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  • Recursive Enumeration in Java

    - by Harm De Weirdt
    Hello everyone. I still have a question about Enumerations. Here's a quick sketch of the situation. I have a class Backpack that has a Hashmap content with as keys a variable of type long, and as value an ArrayList with Items. I have to write an Enumeration that iterates over the content of a Backpack. But here's the catch: in a Backpack, there can also be another Backpack. And the Enumeration should also be able to iterate over the content of a backpack that is in the backpack. (I hope you can follow, I'm not really good at explaining..) Here is the code I have: public Enumeration<Object> getEnumeration() { return new Enumeration<Object>() { private int itemsDone = 0; //I make a new array with all the values of the HashMap, so I can use //them in nextElement() Collection<Long> keysCollection = getContent().keySet(); Long [] keys = keysCollection.toArray(new Long[keysCollection.size()]); public boolean hasMoreElements() { if(itemsDone < getContent().size()) { return true; }else { return false; } } public Object nextElement() { ArrayList<Item> temporaryList= getContent().get(keys[itemsDone]); for(int i = 0; i < temporaryList.size(); i++) { if(temporaryList.get(i) instanceof Backpack) { return temporaryList.get(i).getEnumeration(); }else { return getContent().get(keys[itemsDone++]); } } } }; Will this code work decently? It's just the "return temporaryList.get(i).getEnumeration();" I'm worried about. Will the users still be able to use just the hasMoreElemens() and nextElement() like he would normally do? Any help is appreciated, Harm De Weirdt

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  • structDelete doesn't effect the shallow copy?

    - by Travis
    I was playing around onError so I tried to create an error using a large xml document object. <cfset variables.XMLByRef = variables.parsedXML.XMLRootElement.XMLChildElement> <cfset structDelete(variables.parsedXML, "XMLRootElement")> <cfset variables.startXMLShortLoop = getTickCount()> <cfloop from = "1" to = "#arrayLen(variables.XMLByRef)#" index = "variables.i"> <cfoutput>#variables.XMLByRef[variables.i].id.xmltext#</cfoutput><br /> </cfloop> <cfset variables.stopXMLShortLoop = getTickCount()> I expected to get an error because I deleted the structure I was referencing. From LiveDocs: Variable Assignment - Creates an additional reference, or alias, to the structure. Any change to the data using one variable name changes the structure that you access using the other variable name. This technique is useful when you want to add a local variable to another scope or otherwise change a variable's scope without deleting the variable from the original scope. instead I got 580df1de-3362-ca9b-b287-47795b6cdc17 25a00498-0f68-6f04-a981-56853c0844ed ... ... ... db49ed8a-0ba6-8644-124a-6d6ebda3aa52 57e57e28-e044-6119-afe2-aebffb549342 Looped 12805 times in 297 milliseconds <cfdump var = "#variables#"> Shows there's nothing in the structure, just parsedXML.xmlRoot.xmlName with the value of XMLRootElement. I also tried <cfset structDelete(variables.parsedXML.XMLRootElement, "XMLChildElement")> as well as structClear for both. More information on deleting from the xml document object. http://help.adobe.com/en_US/ColdFusion/9.0/Developing/WSc3ff6d0ea77859461172e0811cbec22c24-78e3.html Can someone please explain my faulty logic? Thanks.

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  • Designing a chain of states

    - by devoured elysium
    I want to model a kind of FSM(Finite State Machine). I have a sequence of states (let's say, from StateA to StateZ). This sequence is called a Chain and is implemented internally as a List. I will add states by the order I want them to run. My purpose is to be able to make a sequence of actions in my computer (for example, mouse clicks). (I know this has been done a zillion times). So a state is defined as a: boolean Precondition() <- Checks to see if for this state, some condition is true. For example, if I want to click in the Record button of a program, in this method I would check if the program's process is running or not. If it is, go to the next state in the chain list, otherwise, go to what was defined as the fail state (generally is the first state of them all). IState GetNextState() <- Returns the next state to evaluate. If Precondition() was sucessful, it should yield the next state in the chain otherwise it should yield the fail state. Run() Simply checks the Precondition() and sets the internal data so GetNextState() works as expected. So, a naive approach to this would be something like this: Chain chain = new Chain(); //chain.AddState(new State(Precondition, FailState, NextState) <- Method structure chain.AddState(new State(new WinampIsOpenCondition(), null, new <problem here, I want to referr to a state that still wasn't defined!>); The big problem is that I want to make a reference to a State that at this point still wasn't defined. I could circumvent the problem by using strings when refrering to states and using an internal hashtable, but isn't there a clearer alternative? I could just pass only the pre-condition and failure states in the constructor, having the chain just before execution put in each state the correct next state in a public property but that seems kind of awkward.

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  • Inversion of control domain objects construction problem

    - by Andrey
    Hello! As I understand IoC-container is helpful in creation of application-level objects like services and factories. But domain-level objects should be created manually. Spring's manual tells us: "Typically one does not configure fine-grained domain objects in the container, because it is usually the responsibility of DAOs and business logic to create/load domain objects." Well. But what if my domain "fine-grained" object depends on some application-level object. For example I have an UserViewer(User user, UserConstants constants) class. There user is domain object which cannot be injected, but UserViewer also needs UserConstants which is high-level object injected by IoC-container. I want to inject UserConstants from the IoC-container, but I also need a transient runtime parameter User here. What is wrong with the design? Thanks in advance! UPDATE It seems I was not precise enough with my question. What I really need is an example how to do this: create instance of class UserViewer(User user, UserService service), where user is passed as the parameter and service is injected from IoC. If I inject UserViewer viewer then how do I pass user to it? If I create UserViewer viewer manually then how do I pass service to it?

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  • Generating jquery 'rules' from business model to UI in asp.net mvc

    - by jim
    Hi all, I've had a good look around and am certain that there's no matching question on SO, so here goes. Has anyone created a 'helper' method on their model that generates jquery (or plain javascript) rules validation dynamically, based on the criteria/rules that are contained within the object and taken from a repository (i.e. DB). What i'm thinking of is a discrete set of partial views (and associated models) that have rules at the business logic 'level' and rather than (or in combination with) validating the rule(s) at postback, translating the same rules into tightly focussed jquery methods that work identically at client (js) and server (c#) levels. I can see benefits here re performance. Also, the rules definitions could be created in a single place (in c#) and the jquery generated off of that, thus allowing single edits to update both code streams. I appreciate that there would be limitations imposed by language specific contstraints but the general principle could be quite interesting if used appropriately. I'm also aware that testibility could be an issue when using two different language structures and hoping to achieve similar test outcomes - but those aside... any thoughts or experiences of similar out there?? cheers jimi

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  • Refactor link to show/hide a table row

    - by abatishchev
    I have a table with row which cab be hidden by user. It's implemented this way: Markup: <table> <tr> <td> <table style="margin-left: auto; text-align: right;"> <tr> <td class="stats-hide"> <a href="#" onclick="hideStats();">Hide</a> </td> <td class="stats-show" style="display: none;"> <a href="#" onclick="showStats();">Show</a> </td> </tr> </table> </td> </tr> <tr class="stats-hide"> <td> <!-- data --> </td> </tr> </table> And jQuery code: <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript"> function hideStats() { hideControls(true, $('.stats-hide')); hideControls(false, $('.stats-show')); } function showStats() { hideControls(false, $('.stats-hide')); hideControls(true, $('.stats-show')); } function hideControls(value, arr) { $(arr).each(function () { if (value) { $(this).hide(); } else { $(this).show(); } }); } </script> How to implement the same behavior with one, single link and one, probably, CSS class? My idea - store somewhere a boolean variable and toggle controls visibility relatively to this variable. Are there more?

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  • Call any webservice from the same $.ajax() call

    - by Andreas
    Hi! Im creating a usercontrol which is controled client side, it has an javascript-file attatched to it. This control has a button and upon click a popup appears, this popup shows a list of my domain entities. My entities are fetched using a call to a webservice. Im trying to get this popup usercontrol to work on all my entities, therefore i have the need to call any webservice needed (one per entity for example) with the same $.ajax() call. I have hiddenfields for the webservice url in my usercontrol which you specify in the markup via a property. So far so good. The problem arise when i need some additional parameters to the webservice (other than pagesize and pageindex). Say for example that one webservice takes an additional parameter "Date". At the moment i have my parameters set up like this: var params = JSON.stringify({ pageSize: _this.pageSize, pageIndex: _this.pageIndex }); and then i call the webservice like so: $.ajax({ webserviceUrl, params, function(result) { //some logic }); }); What i want to do is to be able to add my extra parameters (Date) to "Param" when needed, the specification of these parameters will be done via properties of the usercontrol. So, bottom line, i have a set of default parameters and want to dynamically add optional extra parameters. How is this possible? Thanks in advance.

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  • How do I "rebind" the click event after unbind('click') ?

    - by Ben
    I have an anchor tag <a class="next">next</a> made into a "button". Sometimes, this tag needs to be hidden if there is nothing new to show. All works fine if I simply hide the button with .hide() and re-display it with .show(). But I wanted to uses .fadeIn() and .fadeOut() instead. The problem I'm having is that if the user clicks on the button during the fadeOut animation, it can cause problems with the logic I have running the show. The solution I found was to unbind the click event from the button after the original click function begins, and then re-bind it after the animation is complete. $('a.next').click(function() { $(this).unbind('click'); ... // calls some functions, one of which fades out the a.next if needed ... $(this).bind('click'); } the last part of the above example does not work. The click event is not actually re-bound to the anchor. does anyone know the correct way to accomplish this? I'm a self-taught jquery guy, so some of the higher level things like unbind() and bind() are over my head, and the jquery documentation isn't really simple enough for me to understand.

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  • How to structure this Symfony web project?

    - by James William
    I am new to Symfony and am not sure how to best structure my web project. The solution must accommodate 3 use cases: Public access to www.mydomain.com for general use Member only access to member.mydomain.com Administrator access to admin.mydomain.com All three virtual hosts point to the Symfony /web directory Questions: Is this 3 separate applications in my Symfony project (e.g. "frontend", "backend" and "admin" or "public", "member", "admin")? Is this a good approach if there is to be some duplicate code (e.g. generating a member list would be common across all 3 applications, but presented differently)? How would I route to the various applications based on the subdomain when a user accesses *.mydomain.com? Where in Symfony should this routing logic be placed? Or, is this one application with modules for each of the above use cases? EDIT: I do not have access to httpd.conf in apache to specify a default page for virtual hosts. I can only specify a directory for each subdomain using the hostin provider's cPanel.

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  • When to define SDD operations System->Actor?

    - by devoured elysium
    I am having some trouble understanding how to make SDDs, as I don't fully grasp why in some cases one should define operations for System - Actor and in others don't. Here is an example: 1) The User tells the System that wants to buy some tickets, stating his client number. 2) The System confirms that the given client number is valid. 3) The User tells the System the movie that wants to see. 4) The System shows the set of available sessions and seats for that movie. 5) The System asks the user which session/seat he wants. 6) The user tells the System the chosen session/seat. This would be converted to: a) -----> tellClientNumber(clientNumber) b) <----- validClientNumber c) -----> tellMovieToSee(movie) d) <----- showsAvailableSeatsHours e) -----> tellSystemChosenSessionSeat(session, seat) I know that when we are dealing with SDD's we are still far away from coding. But I can't help trying to imagine how it how it would have been had I to convert it right away to code: I can understand 1) and 2). It's like if it was a C#/Java method with the following signature: boolean tellClientNumber(clientNumber) so I put both on the SDD. Then, we have the pair 3) 4). I can imagine that as something as: SomeDataStructureThatHoldsAvailableSessionsSeats tellSystemMovieToSee(movie) Now, the problem: From what I've come to understand, my lecturer says that we shouldn't make an operation on the SDD for 5) as we should only show operations from the Actor to the System and when the System is either presenting us data (as in c)) or validating sent data (such as in b)). I find this odd, as if I try to imagine this like a DOS app where you have to put your input sequencially, it makes sense to make an arrow even for 5). Why is this wrong? How should I try to visualize this? Thanks

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  • TreeView update bug in the VB.NET

    - by CFP
    Consider the following code: Dim Working As Boolean = False Private Sub TreeView1_AfterCheck(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.TreeViewEventArgs) Handles TreeView1.AfterCheck If Working Then Exit Sub Working = True e.Node.Checked = Not e.Node.Checked Working = False End Sub Private Sub TreeView1_MouseClick(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.MouseEventArgs) Handles TreeView1.MouseClick If e.Button = Windows.Forms.MouseButtons.Right Then MsgBox("Checked = " & TreeView1.SelectedNode.Checked) End Sub Where TreeView1 is a TreeView added to the form, with CheckBoxes set to true and one node added. The code basically cancel any node checking occuring on the form. Single-clicking the top node to check it works well : your click is immediately canceled. Yet if you double-click the checkbox, it will display a tick. But verifying the check state through a right click will yield a Checked = False dialog. How come? Is it a bug (I'm using the latest .Net Framework 4.0, and he same occurs in 2.0), or am I doing something wrong here? Is there a work around? Thanks! EDIT: Additionally, the MouseDoubleClick event is not raised before you click once again. EDIT 2: Posted a bug report at Microsoft Connect

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  • Ajax response takes time and status is 503

    - by Suresh S
    guys, i have a html page where onclick of a button a ajax request is sent to server , the request calls a jsp page which runs an oracle procedure.The procedure runs the logic and places it in a temp table . once procedure is completed , the values are returned to the client by selecting values from tmp table. as the response is too late . the data is not received at the client side. solution: i tried to run the procedure in a separate thread using a ajax call. when the procedure is completed a global flag is set to indicate that the data is generated. if the response is 500 , a second ajax call invoked by timeout function after 10000 ms . the second call checks the global flag ,if true then reads from table and sends the response. if not again a timeout is set at the client side. this solution is not mature enough. , as the procedure may take long time to respond. please let me know a good solution for this problenm?

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  • Integration transport choice (Oracle + SQL Server)

    - by lak-b
    We have several systems with Oracle (A) and SQL Server (B) databases on backend. I have to consolidate data from those systems into the new SQL Server database. Something like that: (A) =>|---------------| | some software | => SQL Server (B) =>|---------------| where some software is: transport (A and B systems located in the network) processing business logic (custom .NET code) Due to first point, I need some queue software or something similar (like MSMQ, Service Broker or something). In another hand, I can implement a web-service instead of queue. (A) =>|---------------|-------------| | queue/service | custom code | => SQL Server (B) =>|---------------|-------------| The question is: which queue/transport framework should I use with Oracle and SQL Server databases? It would be nice, if I can post messages to MSMQ in both Oracle and SQL Server stored procedures (can I?) It would be nice, if I can call a web-service in both Oracle and SQL Server stored procedures (can I?) It would be nice, if I can use something similar in both Oracle and SQL Server stored procedures (what exactly?) What software should I prefer to my requirements?

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  • Problems with Database Search Code (asp.net vb)

    - by Phil
    Here is a sample of my database search code: Dim sql As String = "Select * From Table Where " Protected Sub Page_Load(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Me.Load Dim andor As Boolean = AndOr1.SelectedValue 'selection can be AND or OR (0 / 1) 'Code for when the user selects AND If NameSearch.Text.ToString IsNot String.Empty And andor = 0 Then sql += "Surname LIKE '%" & name & "%' AND " End If If EmailSearch.Text.ToString IsNot String.Empty And andor = 0 Then sql += "Email LIKE '%" & email & "%' AND " End If If CitySearchBox.Text.ToString IsNot String.Empty And andor = 0 Then sql += "City LIKE '%" & city & "%' AND " End If 'Code for when the user selects OR If NameSearch.Text.ToString IsNot String.Empty And andor = 1 Then sql += "(Surname LIKE '%" & name & "%' OR " End If If EmailSearch.Text.ToString IsNot String.Empty And andor = 1 Then sql += "Email LIKE '%" & email & "%') OR " End If If CitySearchBox.Text.ToString IsNot String.Empty And andor = 1 Then sql += "(City LIKE '%" & city & "%' OR " End If sql = CleanString(sql) End Sub When the user selects AND (as andor.selectedvalue(0)) then the sql is produced fine like this; Select * From Table Where Surname LIKE '%test%' AND Email LIKE '%test%' AND City LIKE '%test%' But if the user selects OR (as andor.selectedvalue(1)), nothing is outputted except; Select * From Table Where Im sure the controls have values so are not string.empty and when the user selects OR the correct value 1 is being assigned to andor.

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  • A Delphi Custom Control: A TRichEdit with a TLabel Above It

    - by doubleu
    Hello, I want to create an custom control (descendant of TRichEdit). I simply want add some text above the editfield. I've created my own control and I override the constructor to create a TLabel for the caption. It works, but my problem: How is it possible to move the label above the richedit? When I set Top := -5 the label begins to disappaer. Here's the code of the constructor: constructor TDBRichEditExt.Create(AOwner: TComponent); begin inherited; lblCaption := TLabel.Create(self); lblCaption.Parent := parent; lblCaption.Caption := 'Header'; lblCaption.Top := -5; end; I think it's logic that the label disappaers since the richedit is the parent. I've tried lblCaption.Parent := self.parent; To make the form which owns the richedit the parent - but this dosn't work... How could I achieve this? Thank you all!

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  • How do I set streetView in my mapview

    - by John
    I an working on an android project whereby i need to set my map to zoom in and show a more detailed view of my map, like the streets of where i want my coordinates to triangulate. The problem is in Mapview class, setStreetView is deprecated, wat is the alternative? This is how setStreetView looks when i use it. package com.HelloMapView; import java.util.List; import com.google.android.maps.GeoPoint; import com.google.android.maps.MapActivity; import com.google.android.maps.MapController; import com.google.android.maps.MapView; import com.google.android.maps.Overlay; import com.google.android.maps.OverlayItem; import android.app.Activity; import android.graphics.drawable.Drawable; import android.os.Bundle; import android.widget.LinearLayout; public class HelloMapView extends MapActivity { MapView mapview; LinearLayout linearlayout; List<Overlay> mapOverlay; Drawable drawable; HelloItemizedOverlay itemizedOverlay; @SuppressWarnings("deprecation") @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); mapview=(MapView)findViewById(R.id.mapview); mapview.setBuiltInZoomControls(true); mapview.setStreetView(true); mapOverlay=mapview.getOverlays(); drawable=this.getResources().getDrawable(R.drawable.androidmarker); itemizedOverlay=new HelloItemizedOverlay(drawable); GeoPoint geoPoint=new GeoPoint(19240000,-99120000); OverlayItem overlayitem=new OverlayItem(geoPoint,"",""); itemizedOverlay.addoverlay(overlayitem); mapOverlay.add(itemizedOverlay); } @Override protected boolean isRouteDisplayed() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub return false; } } this does not work it only shows square boxes with no map at all

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  • File mkdirs() method not working in android/java

    - by Leif Andersen
    I've been pulling out my hair on this for a while now. The following method is supposed to download a file, and save it to the location specified on the hard drive. private static void saveImage(Context context, boolean backgroundUpdate, URL url, File file) { if (!Tools.checkNetworkState(context, backgroundUpdate)) return; // Get the image try { // Make the file file.getParentFile().mkdirs(); // Set up the connection URLConnection uCon = url.openConnection(); InputStream is = uCon.getInputStream(); BufferedInputStream bis = new BufferedInputStream(is); // Download the data ByteArrayBuffer baf = new ByteArrayBuffer(50); int current = 0; while ((current = bis.read()) != -1) { baf.append((byte) current); } // Write the bits to the file OutputStream os = new FileOutputStream(file); os.write(baf.toByteArray()); os.close(); } catch (Exception e) { // Any exception is probably a newtork faiilure, bail return; } } Also, if the file doesn't exist, it is supposed to make the directory for the file. (And if there is another file already in that spot, it should just not do anything). However, for some reason, the mkdirs() method never makes the directory. I've tried everything from explicit parentheses, to explicitly making the parent file class, and nothing seems to work. I'm fairly certain that the drive is writable, as it's only called after that has already been determined, also that is true after running through it while debugging. So the method fails because the parent directories aren't made. Can anyone tell me if there is anything wrong with the way I'm calling it? Also, if it helps, here is the source for the file I'm calling it in: https://github.com/LeifAndersen/NetCatch/blob/master/src/net/leifandersen/mobile/android/netcatch/services/RSSService.java Thank you

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  • How to Prevent PostBack Event Handler from Firing

    - by user331744
    I have a custom class (ServerSideValidator.vb) that validates user input on server side (it doesn't use any of the .NET built in validators, therefore Page.Validate() is not an option for me). I am calling the Validate() method on page.IsPostback event and the class performs without any problem My issue is, when validation fails (returns false), I want to stop the postback event handler from firing, but load the page along with all the controls and user-input values in them. If I do, Response.End(), the page comes up blank. I can programmatically instruct the page to go to the previous page (original form before postback), but it loses all user-inputs. I thought of creating a global boolean variable in the page code behind file and check the value before performing any postback method, but this approach takes away from my plan to provide all functionalities inside the class itself. The page object is being referenced to ServerSideValidator. Seems like all the postback related properties/variables I come across inside Page class are 'Readonly' and I can't assign value(s) to control/prevent postback event from firing. Any idiea on how I can accomplish this? Please let me know if you need further details

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  • SQL Server 2008 - Full Text Query

    - by user208662
    Hello, I have two tables in a SQL Server 2008 database in my company. The first table represents the products that my company sells. The second table contains the product manufacturer’s details. These tables are defined as follows: Product ------- ID Name ManufacturerID Description Manufacturer ------------ ID Name As you can imagine, I want to make this as easy as possible for our customers to query this data. However, I’m having problems writing a forgiving, yet powerful search query. For instance, I’m anticipating people to search based on phonetical spellings. Because of this, the data may not match the exact data in my database. In addition, I think some individuals will search by manufacturer’s name first, but I want the matching product names to appear first. Based on these requirements, I’m currently working on the following query: select p.Name as 'ProductName', m.Name as 'Manufacturer', r.Rank as 'Rank' from Product p inner join Manufacturer m on p.ManufacturerID=m.ID inner join CONTAINSTABLE(Product, Name, @searchQuery) as r Oddly, this query is throwing an error. However, I have no idea why. Squiggles appear to the right of the last parenthesis in management studio. The tool tip says "An expression of non-boolean type specified in a context where a condition is expected". I understand what this statement means. However, I guess I do not know how COntainsTable works. What am I doing wrong? Thank you

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  • GetIpAddrTable() leaks memory. How to resolve that?

    - by Stabledog
    On my Windows 7 box, this simple program causes the memory use of the application to creep up continuously, with no upper bound. I've stripped out everything non-essential, and it seems clear that the culprit is the Microsoft Iphlpapi function "GetIpAddrTable()". On each call, it leaks some memory. In a loop (e.g. checking for changes to the network interface list), it is unsustainable. There seems to be no async notification API which could do this job, so now I'm faced with possibly having to isolate this logic into a separate process and recycle the process periodically -- an ugly solution. Any ideas? // IphlpLeak.cpp - demonstrates that GetIpAddrTable leaks memory internally: run this and watch // the memory use of the app climb up continuously with no upper bound. #include <stdio.h> #include <windows.h> #include <assert.h> #include <Iphlpapi.h> #pragma comment(lib,"Iphlpapi.lib") void testLeak() { static unsigned char buf[16384]; DWORD dwSize(sizeof(buf)); if (GetIpAddrTable((PMIB_IPADDRTABLE)buf, &dwSize, false) == ERROR_INSUFFICIENT_BUFFER) { assert(0); // we never hit this branch. return; } } int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { for ( int i = 0; true; i++ ) { testLeak(); printf("i=%d\n",i); Sleep(1000); } return 0; }

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  • jQuery tokeninput plugin + passing id to another tokeninput url

    - by Elson Solano
    I am using a jquery plugin called jQuery Tokeninput http://loopj.com/jquery-tokeninput/ and I am having a logic issue. var country_id = ""; jQuery("#demo-input-prevent-duplicates").tokenInput(host+"/forms/campaign_location.php?action=country", { theme: "facebook", hintText: "Enter a Country...", placeholder: "Enter a Country...", preventDuplicates: true, onAdd: function(item) { country_id = item.id; }, onDelete: function(){ hideElements(); }, tokenDelimiter: "|", }); My question here is how would I pass the value of country_id to the parameter of the below code. I'm not seeing how to do this one on the jquery tokeninput documentation. jQuery("#targ_state").tokenInput(host+"/forms/campaign_location.php?action=stateorprovince&cid="+country_id, { theme: "facebook", preventDuplicates: true, hintText: "Enter a State or Province...", placeholder: "Enter a State or Province..." }); If you'll look on this part of the code, I am passing the country_id that was generated above on the "onAdd". This doesn't work though. jQuery("#targ_state").tokenInput(host+"/forms/campaign_location.php?action=stateorprovince&cid="+country_id .... How would I do that one? Your help would be greatly appreciated and of course, rewarded! Thanks! :-)

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  • .NET binary serialization conditionally without ISerializable

    - by SillyWhy
    I got 2 classes, for example: public class A { private B b; ... } public class B { ... } I need to serialize an object A using BinaryFormatter. When remoting it shall include the field b, but not when serialize to file. Here is what I added: [Serializable] public class A : MarshalByRefObject { private B b; [OnSerializing] private void OnSerializing(StreamingContext context) { if (context.State == StreamingContextStates.File) { this.b = null; } } ... } [Serializable] public class B : MarshalByRefObject { ... } I think this is a bad design because if another class C also contains B, in class C we must add the duplicate OnSerializing() logic as in A. Class B should decide what to do, not class A or C. I don't want to use ISerializable interface because there are too many variables in class B have to be added to SerializationInfo. I can create a SerializationSurrogate for class B, which perform nothing in GetObjectData() & SetObjectData(), then use it when serializing to file. However the same maintenance issue because whoever modify class B can't notice what going to happen during serialization & the existence of SerializationSurrogate. Is there a better alternative?

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  • Application Code Redesign to reduce no. of Database Hits from Performance Perspective

    - by Rachel
    Scenario I want to parse a large CSV file and inserts data into the database, csv file has approximately 100K rows of data. Currently I am using fgetcsv to parse through the file row by row and insert data into Database and so right now I am hitting database for each line of data present in csv file so currently database hit count is 100K which is not good from performance point of view. Current Code: public function initiateInserts() { //Open Large CSV File(min 100K rows) for parsing. $this->fin = fopen($file,'r') or die('Cannot open file'); //Parsing Large CSV file to get data and initiate insertion into schema. while (($data=fgetcsv($this->fin,5000,";"))!==FALSE) { $query = "INSERT INTO dt_table (id, code, connectid, connectcode) VALUES (:id, :code, :connectid, :connectcode)"; $stmt = $this->prepare($query); // Then, for each line : bind the parameters $stmt->bindValue(':id', $data[0], PDO::PARAM_INT); $stmt->bindValue(':code', $data[1], PDO::PARAM_INT); $stmt->bindValue(':connectid', $data[2], PDO::PARAM_INT); $stmt->bindValue(':connectcode', $data[3], PDO::PARAM_INT); // Execute the statement $stmt->execute(); $this->checkForErrors($stmt); } } I am looking for a way wherein instead of hitting Database for every row of data, I can prepare the query and than hit it once and populate Database with the inserts. Any Suggestions !!! Note: This is the exact sample code that I am using but CSV file has more no. of field and not only id, code, connectid and connectcode but I wanted to make sure that I am able to explain the logic and so have used this sample code here. Thanks !!!

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  • what is the best practice approach for n-tier application development with entity framework?

    - by samsur
    I am building an application using entity framework. I am using the T4 template to generate self tracking entities. Currently, I am thinking of creating the entity framework code in a separate project. In this same project, I would have partial classes with additional methods for the entities. I am thinking of creating a separate project for a service layer (WCF) with methods for the upper/presentation tier. The WCF layer will reference the entity framework project. The methods in the WCF layer will return the entities or accept the entities as the parameters. I am thinkg of creating a third project for the presentation layer (ASP.net), this will make calls to the WCF service but will also need to reference the entities as the WCF methods take these types as the parameters/return types. In short, i want to use the STE entities generated by the T4 template as a DTO to be used in all layers. I was originally thinking of creating a business logic layer that maps to each entities. Example: If i have a customer class, the Business Layer would have a CustomerBLL class and then methods in the customerBLL will be used by the service layer. I was also trying to create a DTO in this business layer. I however found that this approach is very time consuming and i do not see a major benefit as it would create more maintenance work. What is the best practice for n-tier application development using entity framework 4?

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  • perl - universal operator overload

    - by Todd Freed
    I have an idea for perl, and I'm trying to figure out the best way to implement it. The idea is to have new versions of every operator which consider the undefined value as the identity of that operation. For example: $a = undef + 5; # undef treated as 0, so $a = 5 $a = undef . "foo"; # undef treated as '', so $a = foo $a = undef && 1; # undef treated as false, $a = true and so forth. ideally, this would be in the language as a pragma, or something. use operators::awesome; However, I would be satisfied if I could implement this special logic myself, and then invoke it where needed: use My::Operators; The problem is that if I say "use overload" inside My::Operators only affects objects blessed into My::Operators. So the question is: is there a way (with "use overoad" or otherwise) to do a "universal operator overload" - which would be called for all operations, not just operations on blessed scalars. If not - who thinks this would be a great idea !? It would save me a TON of this kind of code if($object && $object{value} && $object{value} == 15) replace with if($object{value} == 15) ## the special "is-equal-to" operator

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