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  • Javascript API not working for Chrome or Safari on JW Player 5.9

    - by Lando
    I am working on a custom interface for the JW Player which displays the current track title and has play/pause, next track, previous track and volume toggle buttons. It works for IE8/9 and FF but fails for Chrome and Safari. Chrome's console gives the following error: Uncaught TypeError: Object # has no method 'addControllerListener' This is the code I am using for testing. <div id="container">Loading the player ...</div> <script type="text/javascript"> jwplayer("container").setup({ image: "preview.jpg", height: 320, width: 480, modes: [ { type: "html5" }, { type: "flash", src: "player.swf" } ], 'playlist': [ { 'file': "audio/01.mp3", 'title': "Track 1" }, { 'file': "audio/02.mp3", 'title': "Track 2" }, { 'file': "audio/03.mp3", 'title': "Track 3" } ], }); function playerReady(obj) { player = document.getElementById(obj.id); displayFirstItem(); }; function displayFirstItem() { try { playlist = player.getPlaylist(); } catch(e) { setTimeout("displayFirstItem()", 100); } player.addControllerListener('ITEM', 'itemMonitor'); itemMonitor({index:0}); }; function itemMonitor(obj) { $('#nowplaying').html('<span><strong>Now Playing:</strong> ' + playlist[obj.index]['title'] + '</span>'); }; </script> <div id="nowplaying"></div> <div class="control_bar"> <ul> <li onclick='player.sendEvent("play");'>[ &#8250; ] Play / Pause</li> <li onclick='player.sendEvent("prev");'>[ &laquo; ] Previous item</li> <li onclick='player.sendEvent("next");'>[ &raquo; ] Next item</li> </ul> </div> I have searched and tried several modifications, like adding the javascriptid parameter, nothing seems to work for Chrome or Safari. Any ideas? Thanks

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  • How to download .exe file with progress bar - VB 2012

    - by user2839828
    I am trying to create an updater for my program which automatically download's the latest version of my program from the web. Now I want this process to be done using a progress bar (so when the download progress is at 50% the progress bar is half-way through). This is my code: Private Sub client_ProgressChanged(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As DownloadProgressChangedEventArgs) Dim bytesIn As Double = Double.Parse(e.BytesReceived.ToString()) Dim totalBytes As Double = Double.Parse(e.TotalBytesToReceive.ToString()) Dim percentage As Double = bytesIn / totalBytes * 100 client.Value = Int32.Parse(Math.Truncate(percentage).ToString()) End Sub Private Sub Button1_Click(sender As Object, e As EventArgs) Handles Button1.Click Dim url As String = "MY DOWNLOAD LINK" 'Download Dim client As WebClient = New WebClient AddHandler client.DownloadProgressChanged, AddressOf client_ProgressChanged AddHandler client.DownloadFileCompleted, AddressOf client_DownloadCompleted client.DownloadFileAsync(New Uri(url), "C:\Users\User\Desktop\BACKUP\TESTING\New folder\1.exe") End Sub End Class Now I know that the place where the file is saved has been inputed manually by me , but I will change that later. My problem currently is that the file is not being downloaded. However when I change the DownloadFileAsync method to DownloadFile , my program downloads the file. However with the DownloadFile method I will not be able to use the progress bar to track the download progress. Any help is much appreciated :-)

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  • php file force download

    - by droidus
    When I use this code to download this image (only used for testing purposes), I open the downloaded image, and all it gives me is an error. i tried it in chrome. opening it with windows photo viewer, it says that it can't display the picture because it is empty??? here is the code: <?PHP // Define the path to file $file = 'http://www.media.lonelyplanet.com/lpi/12553/12553-11/469x264.jpg'; if(!file) { // File doesn't exist, output error die('file not found'); } else { header('Content-Description: File Transfer'); header('Content-Type: application/octet-stream'); header('Content-Disposition: attachment; filename='.basename($file)); header('Content-Transfer-Encoding: binary'); header('Expires: 0'); header('Cache-Control: must-revalidate, post-check=0, pre-check=0'); header('Pragma: public'); header('Content-Length: ' . filesize($file)); ob_clean(); flush(); readfile($file); exit; } ?>

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  • Serializing a DataType="time" field using XmlSerializer

    - by CraftyFella
    Hi, I'm getting an odd result when serializing a DateTime field using XmlSerializer. I have the following class: public class RecordExample { [XmlElement("TheTime", DataType = "time")] public DateTime TheTime { get; set; } [XmlElement("TheDate", DataType = "date")] public DateTime TheDate { get; set; } public static bool Serialize(Stream stream, object obj, Type objType, Encoding encoding) { try { using (var writer = XmlWriter.Create(stream, new XmlWriterSettings { Encoding = encoding })) { var xmlSerializer = new XmlSerializer(objType); if (writer != null) xmlSerializer.Serialize(writer, obj); } return true; } catch (Exception) { return false; } } } When i call the use the XmlSerializer with the following testing code: var obj = new RecordExample {TheDate = DateTime.Now.Date, TheTime = new DateTime(0001, 1, 1, 12, 00, 00)}; var ms = new MemoryStream(); RecordExample.Serialize(ms, obj, typeof (RecordExample), Encoding.UTF8); txtSource2.Text = Encoding.UTF8.GetString(ms.ToArray()); I get some strange results, here's the xml that is produced: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <RecordExample xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <TheTime>12:00:00.0000000+00:00</TheTime> <TheDate>2010-03-08</TheDate> </RecordExample> Any idea's how i can get the "TheTime" element to contain a time which looks more like this: <TheTime>12:00:00.0Z</TheTime> ...as that's what i was expecting? Thanks Dave

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  • Has form post behavior changed in modern browsers? (or How are double clicks handled by the browser)

    - by Alex Czarto
    Background: We are in the process of writing a registration/payment page, and our philosophy was to code all validation and error checking on the server side first, and then add client side validation as a second step (un-obstructive jQuery). We wanted to disable double clicks server side, so we wrote some locking, thread-safe code to handle simultaneous posts/race conditions. When we tried to test this, we realized that we could not cause a simultaneous post or race condition to occur. I thought that (in older browsers anyway) double clicking a submit button worked as follows: User double clicks submit button. Browser sends a post on the first click On the second click, browser cancels/ignores initial post, and initiates a second post (before the first post has returned with a response). Browser waits for second post to return, ignoring initial post response. I thought that from the server side it looked like this: Server gets two simultaneous post requests, executes and responds to them both (unaware that no one is listening to the first response). From our testing (FireFox 3.0, IE 8.0) this is what actually happens: User double clicks submit button Browser sends a post for the first click Browser queues up second click, but waits for the response from the first click. Response returns from first click (response is ignored?). Browser sends a post for the second click. So from a server side: Server receives a single post which it executes and responds to. Then, server receives a second request wich it executes and responds to. My question is, has this always worked this way (and I'm losing my mind)? Or is this a new feature in modern browsers that prevents simultaneous posts to be sent to the server? It seems that for server side double click prevention, we don't have to worry about simultaneous posts or race conditions. Only need to worry about queued up posts. Thanks in advance for any feedback / comments. Alex

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  • Porting WebGL game to iPhone's native OpenGL?

    - by ArtPulse
    We are developing a web game that uses WebGL for the two biggest parts of it. Working with HTML / CSS was too slow and too limited, so it's off the table. Thing is, iOS does not support WebGL publicly just yet, only on iAd. It is my guess Apple will eventually support it once the security issues they and Microsoft claim it has are fixed, and looks stable enough. Problem is, if Apple does not do this by the release of the next mayor iOS version, then we will have in our hands a mobile WebGL game that does not run. 6 months of development and testing to waste. So, questions: If that was the case, how viable (regarding amount of time) is it porting the WebGL part of the game to native iPhone OpenGL? I'm afraid that porting will take longer than the development of the game itself. I saw posts on Stack Overflow (like this) that suggested, on Android, adding the OpenGL interface manually to a WebKit element. It'd be slower than native. But either way... Is this something that could be accepted in the AppStore? Apple is very restrictive with these kind of stuff... Thank you all for your time!

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  • Dumping an ADODB recordset to XML, then back to a recordset, then saving to the db

    - by Mark Biek
    I've created an XML file using the .Save() method of an ADODB recordset in the following manner. dim res dim objXML: Set objXML = Server.CreateObject("MSXML2.DOMDocument") 'This returns an ADODB recordset set res = ExecuteReader("SELECT * from some_table) With res Call .Save(objXML, 1) Call .Close() End With Set res = nothing Let's assume that the XML generated above then gets saved to a file. I'm able to read the XML back into a recordset like this: dim res : set res = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.recordset") res.open server.mappath("/admin/tbl_some_table.xml") And I can loop over the records without any problem. However what I really want to do is save all of the data in res to a table in a completely different database. We can assume that some_table already exists in this other database and has the exact same structure as the table I originally queried to make the XML. I started by creating a new recordset and using AddNew to add all of the rows from res to the new recordset dim outRes : set outRes = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.recordset") dim outConn : set outConn = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") dim testConnStr : testConnStr = "DRIVER={SQL Server};SERVER=dev-windows\sql2000;UID=myuser;PWD=mypass;DATABASE=Testing" outConn.open testConnStr outRes.activeconnection = outConn outRes.cursortype = adOpenDynamic outRes.locktype = adLockOptimistic outRes.source = "product_accessories" outRes.open while not res.eof outRes.addnew for i=0 to res.fields.count-1 outRes(res.fields(i).name) = res(res.fields(i).name) next outRes.movefirst res.movenext wend outRes.updatebatch But this bombs the first time I try to assign the value from res to outRes. Microsoft OLE DB Provider for ODBC Drivers error '80040e21' Multiple-step OLE DB operation generated errors. Check each OLE DB status value, if available. No work was done. Can someone tell me what I'm doing wrong or suggest a better way for me to copy the data loaded from XML to a different database?

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  • iPhone/iPad : Check for invalid characters in a textbox made for Integers only

    - by JustinXXVII
    I noticed that the iPhone OS is pretty good about picking out Integer values when asked to. Specifically, if you use NSString *stringName = @"6("; int number = [stringName intValue]; the iPhone OS will pick out the 6 and turn the variable number into 6. However, in more complex mistypes, this also makes the int variable 6: NSString *stringName = @"6(5"; int number = [stringName intValue]; The iPhone OS misses the other digit, when what could have possibly been the user trying to enter the number 65, the OS only gets the number 6 out of it. I need a solution to check a string for invalid characters and return NO if there is anything other than an unsigned integer in a textbox. This is for iPad, and currently there is no numeric keyboard like the iPhone has, and I'm instead limited to the standard 123 keyboard. I was thinking that I need to use NSRange and somehow loop through the entire string in the textbox, and checking to see if the current character in the iteration is a number. I'm lost as far as that goes. I can think of testing it against zero, but zero is a valid integer. Can anyone help?

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  • Facebook SDK Comment Deleting

    - by mwoodworth
    Working with the Facebook php SDK's, I am having a lot of trouble figuring out how to delete comments, given its id and xid. At first I was using the REST API, where you can call 'comments_remove($xid, $id);' to delete a comment. The problem with this method came when the xid parameter only accepts alphanumeric characters and underscores. Based on the documentation (http://developers.facebook.com/docs/reference/fbml/comments ) a valid XID can be the result of any url_encode. Now I am testing my luck with the new GRAPH api. Looking at http://developers.facebook.com/docs/api under 'Deleting Objects', It seems that comment deleting is definitely supported. However, I have tried sending a DELETE request, and I have also tried sending POST and GET to the object url with the argument 'method=delete'. No matter how I try it, I always get the same error: {"error":{"type":"GraphMethodException","message":"Unsupported delete request."}} I am sending the access token as a parameter as well. The access token that I am sending is the access token saved in the facebook cookie from the single sign on javascript cookie. These are all comments made on my application. Does this happen to anyone else, or am I simply not doing this right? Any help or guidance is GREATLY appreciated.

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  • Lightweight alternative to Manual/AutoResetEvent in C#

    - by sweetlilmre
    Hi, I have written what I hope is a lightweight alternative to using the ManualResetEvent and AutoResetEvent classes in C#/.NET. The reasoning behind this was to have Event like functionality without the weight of using a kernel locking object. Although the code seems to work well in both testing and production, getting this kind of thing right for all possibilities can be a fraught undertaking and I would humbly request any constructive comments and or criticism from the StackOverflow crowd on this. Hopefully (after review) this will be useful to others. Usage should be similar to the Manual/AutoResetEvent classes with Notify() used for Set(). Here goes: using System; using System.Threading; public class Signal { private readonly object _lock = new object(); private readonly bool _autoResetSignal; private bool _notified; public Signal() : this(false, false) { } public Signal(bool initialState, bool autoReset) { _autoResetSignal = autoReset; _notified = initialState; } public virtual void Notify() { lock (_lock) { // first time? if (!_notified) { // set the flag _notified = true; // unblock a thread which is waiting on this signal Monitor.Pulse(_lock); } } } public void Wait() { Wait(Timeout.Infinite); } public virtual bool Wait(int milliseconds) { lock (_lock) { bool ret = true; // this check needs to be inside the lock otherwise you can get nailed // with a race condition where the notify thread sets the flag AFTER // the waiting thread has checked it and acquires the lock and does the // pulse before the Monitor.Wait below - when this happens the caller // will wait forever as he "just missed" the only pulse which is ever // going to happen if (!_notified) { ret = Monitor.Wait(_lock, milliseconds); } if (_autoResetSignal) { _notified = false; } return (ret); } } }

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  • Anonymous union definition/declaration in a macro GNU vs VS2008

    - by Alan_m
    I am attempting to alter an IAR specific header file for a lpc2138 so it can compile with Visual Studio 2008 (to enable compatible unit testing). My problem involves converting register definitions to be hardware independent (not at a memory address) The "IAR-safe macro" is: #define __IO_REG32_BIT(NAME, ADDRESS, ATTRIBUTE, BIT_STRUCT) \ volatile __no_init ATTRIBUTE union \ { \ unsigned long NAME; \ BIT_STRUCT NAME ## _bit; \ } @ ADDRESS //declaration //(where __gpio0_bits is a structure that names //each of the 32 bits as P0_0, P0_1, etc) __IO_REG32_BIT(IO0PIN,0xE0028000,__READ_WRITE,__gpio0_bits); //usage IO0PIN = 0x0xAA55AA55; IO0PIN_bit.P0_5 = 0; This is my comparable "hardware independent" code: #define __IO_REG32_BIT(NAME, BIT_STRUCT)\ volatile union \ { \ unsigned long NAME; \ BIT_STRUCT NAME##_bit; \ } NAME; //declaration __IO_REG32_BIT(IO0PIN,__gpio0_bits); //usage IO0PIN.IO0PIN = 0xAA55AA55; IO0PIN.IO0PIN_bit.P0_5 = 1; This compiles and works but quite obviously my "hardware independent" usage does not match the "IAR-safe" usage. How do I alter my macro so I can use IO0PIN the same way I do in IAR? I feel this is a simple anonymous union matter but multiple attempts and variants have proven unsuccessful. Maybe the IAR GNU compiler supports anonymous unions and vs2008 does not. Thank you.

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  • Threading is slow and unpredictable?

    - by Jake
    I've created the basis of a ray tracer, here's my testing function for drawing the scene: public void Trace(int start, int jump, Sphere testSphere) { for (int x = start; x < scene.SceneWidth; x += jump) { for (int y = 0; y < scene.SceneHeight; y++) { Ray fired = Ray.FireThroughPixel(scene, x, y); if (testSphere.Intersects(fired)) sceneRenderer.SetPixel(x, y, Color.Red); else sceneRenderer.SetPixel(x, y, Color.Black); } } } SetPixel simply sets a value in a single dimensional array of colours. If I call the function normally by just directly calling it it runs at a constant 55fps. If I do: Thread t1 = new Thread(() => Trace(0, 1, testSphere)); t1.Start(); t1.Join(); It runs at a constant 50fps which is fine and understandable, but when I do: Thread t1 = new Thread(() => Trace(0, 2, testSphere)); Thread t2 = new Thread(() => Trace(1, 2, testSphere)); t1.Start(); t2.Start(); t1.Join(); t2.Join(); It runs all over the place, rapidly moving between 30-40 fps and sometimes going out of that range up to 50 or down to 20, it's not constant at all. Why is it running slower than it would if I ran the whole thing on a single thread? I'm running on a quad core i5 2500k.

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  • How to use HSQLDB in Oracle query syntax mode?

    - by Jan Algermissen
    I am trying to use HSQLDB as an embedded database in a spring application (for testing). As the target production database is Oracle, I would like to use HSQLDBs Oracle syntax mode feature. In the Spring config I use <jdbc:embedded-database type="HSQL" id="dataSource"> </jdbc:embedded-database> <jdbc:initialize-database data-source="dataSource" enabled="true"> <jdbc:script location="classpath:schema.sql"/> </jdbc:initialize-database> And in schema.sql at the top I wrote: SET DATABASE SQL SYNTAX ORA TRUE; However, when running my test, I get the following error: java.sql.SQLException: Unexpected token: DATABASE in statement [SET DATABASE SQL SYNTAX ORA TRUE] Is this a syntax error or a permissions error or something entirely different? Thanks - also for any pointers that might lead to the answer. Given that HSQL is the Spring default for jdbc:embedded-database and given the target is Oracle, this scenario should actually be very common. However, I found nothing on the Web even touching the issue.

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  • PayPal IPN "FAIL"

    - by Rob
    Hey all... I'm trying to figure out how to use PayPal's IPN and I've run into a wall. I want a buyer to be forwarded to a success page after making a purchase, and I want that page to show the details of their transaction. I choose IPN instead of the PDT because I also want to do some other behind the scenes stuff with their data. Anyway, here's the code I'm using -- I'm testing in sandbox mode -- but it returns "FAIL" every time. $req = 'cmd=_notify-validate'; foreach ($_POST as $key => $value) { $value = urlencode(stripslashes($value)); $req .= "&$key=$value"; } // post back to PayPal system to validate $header = "POST /cgi-bin/webscr HTTP/1.0\r\n"; $header .= "Content-Type: application/x-www-form-urlencoded\r\n"; $header .= "Content-Length: " . strlen($req) . "\r\n\r\n"; $fp = fsockopen ('www.sandbox.paypal.com', 80, $errno, $errstr, 30); if (!$fp) { // HTTP ERROR } else { fputs ($fp, $header . $req); while (!feof($fp)) { $res = fgets ($fp, 1024); if (strcmp ($res, "VERIFIED") == 0) { // PAYMENT VALIDATED & VERIFIED! echo "Validated!"; } else if (strcmp ($res, "INVALID") == 0) { // PAYMENT INVALID & INVESTIGATE MANUALY! echo "Invalid!"; } } fclose ($fp); }

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  • Registry remotley hacked win 7 need help tracking the perp

    - by user577229
    I was writing some .VBS code at thhe office that would allow certain file extensions to be downloaded without a warning dialog on a w7x32 system. The system I was writing this on is in a lab on a segmented subnet. All web access is via a proxy server. The only means of accessing my machine is via the internet or from within the labs MSFT AD domain. While writing and testing my code I found a message of sorts. Upon refresing the registry to verify my code changed a dword, instead the message HELLO was written and visible in regedit where the dword value wass called for. I took a screen shot and proceeded to edit my code. This same weird behavior occurred last time I was writing registry code except on another internal server. I understand that remote registry access exists for windows systems. I will block this immediately once I return to the office. What I want to know is, can I trace who made this connection? How would I do this? I suspect the cause of this is the cause of other "odd" behaviors I'm experiencing at work such as losing control of my input director master control for over an hour and unchanged code that all of a sudden fails for no logical region. These failures occur at funny times, whenver I'm about to give a demonstration of my test code. I know this sounds crazy however knowledge of the registry component makes this believable. Once the registry can be accessed, the entire system is compromised. Any help or sanity checking is appreciated.

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  • Android 1.5/1.6 issue with style and autogenerated R.java file

    - by Gaks
    I'm having strange issue with R.java file and styles defined in my resources. Here's some code: In res/values/strings.xml: <style parent="android:Theme.Dialog" name="PopupWindowStyle"> <item name="android:windowBackground">@drawable/bg1</item> <item name="android:textColor">@android:color/black</item> </style> In AndroidManifest.xml: <activity android:name=".RegisterScreen" android:icon="@drawable/ico" android:label="@string/applicationName" android:theme="@style/PopupWindowStyle" android:configChanges="locale|touchscreen|keyboard|keyboardHidden|navigation|orientation|fontScale"> </activity> In autogenerated gen/.../R.java: public static final class style { public static final int PopupWindowStyle=0x7f090000; } After some changes in the project, eclipse changed autogenerated value for PopupWindowStyle from 0x7f080000 to 0x7f090000. After that, on Android 1.5, RegisterScreen activity is displayed without PopupWindowStyle style - there is an error displayed in logcat: Skipping entry 0x7f090000 in package table 0 because it is not complex! On Android 1.6 however everything works fine - PopupWindowStyle works like it was before it's integer value has changed. I was testing this issue, by reverting the source code to older revisions. I can confirm, that this problem started occurring after src code commit, which changed two files completely unrelated to this part of code - and an autogenerated R.java file. Any idea what could cause that?

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  • Strategy Pattern with Type Reflection affecting Performances ?

    - by Aurélien Ribon
    Hello ! I am building graphs. A graph consists of nodes linked each other with links (indeed my dear). In order to assign a given behavior to each node, I implemented the strategy pattern. class Node { public BaseNodeBehavior Behavior {get; set;} } As a result, in many parts of the application, I am extensively using type reflection to know which behavior a node is. if (node.Behavior is NodeDataOutputBehavior) workOnOutputNode(node) .... My graph can get thousands of nodes. Is type reflection greatly affecting performances ? Should I use something else than the strategy pattern ? I'm using strategy because I need behavior inheritance. For example, basically, a behavior can be Data or Operator, a Data behavior can IO, Const or Intermediate and finally an IO behavior can be Input or Output. So if I use an enumeration, I wont be able to test for a node behavior to be of data kind, I will need to test it to be [Input, Output, Const or Intermediate]. And if later I want to add another behavior of Data kind, I'm screwed, every data-testing method will need to be changed.

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  • Get instance of type inheriting from base class, implementing interface, using StructureMap

    - by Ben
    Continuing on my quest for a good plugin implementation I have been testing the StructureMap assembly scanning features. All plugins will inherit from abstract class PluginBase. This will provide access to common application services such as logging. Depending on it's function, each plugin may then implement additional interfaces, for example, IStartUpTask. I am initializing my plugins like so: Scan(x => { x.AssembliesFromPath(HttpContext.Current.Server.MapPath("~/Plugins"), assembly => assembly.GetName().Name.Contains("Extension")); x.AddAllTypesOf<PluginBase>(); }); The difficulty I am then having is how to work against the interface (not the PluginBase) in code. It's easy enough to work with PluginBase: var plugins = ObjectFactory.GetAllInstances<PluginBase>(); foreach (var plugin in plugins) { } But specific functionality (e.g. IStartUpTask.RunTask) is tied to the interface, not the base class. I appreciate this may not be specific to structuremap (perhaps more a question of reflection). Thanks, Ben

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  • Starting a process in one HTTP call and getting results in another

    - by KillianDS
    Hi, I'm writing a very simple testing framework for my application, the design isn't perfect, but I don't have time to write something more complex. Essentially, I have a client and server-application, on my server I want a small python web server to start the server application with given test sequences on a GET or POST call. Also, the application prints some testdata to stderr which I'd like to catch and return in another HTTP call. At the moment I have this: from subprocess import Popen, PIPE from BaseHTTPServer import BaseHTTPRequestHandler, HTTPServer p = None class MyHandler(BaseHTTPRequestHandler): def do_GET(self): global p if self.path.endswith("start/"): p = Popen(["./bin/Release/simplex264","BBB-360","127.0.0.1"], stderr=PIPE) print 'started' return elif self.path.endswith("getResults/"): self.wfile.write(p.stderr.read()) return self.send_error(404,'File Not Found: %s' % self.path) def main(): try: server = HTTPServer(('localhost', 9876), MyHandler) print 'Started server...' server.serve_forever() except KeyboardInterrupt: print 'Shutting down...' server.socket.close() if __name__ == '__main__': main() Which 'works', except for one part, when I try to open http://localhost:9876/start/, it does not return before the process ended. However, the 'started' appears in my shell immediately (I added this because I thought the Popen call would only return after execution). I do not know the perfect inner workings of Popen and BaseHTTPRequestHandler however and do not really know where it goes wrong. Is there any way to make this work asynchronously?

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  • What is SSIS order of data transformation component method calls

    - by Ron Ruble
    I am working on a custom data transformation component. I'm using NUnit and NMock2 to test as I code. Testing and getting the custom UI and other features right is a huge pain, in part because I can't find any documentation about the order in which SSIS invokes methods on the component at design time as well as runtime. I can correct the issues readily enough, but it's tedious and time consuming to unregister the old version, register the new version, fire up the test ssis package, try to display the UI, get an obscure error message, backtrace it, modify the component and continue. One of the big issues involves the UI component needing access to the componentmetadata and buffermanager properties of the component at design time, and what I need to provide for to support properties that won't be initialized until after the user enters them in the UI. I can work through it; but if someone knows of some docs or tips that would speed me up, I'd greatly appreciate it. The samples I've found havn't been much use; they seem to be directed to showing off cool stuff (Twitter, weather.com) rather than actual work. Thanks in advance.

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  • Returning searched results in an array in Java without ArrayList

    - by Crystal
    I started down this path of implementing a simple search in an array for a hw assignment without knowing we could use ArrayList. I realized it had some bugs in it and figured I'd still try to know what my bug is before using ArrayList. I basically have a class where I can add, remove, or search from an array. public class AcmeLoanManager { public void addLoan(Loan h) { int loanId = h.getLoanId(); loanArray[loanId - 1] = h; } public Loan[] getAllLoans() { return loanArray; } public Loan[] findLoans(Person p) { //Loan[] searchedLoanArray = new Loan[10]; // create new array to hold searched values searchedLoanArray = this.getAllLoans(); // fill new array with all values // Looks through only valid array values, and if Person p does not match using Person.equals() // sets that value to null. for (int i = 0; i < searchedLoanArray.length; i++) { if (searchedLoanArray[i] != null) { if (!(searchedLoanArray[i].getClient().equals(p))) { searchedLoanArray[i] = null; } } } return searchedLoanArray; } public void removeLoan(int loanId) { loanArray[loanId - 1] = null; } private Loan[] loanArray = new Loan[10]; private Loan[] searchedLoanArray = new Loan[10]; // separate array to hold values returned from search } When testing this, I thought it worked, but I think I am overwriting my member variable after I do a search. I initially thought that I could create a new Loan[] in the method and return that, but that didn't seem to work. Then I thought I could have two arrays. One that would not change, and the other just for the searched values. But I think I am not understanding something, like shallow vs deep copying???....

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  • Iframe form not submittin in IE but working in Firefox

    - by Younes
    I have got a form that posts values to a page in a wizard. When i'm loading this form in a Iframe everything is working fine in Firefox, it will get me to the second step of the wizard and maintains the values i filled in. When im testing this in Internet Explorer i am not getting to the second step, instead of that it returns me to the first step of the wizard with all fields being blank. When i check this in Fiddler i see that im getting a different response when i'm posting the form in the Iframe from Firefox compared to Internet Explorer. How can i make this work for all browsers? What am I doing wrong? This is what i get back from Fiddler: Firefox Post: Ressult Protocol Host URL Body Caching Content-Type Process Comments Custom 1 302 HTTP www.dmg.eu /brugman/budgetplanner/aanmelden.php 0 no-store, no-cache, must-revalidate, post-check=0, pre-check=0 Expires: Thu, 19 Nov 1981 08:52:00 GMT text/html; charset=UTF-8 firefox:6116 Get: # Result Protocol Host URL Body Caching Content-Type Process Comments Custom 2 200 HTTP www.dmg.eu /brugman/budgetplanner/ 40.677 no-store, no-cache, must-revalidate, post-check=0, pre-check=0 Expires: Thu, 19 Nov 1981 08:52:00 GMT text/html; charset=UTF-8 firefox:6116 Internet Explorer Post: Result Protocol Host URL Body Caching Content-Type Process Comments Custom 73 302 HTTP www.dmg.eu /brugman/budgetplanner/aanmelden.php 0 no-store, no-cache, must-revalidate, post-check=0, pre-check=0 Expires: Thu, 19 Nov 1981 08:52:00 GMT text/html; charset=UTF-8 iexplore:536 Get: Result Protocol Host URL Body Caching Content-Type Process Comments Custom 74 302 HTTP www.dmg.eu /brugman/budgetplanner/ 0 no-store, no-cache, must-revalidate, post-check=0, pre-check=0 Expires: Thu, 19 Nov 1981 08:52:00 GMT text/html; charset=UTF-8 iexplore:536 Hope someone knows what the diff is :).

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  • Having issue Deserializing array from an XML string

    - by LeeHull
    I'm having issues trying to deserializing my xml string that was from a dataset.. Here is the XML layout.. <DataSet> <User> <UserName>Test</UserName> <Email>[email protected]</Email> <Details> <ID>1</ID> <Name>TestDetails</Name> <Value>1</Value> </Details <Details> <ID>2</ID> <Name>Testing</Name> <Value>3</Value> </Details </User> </DataSet> Now I am able to deserialize the "UserName" and "Email" when doing public class User { public string UserName {get;set;} public string Email {get;set;} public Details[] Details {get;set;} } public class Details { public int ID {get;set;} public string Name {get;set;} public string Value {get;set;} } This deserializes fine when I just get the user node, the Details isnt null but has no items in it.. i know I am suppose to have between all the details but I rather not modify the XML, anyways to get this to deserialize properly without recreating the XML after I get it?

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  • Best ways to copyright protect your work for example Myows

    - by Saif Bechan
    Recently I have read about Myows, they say its: "The universal copyright management and protection app for smart creatives" It is used to protect your application from copyrights and more. Do you think this will be a good idea for large application, or are there better ways to achieve such a thing. url: Myows Update Referencing: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2618015/has-anyone-tried-myows-to-copyright-protect-your-work/2618628#2618628 Wow there is no better person to have answered this question like the creator himself. Currently I am working on a large web application which is in late testing phase. Because of the complexity of the app there are not many versions of it online so copyright will be a huge issue for me as much of the code is in JavaScript and is easy copyable. I was glad to see that there is some company out there that provide such services, and naturally I wanted to know if there were people using it. I did not know that this type of concept was so 'new'. There were some nice points made in the answer, and I think it will be a good service for people like me. In the next couple of weeks I will be looking further into the subject and start uploading my code and see how it will works out. I will leave this question up because I do want some more suggestions on this topic.

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  • What MS technology to use for HTTP service returning XML?

    - by Borek
    I need to create a service that: accepts HTTP requests (with query string or HTTP POST parameters) does some processing on the requests (checking if the request is valid, authentication etc.) reads data from a custom store (another HTTP call in our case) returns the result as custom XML (defined with XSD) I'm trying to think of various MS technologies that could help me and how good they would be for this scenario (pretty standard one I guess). The tasks above are relatively separate, this is what comes to mind: HTTP front-end: ASP.NET Web Forms ASP.NET MVC (seems more appropriate here as I won't need server controls, view state etc.) WCF? Don't know much about it or how well it would suit my task. Custom logic on the server: this will probably be a generic C# code in all cases (sometimes "plugged into" or called from MVC controllers or some equivalent place in other technologies) Reading data from internal data stores: As said, this is another HTTP server in our case. Options that come to mind: Just read the data using something like WebClient (Just theoretically) implement a LINQ provider (Just even more theoretically) implement an EF provider Output the data as custom XML: Linq2XML Serialization? Is it flexible enough? Does WCF provide some tools for this? Some "OXM" - Object/XML mapper if there is something like that for .NET I may be wrong in many of my assumptions, this is just a quick list that comes to mind after a quick research. Some general notes / questions: Testing is important Solution with a clear domain model would be much preferred over the one without Can Entity Framework actually help somewhere in my scenario? If so, where and how? Would WCF be an appropriate technology for this? I don't know much about it.

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