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  • Microsoft , Hotmail , Live , MSN, Outlook , unable to send emails and no support received from microsoft in 3 months we are trying asking for that

    - by HugeNut
    Ok this is somenthing unbelievable, we have a website, users sign up and receives links to confirm they signed up BUT: 1 - microsoft blocked our IP (no one with microsoft email account can receive our emails) 2 - we tryed contacting microsoft submitting the detailed form about our problem 3 - we posted 3 times in their community about our problem 4 - we tweeted they about our problem 5 - we tryed finding out some telephone support number (the few there are arent' helping at all) Do you think we solved? the answer is NO :/ We still unable to send emails from our IP to microsoft email accounts, since 3 months back. Our emails are perfect we checked all the email headers following microsoft guidelines but it seems not enought, checking our IP reputation it seems everythings ok, indeed we can send email easly to any other provider , gmail, yahoo, etc Do you know any other way to try to get help ? FULL ERROR RETURNED BY MICROSOFT: host mx1.hotmail.com[65.55.37.120] said: 550 SC-001 (COL0-MC4-F28) Unfortunately, messages from 94.23.***** weren't sent. Please contact your Internet service provider since part of their network is on our block list. You can also refer your provider to http://mail.live.com/mail/troubleshooting.aspx#errors. (in reply to MAIL FROM command) We are running NGIX + php mailer from a Virtual Private Server (No Hosting or shared hosting)

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  • Why is "googlehosted.com" in the DNS records for our website after signing up for DDOS protection?

    - by Blake Nic
    Recently we had to get some DDOS protection for our website because of the large attacks we were seeing after getting a bit of popularity. We handed over our domain and hosting information to our DDOS protection provider. It worked perfectly but I have a question. On our DNS records we have the Host and Answer and Type. The host has our domain name there. The answer is this: SOMETEXTXXXX.dv.googlehosted.com. And when I copy and paste it into my browser it gives me a 404 error. But our website still loads and functions as it should. I don't understand why it would need this? I asked them about this and they said it is a method for DDOS protection and the other IPs are the reverse proxy (the other IPs give a 404 error too). Can anyone expand on this more please. How does all this tie in together and make the internet browser know where to point the person with all these reverse proxies and stuff I don't understand. Here is an image for reference:

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  • Do Spambots have access to unlimited IP addresses?

    - by Reg Gordon
    I have been attacked for weeks by the same spambot trying to brute force the login page. I have a login security module now installed on my Drupal 6 website and it bans on IP after x amount of attempts. It's been going on for ever and I have banned about 1000 IP addresses. Is there any point in me banning on IP due to the spambot having access to unlimited IP addresses or will they run out of them eventually?

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  • Disadvantages of a fake phpMyAdmin honeypot that causes ip blacklisting and robots.txt disallow/exclusion of the honeypot?

    - by Tchalvak
    I'm trying to figure out whether I should set up a honeypot system with a fake phpMyAdmin (site gets hits all the time with people spidering for insecurities with that app). My thought was to create a honeypot php script that would mimic a phpMyAdmin login, and then blacklist ips that hit that url (and aren't already whitelisted). I would then add the appropriate urls to the robots.txt so that spiders that actually respect my robots.txt wouldn't be caught by the blacklist. Are there disadvantages to this approach, do legit robots sometimes not respect robots.txt in certain circumstances, are there any problems with this that I should consider in advance?

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  • CA2000 passing object reference to base constructor in C#

    - by Timothy
    I receive a warning when I run some code through Visual Studio's Code Analysis utility which I'm not sure how to resolve. Perhaps someone here has come across a similar issue, resolved it, and is willing to share their insight. I'm programming a custom-painted cell used in a DataGridView control. The code resembles: public class DataGridViewMyCustomColumn : DataGridViewColumn { public DataGridViewMyCustomColumn() : base(new DataGridViewMyCustomCell()) { } It generates the following warning: CA2000 : Microsoft.Reliability : In method 'DataGridViewMyCustomColumn.DataGridViewMyCustomColumn()' call System.IDisposable.Dispose on object 'new DataGridViewMyCustomCell()' before all references to it are out of scope. I understand it is warning me DataGridViewMyCustomCell (or a class that it inherits from) implements the IDisposable interface and the Dispose() method should be called to clean up any resources claimed by DataGridViewMyCustomCell when it is no longer. The examples I've seen on the internet suggest a using block to scope the lifetime of the object and have the system automatically dispose it, but base isn't recognized when moved into the body of the constructor so I can't write a using block around it... which I'm not sure I'd want to do anyway, since wouldn't that instruct the run time to free the object which could still be used later inside the base class? My question then, is the code okay as is? Or, how could it be refactored to resolve the warning? I don't want to suppress the warning unless it is truly appropriate to do so.

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  • error C2504: 'BASECLASS' : base class undefined

    - by numerical25
    I checked out a post similar to this but the linkage was different the issue was never resolved. The problem with mine is that for some reason the linker is expecting there to be a definition for the base class, but the base class is just a interface. Below is the error in it's entirety c:\users\numerical25\desktop\intro todirectx\godfiles\gxrendermanager\gxrendermanager\gxrendermanager\gxdx.h(2) : error C2504: 'GXRenderer' : base class undefined Below is the code that shows how the headers link with one another GXRenderManager.h #ifndef GXRM #define GXRM #include <windows.h> #include "GXRenderer.h" #include "GXDX.h" #include "GXGL.h" enum GXDEVICE { DIRECTX, OPENGL }; class GXRenderManager { public: static int Ignite(GXDEVICE); private: static GXRenderer *renderDevice; }; #endif at the top of GxRenderManager, there is GXRenderer , windows, GXDX, GXGL headers. I am assuming by including them all in this document. they all link to one another as if they were all in the same document. correct me if I am wrong cause that's how a view headers. Moving on... GXRenderer.h class GXRenderer { public: virtual void Render() = 0; virtual void StartUp() = 0; }; GXGL.h class GXGL: public GXRenderer { public: void Render(); void StartUp(); }; GXDX.h class GXDX: public GXRenderer { public: void Render(); void StartUp(); }; GXGL.cpp and GXDX.cpp respectively #include "GXGL.h" void GXGL::Render() { } void GXGL::StartUp() { } //...Next document #include "GXDX.h" void GXDX::Render() { } void GXDX::StartUp() { } Not sure whats going on. I think its how I am linking the documents, I am not sure.

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  • Ambiguous access to base class template member function

    - by Johann Gerell
    In Visual Studio 2008, the compiler cannot resolve the call to SetCustomer in _tmain below and make it unambiguous: template <typename TConsumer> struct Producer { void SetConsumer(TConsumer* consumer) { consumer_ = consumer; } TConsumer* consumer_; }; struct AppleConsumer { }; struct MeatConsumer { }; struct ShillyShallyProducer : public Producer<AppleConsumer>, public Producer<MeatConsumer> { }; int _tmain(int argc, _TCHAR* argv[]) { ShillyShallyProducer producer; AppleConsumer consumer; producer.SetConsumer(&consumer); // <--- Ambiguous call!! return 0; } This is the compilation error: // error C2385: ambiguous access of 'SetConsumer' // could be the 'SetConsumer' in base 'Producer<AppleConsumer>' // or could be the 'SetConsumer' in base 'Producer<MeatConsumer>' I thought the template argument lookup mechanism would be smart enough to deduce the correct base Producer. Why isn't it? I could get around this by changing Producer to template <typename TConsumer> struct Producer { template <typename TConsumer2> void SetConsumer(TConsumer2* consumer) { consumer_ = consumer; } TConsumer* consumer_; }; and call SetConsumer as producer.SetConsumer<AppleConsumer>(&consumer); // Unambiguous call!! but it would be nicer if I didn't have to...

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  • How to maintain base files for development environment central while allowing people to change their

    - by Ittai
    Hi, what I'd like to do is have files in a central location so that when I add people to my development team they can see the base version of these files but meanwhile have the ability for the rest of the team to work with their own local version. I know I can just put the files in source-control (we use Tortoiese-SVN) and have my team change the local versions but I'd rather not as the exclamation mark signaling the file has been changed and needs to be committed, quite frankly, irritates me greatly. I'll give two examples of what I mean: We use quite a few build.xml files which relate to a single properties files which contains many definitions. Some of them can be different between team-members (mainly temporary working directories) and I'd like a new team-member to have the ability to get the properties file with the base config but change it if they wish. Have the eclipse settings file in the SVN so that when a new team-member joins they can just retrieve the files from the server and have a base system running. If they wish they will be able to change some of these settings. Thanks, Ittai

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  • Python base classes share attributes?

    - by tad
    Code in test.py: class Base(object): def __init__(self, l=[]): self.l = l def add(self, num): self.l.append(num) def remove(self, num): self.l.remove(num) class Derived(Base): def __init__(self, l=[]): super(Derived, self).__init__(l) Python shell session: Python 2.6.5 (r265:79063, Apr 1 2010, 05:22:20) [GCC 4.4.3 20100316 (prerelease)] on linux2 Type "help", "copyright", "credits" or "license" for more information. >>> import test >>> a = test.Derived() >>> b = test.Derived() >>> a.l [] >>> b.l [] >>> a.add(1) >>> a.l [1] >>> b.l [1] >>> c = test.Derived() >>> c.l [1] I was expecting "C++-like" behavior, in which each derived object contains its own instance of the base class. Is this still the case? Why does each object appear to share the same list instance?

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  • WCF REST Starter Kit not filling base class members on POST

    - by HJG
    I have a WCF REST Starter Kit service. The type handled by the service is a subclass of a base class. For POST requests, the base class members are not correctly populated. The class hierarchy looks like this: [DataContract] public class BaseTreeItem { [DataMember] public String Id { get; set; } [DataMember] public String Description { get; set; } } [DataContract] public class Discipline : BaseTreeItem { ... } The service definition looks like: [WebHelp(Comment = "Retrieve a Discipline")] [WebGet(UriTemplate = "discipline?id={id}")] [OperationContract] public Discipline getDiscipline(String id) { ... } [WebHelp(Comment = "Create/Update/Delete a Discipline")] [OperationContract] [WebInvoke(Method = "POST", UriTemplate = "discipline")] public WCF_Result DisciplineMaintenance(Discipline discipline) { ... } Problem: While the GET works fine (returns the base class Id and Description), the POST does not populate Id and Description even though the XML contains the fields. Sample XML: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <Discipline xmlns="http://schemas.datacontract.org/2004/07/xxx.yyy.zzz"> <DeleteFlag>7</DeleteFlag> <Description>2</Description> <Id>5</Id> <DisciplineName>1</DisciplineName> <DisciplineOwnerId>4</DisciplineOwnerId> <DisciplineOwnerLoginName>3</DisciplineOwnerLoginName> </Discipline> Thanks for any assistance.

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  • Generic Func<> as parameter to base method

    - by WestDiscGolf
    I might be losing the plot, but I hope someone can point me in the right direction. What am I trying to do? I'm trying to write some base methods which take Func< and Action so that these methods handle all of the exception handling etc. so its not repeated all over the place but allow the derived classes to specify what actions it wants to execute. So far this is the base class. public abstract class ServiceBase<T> { protected T Settings { get; set; } protected ServiceBase(T setting) { Settings = setting; } public void ExecAction(Action action) { try { action(); } catch (Exception exception) { throw new Exception(exception.Message); } } public TResult ExecFunc<T1, T2, T3, TResult>(Func<T1, T2, T3, TResult> function) { try { /* what goes here?! */ } catch (Exception exception) { throw new Exception(exception.Message); } } } I want to execute an Action in the following way in the derived class (this seems to work): public void Delete(string application, string key) { ExecAction(() => Settings.Delete(application, key)); } And I want to execute a Func in a similar way in the derived class but for the life of me I can't seem to workout what to put in the base class. I want to be able to call it in the following way (if possible): public object Get(string application, string key, int? expiration) { return ExecFunc(() => Settings.Get(application, key, expiration)); } Am I thinking too crazy or is this possible? Thanks in advance for all the help.

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  • Objective C - creating concrete class instances from base class depending upon type

    - by indiantroy
    Just to give a real world example, say the base class is Vehicle and concrete classes are TwoWheeler and FourWheeler. Now the type of the vehicle - TwoWheeler or FourWheeler, is decided by the base class Vehicle. When I create an instance of TwoWheeler/FourWheeler using alloc-init method, it calls the super implementation like below to set the value of common properties defined in the Vehicle class and out of these properties one of them is type that actually decides if the type is TwoWheeler or FourWheeler. if (self = [super initWithDictionary:dict]){ [self setOtherAttributes:dict]; return self; } Now when I get a collection of vehicles some of them could be TwoWheeler and others will be FourWheeler. Hence I cannot directly create an instance of TwoWheeler or FourWheeler like this Vehicle *v = [[TwoWheeler alloc] initWithDictionary:dict]; Is there any way I can create an instance of base class and once I know the type, create an instance of child class depending upon type and return it. With the current implementation, it would result in infinite loop because I call super implementation from concrete class. What would be the perfect design to handle this scenario when I don't know which concrete class should be instantiated beforehand?

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  • Multiple collections tied to one base collection with filters and eventing

    - by damienc88
    I have a complex model served from my back end, which has a bunch of regular attributes, some nested models, and a couple of collections. My page has two tables, one for invalid items, and one for valid items. The items in question are from one of the nested collections. Let's call it baseModel.documentCollection, implementing DocumentsCollection. I don't want any filtration code in my Marionette.CompositeViews, so what I've done is the following (note, duplicated for the 'valid' case): var invalidDocsCollection = new DocumentsCollection( baseModel.documentCollection.filter(function(item) { return !item.isValidItem(); }) ); var invalidTableView = new BookIn.PendingBookInRequestItemsCollectionView({ collection: app.collections.invalidDocsCollection }); layout.invalidDocsRegion.show(invalidTableView); This is fine for actually populating two tables independently, from one base collection. But I'm not getting the whole event pipeline down to the base collection, obviously. This means when a document's validity is changed, there's no neat way of it shifting to the other collection, therefore the other view. What I'm after is a nice way of having a base collection that I can have filter collections sit on top of. Any suggestions?

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  • drop down and post data to data base

    - by DAFFODIL
    This is a form which retrieves data from db and displays them in table. At the beginning of each row there will be a check box. If there are 10 rows fetched, I ii check 5 rows and insert them in to diff db but here when, I click drop down box data is getting in to db automatically,bcoz I use onchange event. Any alternative to prevent this to happen. Data should be inserted only when, I click submit button. Any help will be appreciated <?php $con = mysql_connect("localhost","root",""); if (!$con) { die('Could not connect: ' . mysql_error()); } mysql_select_db("form1", $con); error_reporting(E_ALL ^ E_NOTICE); $nam=$_REQUEST['select1']; $row=mysql_query("select * from inv where name='$nam'"); while($row1=mysql_fetch_array($row)) { $Name=$row1['Name']; $Address =$row1['Address']; $City=$row1['City']; $Pincode=$row1['Pincode']; $No=$row1['No']; $Date=$row1['Date']; $DCNo=$row1['DCNo']; $DcDate=$row1['DcDate']; $YourOrderNo=$row1['YourOrderNo']; $OrderDate=$row1['OrderDate']; $VendorCode=$row1['VendorCode']; $SNo=$row1['SNo']; $descofgoods=$row1['descofgoods']; $Qty=$row1['Qty']; $Rate=$row1['Rate']; $Amount=$row1['Amount']; } ?> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=iso-8859-1" /> <title>Untitled Document</title> <script type="text/javascript"> function ram(id) { var q=document.getElementById('qty_'+id).value; var r=document.getElementById('rate_'+id).value; document.getElementById('amt_'+id).value=q*r; } </script> </head> <body> <form id="form1" name="form1" method="post" action=""> <table width="1315" border="0"> <script type="text/javascript"> function g() { form1.submit(); } </script> <tr> <th>Name</th> <th align="left"><select name="select1" onchange="g();"> <option value="" selected="selected">select</option> <?php $row=mysql_query("select Name from inv "); while($row1=mysql_fetch_array($row)) { ?> <option value="<?php echo $row1['Name'];?>"><?php echo $row1['Name'];?></option> <?php } ?> </select></th> </tr> <tr> <th>Address</th> <th align="left"><textarea name="Address"><?php echo $Address;?></textarea></th> </tr> <tr> <th>City</th> <th align="left"><input type="text" name="City" value='<?php echo $City;?>' /></th> </tr> <tr> <th>Pincode</th> <th align="left"><input type="text" name="Pincode" value='<?php echo $Pincode;?>'></th> </tr> <tr> <th>No</th> <th align="left"><input type="text" name="No2" value='<?php echo $No;?>' readonly="" /></th> </tr> <tr> <th>Date</th> <th align="left"><input type="text" name="Date" value='<?php echo $Date;?>' /></th> </tr> <tr> <th>DCNo</th> <th align="left"><input type="text" name="DCNo" value='<?php echo $DCNo;?>' readonly="" /></th> </tr> <tr> <th>DcDate:</th> <th align="left"><input type="text" name="DcDate" value='<?php echo $DcDate;?>' /></th> </tr> <tr> <th>YourOrderNo</th> <th align="left"><input type="text" name="YourOrderNo" value='<?php echo $YourOrderNo;?>' readonly="" /></th> </tr> <tr> <th>OrderDate</th> <th align="left"><input type="text" name="OrderDate" value='<?php echo $OrderDate;?>' /></th> </tr> <tr> <th width="80">VendorCode</th> <th width="1225" align="left"><input type="text" name="VendorCode" value='<?php echo $VendorCode;?>' readonly="" /></th> </tr> </table> <table width="1313" border="0"> <tr> <td width="44">&nbsp;</td> <td width="71">SNO</td> <td width="527">DESCRIPTION</td> <td width="214">QUANTITY</td> <td width="214">RATE/UNIT</td> <td width="217">AMOUNT</td> </tr> <?php $i=1; $row=mysql_query("select * from inv where Name='$nam'"); while($row1=mysql_fetch_array($row)) { $SNo=$row1['SNo']; $descofgoods=$row1['descofgoods']; $Qty=$row1['Qty']; $Rate=$row1['Rate']; $Amount=$row1['Amount']; ?> <tr> <td><input type="checkbox" name="checkbox" value="checkbox" checked="checked"/></td> <td><input type="text" name="No[<?php echo $i?>]" value='<?php echo $SNo;?>' readonly=""/></td> <td><input type="text" name="descofgoods[<?php echo $i?>]" value='<?php echo $descofgoods;?>' /></td> <td><input type="text" name="qty[<?php echo $i?>]" maxlength="50000000" id="qty_<?PHP echo($i) ?>"/></td> <td><input type="text" name="Rate[<?php echo $i?>]" value='<?php echo $Rate;?>' id="rate_<?PHP echo($i) ?>" onclick="ram('<?PHP echo($i) ?>')";></td> <td><input type="text" name="Amount[<?php echo $i?>]" id="amt_<?PHP echo($i) ?>"/></td> </tr> <?php $i++;} ?> <tr> <td><input type="submit" value="submit" header("location:values to be brought for print page.php");/></td> </tr> </table> <label></label> </form> </body> </html> <?php /*error_reporting(E_ALL ^ E_NOTICE); $con = mysql_connect("localhost","root",""); if (!$con) { die('Could not connect: ' . mysql_error()); } mysql_select_db("form1", $con); /*if(checked=checkbox) { mysql_query="INSERT INTO invo (Name, Address, City, Pincode, No, Date, DCNo, DcDate, YourOrderNo, OrderDate, VendorCode, SNo, descofgoods, Qty, Rate, Amount) VALUES ('$_POST[Name]','$_POST[Address]','$_POST[City]','$_POST[Pincode]','$_POST[No]','$_POST[Date]','$_POST[DCNo]','$_POST[DcDate]','$_POST[YourOrderNo]','$_POST[OrderDate]','$_POST[VendorCode]','$_POST[SNo]','$_POST[descofgoods]','$_POST[qty]','$_POST[Rate]','$_POST[Amount]')"; } else { header("location:values to be brought for print page.php"); }*/ header("ins.php"); ?>

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  • Converting IPv4 or IPv6 address to a long for comparisons

    - by Justin Akehurst
    In order to check if an IPv4 or IPv6 address is within a certain range, I've got code that takes an IPv4 address, turns that into a long, then does that same conversion on the upper/lower bound of the subnet, then checks to see if the long is between those values. I'd like to be able to do the same thing for IPv6, but saw nothing in the Python 2.6 standard libraries to allow me to do this, so I wrote this up: import socket, struct from array import array def ip_address_to_long(address): ip_as_long = None try: ip_as_long = socket.ntohl(struct.unpack('L', socket.inet_pton(socket.AF_INET, address))[0]) except socket.error: # try IPv6 try: addr = array('L', struct.unpack('!4L', socket.inet_pton(socket.AF_INET6, address))) addr.reverse() ip_as_long = sum(addr[i] << (i * 32) for i in range(len(addr))) except socket.error as se: raise ValueError('Invalid address') except Exception as e: print str(e) return ip_as_long My question is: Is there a simpler way to do this that I am missing? Is there a standard library call that can do this for me?

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  • Django: Geocoding an address on form submission?

    - by User
    Trying to wrap my head around django forms and the django way of doing things. I want to create a basic web form that allows a user to input an address and have that address geocoded and saved to a database. I created a Location model: class Location(models.Model): address = models.CharField(max_length=200) city = models.CharField(max_length=100) state = models.CharField(max_length=100, null=True) postal_code = models.CharField(max_length=100, null=True) country = models.CharField(max_length=100) latitude = models.DecimalField(max_digits=18, decimal_places=10, null=True) longitude = models.DecimalField(max_digits=18, decimal_places=10, null=True) And defined a form: class LocationForm(forms.ModelForm): class Meta: model = models.Location exclude = ('latitude','longitude') In my view I'm using form.save() to save the form. This works and saves an address to the database. I created a module to geocode an address. I'm not sure what the django way of doing things is, but I guess in my view, before I save the form, I need to geocode the address and set the lat and long. How do I set the latitude and longitude before saving?

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  • print address of virtual member function

    - by hidayat
    I am trying to print the address of a virtual member function. If I only wants to print the address of the function I can write: print("address: %p", &A::func); But I want to do something like this: A *b = new B(); printf("address: %p", &b->func); printf("address: %p", &b->A::func); however this does not compile, is it possible to do something like this even do looking up the address in the vtable is done in runtime?

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  • Confusion in MIPS code

    - by Haya Hallian
    While going through the MIPS code I got some confusion. Code is shown as follows .data key: .ascii "key: " # "key: \n" char: .asciiz " \n" .text .globl main main: jal getchar la $a0, char # $a0 contains address of char variable (" \n") sb $v0, ($a0) # replace " " in char with v0, which is read_character (X) la $a0, key # now a0 will contain, address of "key: " "X\n" What I dont understand is that how load address instruction works. First a0 contained address of char variable. In next line we are storing value of v0 in that location. there is no offset with ($a0), is that assumed to be 0 like in 0($a0)? Why only the " " empty space is replaced with v0, and why not the "\n" get replaced? or It may also have been the case that both the empty space and \n character get replced by v0. Secondly when we load the address of key in a0, the previous address should be overwritten. a0 should have contained the address of key only, but from comment it seems that the two strings are concatenated. How does that happen.

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  • How to redirect all Internet traffic to OpenVPN Server

    - by JuliaS
    I have seen working solutions around the issue of forcing Internet traffic to go through the OpenVPN server but they are all done in Linux, all I want to know is how to add an entry to the route table in windows to make this happen. connectivity between the client and server is fine, my Windows 7 client can establish a connection to the Windows 2008 Server, but when established Internet traffic is still going from the local Windows 7 machine. Here are the details: Server: Windows 2008 Server with one NIC OpenVPN IP Address: 192.168.0.1 Local NIC IP Address (connects the server to the Internet): 10.242.69.107 Client: Windows 7 with one NIC OpenVPN IP Address: 192.168.0.2 ISP allocated IP Address: 10.0.8.2 (gateway 10.0.8.1) Server OpenVPN Config: dev tun ifconfig 192.168.0.1 192.168.0.2 secret static.key push "redirect-gateway def1" Client OpenVPN Config: remote xxx.xxx.com dev tun ifconfig 192.168.0.2 192.168.0.1 secret static.key I'm not an expert with adding routes...etc. I would be grateful if someone could let me know how to add this entry in my server/client route table. EDIT: Output from the client's netstat -rnv IPv4 Route Table =========================================================================== Active Routes: Network Destination Netmask Gateway Interface Metric 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.0.8.1 10.0.8.2 20 10.0.8.0 255.255.255.252 On-link 10.0.8.2 276 10.0.8.2 255.255.255.255 On-link 10.0.8.2 276 10.0.8.3 255.255.255.255 On-link 10.0.8.2 276 127.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 On-link 127.0.0.1 306 127.0.0.1 255.255.255.255 On-link 127.0.0.1 306 127.255.255.255 255.255.255.255 On-link 127.0.0.1 306 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.252 On-link 192.168.0.2 286 192.168.0.2 255.255.255.255 On-link 192.168.0.2 286 192.168.0.3 255.255.255.255 On-link 192.168.0.2 286 224.0.0.0 240.0.0.0 On-link 127.0.0.1 306 224.0.0.0 240.0.0.0 On-link 10.0.8.2 276 224.0.0.0 240.0.0.0 On-link 192.168.0.2 286 255.255.255.255 255.255.255.255 On-link 127.0.0.1 306 255.255.255.255 255.255.255.255 On-link 10.0.8.2 276 255.255.255.255 255.255.255.255 On-link 192.168.0.2 286 ===========================================================================

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  • Rapidly changing public IP addresses on certain networks?

    - by zenblender
    I run/develop an online game where many of our users are in southeast asia. I recently went to southeast asia and made an alarming discovery. Anywhere I got internet access, whether it was via 3G, a LAN in a hotel, or wifi in a cafe, both in Singapore and the Philippines, I noticed that my IP address was changing CONSTANTLY. I mean the public IP address, not the private one. I could load a page like whatismyip.com and just hit reload and see a new IP address show up every 5-10 seconds! This has lots of consequences for my online game, as many things "break" if the IP address changes for a given user. Basically, I would like to know more about this. Is there a name for the kind of network or router or paradigm that causes this, so I can read up on it? I don't understand WHY a network would function this way. Does it do this on purpose? Is it for security reasons? Is it to anonymize and protect the identity of the users? Or is it just an "old" method that is mostly obsolete in the rest of the world? Thanks for any info that will help me to understand.

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  • Ping server NETBIOS name returns wrong IP and "Destination host unreachable"

    - by music2myear
    Problem server is Windows 2008 R2 VM running on VMWare ESXi 4 host. Single network adapter manually assigned single IP address (192.168.1.11). When I ping the server from any other network computer, it returns 192.168.1.124 and "Destination host unreachable". Yesterday I found a second network adapter assigned to this server with an IP of 169.254... indicating it had no real valid IP. Using the MAC addresses I determined which adapter was not needed/not wanted, and removed it using VMWare systems. This is the network Printer Server and, understandably, nothing is printing right now. I've looked at the solutions here Why was my ping answered by a different IP address than the one pinged? and they aren't applicable to my situation for the following reasons: Output of arp -a on another computer returns the correct IP address (.1.11) assigned to the correct MAC address, the incorrect IP .1.124 is not listed, and the MAC of the network adapter I removed yesterday is not listed at all. I checked out the Microsoft KB article which listed pretty much my exact symptoms ( http://support.microsoft.com/kb/981953 ) and it says to check binding orders and look for hidden adapters. But there are no hidden adapters, and there is only one Network Adapter listed in the Binding Order list. Essentially, I can communicate from the server TO any other network device, but I cannot communicate from any other network device TO the server. Help! UPDATE: Solution found, see this solution for the details.

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  • ADSL Modem/Router sometimes hands out incorrect IP addresses

    - by Peter Keevill
    My setup is as follows:- Main ADSL modem / router (switch) configured as DHCP server with address range 192.168.0.25-60 The office machines are configured with fixed IP ( not in the same address pool of course ) and hard wired to this router. A wireless access point ( Router ) is connected to provide Internet access for guests in a separate area. This router is NOT configured as a DHCP server. Wireless authentication is turned off. IP address lease times are set to 4 hours. Sometimes guests are able to connect to the wireless access point but they are not given a valid IP. They get 169.x.x.x addresses. Rebooting their machines does not resolve the problem. The only way to resolve is to reboot the main ADSL/router which is often frustrating for other users who are successfully connected with valid IP and DG. The problem seems to occur more frequently to Apple/Mac guests although it also sometimes occurs with Win machines. I personally use Ubuntu on my Laptop and thus far, never have had any problem connecting and getting a valid IP address in the guest area. One further point of note which may give a clue is that certain guests ( always Apple/Mac ) get lease times of 90 days. However, this does not 'stack out' the number of available addresses and of course, rebooting the router clears them until the next time they login.

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  • Discover the public ip of a network without being connected

    - by Martin Trigaux
    Let say, I'm next to a network and can see the traffic (with airodump or similar tool) but can not decipher it (because I am not connected on the network). Is it possible to discover the public ip address of the network ? I know the MAC address of the users connected on the network but do I know the one of the router ? If yes, maybe there is a way to do the matching. I know IP addresses are not forever but some addresses are static and never change. Maybe there is a database of MAC address having recorded that. Google has a database that match MAC address and geographical coordinates so why not with IP addresses ? Other idea, if I know where am I, I can maybe guess the IP range used in the city by the ISP (is it findable ?) and then try to "ping" each IP on the range (if it is a /24, it's possible, even /16 maybe). Will I get some information like the MAC of the box or see some traffic on the network ? These are two ideas I had. I don't know if they are doable, certainly not perfect. Do you think of some others ? By trying several methods, maybe I can get a guess with a bit of luck. Thank you

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  • How to prevent response to who-has requests on virtual eth interface?

    - by user42881
    Hi, we use small embedded X86 linux servers equipped with a single physical ethernet port as a gateway for an IP video surveillance application. Each downstream IP cam is mapped to a separate virtual IP address like this: real eth0 IP address= 192.168.1.1, camera 1 (eth0:1) =192.168.1.61, camera 2 (eth0:2) =192.168.1.62, etc. etc. all on the same eth0 physical port. This approach works well, except that a specific third-party windows video recording application running on a separate PC on the same LAN, automatically pings the virtual IPs looking for unique who-has responses on system startup and, when it gets back the same eth0 MAC address for each virtual interface, freaks out and won't allow us to subsequently manually enter those addresses. The windows app doesn't mind, tho, if it receives no answer to the who-has ping. My question - how can we either (a) shut off the who-has responses just for the virtual eth0:x interfaces while keeping them for the primary physical eth0 port, or, in the alternative, spoof a valid but different MAC address for each virtual interface? Thanks!

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  • Please summarize how to implement node base licensing

    - by user294896
    Currently a user makes a purchase and then a license is generated and sent to that user, but the license isn't tied to a physical computer so there is nothing to prevent the user sharing the license with someone. I heard people talk about creating a license tied to the mac address of the computer, so the license only works on that computer. Now I know how to get the mac address in code but I dont understand how I can do this step when they first make the purchase on the web, so please what is the basic algorithm for node locked licenses ?

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