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• Why do WCF clients depend on the app.config file?

  - by routeNpingme

  Like a lot of things, I'm sure there's a good reason for this, so please help me understand... Why, by default, do WCF services store settings in app.config? This has been so frustrating trying to work with multiple Silverlight class libraries. These class libraries are supposed to be completely independent from each other, and this dependency on the app.config seems to cause the following headaches: Single Responsibility Principle - I should be able to add a reference to a class library and go. If that class library uses a service reference, this idea is shot before I even start coding against it. Muddy Configuration - To get other libraries to work, I have to copy and paste the service configurations into the "main" application configs. If an endpoint changes in any way, I can't just worry about a new version of that class DLL - I have to worry about anything that uses it, too. Complex Alternatives - Programmatically creating the endpoint isn't pretty. Period. There has to be a better way. Why doesn't WCF at least separate the service configurations into a ServiceName.config or something that gets copied to an output directory. What am I missing? How do you deal with this?

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• Handling form from different view and passing form validation through session in django

  - by Mo J. Mughrabi

  I have a requirement here to build a comment-like app in my django project, the app has a view to receive a submitted form process it and return the errors to where ever it came from. I finally managed to get it to work, but I have doubt for the way am using it might be wrong since am passing the entire validated form in the session. below is the code comment/templatetags/comment.py @register.inclusion_tag('comment/form.html', takes_context=True) def comment_form(context, model, object_id, next): """ comment_form() is responsible for rendering the comment form """ # clear sessions from variable incase it was found content_type = ContentType.objects.get_for_model(model) try: request = context['request'] if request.session.get('comment_form', False): form = CommentForm(request.session['comment_form']) form.fields['content_type'].initial = 15 form.fields['object_id'].initial = 2 form.fields['next'].initial = next else: form = CommentForm(initial={ 'content_type' : content_type.id, 'object_id' : object_id, 'next' : next }) except Exception as e: logging.error(str(e)) form = None return { 'form' : form } comment/view.py def save_comment(request): """ save_comment: """ if request.method == 'POST': # clear sessions from variable incase it was found if request.session.get('comment_form', False): del request.session['comment_form'] form = CommentForm(request.POST) if form.is_valid(): obj = form.save(commit=False) if request.user.is_authenticated(): obj.created_by = request.user obj.save() messages.info(request, _('Your comment has been posted.')) return redirect(form.data.get('next')) else: request.session['comment_form'] = request.POST return redirect(form.data.get('next')) else: raise Http404 the usage is by loading the template tag and firing {% comment_form article article.id article.get_absolute_url %} my doubt is if am doing the correct approach or not by passing the validated form to the session. Would that be a problem? security risk? performance issues? Please advise Update In response to Pol question. The reason why I went with this approach is because comment form is handled in a separate app. In my scenario, I render objects such as article and all I do is invoke the templatetag to render the form. What would be an alternative approach for my case? You also shared with me the django comment app, which am aware of but the client am working with requires a lot of complex work to be done in the comment app thats why am working on a new one.

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• UIButton receives touches at the wrong position after CABasicAnimaton applied

  - by Dmitry

  I need to add an animation to UIButton - simple moving animation. When I do this, the button moves, but the click area of that button remains at old position: UIButton *slideButton = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeRoundedRect]; [slideButton addTarget:self action:@selector(clicked:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; [slideButton setFrame:CGRectMake(50, 50, 50, 50)]; [self.view addSubview:slideButton]; CABasicAnimation *slideAnimation = [CABasicAnimation animationWithKeyPath:@"position"]; [slideAnimation setRemovedOnCompletion:NO]; [slideAnimation setDuration:1]; [slideAnimation setFillMode:kCAFillModeBoth]; [slideAnimation setAutoreverses:NO]; slideAnimation.fromValue = [NSValue valueWithCGPoint:CGPointMake(50, 50)]; slideAnimation.toValue = [NSValue valueWithCGPoint:CGPointMake(100, 100)]; [slideButton.layer addAnimation:slideAnimation forKey:@"slide"]; I already saw an answer to change the frame of the button at the end of the animation (like here UIButton receives touchEvents at the wrong position after a CABasicAnimaton) But it's not my case because I should give possibility to user to click on the button while it's moving... Also, I can't use another approaches (like NSTimer) as a replacement for CABasicAnimation because I will have a complex path to move the object... Thanks for Your help!

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• A "smart" (forgiving) date parser?

  - by jdmuys

  I have to migrate a very large dataset from one system to another. One of the "source" column contains a date but is really a string with no constraint, while the destination system mandates a date in the format yyyy-mm-dd. Many, but not all, of the source dates are formatted as yyyymmdd. So to coerce them to the expected format, I do (in Perl): return "$1-$2-$3" if ($val =~ /(\d{4})[-\/]*(\d{2})[-\/]*(\d{2})/); The problem arises when the source dates moves away from the "generic" yyyymmdd. The goal is to salvage as many dates as possible, before giving up. Example source strings include: 21/3/1998, March 2004, 2001, 3/4/97 I can try to match as many of the examples I can find with a succession of regular expressions such as the one above. But is there something smarter to do? Am I not reinventing the wheel? Is there a library somewhere doing something similar? I couldn't find anything relevant googling "forgiving date parser". (any language is OK).

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• Is there a better way to write this LINQ query?

  - by Raj Aththanayake

  Hi Is there a better simplified way to write this query. My logic is if collection contains customer ids and countrycodes, do the query ordey by customer id ascending. If there are no contain id in CustIDs then do the order by customer name. Is there a better way to write this query? I'm not really familiar with complex lambdas. var custIdResult = (from Customer c in CustomerCollection where (c.CustomerID.ToLower().Contains(param.ToLower()) && (countryCodeFilters.Any(item => item.Equals(c.CountryCode))) ) select c).ToList(); if (custIdResult.Count > 0) { return from Customer c in custIdResult where ( c.CustomerName.ToLower().Contains(param.ToLower()) && countryCodeFilters.Any(item => item.Equals(c.CountryCode))) orderby c.CustomerID ascending select c; } else { return from Customer c in CustomerCollection where (c.CustomerName.ToLower().Contains(param.ToLower()) && countryCodeFilters.Any(item => item.Equals(c.CountryCode))) orderby c.CustomerName descending select c; }

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• Examples using Active Directory/LDAP groups for permissions \ roles in Rails App.

  - by Nick Gorbikoff

  Hello. I was wondering how other people implemented this scenario. I have an internal rails app ( inventory management, label printing, shipping,etc). I'm rewriting security on the system, cause the old way got to cumbersome to maintain ( users table, passwords, roles) - I used restful_authentication and roles. It was implemented about 3 years ago. I already implemented AuthLogic with ruby-ldap-net to authenticate users ( actually that was surprisingly easy, compared to how I struggled with other frameworks/languages before). Next step is roles. I already have groups defined in Active Directory - so I don't want to run a separate roles system in my rails app, I just want to reuse Active Directory groups - since that part of the system is already maintained for other purposes ( shared drives, backups, pc access, etc) So I was wondering if others had experience implementing permissions/roles in a rails app based on groups in Active Directory or LDAP. Also the roles requirements are pretty complex. Here is an example: For instance I have users that belong to the supervisors group in AD and to inventory dept, so I was that user to be able to run "advanced" tasks in invetory - adjust qty, run reports, however other "supervisors" from other departmanets, shouldn't be able to do this, also Top Management - should be able to use those reports (regardless weather they belong to the invetory or not), but not Middle Management, unless they are in inventory group. Admins of the system (Domain Admins) should have unrestricted access to the system , except for HR & Finances part unless they are in HR ( like you don't want all system admins (except for one authorized one) to see personal info of other employees). I looked at acl9, cancan, aegis. I was wondering if there are any advantaged/cons to using one versus the other for this particular use of system access based on AD. Suggest other systems if you had good experience. Thank you!!!

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• How to view shell commands used by eclipse "run configurations"

  - by gmale

  Given a "run configuration" in Eclipse, I want to print out the associated shell command that would be used to run it. For example: Right now, in Eclipse, if I click "play" it will run: mvn assembly:directory -Dmaven.test.skip=true I don't see that command, I just know that's what the IDE must run, at some point. However, some of the other run configurations are far more complex with long classpaths and virtual machine options and, frankly, sometimes I have no idea what the equivalent shell command would be (particularly when it comes to Flex). There must be some way to access the shell command that would be associated with a "Run Configuration" in Eclipse/Flex Builder. This information must be available, which leads me to believe someone has written a plugin to display it. Or maybe there's already an option built into Eclipse for accessing this. So is there a way to, essentially, convert an Eclipse run configuration into a shell command? (for context only: I'm asking because I'm writing a bash script that automates everything I do, during development--from populating the Database all the way to opening Firefox and clearing the cache before running the web app. So every command I run from the IDE needs to exist in the script. Some are tricky to figure out.)

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• Zend_Auth and database session SaveHandler

  - by takeshin

  I have created Zend_Auth adapter implementing Zend_Auth_Adapter_Interface (similar to Pádraic's adapter) and created simple ACL plugin. Everything works fine with default session handler. So far, so good. As a next step I have created custom Session SaveHandler to persist session data in the database. My implementation is very similar to this one from parables-demo. Seems that everything is working fine. Session data are properly saved to the database, session objects are serialized, but authentication does not work when I enable this custom SaveHandler. I have debugged the authentication and all works fine up till the next request, when the authentication data are lost. I suspected, that is has something to do with the fact, that I use $adapter->write($object) instead $adapter->write($string), but the same happens with strings. I'm bootstrapping Zend_Application_Resource_Session in the first Bootstrap method, as early as possible. Does Zend_Auth need any extra configuration to persist data in the database? Why the authentity is being lost?

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• How To Create a Flexible Plug-In Architecture?

  - by justkt

  A repeating theme in my development work has been the use of or creation of an in-house plug-in architecture. I've seen it approached many ways - configuration files (XML, .conf, and so on), inheritance frameworks, database information, libraries, and others. In my experience: A database isn't a great place to store your configuration information, especially co-mingled with data Attempting this with an inheritance hierarchy requires knowledge about the plug-ins to be coded in, meaning the plug-in architecture isn't all that dynamic Configuration files work well for providing simple information, but can't handle more complex behaviors Libraries seem to work well, but the one-way dependencies have to be carefully created. As I seek to learn from the various architectures I've worked with, I'm also looking to the community for suggestions. How have you implemented a solid plug-in architecture? What was your worst failure (or the worst failure you've seen)? What would you do if you were going to implement a new plug-in architecture? What SDK or open source project that you've worked with has the best example of a good architecture? A few examples I've been finding on my own: Perl's Module::Plugable An SO question with a list for Java (including Sever Provider Interfaces) An SO question for C++ pointing to a Dr. Dobbs article These examples seem to play to various language strengths. Is a good plugin architecture necessarily tied to the language? Is it best to use tools to create a plugin architecture, or to do it on one's own following models?

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• ASP.NET Login Control rejects users who exist

  - by rsteckly

  Hi, I'm having some trouble with the ASP.NET 2.0 Login Control. I've setup a database with the aspI.net regsql tool. I've checked the application name. It is set to "/". The application can access the SQL Server. In fact, when I go to retrieve the password, it will even send me the password. Despite this, the login control continues to reject logins. I added this to the web.config: <membership defaultProvider="AspNetSqlProvider"> <providers> <clear/> <add name="AspNetSqlProvider" connectionStringName="LocalSqlServer" applicationName="/" type="System.Web.Security.SqlMembershipProvider, System.Web, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b03f5f7f11d50a3a"/> </providers> And I added the following to my connection strings: <remove name="LocalSqlServer" /> <add name="LocalSqlServer" connectionString="Data Source=IDC-4\EXCALIBUR;Initial Catalog=allied_nr;Integrated Security=True;Asynchronous Processing=True"/> (Note the "remove name" is to get rid of the default connection string in the App_Data directory.) Why won't the login control authenticate users?

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• Pecking order of pigeons?

  - by sc_ray

  I was going though problems on graph theory posted by Prof. Ericksson from my alma-mater and came across this rather unique question about pigeons and their innate tendency to form pecking orders. The question goes as follows: Whenever groups of pigeons gather, they instinctively establish a pecking order. For any pair of pigeons, one pigeon always pecks the other, driving it away from food or potential mates. The same pair of pigeons always chooses the same pecking order, even after years of separation, no matter what other pigeons are around. Surprisingly, the overall pecking order can contain cycles—for example, pigeon A pecks pigeon B, which pecks pigeon C, which pecks pigeon A. Prove that any finite set of pigeons can be arranged in a row from left to right so that every pigeon pecks the pigeon immediately to its left. Since this is a question on Graph theory, the first things that crossed my mind that is this just asking for a topological sort of a graphs of relationships(relationships being the pecking order). What made this a little more complex was the fact that there can be cyclic relationships between the pigeons. If we have a cyclic dependency as follows: A-B-C-A where A pecks on B,B pecks on C and C goes back and pecks on A If we represent it in the way suggested by the problem, we have something as follows: C B A But the above given row ordering does not factor in the pecking order between C and A. I had another idea of solving it by mathematical induction where the base case is for two pigeons arranged according to their pecking order, assuming the pecking order arrangement is valid for n pigeons and then proving it to be true for n+1 pigeons. I am not sure if I am going down the wrong track here. Some insights into how I should be analyzing this problem will be helpful. Thanks

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• Problem with for-loop in python

  - by Protean

  This code is supposed to be able to sort the items in self.array based upon the order of the characters in self.order. The method sort runs properly until the third iteration, unil for some reason the for loop seems to repeat indefinitely. What is going on here? class sorting_class: def __init__(self): self.array = ['ca', 'bd', 'ac', 'ab'] #An array of strings self.arrayt = [] self.globali = 0 self.globalii = 0 self.order = ['a', 'b', 'c', 'd'] #Order of characters self.orderi = 0 self.carry = [] self.leave = [] self.sortedlist = [] def sort(self): for arrayi in self.arrayt: #This should only loop for the number items in self.arrayt. However, the third time this is run it seems to loop indefinitely. print ('run', arrayi) #Shows the problem if self.order[self.orderi] == arrayi[self.globali]: self.carry.append(arrayi) else: if self.globali != 0: self.leave.append(arrayi) def srt(self): self.arrayt = self.array my.sort() #First this runs the first time. while len(self.sortedlist) != len(self.array): if len(self.carry) == 1: self.sortedlist.append(self.carry) self.arrayt = self.leave self.leave = [] self.carry = [] self.globali = 1 self.orderi = 0 my.sort() elif len(self.carry) == 0: if len(self.leave) != 0: #Because nothing matches 'aa' during the second iteration, this code runs the third time" self.arrayt = self.leave self.globali = 1 self.orderi += 1 my.sort() else: self.arrayt = self.array self.globalii += 1 self.orderi = self.globalii self.globali = 0 my.sort() self.orderi = 0 else: #This is what runs the second time. self.arrayt = self.carry self.carry = [] self.globali += 1 my.sort() my = sorting_class() my.srt()

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• C++: parsing with simple regular expression or shoud I use sscanf?

  - by Helltone

  I need to parse a string like func1(arg1, arg2); func2(arg3, arg4);. It's not a very complex parsing problem, so I would prefer to avoid resorting to flex/bison or similar utilities. My first approch was to try to use POSIX C regcomp/regexec or Boost implementation of C++ std::regex. I wrote the following regular expression, which does not work (I'll explain why further on). "^" "[ ;\t\n]*" "(" // (1) identifier "[a-zA-Z_][a-zA-Z0-9_]*" ")" "[ \t\n]*" "(" // (2) non-marking "\[" "(" // (3) non-marking "[ \t]*" "(" // (4..n-1) argument "[a-zA-Z0-9_]+" ")" "[ \t\n]*" "," ")*" "[ \t\n]*" "(" // (n) last argument "[a-zA-Z0-9_]+" ")" "]" ")?" "[ \t\n]*" ";" Note that the group 1 captures the identifier and groups 4..n-1 are intended to capture arguments except the last, which is captured by group n. When I apply this regex to, say func(arg1, arg2, arg3) the result I get is an array {func, arg2, arg3}. This is wrong because arg1 is not in it! The problem is that in the standard regex libraries, submarkings only capture the last match. In other words, if you have for instance the regex "((a*|b*))*" applied on "babb", the results of the inner match will be bb and all previous captures will have been forgotten. Another thing that annoys me here is that in case of error there is no way to know which character was not recognized as these functions provide very little information about the state of the parser when the input is rejected. So I don't know if I'm missing something here... In this case should I use sscanf or similar instead? Note that I prefer to use C/C++ standard libraries (and maybe boost).

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• Calling a function within a jQuery plug-in

  - by Bob Knothe

  I am in the process of creating my first jQuery plug-in that will format numbers automatically to various international formats. There are a couple functions within the plug-in that strips the strings and re-formats the string that needs to be called from another jQuery script. Based on the plug-in structure below (let me know if you need the entire code) can I call and send the parameter(s) to the stripFormat(ii) and targetFormat(ii, iv) functions? Or do I need to change my plug-in structure and if so how? (function($){ var p = $.extend({ aNum: '0123456789', aNeg: '-', aSep: ',', aDec: '.', aInput: '', cPos: 0 }); $.fn.extend({ AutoFormat: function() { return this.each(function() { $(this).keypress(function (e){ code here; }); $(this).keyup(function (e){ code here; }); // Would like to call this function from another jQuery script - see below. function stripFormat(ii){ code here; } // Would like to call this function from another jQuery script - see below. function targetFormat(ii, iv){ code here; } }); } }); })(jQuery); Methods trying to call the plug-in functions: jQuery(function(){ $("input").change(function (){ //temp function to demonstrate the stripFormat() function. document.getElementById(targetElementid).value = targetFormat(targetElementid, targetValue); }); }); I have tried to use these variations without success: document.getElementById(targetElementid).value = $.targetFormat(targetElementid, targetValue); document.getElementById(targetElementid).value = $.autoFormat().targetFormat(targetElementid, targetValue);

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• jQuery Accordian

  - by Fuego DeBassi

  Just wondering if anyone can provide some basic advice on an accordion I'm trying to simplify. Got a working version, but it seems way overly complex. Here is my new JS. $(document).ready(function() { $("#themes li ul").hide(); $("#themes li").hover(function() { $("ul").show(); }, function() { $("li ul").hide(); }); The markup looks like this: <ul> <li>Tier 1 <ul> <li>Tier 2</li> <li>Tier 2</li> </ul> </li> <li>Tier 1 <ul> <li>Tier 2</li> <li>Tier 2</li> </ul> </li> </ul> My script works alright. But it shows all of the child ul's when any parent li is hovered, and it hide's all the child ul's when unhovered. Just not sure how I can get it to A.) Only .show the li ul when that specific li is hovered. And B.) Hide the show'n li ul only when another one is hovered (not itself). Example + explanation would be especially helpful! Thanks!!

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• How do I make JPA POJO classes + Netbeans forms play well together?

  - by Zak

  I started using netbeans to design forms to edit the instances of various classes I have made in a small app I am writing. Basically, the app starts, an initial set of objects is selected from the DB and presented in a list, then an item in the list can be selected for editing. When the editor comes up it has form fields for many of the data fields in the class. The problem I run into is that I have to create a controller that maps each of the data elements to the correct form element, and create an inordinate number of small conversion mapping lines of code to convert numbers into strings and set the correct element in a dropdown, then another inordinate amount of code to go back and update the underlying object with all the values from the form when the save button is clicked. My question is; is there a more directly way to make the editing of the form directly modify the contents of my class instance? I would like to be able to have a default mapping "controller" that I can configure, then override the getter/setter for a particular field if needed. Ideally, there would be standard field validation for things like phone numbers, integers, floats, zip codes, etc... I'm not averse to writing this myself, I would just like to see if it is already out there and use the right tool for the right job.

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• Adding <tr> from repeater's ItemDataBound Event

  - by nemiss

  My repeater's templates generate a table, where each item is a table row. When a very very specific condition is met (itemdata), I want to add an additional row to the table from this event. How can I do that? protected void rptData_ItemDataBound(object sender, RepeaterItemEventArgs e) { if (e.Item.ItemType == ListItemType.Item || e.Item.ItemType == ListItemType.AlternatingItem) { bool tmp = bool.Parse(DataBinder.Eval(e.Item.DataItem, "somedata").ToString()); if (!tmp && e.Item.ItemIndex != 0) { //Add row after this item } } } I can use e.Item.Controls.Add() and add TableRow but for that I need to locate a table right? How can I solve that? UPDATE I will explain now why I need this: I am creating a sort of message board, where data entries are displayed in a tabled style. The first items in the table are "important" items after those items, i want to add this row. I could solved it using 2 repeaters, where the first repeater will be bounded to pinned items, and the second repeater will be bounded to refular items. But I don't want to have to repeaters nor I want to complex the business logic for separating the fetched data to pinned and not-pinned collection. I think the best opton is to do it "onfly", using one repeater and one datasource.

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• Graphing the pitch (frequency) of a sound

  - by Coronatus

  I want to plot the pitch of a sound into a graph. Currently I can plot the amplitude. The graph below is created by the data returned by getUnscaledAmplitude(): AudioInputStream audioInputStream = AudioSystem.getAudioInputStream(new BufferedInputStream(new FileInputStream(file))); byte[] bytes = new byte[(int) (audioInputStream.getFrameLength()) * (audioInputStream.getFormat().getFrameSize())]; audioInputStream.read(bytes); // Get amplitude values for each audio channel in an array. graphData = type.getUnscaledAmplitude(bytes, this); public int[][] getUnscaledAmplitude(byte[] eightBitByteArray, AudioInfo audioInfo) { int[][] toReturn = new int[audioInfo.getNumberOfChannels()][eightBitByteArray.length / (2 * audioInfo. getNumberOfChannels())]; int index = 0; for (int audioByte = 0; audioByte < eightBitByteArray.length;) { for (int channel = 0; channel < audioInfo.getNumberOfChannels(); channel++) { // Do the byte to sample conversion. int low = (int) eightBitByteArray[audioByte]; audioByte++; int high = (int) eightBitByteArray[audioByte]; audioByte++; int sample = (high << 8) + (low & 0x00ff); if (sample < audioInfo.sampleMin) { audioInfo.sampleMin = sample; } else if (sample > audioInfo.sampleMax) { audioInfo.sampleMax = sample; } toReturn[channel][index] = sample; } index++; } return toReturn; } But I need to show the audio's pitch, not amplitude. Fast Fourier transform appears to get the pitch, but it needs to know more variables than the raw bytes I have, and is very complex and mathematical. Is there a way I can do this?

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• File descriptor limits and default stack sizes

  - by Charles

  Where I work we build and distribute a library and a couple complex programs built on that library. All code is written in C and is available on most 'standard' systems like Windows, Linux, Aix, Solaris, Darwin. I started in the QA department and while running tests recently I have been reminded several times that I need to remember to set the file descriptor limits and default stack sizes higher or bad things will happen. This is particularly the case with Solaris and now Darwin. Now this is very strange to me because I am a believer in 0 required environment fiddling to make a product work. So I am wondering if there are times where this sort of requirement is a necessary evil, or if we are doing something wrong. Edit: Great comments that describe the problem and a little background. However I do not believe I worded the question well enough. Currently, we require customers, and hence, us the testers, to set these limits before running our code. We do not do this programatically. And this is not a situation where they MIGHT run out, under normal load our programs WILL run out and seg fault. So rewording the question, is requiring the customer to change these ulimit values to run our software to be expected on some platforms, ie, Solaris, Aix, or are we as a company making it to difficult for these users to get going? Bounty: I added a bounty to hopefully get a little more information on what other companies are doing to manage these limits. Can you set these pragmatically? Should we? Should our programs even be hitting these limits or could this be a sign that things might be a bit messy under the covers? That is really what I want to know, as a perfectionist a seemingly dirty program really bugs me.

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• The perfect web UI framework (with Microsoft stack?) - architecture question?

  - by Igorek

  I'm looking for suggestions for the following issue, and I realize there is really not going to be a perfect answer to my question: I have a UI built in WinForms.NET (v4.0 framework) with WCF back-end and EF4 model objects, that I am looking to port to the web. UI is not huge and is not super complex and is structured well. But it is not a super simple system either. I am looking to pick a technology stack for the web-frontend that will target desktop & partially mobile platforms, provide a good development platform to build on, and facilitate code reuse across UI and back-end tiers... I would rather avoid: custom coding of UI-centric scripts, because they are hard to debug, non-compiled, usually a maintenance nightmare, almost always start to contain business logic, and duplicate some of the logic that back-end tiers have (especially validation) custom-coding for Desktop Web and Mobile Web UI's separately (although I realize that mobile web UI will likely contain fewer of data-entry screens and more reporting screens) non-.NET technology stacks I would love to: target the reporting capabilities of the system toward mobile web browsers not have to write a single line of script (javascript, jquery, etc.) utilize a good collection of controls that produces an elegant UI use .NET for everything The way I see it right now, I need to re-write this app in Silverlight, utilize a 3rd party UI framework like Telerik, and re-do the reports UI again for mobile platforms separately. However, I'm rather concerned about the shelf-life of Silverlight and the needed to deploy a different architecture to deal with mobile platform. Is there an ASP.NET/MVC/Ajax architecture/framework/library that would allow me to get at the power of .NET and without painful (imho) client-side scripting, while providing a decent user experience Thank you

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• Unity 1.2 Dependency injection of internal types

  - by qvin

  I have a facade in a library that exposes some complex functionality through a simple interface. My question is how do I do dependency injection for the internal types used in the facade. Let's say my C# library code looks like - public class XYZfacade:IFacade { [Dependency] internal IType1 type1 { get; set; } [Dependency] internal IType2 type2 { get; set; } public string SomeFunction() { return type1.someString(); } } internal class TypeA { .... } internal class TypeB { .... } And my website code is like - IUnityContainer container = new UnityContainer(); container.RegisterType<IType1, TypeA>(); container.RegisterType<IType2, TypeB>(); container.RegisterType<IFacade, XYZFacade>(); ... ... IFacade facade = container.Resolve<IFacade>(); Here facade.SomeFunction() throws an exception because facade.type1 and facade.type2 are null. Any help is appreciated.

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• How to properly set relationships in Core Data when using setValue and data already exists

  - by ern

  Let's say I have two objects: Articles and Categories. For the sake of this example all relevant categories have already been added to the data store. When looping through data that holds edits for articles, there is category relationship information that needs to be saved. I was planning on using the -setValue method in the Article class in order to set the relationships like so: - (void)setValue:(id)value forUndefinedKey:(NSString *)key { if([key isEqualToString:@"categories"]){ NSLog(@"trying to set categories..."); } } The problem is that value isn't a Category, it is just a string (or array of strings) holding the title of a category. I could certainly do a lookup within this method for each category and assign it, but that seems inefficient when processing a whole bunch of articles at once. Another option is to populate an array of all possible categories and just filter, but my question is where to store that array? Should it be a class method on Article? Is there a way to pass in additional data to the -setValue method? Is there another, better option for setting the relationship I'm not thinking of? Thanks for your help.

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• How to use the same element name for different purposes ( in XML and DTD ) ?

  - by BugKiller

  Hi, I Want to create a DTD schema for this xml document: <root> <student> <name> <firstname>S1</firstname> <lastname>S2</lastname> </name> </student> <course> <name>CS101</name> </course> </root> as you can see , the element name in the course contains plain text ,but the element name in the student is complex type ( first-name, last-name ). The following is the DTD: <!ELEMENT root (course|student)*> <!ELEMENT student (name)> <!ELEMENT name (lastname|firstname)> <!ELEMENT firstname (#PCDATA)> <!ELEMENT lastname (#PCDATA)> <!ELEMENT course (name)> When I want to validate it , I get an error because the course's name has different structure then the student's name . My Question: how can I make a work-around solution for this situation without changing the name of element name using DTD not xml schema . Thanks.

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• How to deserialize implementation classes in OSGi

  - by Daniel Schneller

  In an eRCP OSGi based application the user can push a button and go to a lock screen similar to that of Windows or Mac OS X. When this happens, the current state of the application is serialized to a file and control is handed over to the lock screen. In this mobile application memory is very tight, so we need to get rid of the original view/controller when the lock screen comes up. This works fine and we end up with a binary serialized file. Once the user logs back in, the file is read in again and the original state of the application restored. This works fine as well, except when the controller that was serialized contained a reference to an object which comes from a different bundle. In my concrete case the original controller (from bundle A) can call a web service and gets a result back. Nothing fancy, just some Strings and Numbers in a simple value holder class. However the controller only sees this as a Result interface; the actual runtime object (ResultImpl) is defined and created in a different bundle (bundle B, the webservice client implementation) and returned via a service call. When the deserialization now tries to thaw the controller from the file, it throws a ClassNotFound exception, complaining about not being able to deserialize the result object, because deserialization is called from bundle A, which cannot see the ResultImpl class from bundle B. Any ideas on how to work around that? The only thing I could come up with is to clone all the individual values into another object, defined in the controller's bundle, but this seems like quite a hassle.

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• Easiest way to plot values as symbols in scatter plot?

  - by AllenH

  In an answer to an earlier question of mine regarding fixing the colorspace for scatter images of 4D data, Tom10 suggested plotting values as symbols in order to double-check my data. An excellent idea. I've run some similar demos in the past, but I can't for the life of me find the demo I remember being quite simple. So, what's the easiest way to plot numerical values as the symbol in a scatter plot instead of 'o' for example? Tom10 suggested plt.txt(x,y,value)- and that is the implementation used in a number of examples. I however wonder if there's an easy way to evaluate "value" from my array of numbers? Can one simply say: str(valuearray) ? Do you need a loop to evaluate the values for plotting as suggested in the matplotlib demo section for 3D text scatter plots? Their example produces: However, they're doing something fairly complex in evaluating the locations as well as changing text direction based on data. So, is there a cute way to plot x,y,C data (where C is a value often taken as the color in the plot data- but instead I wish to make the symbol)? Again, I think we have a fair answer to this- I just wonder if there's an easier way?

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