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  • Method works on Emulator but no on Microsoft Surface unit?

    - by Roflcoptr
    I have the following code. The StartRecord method trows an error on the Microsoft Surface Unit. But when I'm testing it on the emulator, it all works great. Any hints how 1) to find the exception that is thrown on the Microsoft Surface Unit? 2) to find the error in the code? any assumptions? private void StartRecord(object sender, ContactEventArgs e) { isRecording = true; StartButton.IsEnabled = false; recordTimer = new Timer(10); recordTimer.Elapsed += new ElapsedEventHandler(recordTimer_Elapsed); PlaybackRoot.Visibility = System.Windows.Visibility.Collapsed; EllapsedRecord.Visibility = System.Windows.Visibility.Visible; InputLevel.Visibility = System.Windows.Visibility.Visible; long time = DateTime.Now.Ticks; String fileName = Convert.ToString(time) + ".wav"; Console.WriteLine(fileName); startTime = DateTime.UtcNow; recordTimer.Start(); record = new AudioRecording(fileName); record.getSampleAggregator().MaximumCalculated += new EventHandler<MaxSampleEventArgs>(AudioControl_MaximumCalculated); record.start(); }

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  • Stuggling with webkit-transition in javascript

    - by Mungbeans
    I've tried a few variations of using webkit-transition that I've found from googling but I've not been able to get any to work. I have some audio controls that I make appear on a click event, they appear suddenly and jerky so I want to fade them in. The target browser is iOS so I am trying webkit extensions. This is what I currently have: <div id = "controls"> <audio id = "audio" controls></audio> </div> #controls { position:absolute; top: 35px; left:73px; height: 20px; width: 180px; display:none; } #audio { opacity:0.0; } audio.src = clip; audio.addEventListener('pause', onPauseOrStop, false); audio.addEventListener('ended', onPauseOrStop, false); audio.play(); audioControls.style.display = 'block'; audio.style.setProperty("-webkit-transition", "opacity 0.4s"); audio.style.opacity = 0.7; The documentation for webkit-transition says it takes effect on a change in the property, so I was assuming changing style.opacity in the last line would kick it off. The controls appear with an opacity of 0.7 but I want it to fade in and that animation isn't happening. I also tried this: #audio { opacity:0.0; -webkit-transition-property: opacity; -webkit-transition-duration: 1s; -webkit-timing-function: ease-in; } Also tried audio.style.webkitTransition = "opacity 1.4s"; from this posting How to set CSS3 transition using javascript? I can't get anything to work, I'm testing on iOS, Safari desktop and Chrome. Same non result on all of them.

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  • SQL Server performance issue.

    - by Jit
    Hi Friends, I have been trying to analyze performance issue with SQL Server 2005. We have 30 jobs, one for each databases (30 databases, one per each client). The jobs run at early morning at an interval of 5 minutes. When I run the job individually for testing, for most of the databases it finishes in 7 to 9 minutes. But when these jobs run at early morning, I see few jobs taking 2 to 3 hours to finish and the same takes few minutes as mentioned above if ran independently. We dont have any other job scheduled during that time, other than these 30 jobs. If we restart the server then for 2 or so days all the jobs finishes in few minutes, but over the period of time (from 3rd day suddenly), few jobs start taking hours to finish. What could be the possible reason of performance degradation over the period of time? I verified all the SPs and we uses temp tables and I made sure none of the temp table is left without dropping at the end of SP. Let me know what are the possible reasons for such behavior. Appreciate your time and help. Thanks

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  • MySql too many connections

    - by MichaelMcCabe
    I hate to bring up a question which is widely asked on the web, but I cant seem to solve it. I started a project a while back and after a month of testing, I hit a "Too many connections" error. I looked into it, and "Solved" it by increasing the max_connections. This then worked. Since then more and more people started to use it, and it hit again. When I am the only user on the site, i type "show processlist" and it comes up with about 50 connections which are still open (saying "Sleep" in the command). Now, I dont know enough to speculate why these are open, but in my code I tripple checked and every connection I open, I close. ie. public int getSiteIdFromName(String name, String company)throws DataAccessException,java.sql.SQLException{ Connection conn = this.getSession().connection(); Statement smt = conn.createStatement(); ResultSet rs=null; String query="SELECT id FROM site WHERE name='"+name+"' and company_id='"+company+"'"; rs=smt.executeQuery(query); rs.next(); int id=rs.getInt("id"); rs.close(); smt.close(); conn.close(); return id; } Every time I do something else on the site, another load of connections are opened and not closed. Is there something wrong with my code? and if not, what could be the problem?

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  • Could my forms be hacked.

    - by Mike Sandman
    Hi there, I posted a question yesterday, which I intend to get back to today however I wrote some JavaScript as a first line of prevention against XSS. However when testing this on my live server I catch some invalid input as the javascript catches the php section. My form uses post and php isn't in my form items (i haven't typed it in). Could this be picking up the form action or something? I'm baffeled, Any ideas Here is my code, it is triggered on the submit button. function validateForBadNess(){ var theShit = new Array("*","^", "$", "(",")","{", "}","[", "]","\", "|", "'","/","?",",","=","","gt","lt", "<","script","`","´","php"); var tagName = new Array(); tagName[0] = "input"; tagName[1] = "select"; tagName[2] = "textbox"; tagName[3] = "textarea"; for (ms=0;ms // loop through the elements of the form var formItems = document.getElementsByTagName(tagName[ms]); for (var xs=0;xs var thisString = formItems[xs].value; // loop through bad array for (zs in theShit){ //alert(thisString + " " + thisString.indexOf(theShit[zs])) if(thisString.indexOf(theShit[zs]) >= 0){ alert("Sorry but the following character: " + theShit[zs] + " is not permitted. Please omit it from your input.\nIf this is part of your password please contact us to heave your password reset.") return false; } } // loop for formitems } // tagName toop } // original condition }

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  • Have to login twice. PHP sessions and login troubles with Chrome and Opera.

    - by Robert
    The problem I am encountering is that for my login form I have to login twice for the session to register properly, but only in Chrome (my version is 4.0.249.89) and Opera (my version is 10.10). Here is the stripped down code that I am testing on: Login Page: session_start(); $_SESSION['user_id'] = 8; $_SESSION['user_name'] = 'Jim'; session_write_close(); header('Location: http://www.my-domain-name.com/'); exit(); Home Page: session_start(); if ( isset($_SESSION['user_id']) ) { echo "You are logged in!"; } else { echo "You are NOT logged in!"; } Logout Page: session_start(); session_unset(); session_destroy(); header('Location: http://www.my-domain-name.com/'); exit(); Currently, under a fresh load with no cookies, if I go to my-domain-name.com/login/ it will redirect to the home page and say "You are NOT logged in!" but if I go there again it will say "You are logged in!". Any ideas? Thanks for your help.

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  • Payment gateways and XSS

    - by Rowan Parker
    Hi all, I'm working on a website which takes payment from a customer. I'm using Kohana 2.3.4 and have created a library to handle the payment gateway I use (www.eway.com.au). Basically I'm just using their sample code, copied into it's own class. Anyway, the code works fine and I can make payments, etc. The issue I have is when the payment gateway is returning the user to my site. The payment gateway uses HTTPS so that is secure, and it is sending the user back to a HTTPS page on my site. However I have the NoScript plugin installed in Firefox, and when I get sent back to the page on my website (which also handles storing the transaction data) I get an error message saying that NoScript has blocked a potential XSS attack. Now I understand why it's unsecure (POST data being sent across two different domains) but what should I be doing instead? Obviously during my testing here I temporarily disable NoScript and it all works fine, but I can't rely on that for the end users. What's the best practice here?

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  • Mysql select - improve performance

    - by realshadow
    Hey, I am working on an e-shop which sells products only via loans. I display 10 products per page in any category, each product has 3 different price tags - 3 different loan types. Everything went pretty well during testing time, query execution time was perfect, but today when transfered the changes to the production server, the site "collapsed" in about 2 minutes. The query that is used to select loan types sometimes hangs for ~10 seconds and it happens frequently and thus it cant keep up and its hella slow. The table that is used to store the data has approximately 2 milion records and each select looks like this: SELECT * FROM products_loans WHERE KOD IN("X17/Q30-10", "X17/12", "X17/5-24") AND 369.27 BETWEEN CENA_OD AND CENA_DO; 3 loan types and the price that needs to be in range between CENA_OD and CENA_DO, thus 3 rows are returned. But since I need to display 10 products per page, I need to run it trough a modified select using OR, since I didnt find any other solution to this. I have asked about it here, but got no answer. As mentioned in the referencing post, this has to be done separately since there is no column that could be used in a join (except of course price and code, but that ended very, very badly). Here is the show create table, kod and CENA_OD/CENA_DO very indexed via INDEX. CREATE TABLE `products_loans` ( `KOEF_ID` bigint(20) NOT NULL, `KOD` varchar(30) NOT NULL, `AKONTACIA` int(11) NOT NULL, `POCET_SPLATOK` int(11) NOT NULL, `koeficient` decimal(10,2) NOT NULL default '0.00', `CENA_OD` decimal(10,2) default NULL, `CENA_DO` decimal(10,2) default NULL, `PREDAJNA_CENA` decimal(10,2) default NULL, `AKONTACIA_SUMA` decimal(10,2) default NULL, `TYP_VYHODY` varchar(4) default NULL, `stage` smallint(6) NOT NULL default '1', PRIMARY KEY (`KOEF_ID`), KEY `CENA_OD` (`CENA_OD`), KEY `CENA_DO` (`CENA_DO`), KEY `KOD` (`KOD`), KEY `stage` (`stage`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8 And also selecting all loan types and later filtering them trough php doesnt work good, since each type has over 50k records and the select takes too much time as well... Any ides about improving the speed are appreciated.

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  • (Not So) Silly Objective-C inheritance problem when using property - GCC Bug?

    - by Ben Packard
    Update 2 - Many people are insisting I need to declare an iVar for the property. Some are saying not so, as I am using Modern Runtime (64 bit). I can confirm that I have been successfully using @property without iVars for months now. Therefore, I think the 'correct' answer is an explanation as to why on 64bit I suddenly have to explicitly declare the iVar when (and only when) i'm going to access it from a child class. The only one I've seen so far is a possible GCC bug (thanks Yuji). Not so simple after all... Update - I messed up one line of the original copy and paste - corrected. The @property call was missing (nonatomic, retain) but is a red herring - STILL NEED AN ANSWER! Thanks. I've been scratching my head with this for a couple of hours - I haven't used inheritance much. Here I have set up a simple Test B class that inherits from Test A, where an ivar is declared. But I get the compilation error that the variable is undeclared. This only happens when I add the property and synthesize declarations - works fine without them. TestA Header: #import <Cocoa/Cocoa.h> @interface TestA : NSObject { NSString *testString; } @end TestA Implementation is empty: #import "TestA.h" @implementation TestA @end TestB Header: #import <Cocoa/Cocoa.h> #import "TestA.h" @interface TestB : TestA { } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString *testProp; @end TestB Implementation (Error - 'testString' is undeclared) #import "TestB.h" @implementation TestB @synthesize testProp; - (void)testing{ NSLog(@"test ivar is %@", testString); } @end

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  • Deployment problems of asp.net 3.5 in iis 5.1

    - by peter
    i have microsoft.net 3.5 application and have IIS5.1,,for deploying website do i need to do any thing aother than this 1.In IIS i created virtual directory named SPA and i browsed in to the location where my project is lacated and i added entire project file there( Do i need to add only bin file and login page or i need to add all pages???) 2.In asp.net folder i selected tab version 2.0,, 3.when i browsed i can see all pages when i click login.aspx i am getting this error [SqlException (0x80131904): User does not have permission to perform this action.] System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnection.OnError(SqlException exception, Boolean breakConnection) +821651 System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.ThrowExceptionAndWarning(TdsParserStateObject stateObj) +186 System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.Run(RunBehavior runBehavior, SqlCommand cmdHandler, SqlDataReader dataStream, BulkCopySimpleResultSet bulkCopyHandler, TdsParserStateObject stateObj) +1932 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.CompleteLogin(Boolean enlistOK) +33 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.AttemptOneLogin(ServerInfo serverInfo, String newPassword, Boolean ignoreSniOpenTimeout, Int64 timerExpire, SqlConnection owningObject) +172 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.LoginNoFailover(String host, String newPassword, Boolean redirectedUserInstance, SqlConnection owningObject, SqlConnectionString connectionOptions, Int64 timerStart) +381 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.OpenLoginEnlist(SqlConnection owningObject, SqlConnectionString connectionOptions, String newPassword, Boolean redirectedUserInstance) +181 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds..ctor(DbConnectionPoolIdentity identity, SqlConnectionString connectionOptions, Object providerInfo, String newPassword, SqlConnection owningObject, Boolean redirectedUserInstance) +173 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnectionFactory.CreateConnection(DbConnectionOptions options, Object poolGroupProviderInfo, DbConnectionPool pool, DbConnection owningConnection) +133 System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.CreatePooledConnection(DbConnection owningConnection, DbConnectionPool pool, DbConnectionOptions options) +30 System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionPool.CreateObject(DbConnection owningObject) +424 System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionPool.UserCreateRequest(DbConnection owningObject) +66 System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionPool.GetConnection(DbConnection owningObject) +494 System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.GetConnection(DbConnection owningConnection) +82 System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionClosed.OpenConnection(DbConnection outerConnection, DbConnectionFactory connectionFactory) +105 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection.Open() +111 ChatTool.LoginForm.Page_Load(Object sender, EventArgs e) in D:\Chat tool_Ameya\ProjectCode\Unisys Project Testing\Unisys Project\Login.aspx.cs:25 System.Web.Util.CalliHelper.EventArgFunctionCaller(IntPtr fp, Object o, Object t, EventArgs e) +15 System.Web.Util.CalliEventHandlerDelegateProxy.Callback(Object sender, EventArgs e) +33 System.Web.UI.Control.OnLoad(EventArgs e) +99 System.Web.UI.Control.LoadRecursive() +47 System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) +1436

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  • Button Onclick event (which is in codbehind) doesn't get triggered in MVC 2

    - by rksprst
    I had an MVC 1.0 web application that was in VS 2008; I just upgraded the project to VS 2010 which automatically upgraded MVC to 2.0. I have a bunch of viewpages have codebehind files that were manually added. The project worked fine before the upgrade, but now the onclick even't don't get triggered. I.e. I have an asp:button with an onclick event that points to a method in the codebehind. When you click the button, the onclick event doesn't get triggered. In fact, when you look at the Page variable, IsPostBack is false. This is really bizarre and I'm wondering if anyone know what happened and how to fix it. I'm thinking it has something to do with the changes in MVC 2.0; but I'm not sure. Any help is really appreciated, I've been trying to figure this out for a while. (deleting the codebehinds and moving that to the controller is not really an option since there is so many pages, moving back to vs 2008 is a last resort as I want to make use of some of the VS 2010 features like performance testing.)

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  • Creating a Ruby method that pads an Array

    - by CJ Johnson
    I'm working on creating a method that pads an array, and accepts 1. a desired value and 2. an optional string/integer value. Desired_size reflects the desired number of elements in the array. If a string/integer is passed in as the second value, this value is used to pad the array with extra elements. I understand there is a 'fill' method that can shortcut this - but that would be cheating for the homework I'm doing. The issue: no matter what I do, only the original array is returned. I started here: class Array def pad(desired_size, value = nil) desired_size >= self.length ? return self : (desired_size - self.length).times.do { |x| self << value } end end test_array = [1, 2, 3] test_array.pad(5) From what I researched the issue seemed to be around trying to alter self's array, so I learned about .inject and gave that a whirl: class Array def pad(desired_size, value = nil) if desired_size >= self.length return self else (desired_size - self.length).times.inject { |array, x| array << value } return array end end end test_array = [1, 2, 3] test_array.pad(5) The interwebs tell me the problem might be with any reference to self so I wiped that out altogether: class Array def pad(desired_size, value = nil) array = [] self.each { |x| array << x } if desired_size >= array.length return array else (desired_size - array.length).times.inject { |array, x| array << value } return array end end end test_array = [1, 2, 3] test_array.pad(5) I'm very new to classes and still trying to learn about them. Maybe I'm not even testing them the right way with my test_array? Otherwise, I think the issue is I get the method to recognize the desired_size value that's being passed in. I don't know where to go next. Any advice would be appreciated. Thanks in advance for your time.

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  • Facebook Stream.Get -- How to access data in array?

    - by user316841
    On stream.get, I try to echo $feeds["posts"][$i]["attachment"]["href"]; It return the URL, but, in the same array scope where "type" is located (which returns string: video, etc), trying $feeds["posts"][$i]["attachment"]["type"] returns nothing at all! Here's an array through PHP's var_dump: http://pastie.org/930475 So, from testing I suppose this is protected by Facebook? Does that makes sense at all? Here it's full: http://pastie.org/930490, but not all attachment/media/types has values. It's also strange, because I can't access through [attachment][media][href] or [attachment][media][type], and if I try [attachment][media][0][type] or href, it gives me a string offset error. ["attachment"]=> array(8) { ["media"]=> array(1) { [0]=> array(5) { ["href"]=> string(55) "http://www.facebook.com/video/video.php?v=1392999461587" ["alt"]=> string(13) "IN THE STUDIO" ["type"]=> string(5) "video" My question is, is this protected by Facebook? Or we can actually access this array position?

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  • Fluently setting C# properties and chaining methods

    - by John Feminella
    I'm using .NET 3.5. We have some complex third-party classes which are automatically generated and out of my control, but which we must work with for testing purposes. I see my team doing a lot of deeply-nested property getting/setting in our test code, and it's getting pretty cumbersome. To remedy the problem, I'd like to make a fluent interface for setting properties on the various objects in the hierarchical tree. There are a large number of properties and classes in this third-party library, and it would be too tedious to map everything manually. My initial thought was to just use object initializers. Red, Blue, and Green are properties, and Mix() is a method that sets a fourth property Color to the closest RGB-safe color with that mixed color. Paints must be homogenized with Stir() before they can be used. Bucket b = new Bucket() { Paint = new Paint() { Red = 0.4; Blue = 0.2; Green = 0.1; } }; That works to initialize the Paint, but I need to chain Mix() and other methods to it. Next attempt: Create<Bucket>(Create<Paint>() .SetRed(0.4) .SetBlue(0.2) .SetGreen(0.1) .Mix().Stir() ) But that doesn't scale well, because I'd have to define a method for each property I want to set, and there are hundreds of different properties in all the classes. Also, C# doesn't have a way to dynamically define methods prior to C# 4, so I don't think I can hook into things to do this automatically in some way. Third attempt: Create<Bucket>(Create<Paint>().Set(p => { p.Red = 0.4; p.Blue = 0.2; p.Green = 0.1; }).Mix().Stir() ) That doesn't look too bad, and seems like it'd be feasible. Is this an advisable approach? Is it possible to write a Set method that works this way? Or should I be pursuing an alternate strategy?

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  • Bidirectional/Loopback UDP in .net

    - by Jason Williams
    I've got an app that needs to transmit and receive on the same port. This can happen in two cases: Where the PC is talking to a piece of remote hardware. It "replies to sender", so the datagrams come back in to my PC via the sending port. Where the PC is talking to itself (loopback mode) for testing and demoing (a test app feeds fake data into our main app via UDP). This only seems to fail when trying to achieve loopback. The only way I can get it working is to ensure that the receiver is set up first - something I cannot guarantee. Can anyone help narrow down my search by suggesting a "correct" way to implement the UdpClient(s) to handle the above situations reliably? (The only solution that I've found to work reliably with the remote hardware is to use a single UdpClient in a bidirectional manner, although I'm working with legacy code that may be influencing that finding. I've tried using two UdpClients, but they step on each others toes - In some cases, once one client is started up, the other client cannot connect. With ExclusiveAddressUse/ReuseAddress set up to allow port sharing, I can almost get it to work, apart from the receiver having to start first)

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  • Calculate posterior distribution of unknown mis-classification with PRTools in MATLAB

    - by Samuel Lampa
    I'm using the PRTools MATLAB library to train some classifiers, generating test data and testing the classifiers. I have the following details: N: Total # of test examples k: # of mis-classification for each classifier and class I want to do: Calculate and plot Bayesian posterior distributions of the unknown probabilities of mis-classification (denoted q), that is, as probability density functions over q itself (so, P(q) will be plotted over q, from 0 to 1). I have that (math formulae, not matlab code!): P(q|k,N) = Posterior * Prior / Normalization constant = P(k|q,N) * P(q|N) / P(k|N) The prior is set to 1, so I only need to calculate the posterior and normalization constant. I know that the posterior can be expressed as (where B(N,k) is the binomial coefficient): P(k|q,N) = B(N,k) * q^k * (1-q)^(N-k) ... so the Normalization constant is simply an integral of the posterior above, from 0 to 1: P(k|N) = B(N,k) * integralFromZeroToOne( q^k * (1-q)^(N-k) ) (The Binomial coefficient ( B(N,k) ) can be omitted thoughappears in both the posterior and normalization constant, so it can be omitted.) Now, I've heard that the integral for the normalization constant should be able to be calculated as a series ... something like: k!(N-k)! / (N+1)! Is that correct? (I have some lecture notes from with this series, but can't figure out if it is for the normalization constant integral, or for the posterior distribution of mis-classification (q)) Also, hints are welcome as how to practically calculate this? (factorials are easily creating truncation errors right?) ... AND, how to practically calculate the final plot (the posterior distribution over q, from 0 to 1).

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  • How to manage sessions in NHibernate unit tests?

    - by Ben
    I am a little unsure as to how to manage sessions within my nunit test fixtures. In the following test fixture, I am testing a repository. My repository constructor takes in an ISession (since I will be using session per request in my web application). In my test fixture setup I configure NHibernate and build the session factory. In my test setup I create a clean SQLite database for each test executed. [TestFixture] public class SimpleRepository_Fixture { private static ISessionFactory _sessionFactory; private static Configuration _configuration; [TestFixtureSetUp] // called before any tests in fixture are executed public void TestFixtureSetUp() { _configuration = new Configuration(); _configuration.Configure(); _configuration.AddAssembly(typeof(SimpleObject).Assembly); _sessionFactory = _configuration.BuildSessionFactory(); } [SetUp] // called before each test method is called public void SetupContext() { new SchemaExport(_configuration).Execute(true, true, false); } [Test] public void Can_add_new_simpleobject() { var simpleObject = new SimpleObject() { Name = "Object 1" }; using (var session = _sessionFactory.OpenSession()) { var repo = new SimpleObjectRepository(session); repo.Save(simpleObject); } using (var session =_sessionFactory.OpenSession()) { var repo = new SimpleObjectRepository(session); var fromDb = repo.GetById(simpleObject.Id); Assert.IsNotNull(fromDb); Assert.AreNotSame(simpleObject, fromDb); Assert.AreEqual(simpleObject.Name, fromDb.Name); } } } Is this a good approach or should I be handling the sessions differently? Thanks Ben

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  • Scope of "library" methods

    - by JS
    Hello, I'm apparently laboring under a poor understanding of Python scoping. Perhaps you can help. Background: I'm using the 'if name in "main"' construct to perform "self-tests" in my module(s). Each self test makes calls to the various public methods and prints their results for visual checking as I develop the modules. To keep things "purdy" and manageable, I've created a small method to simplify the testing of method calls: def pprint_vars(var_in): print("%s = '%s'" % (var_in, eval(var_in))) Calling pprint_vars with: pprint_vars('some_variable_name') prints: some_variable_name = 'foo' All fine and good. Problem statement: Not happy to just KISS, I had the brain-drizzle to move my handy-dandy 'pprint_vars' method into a separate file named 'debug_tools.py' and simply import 'debug_tools' whenever I wanted access to 'pprint_vars'. Here's where things fall apart. I would expect import debug_tools foo = bar debug_tools.pprint_vars('foo') to continue working its magic and print: foo = 'bar' Instead, it greets me with: NameError: name 'some_var' is not defined Irrational belief: I believed (apparently mistakenly) that import puts imported methods (more or less) "inline" with the code, and thus the variable scoping rules would remain similar to if the method were defined inline. Plea for help: Can someone please correct my (mis)understanding of scoping regards imports? Thanks, JS

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  • Timer Service in ejb 3.1 - schedule calling timeout problem

    - by Greg
    Hi Guys, I have created simple example with @Singleton, @Schedule and @Timeout annotations to try if they would solve my problem. The scenario is this: EJB calls 'check' function every 5 secconds, and if certain conditions are met it will create single action timer that would invoke some long running process in asynchronous fashion. (it's sort of queue implementation type of thing). It then continues to check, but as long as long running process is there it won't start another one. Below is the code I came up with, but this solution does not work, because it looks like asynchronous call I'm making is in fact blocking my @Schedule method. @Singleton @Startup public class GenerationQueue { private Logger logger = Logger.getLogger(GenerationQueue.class.getName()); private List<String> queue = new ArrayList<String>(); private boolean available = true; @Resource TimerService timerService; @Schedule(persistent=true, minute="*", second="*/5", hour="*") public void checkQueueState() { logger.log(Level.INFO,"Queue state check: "+available+" size: "+queue.size()+", "+new Date()); if (available) { timerService.createSingleActionTimer(new Date(), new TimerConfig(null, false)); } } @Timeout private void generateReport(Timer timer) { logger.info("!!--timeout invoked here "+new Date()); available = false; try { Thread.sleep(1000*60*2); // something that lasts for a bit } catch (Exception e) {} available = true; logger.info("New report generation complete"); } What am I missing here or should I try different aproach? Any ideas most welcome :) Testing with Glassfish 3.0.1 latest build - forgot to mention

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  • Help with jQuery Ajax calling ASMX which returns string.

    - by Jason Evans
    Hi there. I have the following jQuery ajax call setup: function Testing() { var result = ''; $.ajax({ url: 'BookingUtils.asmx/GetNonBookableSlots', dataType: 'text', error: function(error) { alert('GetNonBookableSlots Error'); }, success: function(data) { alert('GetNonBookableSlots'); result = data; } }); return result; } Here is the web service I'm trying to call: [WebMethod] public string GetNonBookableSlots() { return "fhsdfuhsiufhsd"; } When I run the jQuery code, there is no error or success event fired (none of the alerts are called). In fact, nothing happens at all, the javascript code just moves on to return statement at the end. I put a breakpoint in the web service code and it does get hit, but when I leave that method I end up on the return statement anyway. Can someone give me some tips on how I should be configuring the ajax call correctly, as I feel that I'm doing this wrong. The webservice just needs to return a string, no XML or JSON involved. Cheers. Jas.

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  • jQuery modal dialog on ajaxStart event

    - by bdl
    I'm trying to use a jQuery UI modal dialog as a loading indicator via the ajaxStart, ajaxStop / ajaxComplete events. When the page fires, an Ajax handler loads some data, and the modal dialog shows just fine. However, it never hides or closes the dialog when the Ajax event is complete. It's a very small bit of code from the local server that is returned, so the actual Ajax event is very quick. Here's my actual code for the modal div: $("#modalwindow").dialog({ modal: true, height: 50, width: 200, zIndex: 999, resizable: false, title: "Please wait..." }) .bind("ajaxStart", function(){ $(this).show(); }) .bind("ajaxStop", function(){ $(this).hide(); }); The Ajax event is just a plain vanilla $.ajax({}) GET method call. Based on some searching here and Google, I've tried altering the ajaxStop handler to use $("#modalwindow").close(), $("#modalwindow").destroy(), etc. (#modalwindow referred to here as to give explicit context). I've also tried using the standard $("#modalwindow").dialog({}).ajaxStart(... as well. Should I be binding the events to a different object? Or calling them from within the $.ajax() complete event? I should mention, I'm testing on the latest IE8, FF 3.6 and Chrome. All have the same / effect.

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  • Is XMLReader a SAX parser, a DOM parser, or neither?

    - by Renesis
    I am testing various methods to read (possibly large, and very often) XML configuration files in PHP. No writing is ever needed. I have two successful implementations, one using SimpleXML (which I know is a DOM parser) and one using XMLReader. I know that a DOM reader must read the whole tree and therefore uses more memory. My tests reflect that. I also know that A SAX parser is an "event-based" parser that uses less memory because it reads each node from the stream without checking what is next. XMLReader also reads from a stream with the cursor providing data about the node it is currently at. So, it definitely sounds like XMLReader (http://us2.php.net/xmlreader) is not a DOM parser, but my question is, is it a SAX parser, or something else? It seems like XMLReader behaves the way a SAX parser does but does not throw the events themselves (in other words, can you construct a SAX parser with XMLReader?) If it is something else, does the classification it's in have a name?

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  • Verify an event was raised by mocked object

    - by joblot
    In my unit test how can I verify that an event is raised by the mocked object. I have a View(UI) -- ViewModel -- DataProvider -- ServiceProxy. ServiceProxy makes async call to serivce operation. When async operation is complete a method on DataProvider is called (callback method is passed as a method parameter). The callback method then raise and event which ViewModel is listening to. For ViewModel test I mock DataProvider and verify that handler exists for event raised by DataProvider. When testing DataProvider I mock ServiceProxy, but how can I test that callback method is called and event is raised. I am using RhinoMock 3.5 and AAA syntax Thanks -- DataProvider -- public partial class DataProvider { public event EventHandler<EntityEventArgs<ProductDefinition>> GetProductDefinitionCompleted; public void GetProductDefinition() { var service = IoC.Resolve<IServiceProxy>(); service.GetProductDefinitionAsync(GetProductDefinitionAsyncCallback); } private void GetProductDefinitionAsyncCallback(ProductDefinition productDefinition, ServiceError error) { OnGetProductDefinitionCompleted(this, new EntityEventArgs<ProductDefinition>(productDefinition, error)); } protected void OnGetProductDefinitionCompleted(object sender, EntityEventArgs<ProductDefinition> e) { if (GetProductDefinitionCompleted != null) GetProductDefinitionCompleted(sender, e); } } -- ServiceProxy -- public class ServiceProxy : ClientBase<IService>, IServiceProxy { public void GetProductDefinitionAsync(Action<ProductDefinition, ServiceError> callback) { Channel.BeginGetProductDefinition(EndGetProductDefinition, callback); } private void EndGetProductDefinition(IAsyncResult result) { Action<ProductDefinition, ServiceError> callback = result.AsyncState as Action<ProductDefinition, ServiceError>; ServiceError error; ProductDefinition results = Channel.EndGetProductDefinition(out error, result); if (callback != null) callback(results, error); } }

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  • How do I protect the trunk from hapless newbies?

    - by Michael Haren
    A coworker relayed the following problem, let's say it's fictional to protect the guilty: A team of 5-10 works on a project which is issue-driven. That is, the typical flow goes like this: a chunk of work (bug, enhancement, etc.) is created as an issue in the issue tracker The issue is assigned to a developer The developer resolves the issue and commits their code changes to the trunk At release time, the frozen, and heavily tested trunk or release branch or whatever is built in release mode and released The problem he's having is that a couple newbies made several bad commits that weren't caught due to an unfortunate chain of events. This was followed by a bad release with a rollback or flurry of hot fixes. One idea we're toying with: Revoke commit access to the trunk for newbies and make them develop on a per-developer branch (we're using SVN): Good: newbies are isolated and can't hurt others Good: committers merge newbie branches with the trunk frequently Good: this enforces rigid code reviews Bad: this is burdensome on the committers (but there's probably no way around it since the code needs reviewed!) Bad: it might make traceability of trunk changes a little tougher since the reviewer would be doing the commit--not too sure on this. Update: Thank you, everyone, for your valuable input. I have concluded that this is far less a code/coder problem than I first presented. The root of the issue is that the release procedure failed to capture and test some poor quality changes to the trunk. Plugging that hole is most important. Relying on the false assumption that code in the trunk is "good" is not the solution. Once that hole--testing--is plugged, mistakes by everyone--newbie or senior--will be caught properly and dealt with accordingly. Next, a greater emphasis on code reviews and mentorship (probably driven by some systematic changes to encourage it) will go a long way toward improving code quality. With those two fixes in place, I don't think something as rigid or draconian as what I proposed above is necessary. Thanks!

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  • How to access a TextView element in a BroadcastReceiver

    - by ric03uec
    Hello, I am testing a simple widget in android and using Alarms to update a TextView at regular intervals. The problem is that in the BroadcastReceiver class I cannot access the TextView element, which I want to get updated when the alarm expires. The class is being called properly because the Toast i have put there is giving the appropriate message. The following code is from the class where I configure the widget and set the timers. public void onCreate(Bundle bundle) { super.onCreate(bundle); Intent intent = getIntent(); Bundle extras = intent.getExtras(); if(extras != null){ mWidgetId = extras.getInt(AppWidgetManager.EXTRA_APPWIDGET_ID, AppWidgetManager.INVALID_APPWIDGET_ID); AppWidgetManager appWidgetManager = AppWidgetManager.getInstance(WidgetConfigure.this); RemoteViews views = new RemoteViews(WidgetConfigure.this.getPackageName(), R.layout.widget_layout); views.setTextViewText(R.id.quote, "Widget Loaded From Activity"); appWidgetManager.updateAppWidget(mWidgetId, views); setTimer(); //set the timers... setResult();// set the result... } } Now i want to update the same TextView when the BroadCastReceiver is called after the timer expires. I have tried the code provided in the ExampleAppWidget example provided in android api demos and that isnt working out. How can i set the required text? Thankx in advance

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