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  • Directly call distutils' or setuptools' setup() function with command name/options, without parsing

    - by Ryan B. Lynch
    I'd like to call Python's distutils' or setuptools' setup() function in a slightly unconventional way, but I'm not sure whether distutils is meant for this kind of usage. As an example, let's say I currently have a 'setup.py' file, which looks like this (lifted verbatim from the distutils docs--the setuptools usage is almost identical): from distutils.core import setup setup(name='Distutils', version='1.0', description='Python Distribution Utilities', author='Greg Ward', author_email='[email protected]', url='http://www.python.org/sigs/distutils-sig/', packages=['distutils', 'distutils.command'], ) Normally, to build just the .spec file for an RPM of this module, I could run python setup.py bdist_rpm --spec-only, which parses the command line and calls the 'bdist_rpm' code to handle the RPM-specific stuff. The .spec file ends up in './dist'. How can I change my setup() invocation so that it runs the 'bdist_rpm' command with the '--spec-only' option, WITHOUT parsing command-line parameters? Can I pass the command name and options as parameters to setup()? Or can I manually construct a command line, and pass that as a parameter, instead? NOTE: I already know that I could call the script in a separate process, with an actual command line, using os.system() or the subprocess module or something similar. I'm trying to avoid using any kind of external command invocations. I'm looking specifically for a solution that runs setup() in the current interpreter. For background, I'm converting some release-management shell scripts into a single Python program. One of the tasks is running 'setup.py' to generate a .spec file for further pre-release testing. Running 'setup.py' as an external command, with its own command line options, seems like an awkward method, and it complicates the rest of the program. I feel like there may be a more Pythonic way.

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  • IHttpModule not being applied to virtual directory

    - by arthurdent510
    I have a network folder that is mapped to my iis app as a virtual directory and I'm trying to do some authentication for files that are located there with an ihttpmodule. I've verified that the ihttpmodule is firing properly for anything else in my app, just not the files located in virtual directory. Most of what I've found is that the directory can't be listed as an application (which it isn't), and everything should work. The other solution that I found was to add the the module tag to the tag, but that didn't seem to help either. Everything that I've found talks about stopping this from happening. So my question is what could be set that is causing this to not work? Is there a certain execute permission that needs to be set? Any other iis settings that could cause this? It is an mvc app, and this is how my directory structure is laid out: server/app <- my application folder server/app/content/downloads <- downloads is the virtual directory Do I have to add the virtual directory directly under my app directory? Is that part of the problem? I don't have direct control of the server my code is running on, so testing things out is a bit of a pain... so I was looking for some more thoughts before starting to send emails off to my operations people. Thanks!

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  • Apple's Sample App TopSongs has 26 Leaks, Ugh!

    - by RoLYroLLs
    Hey all, I've been building an app for a client and part of it uses Apple's TopSongs sample app to download data on another thread. I finally got enough done to start testing that part and found 1000 leaks!!! A closer look at the leaks made me check TopSongs for leaks, since none of the my methods were in leaks report. Running TopSongs returned 26 leaks. Not quite sure how to fix them, or if they are part of some library from Apple. I bet you're asking if it has 26, why do you have 1000? Well, I use their sample to make roughly 48 calls to webservices to get all the information needed on initial install (48 calls x 26 leaks = 1248 leaks!!). Later it makes at least 12 calls + 4 to check for updated information on other sections of the app. Can't do a thing about it, can't make one call, or less calls, please don't comment about this part. I seen people respond to posts that aren't necessarily answering the question the user originally posted, which in this case is has anyone tried patching up the leaks, if they are patchable, or is this a bug in Apple's libraries? Thanks so much.

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  • Is there a more efficient AS3 way to compare 2 arrays for adds, removes & updates?

    - by WillyCornbread
    Hi all - I'm wondering if there is a better way to approach this than my current solution... I have a list of items, I then retrieve another list of items. I need to compare the two lists and come up with a list of items that are existing (for update), a list that are not existing in the new list (for removal) and a list of items that are not existing in the old list (for adding). Here is what I'm doing now - basically creating a lookup object for testing if an item exists. Thanks for any tips. for each (itm in _oldItems) { _oldLookup[itm.itemNumber] = itm; } // Loop through items and check if they already exist in the 'old' list for each (itm in _items) { // If an item exists in the old list - push it for update if (_oldLookup[itm.itemNumber]) { _itemsToUpdate.push(itm); } else // otherwise push it into the items to add { _itemsToAdd.push(itm); } // remove it from the lookup list - this will leave only // items for removal remaining in the lookup delete _oldLookup[itm.itemNumber]; } // The items remaining in the lookup object have neither been added or updated - // so they must be for removal - add to list for removal for each (itm in _oldLookup) { _itemsToRemove.push(itm); }

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  • Automated UAT/functional tests on Swing applications without source code

    - by jas
    Our team is now working on a big Swing application. Our job basically focuses on writing extensions to the existing framework. A typical job would be adding a new panel/ or adding a new tab with some extra functionalities that suit our need. It seems FEST can help a lot in terms of unit-test our code. I am going to try it out this week. But the question here is if there is a way to do automated functional testing on the whole application. In another word, we do not only need to test our code but also the framework. After all, UAT is the most important part. I am currently considering decompiling the jar files we got into source code then we can identify the components and then use FEST. So, before I get started to give this approach a shot, I think I just ask for ideas and inspirations here. There must be people who have done similar things before. Would be nice if I could learn from the veterans who fought against this before . Thanks,

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  • Bizarre Javascript JSON undefined error

    - by Nate C-K
    I'm experiencing an error that I haven't been able to find any mention of anywhere. I'm developing an AJAX-enabled WCF web service with ASP.NET. In my ASP.NET master page's , I included the json.js file, copied fresh from json.org. When I run the page, it fails (VS 2008 catches a Javascript exception) on the first line of code in json.js (following lots of comments), which is: JSON = JSON || {}; The error says that JSON is undefined: Microsoft JScript runtime error: 'JSON' is undefined Well, duh! That's why the line is testing if it's defined and if so setting it to an empty object! It is supposed to be undefined, right? Last I heard it was not an error in Javascript to perform such an operation on an undefined variable. Can anyone give me a clue as to what's going on here? I suspect it's something gone wrong elsewhere that's somehow causing this problem. I don't have deep experience with either Javascript or ASP.NET so it might be that I'm missing some common gotcha in the setup.

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  • Can the Singleton be replaced by Factory?

    - by lostiniceland
    Hello Everyone There are already quite some posts about the Singleton-Pattern around, but I would like to start another one on this topic since I would like to know if the Factory-Pattern would be the right approach to remove this "anti-pattern". In the past I used the singleton quite a lot, also did my fellow collegues since it is so easy to use. For example, the Eclipse IDE or better its workbench-model makes heavy usage of singletons as well. It was due to some posts about E4 (the next big Eclipse version) that made me start to rethink the singleton. The bottom line was that due to this singletons the dependecies in Eclipse 3.x are tightly coupled. Lets assume I want to get rid of all singletons completely and instead use factories. My thoughts were as follows: hide complexity less coupling I have control over how many instances are created (just store the reference I a private field of the factory) mock the factory for testing (with Dependency Injection) when it is behind an interface In some cases the factories can make more than one singleton obsolete (depending on business logic/component composition) Does this make sense? If not, please give good reasons for why you think so. An alternative solution is also appreciated. Thanks Marc

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  • Call to undefined function 'Encrypt' - Attempting to Link OMF Lib

    - by Changeling
    I created a DLL using Visual Studio 2005 VC++ and marked a function for export (for testing). I then took the .LIB file created, and ran it through the COFF2OMF converter program bundled with Borland C++ Builder 5 and it returns the following: C:\>coff2omf -v -lib:ms MACEncryption.lib MACEncryption2.lib COFF to OMF Converter Version 1.0.0.74 Copyright (c) 1999, 2000 Inprise Corporat ion Internal name Imported name ------------- ------------- ??0CMACEncryptionApp@@QAE@XZ ?Decrypt@CMACEncryptionApp@@QAEXXZ Encrypt Encrypt@0 I added the MACEncryption2.lib file to my C++ Builder 5 Project by going to Project-Add to Project.. and selecting the library. The application links, but it cannot find the Encrypt function that I am declaring for export as follows in the VC++ code: extern "C" __declspec(dllexport) BSTR* __stdcall Encrypt() { CoInitialize(NULL); EncryptionManager::_EncryptionManagerPtr pDotNetCOMPtr; HRESULT hRes = pDotNetCOMPtr.CreateInstance(EncryptionManager::CLSID_EncryptionManager); if (hRes == S_OK) { BSTR* str = new BSTR; BSTR filePath = (BSTR)"C:\\ICVER001.REQ"; BSTR encrypt = (BSTR)"\"test"; pDotNetCOMPtr->EncryptThirdPartyMessage(filePath, encrypt, str); return str; } return NULL; CoUninitialize (); } C++ Builder Code: __fastcall TForm1::TForm1(TComponent* Owner) : TForm(Owner) { Encrypt(); } (Yes I know I am encapsulating another DLL.. I am doing this for a reason since Borland can't 'see' the .NET DLL definitions) Can anyone tell me what I am doing wrong so I can figure out why Builder cannot find the function Encrypt() ?

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  • Android Accessing Accelerometer: Returns always 0 as Value

    - by Rotesmofa
    Hello there, i would like to use the accelerometer in an Android Handset for my Application. The data from the sensor will be saved together with a GPS Point, so the Value is only needed when the GPS Point is updated. If i use the attached Code the values is always zero. API Level 8 Permissions: Internet, Fine Location Testing Device: Galaxy S(i9000), Nexus One Any Suggestions? I am stuck at this point. Best regards from Germany, Pascal import android.app.Activity; import android.hardware.Sensor; import android.hardware.SensorEvent; import android.hardware.SensorEventListener; import android.hardware.SensorManager; import android.os.Bundle; public class AccelerometerService extends Activity{ AccelerometerData accelerometerData; private SensorManager mSensorManager; private float x,y,z; private class AccelerometerData implements SensorEventListener{ public void onSensorChanged(SensorEvent event) { x = event.values[0]; y = event.values[1]; z = event.values[2]; } public void onAccuracyChanged(Sensor sensor, int accuracy) {} } @Override protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); mSensorManager = (SensorManager) getSystemService(SENSOR_SERVICE); mSensorManager.registerListener(accelerometerData, mSensorManager.getDefaultSensor(Sensor.TYPE_ACCELEROMETER), SensorManager.SENSOR_DELAY_FASTEST); } @Override protected void onResume() { super.onResume(); } @Override protected void onStop() { mSensorManager.unregisterListener(accelerometerData); super.onStop(); } public String getSensorString() { return ("X: " + x+"m/s, Y: "+ y +"m/s, Z: "+ z +"m/s" ); } }

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  • Registry remotley hacked win 7 need help tracking the perp

    - by user577229
    I was writing some .VBS code at thhe office that would allow certain file extensions to be downloaded without a warning dialog on a w7x32 system. The system I was writing this on is in a lab on a segmented subnet. All web access is via a proxy server. The only means of accessing my machine is via the internet or from within the labs MSFT AD domain. While writing and testing my code I found a message of sorts. Upon refresing the registry to verify my code changed a dword, instead the message HELLO was written and visible in regedit where the dword value wass called for. I took a screen shot and proceeded to edit my code. This same weird behavior occurred last time I was writing registry code except on another internal server. I understand that remote registry access exists for windows systems. I will block this immediately once I return to the office. What I want to know is, can I trace who made this connection? How would I do this? I suspect the cause of this is the cause of other "odd" behaviors I'm experiencing at work such as losing control of my input director master control for over an hour and unchanged code that all of a sudden fails for no logical region. These failures occur at funny times, whenver I'm about to give a demonstration of my test code. I know this sounds crazy however knowledge of the registry component makes this believable. Once the registry can be accessed, the entire system is compromised. Any help or sanity checking is appreciated.

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  • Returning searched results in an array in Java without ArrayList

    - by Crystal
    I started down this path of implementing a simple search in an array for a hw assignment without knowing we could use ArrayList. I realized it had some bugs in it and figured I'd still try to know what my bug is before using ArrayList. I basically have a class where I can add, remove, or search from an array. public class AcmeLoanManager { public void addLoan(Loan h) { int loanId = h.getLoanId(); loanArray[loanId - 1] = h; } public Loan[] getAllLoans() { return loanArray; } public Loan[] findLoans(Person p) { //Loan[] searchedLoanArray = new Loan[10]; // create new array to hold searched values searchedLoanArray = this.getAllLoans(); // fill new array with all values // Looks through only valid array values, and if Person p does not match using Person.equals() // sets that value to null. for (int i = 0; i < searchedLoanArray.length; i++) { if (searchedLoanArray[i] != null) { if (!(searchedLoanArray[i].getClient().equals(p))) { searchedLoanArray[i] = null; } } } return searchedLoanArray; } public void removeLoan(int loanId) { loanArray[loanId - 1] = null; } private Loan[] loanArray = new Loan[10]; private Loan[] searchedLoanArray = new Loan[10]; // separate array to hold values returned from search } When testing this, I thought it worked, but I think I am overwriting my member variable after I do a search. I initially thought that I could create a new Loan[] in the method and return that, but that didn't seem to work. Then I thought I could have two arrays. One that would not change, and the other just for the searched values. But I think I am not understanding something, like shallow vs deep copying???....

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  • iPhone/iPad : Check for invalid characters in a textbox made for Integers only

    - by JustinXXVII
    I noticed that the iPhone OS is pretty good about picking out Integer values when asked to. Specifically, if you use NSString *stringName = @"6("; int number = [stringName intValue]; the iPhone OS will pick out the 6 and turn the variable number into 6. However, in more complex mistypes, this also makes the int variable 6: NSString *stringName = @"6(5"; int number = [stringName intValue]; The iPhone OS misses the other digit, when what could have possibly been the user trying to enter the number 65, the OS only gets the number 6 out of it. I need a solution to check a string for invalid characters and return NO if there is anything other than an unsigned integer in a textbox. This is for iPad, and currently there is no numeric keyboard like the iPhone has, and I'm instead limited to the standard 123 keyboard. I was thinking that I need to use NSRange and somehow loop through the entire string in the textbox, and checking to see if the current character in the iteration is a number. I'm lost as far as that goes. I can think of testing it against zero, but zero is a valid integer. Can anyone help?

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  • Javascript API not working for Chrome or Safari on JW Player 5.9

    - by Lando
    I am working on a custom interface for the JW Player which displays the current track title and has play/pause, next track, previous track and volume toggle buttons. It works for IE8/9 and FF but fails for Chrome and Safari. Chrome's console gives the following error: Uncaught TypeError: Object # has no method 'addControllerListener' This is the code I am using for testing. <div id="container">Loading the player ...</div> <script type="text/javascript"> jwplayer("container").setup({ image: "preview.jpg", height: 320, width: 480, modes: [ { type: "html5" }, { type: "flash", src: "player.swf" } ], 'playlist': [ { 'file': "audio/01.mp3", 'title': "Track 1" }, { 'file': "audio/02.mp3", 'title': "Track 2" }, { 'file': "audio/03.mp3", 'title': "Track 3" } ], }); function playerReady(obj) { player = document.getElementById(obj.id); displayFirstItem(); }; function displayFirstItem() { try { playlist = player.getPlaylist(); } catch(e) { setTimeout("displayFirstItem()", 100); } player.addControllerListener('ITEM', 'itemMonitor'); itemMonitor({index:0}); }; function itemMonitor(obj) { $('#nowplaying').html('<span><strong>Now Playing:</strong> ' + playlist[obj.index]['title'] + '</span>'); }; </script> <div id="nowplaying"></div> <div class="control_bar"> <ul> <li onclick='player.sendEvent("play");'>[ &#8250; ] Play / Pause</li> <li onclick='player.sendEvent("prev");'>[ &laquo; ] Previous item</li> <li onclick='player.sendEvent("next");'>[ &raquo; ] Next item</li> </ul> </div> I have searched and tried several modifications, like adding the javascriptid parameter, nothing seems to work for Chrome or Safari. Any ideas? Thanks

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  • Can I use a static cache Helper method in a NET MVC controller?

    - by Euston
    I realise there have been a few posts regarding where to add a cache check/update and the separation of concerns between the controller, the model and the caching code. There are two great examples that I have tried to work with but being new to MVC I wonder which one is the cleanest and suits the MVC methodology the best? I know you need to take into account DI and unit testing. Example 1 (Helper method with delegate) ...in controller var myObject = CacheDataHelper.Get(thisID, () => WebServiceServiceWrapper.GetMyObjectBythisID(thisID)); Example 2 (check for cache in model class) in controller var myObject = WebServiceServiceWrapper.GetMyObjectBythisID(thisID)); then in model class.............. if (!CacheDataHelper.Get(cachekey, out myObject)) { //do some repository processing // Add obect to cache CacheDataHelper.Add(myObject, cachekey); } Both use a static cache helper class but the first example uses a method signature with a delegate method passed in that has the name of the repository method being called. If the data is not in cache the method is called and the cache helper class handles the adding or updating to the current cache. In the second example the cache check is part of the repository method with an extra line to call the cache helper add method to update the current cache. Due to my lack of experience and knowledge I am not sure which one is best suited to MVC. I like the idea of calling the cache helper with the delegate method name in order to remove any cache code in the repository but I am not sure if using the static method in the controller is ideal? The second example deals with the above but now there is no separation between the caching check and the repository lookup. Perhaps that is not a problem as you know it requires caching anyway?

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  • FIFO dequeueing in python?

    - by Aaron Ramsey
    hello again everybody— I'm looking to make a functional (not necessarily optimally efficient, as I'm very new to programming) FIFO queue, and am having trouble with my dequeueing. My code looks like this: class QueueNode: def __init__(self, data): self.data = data self.next = None def __str__(self): return str(self.data) class Queue: def__init__(self): self.front = None self.rear = None self.size = 0 def enqueue(self, item) newnode = QueueNode(item) newnode.next = None if self.size == 0: self.front = self.rear = newnode else: self.rear = newnode self.rear.next = newnode.next self.size = self.size+1 def dequeue(self) dequeued = self.front.data del self.front self.size = self.size-1 if self.size == 0: self.rear = None print self.front #for testing if I do this, and dequeue an item, I get the error "AttributeError: Queue instance has no attribute 'front'." I guess my function doesn't properly assign the new front of the queue? I'm not sure how to fix it though. I don't really want to start from scratch, so if there's a tweak to my code that would work, I'd prefer that—I'm not trying to minimize runtime so much as just get a feel for classes and things of that nature. Thanks in advance for any help, you guys are the best.

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  • Facebook SDK Comment Deleting

    - by mwoodworth
    Working with the Facebook php SDK's, I am having a lot of trouble figuring out how to delete comments, given its id and xid. At first I was using the REST API, where you can call 'comments_remove($xid, $id);' to delete a comment. The problem with this method came when the xid parameter only accepts alphanumeric characters and underscores. Based on the documentation (http://developers.facebook.com/docs/reference/fbml/comments ) a valid XID can be the result of any url_encode. Now I am testing my luck with the new GRAPH api. Looking at http://developers.facebook.com/docs/api under 'Deleting Objects', It seems that comment deleting is definitely supported. However, I have tried sending a DELETE request, and I have also tried sending POST and GET to the object url with the argument 'method=delete'. No matter how I try it, I always get the same error: {"error":{"type":"GraphMethodException","message":"Unsupported delete request."}} I am sending the access token as a parameter as well. The access token that I am sending is the access token saved in the facebook cookie from the single sign on javascript cookie. These are all comments made on my application. Does this happen to anyone else, or am I simply not doing this right? Any help or guidance is GREATLY appreciated.

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  • Lightweight alternative to Manual/AutoResetEvent in C#

    - by sweetlilmre
    Hi, I have written what I hope is a lightweight alternative to using the ManualResetEvent and AutoResetEvent classes in C#/.NET. The reasoning behind this was to have Event like functionality without the weight of using a kernel locking object. Although the code seems to work well in both testing and production, getting this kind of thing right for all possibilities can be a fraught undertaking and I would humbly request any constructive comments and or criticism from the StackOverflow crowd on this. Hopefully (after review) this will be useful to others. Usage should be similar to the Manual/AutoResetEvent classes with Notify() used for Set(). Here goes: using System; using System.Threading; public class Signal { private readonly object _lock = new object(); private readonly bool _autoResetSignal; private bool _notified; public Signal() : this(false, false) { } public Signal(bool initialState, bool autoReset) { _autoResetSignal = autoReset; _notified = initialState; } public virtual void Notify() { lock (_lock) { // first time? if (!_notified) { // set the flag _notified = true; // unblock a thread which is waiting on this signal Monitor.Pulse(_lock); } } } public void Wait() { Wait(Timeout.Infinite); } public virtual bool Wait(int milliseconds) { lock (_lock) { bool ret = true; // this check needs to be inside the lock otherwise you can get nailed // with a race condition where the notify thread sets the flag AFTER // the waiting thread has checked it and acquires the lock and does the // pulse before the Monitor.Wait below - when this happens the caller // will wait forever as he "just missed" the only pulse which is ever // going to happen if (!_notified) { ret = Monitor.Wait(_lock, milliseconds); } if (_autoResetSignal) { _notified = false; } return (ret); } } }

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  • Serializing a DataType="time" field using XmlSerializer

    - by CraftyFella
    Hi, I'm getting an odd result when serializing a DateTime field using XmlSerializer. I have the following class: public class RecordExample { [XmlElement("TheTime", DataType = "time")] public DateTime TheTime { get; set; } [XmlElement("TheDate", DataType = "date")] public DateTime TheDate { get; set; } public static bool Serialize(Stream stream, object obj, Type objType, Encoding encoding) { try { using (var writer = XmlWriter.Create(stream, new XmlWriterSettings { Encoding = encoding })) { var xmlSerializer = new XmlSerializer(objType); if (writer != null) xmlSerializer.Serialize(writer, obj); } return true; } catch (Exception) { return false; } } } When i call the use the XmlSerializer with the following testing code: var obj = new RecordExample {TheDate = DateTime.Now.Date, TheTime = new DateTime(0001, 1, 1, 12, 00, 00)}; var ms = new MemoryStream(); RecordExample.Serialize(ms, obj, typeof (RecordExample), Encoding.UTF8); txtSource2.Text = Encoding.UTF8.GetString(ms.ToArray()); I get some strange results, here's the xml that is produced: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <RecordExample xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <TheTime>12:00:00.0000000+00:00</TheTime> <TheDate>2010-03-08</TheDate> </RecordExample> Any idea's how i can get the "TheTime" element to contain a time which looks more like this: <TheTime>12:00:00.0Z</TheTime> ...as that's what i was expecting? Thanks Dave

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  • Android 1.5/1.6 issue with style and autogenerated R.java file

    - by Gaks
    I'm having strange issue with R.java file and styles defined in my resources. Here's some code: In res/values/strings.xml: <style parent="android:Theme.Dialog" name="PopupWindowStyle"> <item name="android:windowBackground">@drawable/bg1</item> <item name="android:textColor">@android:color/black</item> </style> In AndroidManifest.xml: <activity android:name=".RegisterScreen" android:icon="@drawable/ico" android:label="@string/applicationName" android:theme="@style/PopupWindowStyle" android:configChanges="locale|touchscreen|keyboard|keyboardHidden|navigation|orientation|fontScale"> </activity> In autogenerated gen/.../R.java: public static final class style { public static final int PopupWindowStyle=0x7f090000; } After some changes in the project, eclipse changed autogenerated value for PopupWindowStyle from 0x7f080000 to 0x7f090000. After that, on Android 1.5, RegisterScreen activity is displayed without PopupWindowStyle style - there is an error displayed in logcat: Skipping entry 0x7f090000 in package table 0 because it is not complex! On Android 1.6 however everything works fine - PopupWindowStyle works like it was before it's integer value has changed. I was testing this issue, by reverting the source code to older revisions. I can confirm, that this problem started occurring after src code commit, which changed two files completely unrelated to this part of code - and an autogenerated R.java file. Any idea what could cause that?

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  • Starting a process in one HTTP call and getting results in another

    - by KillianDS
    Hi, I'm writing a very simple testing framework for my application, the design isn't perfect, but I don't have time to write something more complex. Essentially, I have a client and server-application, on my server I want a small python web server to start the server application with given test sequences on a GET or POST call. Also, the application prints some testdata to stderr which I'd like to catch and return in another HTTP call. At the moment I have this: from subprocess import Popen, PIPE from BaseHTTPServer import BaseHTTPRequestHandler, HTTPServer p = None class MyHandler(BaseHTTPRequestHandler): def do_GET(self): global p if self.path.endswith("start/"): p = Popen(["./bin/Release/simplex264","BBB-360","127.0.0.1"], stderr=PIPE) print 'started' return elif self.path.endswith("getResults/"): self.wfile.write(p.stderr.read()) return self.send_error(404,'File Not Found: %s' % self.path) def main(): try: server = HTTPServer(('localhost', 9876), MyHandler) print 'Started server...' server.serve_forever() except KeyboardInterrupt: print 'Shutting down...' server.socket.close() if __name__ == '__main__': main() Which 'works', except for one part, when I try to open http://localhost:9876/start/, it does not return before the process ended. However, the 'started' appears in my shell immediately (I added this because I thought the Popen call would only return after execution). I do not know the perfect inner workings of Popen and BaseHTTPRequestHandler however and do not really know where it goes wrong. Is there any way to make this work asynchronously?

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  • Strategy Pattern with Type Reflection affecting Performances ?

    - by Aurélien Ribon
    Hello ! I am building graphs. A graph consists of nodes linked each other with links (indeed my dear). In order to assign a given behavior to each node, I implemented the strategy pattern. class Node { public BaseNodeBehavior Behavior {get; set;} } As a result, in many parts of the application, I am extensively using type reflection to know which behavior a node is. if (node.Behavior is NodeDataOutputBehavior) workOnOutputNode(node) .... My graph can get thousands of nodes. Is type reflection greatly affecting performances ? Should I use something else than the strategy pattern ? I'm using strategy because I need behavior inheritance. For example, basically, a behavior can be Data or Operator, a Data behavior can IO, Const or Intermediate and finally an IO behavior can be Input or Output. So if I use an enumeration, I wont be able to test for a node behavior to be of data kind, I will need to test it to be [Input, Output, Const or Intermediate]. And if later I want to add another behavior of Data kind, I'm screwed, every data-testing method will need to be changed.

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  • PySide Qt script doesn't launch from Spyder but works from shell

    - by Maxim Zaslavsky
    I have a weird bug in my project that uses PySide for its Qt GUI, and in response I'm trying to test with simpler code that sets up the environment. Here is the code I am testing with: http://stackoverflow.com/a/6906552/130164 When I launch that from my shell (python test.py), it works perfectly. However, when I run that script in Spyder, I get the following error: Traceback (most recent call last): File "/home/test/Desktop/test/test.py", line 31, in <module> app = QtGui.QApplication(sys.argv) RuntimeError: A QApplication instance already exists. If it helps, I also get the following warning: /usr/lib/pymodules/python2.6/matplotlib/__init__.py:835: UserWarning: This call to matplotlib.use() has no effect because the the backend has already been chosen; matplotlib.use() must be called *before* pylab, matplotlib.pyplot, or matplotlib.backends is imported for the first time. Why does that code work when launched from my shell but not from Spyder? Update: Mata answered that the problem happens because Spyder uses Qt, which makes sense. For now, I've set up execution in Spyder using the "Execute in an external system terminal" option, which doesn't cause errors but doesn't allow debugging, either. Does Spyder have any built-in workarounds to this?

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  • Jquery UI Dialog - when opened IE7 Browser moves instantly to the bottom of the page

    - by Truegilly
    Hello, i have been working on a new .net MVC site and have integrated some of the awesome jquery UI components. ive been testing it in IE8, FF, opera and Chrome and all looks well. Once I test in IE7, surprisingly its the dialogs that are causing a problem. basically what’s happening is that one you user clicks to open a dialog the page will scroll immediately to the bottom of the page. This is especially bad if the page is quite long. this only happens in IE7 (and probably 6 but im not even going there!). I have spend a few hours reading forums and it seems im not the only one. I have created a dirty hack which im not keen on but it does work. onclick="SignIn(); <% if(ModelHelperClass.CheckForOldIEVersion() == true) Response.Write("window.scrollTo(0, 0);"); %> return false;"> has anyone else had this issue and resolved it without resorting to dirty hacks ? im using jquery-ui-1.8.custom.min.js and jquery-1.4.2.min.js any help is most appreciated Truegilly

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  • Get instance of type inheriting from base class, implementing interface, using StructureMap

    - by Ben
    Continuing on my quest for a good plugin implementation I have been testing the StructureMap assembly scanning features. All plugins will inherit from abstract class PluginBase. This will provide access to common application services such as logging. Depending on it's function, each plugin may then implement additional interfaces, for example, IStartUpTask. I am initializing my plugins like so: Scan(x => { x.AssembliesFromPath(HttpContext.Current.Server.MapPath("~/Plugins"), assembly => assembly.GetName().Name.Contains("Extension")); x.AddAllTypesOf<PluginBase>(); }); The difficulty I am then having is how to work against the interface (not the PluginBase) in code. It's easy enough to work with PluginBase: var plugins = ObjectFactory.GetAllInstances<PluginBase>(); foreach (var plugin in plugins) { } But specific functionality (e.g. IStartUpTask.RunTask) is tied to the interface, not the base class. I appreciate this may not be specific to structuremap (perhaps more a question of reflection). Thanks, Ben

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  • Dumping an ADODB recordset to XML, then back to a recordset, then saving to the db

    - by Mark Biek
    I've created an XML file using the .Save() method of an ADODB recordset in the following manner. dim res dim objXML: Set objXML = Server.CreateObject("MSXML2.DOMDocument") 'This returns an ADODB recordset set res = ExecuteReader("SELECT * from some_table) With res Call .Save(objXML, 1) Call .Close() End With Set res = nothing Let's assume that the XML generated above then gets saved to a file. I'm able to read the XML back into a recordset like this: dim res : set res = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.recordset") res.open server.mappath("/admin/tbl_some_table.xml") And I can loop over the records without any problem. However what I really want to do is save all of the data in res to a table in a completely different database. We can assume that some_table already exists in this other database and has the exact same structure as the table I originally queried to make the XML. I started by creating a new recordset and using AddNew to add all of the rows from res to the new recordset dim outRes : set outRes = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.recordset") dim outConn : set outConn = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") dim testConnStr : testConnStr = "DRIVER={SQL Server};SERVER=dev-windows\sql2000;UID=myuser;PWD=mypass;DATABASE=Testing" outConn.open testConnStr outRes.activeconnection = outConn outRes.cursortype = adOpenDynamic outRes.locktype = adLockOptimistic outRes.source = "product_accessories" outRes.open while not res.eof outRes.addnew for i=0 to res.fields.count-1 outRes(res.fields(i).name) = res(res.fields(i).name) next outRes.movefirst res.movenext wend outRes.updatebatch But this bombs the first time I try to assign the value from res to outRes. Microsoft OLE DB Provider for ODBC Drivers error '80040e21' Multiple-step OLE DB operation generated errors. Check each OLE DB status value, if available. No work was done. Can someone tell me what I'm doing wrong or suggest a better way for me to copy the data loaded from XML to a different database?

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