Search Results

Search found 10033 results on 402 pages for 'fuzz testing'.

facebook twitter digg google delicious technorati stumbleupon myspace wordpress linkedin gmail igoogle windows live tumblr viadeo yahoo buzz yahoo mail yahoo bookmarks favorites email print

Page 330/402 | < Previous Page | 326 327 328 329 330 331 332 333 334 335 336 337  | Next Page >

  • Perl program for extracting the functions alone in a Ruby file

    - by thillaiselvan
    Hai all, I am having the following Ruby program. puts "hai" def mult(a,b) a * b end puts "hello" def getCostAndMpg cost = 30000 # some fancy db calls go here mpg = 30 return cost,mpg end AltimaCost, AltimaMpg = getCostAndMpg puts "AltimaCost = #{AltimaCost}, AltimaMpg = {AltimaMpg}" I have written a perl script which will extract the functions alone in a Ruby file as follows while (<DATA>){ print if ( /def/ .. /end/ ); } Here the <DATA> is reading from the ruby file. So perl prograam produces the following output. def mult(a,b) a * b end def getCostAndMpg cost = 30000 # some fancy db calls go here mpg = 30 return cost,mpg end But, if the function is having block of statements, say for example it is having an if condition testing block means then it is not working. It is taking only up to the "end" of "if" block. And it is not taking up to the "end" of the function. So kindly provide solutions for me. Example: def function if x > 2 puts "x is greater than 2" elsif x <= 2 and x!=0 puts "x is 1" else puts "I can't guess the number" end #----- My code parsing only up to this end Thanks in Advance!

    Read the article

  • Jquery problem - cant expand the row above in a table

    - by apg1985
    Hi People, What I cant figure out is how I would toggle a row in a table using the one below it. So say I have a table with 2 rows the first contains content and the one below contains a button, when the page loads the content row is hidden and when you click the button it toggles the content row on and off. In the example the first table works but the second does not, I need the second one to work. <!DOCTYPE HTML> <html> <head> <title>Testing Horizontal Accordion</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $(".sectionhead").toggle( function() { $(this).next("tr").hide(); }, function() { $(this).next("tr").show(); } ) }); </script> </head> <body> <table> <tr class="sectionhead"><td></td></tr> <tr class="child"><td>child</td></tr> </table> <br> <table> <tr class="child"><td>child</td></tr> <tr class="sectionhead"><td></td></tr> </table> </body> </html>

    Read the article

  • (Not So) Silly Objective-C inheritance problem when using property - GCC Bug?

    - by Ben Packard
    Update 2 - Many people are insisting I need to declare an iVar for the property. Some are saying not so, as I am using Modern Runtime (64 bit). I can confirm that I have been successfully using @property without iVars for months now. Therefore, I think the 'correct' answer is an explanation as to why on 64bit I suddenly have to explicitly declare the iVar when (and only when) i'm going to access it from a child class. The only one I've seen so far is a possible GCC bug (thanks Yuji). Not so simple after all... Update - I messed up one line of the original copy and paste - corrected. The @property call was missing (nonatomic, retain) but is a red herring - STILL NEED AN ANSWER! Thanks. I've been scratching my head with this for a couple of hours - I haven't used inheritance much. Here I have set up a simple Test B class that inherits from Test A, where an ivar is declared. But I get the compilation error that the variable is undeclared. This only happens when I add the property and synthesize declarations - works fine without them. TestA Header: #import <Cocoa/Cocoa.h> @interface TestA : NSObject { NSString *testString; } @end TestA Implementation is empty: #import "TestA.h" @implementation TestA @end TestB Header: #import <Cocoa/Cocoa.h> #import "TestA.h" @interface TestB : TestA { } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString *testProp; @end TestB Implementation (Error - 'testString' is undeclared) #import "TestB.h" @implementation TestB @synthesize testProp; - (void)testing{ NSLog(@"test ivar is %@", testString); } @end

    Read the article

  • Browser performance when combining image resizing with animated movement

    - by Steve Reichgut
    I have been tasked with the job of converting a Flash animation into HTML. The animation is rather complex and requires the need to move multiple images (9) from location (x,y) to location (x2,y2) while simultaneously increasing the image size from 215px wide to 930px wide. While doing some initial testing of this animation with just 1-2 images, I noticed a lot of choppiness in FF handling of this animation. To try and isolate the problem, I removed the dynamic resizing of the animation and just moved it from point A to point B. What was interesting was that I saw the same behavior when simply moving a 930px image that was resized down to 215px (via the CSS width or inline width properties). When I try the same animation with a different image that is actually 215px wide, it performed smoothly. I then tried the same animation with the original 930px wide image (with no resizing) and it performed well also. This makes me wonder if the browser is having to "resize" the image down to 215px each time it is moved which is causing the choppiness. Is this a correct assumption? If so, is there any other way to optimize the animation to allow for simultaneous image resizing and image movement? Notes: 1) One optimization I have done is to position the images absolutely in order to minimize the reflow process. 2) I have tested the animation using both jQuery and the fX animation framework.

    Read the article

  • Could my forms be hacked.

    - by Mike Sandman
    Hi there, I posted a question yesterday, which I intend to get back to today however I wrote some JavaScript as a first line of prevention against XSS. However when testing this on my live server I catch some invalid input as the javascript catches the php section. My form uses post and php isn't in my form items (i haven't typed it in). Could this be picking up the form action or something? I'm baffeled, Any ideas Here is my code, it is triggered on the submit button. function validateForBadNess(){ var theShit = new Array("*","^", "$", "(",")","{", "}","[", "]","\", "|", "'","/","?",",","=","","gt","lt", "<","script","`","´","php"); var tagName = new Array(); tagName[0] = "input"; tagName[1] = "select"; tagName[2] = "textbox"; tagName[3] = "textarea"; for (ms=0;ms // loop through the elements of the form var formItems = document.getElementsByTagName(tagName[ms]); for (var xs=0;xs var thisString = formItems[xs].value; // loop through bad array for (zs in theShit){ //alert(thisString + " " + thisString.indexOf(theShit[zs])) if(thisString.indexOf(theShit[zs]) >= 0){ alert("Sorry but the following character: " + theShit[zs] + " is not permitted. Please omit it from your input.\nIf this is part of your password please contact us to heave your password reset.") return false; } } // loop for formitems } // tagName toop } // original condition }

    Read the article

  • Working with Decimal fields in SSIS

    - by CoffeeAddict
    I'm using SQL Server 2008 w/SP2. I've got an incoming decimal(9,2) field incoming through my OLE DB transformation to my recordset destination transformation. It's like it's reading it as something other than a decimal? I don't know..I'm not an SSIS guru. So continuing on...the problem I have starts here with me trying to stuff the value into a variable for this decimal field. In a foreach loop, I have a variable to represent this decimal field so I can work with it. The first problem that I believe is pretty well known is SSIS variables do not have a decimal type. And from my own testing and what I've read out there, people are using type object for the variable to make SSIS "happy" with decimal values? It makes mine happy. But, then in my foreach loop, I have a for loop. And inside that I'm using an E*xecute SQL Task transformation*. In it, I need to create a parameter mapping to my variable so I can work with that decimal field in my T-SQL call in here. So now I see a type decimal for the parameter and use it and set that to point to my variable. When I run SSIS and it hits my SQL call, I get this in my output window.: The type is not supported.DBTYPE_DECIMAL So I am hitting a wall here. All I wanna do is work with a decimal!!!

    Read the article

  • Blackberry application works in simulator but not device

    - by Kai
    I read some of the similar posts on this site that deal with what seems to be the same issue and the responses didn't really seem to clarify things for me. My application works fine in the simulator. I believe I'm on Bold 9000 with OS 4.6. The app is signed. My app makes an HTTP call via 3G to fetch an XML result. type is application/xhtml+xml. In the device, it gives no error. it makes no visual sign of error. I tell the try catch to print the results to the screen and I get nothing. HttpConnection was taken right out of the demos and works fine in sim. Since it gives no error, I begin to reflect back on things I recall reading back when the project began. deviceside=true? Something like that? My request is simply HttpConnection connection = (HttpConnection)Connector.open(url); where url is just a standard url, no get vars. Based on the amount of time I see the connection arrows in the corner of the screen, I assume the app is launching the initial communication to my server, then either getting a bad result, or it gets results and the persistent store is not functioning as expected. I have no idea where to begin with this. Posting code would be ridiculous since it would be basically my whole app. I guess my question is if anyone knows of any major differences with device versus simulator that could cause something like http connection or persistent store to fail? A build setting? An OS restriction? Any standard procedure I may have just not known about that everyone should do before beginning device testing? Thanks

    Read the article

  • PostgreSQL, Foreign Keys, Insert speed & Django

    - by Miles
    A few days ago, I ran into an unexpected performance problem with a pretty standard Django setup. For an upcoming feature, we have to regenerate a table hourly, containing about 100k rows of data, 9M on the disk, 10M indexes according to pgAdmin. The problem is that inserting them by whatever method literally takes ages, up to 3 minutes of 100% disk busy time. That's not something you want on a production site. It doesn't matter if the inserts were in a transaction, issued via plain insert, multi-row insert, COPY FROM or even INSERT INTO t1 SELECT * FROM t2. After noticing this isn't Django's fault, I followed a trial and error route, and hey, the problem disappeared after dropping all foreign keys! Instead of 3 minutes, the INSERT INTO SELECT FROM took less than a second to execute, which isn't too surprising for a table <= 20M on the disk. What is weird is that PostgreSQL manages to slow down inserts by 180x just by using 3 foreign keys. Oh, disk activity was pure writing, as everything is cached in RAM; only writes go to the disks. It looks like PostgreSQL is working very hard to touch every row in the referred tables, as 3MB/sec * 180s is way more data than the 20MB this new table takes on disk. No WAL for the 180s case, I was testing in psql directly, in Django, add ~50% overhead for WAL logging. Tried @commit_on_success, same slowness, I had even implemented multi row insert and COPY FROM with psycopg2. That's another weird thing, how can 10M worth of inserts generate 10x 16M log segments? Table layout: id serial primary, a bunch of int32, 3 foreign keys to small table, 198 rows, 16k on disk large table, 1.2M rows, 59 data + 89 index MB on disk large table, 2.2M rows, 198 + 210MB So, am I doomed to either drop the foreign keys manually or use the table in a very un-Django way by defining saving bla_id x3 and skip using models.ForeignKey? I'd love to hear about some magical antidote / pg setting to fix this.

    Read the article

  • Concurrent WCF calls via shared channel

    - by Kent Boogaart
    I have a web tier that forwards calls onto an application tier. The web tier uses a shared, cached channel to do so. The application tier services in question are stateless and have concurrency enabled. But they are not being called concurrently. If I alter the web tier to create a new channel on every call, then I do get concurrent calls onto the application tier. But I wanted to avoid that cost since it is functionally unnecessary for my scenario. I have no session state, and nor do I need to re-authenticate the caller each time. I understand that the creation of the channel factory is far more expensive than than the creation of the channels, but it is still a cost I'd like to avoid if possible. I found this article on MSDN that states: While channels and clients created by the channels are thread-safe, they might not support writing more than one message to the wire concurrently. If you are sending large messages, particularly if streaming, the send operation might block waiting for another send to complete. Firstly, I'm not sending large messages (just a lot of small ones since I'm doing load testing) but am still seeing the blocking behavior. Secondly, this is rather open-ended and unhelpful documentation. It says they "might not" support writing more than one message but doesn't explain the scenarios under which they would support concurrent messages. Can anyone shed some light on this?

    Read the article

  • Have to login twice. PHP sessions and login troubles with Chrome and Opera.

    - by Robert
    The problem I am encountering is that for my login form I have to login twice for the session to register properly, but only in Chrome (my version is 4.0.249.89) and Opera (my version is 10.10). Here is the stripped down code that I am testing on: Login Page: session_start(); $_SESSION['user_id'] = 8; $_SESSION['user_name'] = 'Jim'; session_write_close(); header('Location: http://www.my-domain-name.com/'); exit(); Home Page: session_start(); if ( isset($_SESSION['user_id']) ) { echo "You are logged in!"; } else { echo "You are NOT logged in!"; } Logout Page: session_start(); session_unset(); session_destroy(); header('Location: http://www.my-domain-name.com/'); exit(); Currently, under a fresh load with no cookies, if I go to my-domain-name.com/login/ it will redirect to the home page and say "You are NOT logged in!" but if I go there again it will say "You are logged in!". Any ideas? Thanks for your help.

    Read the article

  • Calculate posterior distribution of unknown mis-classification with PRTools in MATLAB

    - by Samuel Lampa
    I'm using the PRTools MATLAB library to train some classifiers, generating test data and testing the classifiers. I have the following details: N: Total # of test examples k: # of mis-classification for each classifier and class I want to do: Calculate and plot Bayesian posterior distributions of the unknown probabilities of mis-classification (denoted q), that is, as probability density functions over q itself (so, P(q) will be plotted over q, from 0 to 1). I have that (math formulae, not matlab code!): P(q|k,N) = Posterior * Prior / Normalization constant = P(k|q,N) * P(q|N) / P(k|N) The prior is set to 1, so I only need to calculate the posterior and normalization constant. I know that the posterior can be expressed as (where B(N,k) is the binomial coefficient): P(k|q,N) = B(N,k) * q^k * (1-q)^(N-k) ... so the Normalization constant is simply an integral of the posterior above, from 0 to 1: P(k|N) = B(N,k) * integralFromZeroToOne( q^k * (1-q)^(N-k) ) (The Binomial coefficient ( B(N,k) ) can be omitted thoughappears in both the posterior and normalization constant, so it can be omitted.) Now, I've heard that the integral for the normalization constant should be able to be calculated as a series ... something like: k!(N-k)! / (N+1)! Is that correct? (I have some lecture notes from with this series, but can't figure out if it is for the normalization constant integral, or for the posterior distribution of mis-classification (q)) Also, hints are welcome as how to practically calculate this? (factorials are easily creating truncation errors right?) ... AND, how to practically calculate the final plot (the posterior distribution over q, from 0 to 1).

    Read the article

  • Zend framework controller action helper

    - by guptanikhilchandra
    I am getting fatal error after adding the action helper class. I am trying to load layout corresponding to called layout. Following is my code snippet: First of all i added a helper class under application/controller/helpers: class Zend_Controller_Action_Helper_Layout extends Zend_Controller_Action_Helper_Abstract { public $pluginLoader; public function __construct() { // TODO Auto-generated Constructor $this->pluginLoader = new Zend_Loader_PluginLoader (); } public function preDispatch() { $bootstrap = $this->getActionController()->getInvokeArg('bootstrap'); $config = $bootstrap->getOptions(); $module = $this->getRequest()->getModuleName(); if (isset($config[$module]['resources']['layout']['layout'])) { $layoutScript = $config[$module]['resources']['layout']['layout']; $this->getActionController()->getHelper('layout')->setLayout($layoutScript); } } } Then i added a loader in bootstrap.php: protected function _initLayoutHelper() { $this->bootstrap('frontController'); Zend_Controller_Action_HelperBroker::addPath(APPLICATION_PATH .'/controllers/helpers'); $layout = Zend_Controller_Action_HelperBroker::addHelper(new Zend_Controller_Action_Helper_Layout()); } Following is my application.ini: [production] autoloaderNamespaces.tree = "Tree_" phpSettings.display_startup_errors = 0 phpSettings.display_errors = 0 includePaths.library = APPLICATION_PATH "/../library" bootstrap.path = APPLICATION_PATH "/Bootstrap.php" bootstrap.class = "Bootstrap" resources.frontController.controllerDirectory = APPLICATION_PATH "/controllers" resources.frontController.moduleDirectory = APPLICATION_PATH "/modules" resources.frontController.helperDirectory = APPLICATION_PATH "/controllers/helpers" resources.modules[] = "" contact.resources.frontController.defaultControllerName = "index" resources.layout.layoutPath = APPLICATION_PATH "/layouts/scripts" resources.layout.layout = layout admin.resources.layout.layout = admin admin.resources.layout.layoutPath = APPLICATION_PATH "/layouts/scripts" resources.view[] = [staging : production] [testing : production] phpSettings.display_startup_errors = 1 phpSettings.display_errors = 1 [development : production] phpSettings.display_startup_errors = 1 phpSettings.display_errors = 1 While running this code i am getting following errors: Warning: include(Zend\Controller\Action\Helper\LayoutLoader.php) [function.include]: failed to open stream: No such file or directory in D:\personal\proj\renovate\library\Zend\Loader.php on line 83 Warning: include() [function.include]: Failed opening 'Zend\Controller\Action\Helper\LayoutLoader.php' for inclusion (include_path='D:\personal\proj\renovate\application/../library;D:\personal\proj\renovate\library;.;C:\php5\pear') in D:\personal\proj\renovate\library\Zend\Loader.php on line 83 Fatal error: Class 'Zend_Controller_Action_Helper_LayoutLoader' not found in D:\personal\proj\renovate\application\Bootstrap.php on line 33 Kindly let me know, how can i come out from this issue. I am beginner in Zend Framework. Thanks Nikhil

    Read the article

  • POST xml to php with apache2

    - by Berry
    I'm working on an application that receives XML data via POST, processes it with a PHP script, and returns an XML response. I'm getting the XML with this PHP code: $requestStr = file_get_contents('php://input'); $requests = simplexml_load_string($requestStr); which works fine on the Linux-based product hardware using nginx as the server. However, for testing I'd like to be able to run it on my MacBook Pro, so I can avoid the "build image, install on product, reboot product, wait, test change" loop while I do targeted development on this XML processor. I enabled "web sharing" which starts up Apache, added a rewrite rule to point a convenient URI at my development source directory and used curl to send a request to my PHP script thus: curl -H "Content-Type:text/xml" -d @request.xml http://localhost/test/path/testscript "testscript" is handled by the PHP script fine, but when it goes to read "php:://input" I get nothing -- the empty string. Anyone have a clue why this would work under Linux with nginx and not under MacOS with Apache? I've googled and searched stackoverlow.com to no avail. Thanks for any answers. UPDATE: I've discovered that at least in this configuration, reading from php://stdin will work fine, while php://input will not. Who knew?

    Read the article

  • How do I protect the trunk from hapless newbies?

    - by Michael Haren
    A coworker relayed the following problem, let's say it's fictional to protect the guilty: A team of 5-10 works on a project which is issue-driven. That is, the typical flow goes like this: a chunk of work (bug, enhancement, etc.) is created as an issue in the issue tracker The issue is assigned to a developer The developer resolves the issue and commits their code changes to the trunk At release time, the frozen, and heavily tested trunk or release branch or whatever is built in release mode and released The problem he's having is that a couple newbies made several bad commits that weren't caught due to an unfortunate chain of events. This was followed by a bad release with a rollback or flurry of hot fixes. One idea we're toying with: Revoke commit access to the trunk for newbies and make them develop on a per-developer branch (we're using SVN): Good: newbies are isolated and can't hurt others Good: committers merge newbie branches with the trunk frequently Good: this enforces rigid code reviews Bad: this is burdensome on the committers (but there's probably no way around it since the code needs reviewed!) Bad: it might make traceability of trunk changes a little tougher since the reviewer would be doing the commit--not too sure on this. Update: Thank you, everyone, for your valuable input. I have concluded that this is far less a code/coder problem than I first presented. The root of the issue is that the release procedure failed to capture and test some poor quality changes to the trunk. Plugging that hole is most important. Relying on the false assumption that code in the trunk is "good" is not the solution. Once that hole--testing--is plugged, mistakes by everyone--newbie or senior--will be caught properly and dealt with accordingly. Next, a greater emphasis on code reviews and mentorship (probably driven by some systematic changes to encourage it) will go a long way toward improving code quality. With those two fixes in place, I don't think something as rigid or draconian as what I proposed above is necessary. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Have I found a security problem in an API or do I just not understand SSL?

    - by jamieb
    I'm working on building a set of Python bindings around an XML-based API provided by a vendor. The vendor requires that all transactions be conducted over SSL. Using a Linux box, I created a key file and a CSR for my application. Using their self-service web portal, I then generate a certificate using that CSR. Both the key file and the certificate are used when making the SSL request to the API. I'm now working on designing exception classes to make error messages more verbose (and, hopefully, more useful to developers using my bindings). Part of my testing has included altering the key file: transpose a couple characters here, replace 4 or 5 with random characters there, etc. To my surprise, altering the key file had no effect! As long as I didn't change the total length of it, the API didn't complain about a bad key file. The only way I was able to throw an error was by swapping in a completely different key from another application. At that point, the API complained about the Common Name not matching. Is this normal behavior or has the vendor not properly implemented SSL?

    Read the article

  • Can I get consistent CSS colors across browsers?

    - by Trevor Burnham
    I'm testing a new site, and I have a div with background-color: #bbf6bb; That seems innocuous enough to me. And yet, on my MacBook Pro, the color looks very different in Firefox 3.6 vs. Safari 4. In Safari, it's the color I'd expect from the hex value: a pale green. In Firefox, there's a definite bluish tint, making the color turquoise. I'm aware of color inconsistencies that result from different treatment of images across browsers, but in pure CSS? Really? I'm guessing that Firefox trying to correct for my display in hopes of delivering better consistency with print, but I'd much rather have my site look the same hue to my users regardless of their choice of browser. Any ideas? Can someone confirm that Firefox is the culprit here? [Update: This seems to have been a fluke. Specifically, it's a narrow issue with Firefox—see my answer below. I'm puzzled, but relieved.]

    Read the article

  • MySql too many connections

    - by MichaelMcCabe
    I hate to bring up a question which is widely asked on the web, but I cant seem to solve it. I started a project a while back and after a month of testing, I hit a "Too many connections" error. I looked into it, and "Solved" it by increasing the max_connections. This then worked. Since then more and more people started to use it, and it hit again. When I am the only user on the site, i type "show processlist" and it comes up with about 50 connections which are still open (saying "Sleep" in the command). Now, I dont know enough to speculate why these are open, but in my code I tripple checked and every connection I open, I close. ie. public int getSiteIdFromName(String name, String company)throws DataAccessException,java.sql.SQLException{ Connection conn = this.getSession().connection(); Statement smt = conn.createStatement(); ResultSet rs=null; String query="SELECT id FROM site WHERE name='"+name+"' and company_id='"+company+"'"; rs=smt.executeQuery(query); rs.next(); int id=rs.getInt("id"); rs.close(); smt.close(); conn.close(); return id; } Every time I do something else on the site, another load of connections are opened and not closed. Is there something wrong with my code? and if not, what could be the problem?

    Read the article

  • jQuery modal dialog on ajaxStart event

    - by bdl
    I'm trying to use a jQuery UI modal dialog as a loading indicator via the ajaxStart, ajaxStop / ajaxComplete events. When the page fires, an Ajax handler loads some data, and the modal dialog shows just fine. However, it never hides or closes the dialog when the Ajax event is complete. It's a very small bit of code from the local server that is returned, so the actual Ajax event is very quick. Here's my actual code for the modal div: $("#modalwindow").dialog({ modal: true, height: 50, width: 200, zIndex: 999, resizable: false, title: "Please wait..." }) .bind("ajaxStart", function(){ $(this).show(); }) .bind("ajaxStop", function(){ $(this).hide(); }); The Ajax event is just a plain vanilla $.ajax({}) GET method call. Based on some searching here and Google, I've tried altering the ajaxStop handler to use $("#modalwindow").close(), $("#modalwindow").destroy(), etc. (#modalwindow referred to here as to give explicit context). I've also tried using the standard $("#modalwindow").dialog({}).ajaxStart(... as well. Should I be binding the events to a different object? Or calling them from within the $.ajax() complete event? I should mention, I'm testing on the latest IE8, FF 3.6 and Chrome. All have the same / effect.

    Read the article

  • Deployment problems of asp.net 3.5 in iis 5.1

    - by peter
    i have microsoft.net 3.5 application and have IIS5.1,,for deploying website do i need to do any thing aother than this 1.In IIS i created virtual directory named SPA and i browsed in to the location where my project is lacated and i added entire project file there( Do i need to add only bin file and login page or i need to add all pages???) 2.In asp.net folder i selected tab version 2.0,, 3.when i browsed i can see all pages when i click login.aspx i am getting this error [SqlException (0x80131904): User does not have permission to perform this action.] System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnection.OnError(SqlException exception, Boolean breakConnection) +821651 System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.ThrowExceptionAndWarning(TdsParserStateObject stateObj) +186 System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.Run(RunBehavior runBehavior, SqlCommand cmdHandler, SqlDataReader dataStream, BulkCopySimpleResultSet bulkCopyHandler, TdsParserStateObject stateObj) +1932 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.CompleteLogin(Boolean enlistOK) +33 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.AttemptOneLogin(ServerInfo serverInfo, String newPassword, Boolean ignoreSniOpenTimeout, Int64 timerExpire, SqlConnection owningObject) +172 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.LoginNoFailover(String host, String newPassword, Boolean redirectedUserInstance, SqlConnection owningObject, SqlConnectionString connectionOptions, Int64 timerStart) +381 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.OpenLoginEnlist(SqlConnection owningObject, SqlConnectionString connectionOptions, String newPassword, Boolean redirectedUserInstance) +181 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds..ctor(DbConnectionPoolIdentity identity, SqlConnectionString connectionOptions, Object providerInfo, String newPassword, SqlConnection owningObject, Boolean redirectedUserInstance) +173 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnectionFactory.CreateConnection(DbConnectionOptions options, Object poolGroupProviderInfo, DbConnectionPool pool, DbConnection owningConnection) +133 System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.CreatePooledConnection(DbConnection owningConnection, DbConnectionPool pool, DbConnectionOptions options) +30 System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionPool.CreateObject(DbConnection owningObject) +424 System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionPool.UserCreateRequest(DbConnection owningObject) +66 System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionPool.GetConnection(DbConnection owningObject) +494 System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.GetConnection(DbConnection owningConnection) +82 System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionClosed.OpenConnection(DbConnection outerConnection, DbConnectionFactory connectionFactory) +105 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection.Open() +111 ChatTool.LoginForm.Page_Load(Object sender, EventArgs e) in D:\Chat tool_Ameya\ProjectCode\Unisys Project Testing\Unisys Project\Login.aspx.cs:25 System.Web.Util.CalliHelper.EventArgFunctionCaller(IntPtr fp, Object o, Object t, EventArgs e) +15 System.Web.Util.CalliEventHandlerDelegateProxy.Callback(Object sender, EventArgs e) +33 System.Web.UI.Control.OnLoad(EventArgs e) +99 System.Web.UI.Control.LoadRecursive() +47 System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) +1436

    Read the article

  • Bidirectional/Loopback UDP in .net

    - by Jason Williams
    I've got an app that needs to transmit and receive on the same port. This can happen in two cases: Where the PC is talking to a piece of remote hardware. It "replies to sender", so the datagrams come back in to my PC via the sending port. Where the PC is talking to itself (loopback mode) for testing and demoing (a test app feeds fake data into our main app via UDP). This only seems to fail when trying to achieve loopback. The only way I can get it working is to ensure that the receiver is set up first - something I cannot guarantee. Can anyone help narrow down my search by suggesting a "correct" way to implement the UdpClient(s) to handle the above situations reliably? (The only solution that I've found to work reliably with the remote hardware is to use a single UdpClient in a bidirectional manner, although I'm working with legacy code that may be influencing that finding. I've tried using two UdpClients, but they step on each others toes - In some cases, once one client is started up, the other client cannot connect. With ExclusiveAddressUse/ReuseAddress set up to allow port sharing, I can almost get it to work, apart from the receiver having to start first)

    Read the article

  • Use different configurations with Simple Injection

    - by Ruben.Canton
    I'm using the library "Simple Injector" (http://simpleinjector.codeplex.com) and it looks cool and nice. But after building a configuration and use it, now I want to know how to change from one configuration to another. Scenario: Let's imagine I've set up a configuration in the Global Asax and I have the public and global Container there. Now I want to make some tests and I want them to use mock classes so I want to change the configuration. I can, of course, build another configuration and assign it to the global Container created by default, so that every time I run a test the alternative configuration will be set. But on doing that and though I'm in development context the Container is changed for everyone, even for normal requests. I know I'm testing in this context and that shouldn't matter, but I have the feeling that this is not the way for doing this... and I wonder how to change from one configuration to another in the correct way. Note: At Simple Injector documentation says that you can ask questions in stackoverflow so that's why I'm here. =P PD: I'm new in this IoC and DI world so try to be easy with me when explaining it :)

    Read the article

  • Payment gateways and XSS

    - by Rowan Parker
    Hi all, I'm working on a website which takes payment from a customer. I'm using Kohana 2.3.4 and have created a library to handle the payment gateway I use (www.eway.com.au). Basically I'm just using their sample code, copied into it's own class. Anyway, the code works fine and I can make payments, etc. The issue I have is when the payment gateway is returning the user to my site. The payment gateway uses HTTPS so that is secure, and it is sending the user back to a HTTPS page on my site. However I have the NoScript plugin installed in Firefox, and when I get sent back to the page on my website (which also handles storing the transaction data) I get an error message saying that NoScript has blocked a potential XSS attack. Now I understand why it's unsecure (POST data being sent across two different domains) but what should I be doing instead? Obviously during my testing here I temporarily disable NoScript and it all works fine, but I can't rely on that for the end users. What's the best practice here?

    Read the article

  • ArrayAccess multidimensional (un)set?

    - by anomareh
    I have a class implementing ArrayAccess and I'm trying to get it to work with a multidimensional array. exists and get work. set and unset are giving me a problem though. class ArrayTest implements ArrayAccess { private $_arr = array( 'test' => array( 'bar' => 1, 'baz' => 2 ) ); public function offsetExists($name) { return isset($this->_arr[$name]); } public function offsetSet($name, $value) { $this->_arr[$name] = $value; } public function offsetGet($name) { return $this->_arr[$name]; } public function offsetUnset($name) { unset($this->_arr[$name]); } } $arrTest = new ArrayTest(); isset($arrTest['test']['bar']); // Returns TRUE echo $arrTest['test']['baz']; // Echo's 2 unset($arrTest['test']['bar']; // Error $arrTest['test']['bar'] = 5; // Error I know $_arr could just be made public so you could access it directly, but for my implementation it's not desired and is private. The last 2 lines throw an error: Notice: Indirect modification of overloaded element. I know ArrayAccess just generally doesn't work with multidimensional arrays, but is there anyway around this or any somewhat clean implementation that will allow the desired functionality? The best idea I could come up with is using a character as a separator and testing for it in set and unset and acting accordingly. Though this gets really ugly really fast if you're dealing with a variable depth. Does anyone know why exists and get work so as to maybe copy over the functionality? Thanks for any help anyone can offer.

    Read the article

  • Admob banner not getting remove from superview

    - by Gamer
    I am developing one 2d game using cocos2d framework, in this game i am using admob for advertising, in some classes not in all classes but admob banner is visible in every class and after some time game getting crash also. I am not getting how admob banner is comes in every class in fact i have not declare in Rootviewcontroller class. can any one suggest me how to integrate Admob in cocos2d game, i want Admob banner in particular classes not in every class, I am using latest google admob sdk, my code is below: Thanks in advance ` -(void)AdMob{ NSLog(@"ADMOB"); CGSize winSize = [[CCDirector sharedDirector]winSize]; // Create a view of the standard size at the bottom of the screen. if (UI_USER_INTERFACE_IDIOM() == UIUserInterfaceIdiomPad){ bannerView_ = [[GADBannerView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(size.width/2-364, size.height - GAD_SIZE_728x90.height, GAD_SIZE_728x90.width, GAD_SIZE_728x90.height)]; } else { // It's an iPhone bannerView_ = [[GADBannerView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(size.width/2-160, size.height - GAD_SIZE_320x50.height, GAD_SIZE_320x50.width, GAD_SIZE_320x50.height)]; } if (UI_USER_INTERFACE_IDIOM() == UIUserInterfaceIdiomPad) { bannerView_.adUnitID =@"a15062384653c9e"; } else { bannerView_.adUnitID =@"a15062392a0aa0a"; } bannerView_.rootViewController = self; [[[CCDirector sharedDirector]openGLView]addSubview:bannerView_]; [bannerView_ loadRequest:[GADRequest request]]; GADRequest *request = [[GADRequest alloc] init]; request.testing = [NSArray arrayWithObjects: GAD_SIMULATOR_ID, nil]; // Simulator [bannerView_ loadRequest:request]; } //best practice for removing the barnnerView_ -(void)removeSubviews{ NSArray* subviews = [[CCDirector sharedDirector]openGLView].subviews; for (id SUB in subviews){ [(UIView*)SUB removeFromSuperview]; [SUB release]; } NSLog(@"remove from view"); } //this makes the refreshTimer count -(void)targetMethod:(NSTimer *)theTimer{ //INCREASE OF THE TIMER AND SECONDS elapsedTime++; seconds++; //INCREASE OF THE MINUTOS EACH 60 SECONDS if (seconds>=60) { seconds=0; minutes++; [self removeSubviews]; [self AdMob]; } NSLog(@"TIME: %02d:%02d", minutes, seconds); } `

    Read the article

  • deactivate ' pin to start ' on Application List page when pinning an app via code using C#?

    - by Ahmed Ali
    i'm creating a windows phone app ,where i've put a button to pin the app to start screen , but when press and hold the app icon on application list screen i find that the pin to start option can be used ShellTile TileToFind = ShellTile.ActiveTiles.FirstOrDefault(x => x.NavigationUri.ToString().Contains("MainPage.xaml")); // Create the Tile if we didn't find that it already exists. if (TileToFind == null) { // Create the Tile object and set some initial properties for the Tile. // The Count value of 12 shows the number 12 on the front of the Tile. Valid values are 1-99. // A Count value of 0 indicates that the Count should not be displayed. StandardTileData NewTileData = new StandardTileData { BackgroundImage = new Uri("300.png", UriKind.Relative), Title = "apptitle", BackTitle = "title", BackContent = "testing ", BackBackgroundImage = null }; // Create the Tile and pin it to Start. This will cause a navigation to Start and a deactivation of our app. ShellTile.Create(new Uri("/MainPage.xaml", UriKind.Relative), NewTileData); } else { MessageBox.Show("Already Pinned"); } how can i disable the user from pinning the application again from application list screen

    Read the article

facebook twitter digg google delicious technorati stumbleupon myspace wordpress linkedin gmail igoogle windows live tumblr viadeo yahoo buzz yahoo mail yahoo bookmarks favorites email print

< Previous Page | 326 327 328 329 330 331 332 333 334 335 336 337  | Next Page >