(context, attrs); } } Edit: I just noticed that if DrawView extends View and not SurfaceView this problem goes away. However, I'm using a dedicated drawing thread and according to the documentation (and LunarLander example) when using a dedicated drawing thread, it should draw to a SurfaceView. Any help would be greatly appreciated!

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• Eclipse: How to convert a web project into an AspectJ project and weave and run it using the AJDT pl

  - by Kent

  What I want to do: I want to use the @Configured annotation with Spring. It requires AspectJ to be enabled. I thought that using the AJDT plugin for compile time weaving would solve this problem. Before installing the plug in the dependencies which were supposed to be injected into my @Configured object remained null. What I have done: Installed the AJDT: AspectJ Development Tools plug in for Eclipse 3.4. Right clicked on my web project and converted it into a AspectJ project. Enabled compile time weaving. What doesn't work: When I start the Tomcat 6 server now, I get an exception*. Other information: I haven't configured anything in the AspectJ Build and AspectJ Compiler parts of the project properties. JDT Weaving under Preferences says weaving is enabled. I still have Java build path and Java Compiler under project properties. And they look like I previously configured them (while the above two new entries are not configured). The icon of my @Configured object file looks like any other file (i.e. no indication of any aspect or such, which I think there should be). The file name is MailNotification.java (and not .aj), but I guess it should still work as I'm using a Spring annotation for AspectJ? I haven't found any tutorial or similar which teaches: How to turn a Spring web application project into an AspectJ project and weave aspects into the files using the AJDT plugin, all within Eclipse 3.4. If there is anything like that out there I would be very interested in knowing about it. What I would like to know: Where to go from here? I just want to use the @Configured annotation of Spring. I'm also using @Transactional which I think also needs AspectJ. If it is possible I would like to study AspectJ as little as possible as long as my needs are met. The subject seems interesting, but huge, all I want to do is use the above two mentioned Spring annotations. *** Exception when Tomcat 6 is started: Caused by: java.lang.IllegalStateException: ClassLoader [org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader] does NOT provide an 'addTransformer(ClassFileTransformer)' method. Specify a custom LoadTimeWeaver or start your Java virtual machine with Spring's agent: -javaagent:spring-agent.jar at org.springframework.context.weaving.DefaultContextLoadTimeWeaver.setBeanClassLoader(DefaultContextLoadTimeWeaver.java:82) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.initializeBean(AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.java:1322) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.doCreateBean(AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.java:473) ... 41 more

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