Search Results

Search found 10033 results on 402 pages for 'fuzz testing'.

Page 329/402 | < Previous Page | 325 326 327 328 329 330 331 332 333 334 335 336  | Next Page >

  • How can I create a properly sizing QWebView?

    - by chacham15
    I want to make a QWebView appear expanding to the width and height so that ideally it will have no scroll bars. Some websites may have fixed widths that wont allow this, but I am not concerned with those. In any case, I cannot do as I wish because QWebView implements sizeHint as follows: QSize QWebView::sizeHint() const { return QSize(800, 600); // ####... } This is incorrect on a number of levels. 1. It doesnt at all take into account the size of the actual web page. 2. It doesnt take into account that the height and width are related to each other. (To prove #2 think about text in web pages that wraps to the next line.) As a simple fix I tried to do (where QResizingWebView extends QWebView): QSize QResizingWebView::sizeHint() const{ return this-page()-mainFrame()-contentsSize(); } While this is closer to the result, it also has 2 flaws. 1. It doesnt take into account the relation between the displayed width/height. 2. this->page()->mainFrame()->contentsSize() is inaccurate from what I can tell from my preliminary testing (it has returned heights larger than it should under many cases, although this may be related to #1). Does anyone have any tips to fix this?

    Read the article

  • What are the worst examples of moral failure in the history of software engineering?

    - by Amanda S
    Many computer science curricula include a class or at least a lecture on disasters caused by software bugs, such as the Therac-25 incidents or Ariane 5 Flight 501. Indeed, Wikipedia has a list of software bugs with serious consequences, and a question on StackOverflow addresses some of them too. We study the failures of the past so that we don't repeat them, and I believe that rather than ignoring them or excusing them, it's important to look at these failures squarely and remind ourselves exactly how the mistakes made by people in our profession cost real money and real lives. By studying failures caused by uncaught bugs and bad process, we learn certain lessons about rigorous testing and accountability, and we make sure that our innocent mistakes are caught before they cause major problems. There are kinds of less innocent failure in software engineering, however, and I think it's just as important to study the serious consequences caused by programmers motivated by malice, greed, or just plain amorality. Thus we can learn about the ethical questions that arise in our profession, and how to respond when we are faced with them ourselves. Unfortunately, it's much harder to find lists of these failures--the only one I can come up with is that apocryphal "DOS ain't done 'til Lotus won't run" story. What are the worst examples of moral failure in the history of software engineering?

    Read the article

  • Team Build Reports as "Failed" Even Though All Targets Succeeded

    - by benjy
    Hi, I've written a custom MSBuild script to be used with Team Build, as I am storing PHP in TFS and of course it isn't compiled. My custom script calls the CoreGet target to get the latest version of the files, and the copies them, ZIPs, them, and FTPs the ZIP archive to a testing server. All of that is working fine. The problem I am having is that despite the build succeeding - see the output in BuildLog.txt - Done executing task "BuildStep". Done building target "FTP" in project "TFSBuild.proj". Done executing task "CallTarget". Done building target "EndToEndIteration" in project "TFSBuild.proj". Done Building Project "C:\Documents and Settings\tfsservice\Local Settings\Temp\Code\PHP\BuildType\TFSBuild.proj" (EndToEndIteration target(s)). Build succeeded. 0 Warning(s) 0 Error(s) the build still reports as having failed. The log from Visual Studio looks like so: Anyone know how I can make it report as having succeeded? Thanks very much in advance, Benjy P.S.: Please let me know if anyone would find having the whole build script helpful. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • PySide Qt script doesn't launch from Spyder but works from shell

    - by Maxim Zaslavsky
    I have a weird bug in my project that uses PySide for its Qt GUI, and in response I'm trying to test with simpler code that sets up the environment. Here is the code I am testing with: http://stackoverflow.com/a/6906552/130164 When I launch that from my shell (python test.py), it works perfectly. However, when I run that script in Spyder, I get the following error: Traceback (most recent call last): File "/home/test/Desktop/test/test.py", line 31, in <module> app = QtGui.QApplication(sys.argv) RuntimeError: A QApplication instance already exists. If it helps, I also get the following warning: /usr/lib/pymodules/python2.6/matplotlib/__init__.py:835: UserWarning: This call to matplotlib.use() has no effect because the the backend has already been chosen; matplotlib.use() must be called *before* pylab, matplotlib.pyplot, or matplotlib.backends is imported for the first time. Why does that code work when launched from my shell but not from Spyder? Update: Mata answered that the problem happens because Spyder uses Qt, which makes sense. For now, I've set up execution in Spyder using the "Execute in an external system terminal" option, which doesn't cause errors but doesn't allow debugging, either. Does Spyder have any built-in workarounds to this?

    Read the article

  • String Length Evaluating Incorrectly

    - by Justin R.
    My coworker and I are debugging an issue in a WCF service he's working on where a string's length isn't being evaluated correctly. He is running this method to unit test a method in his WCF service: // Unit test method public void RemoveAppGroupTest() { string addGroup = "TestGroup"; string status = string.Empty; string message = string.Empty; appActiveDirectoryServicesClient.RemoveAppGroup("AOD", addGroup, ref status, ref message); } // Inside the WCF service [OperationBehavior(Impersonation = ImpersonationOption.Required)] public void RemoveAppGroup(string AppName, string GroupName, ref string Status, ref string Message) { string accessOnDemandDomain = "MyDomain"; RemoveAppGroupFromDomain(AppName, accessOnDemandDomain, GroupName, ref Status, ref Message); } public AppActiveDirectoryDomain(string AppName, string DomainName) { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(AppName)) { throw new ArgumentNullException("AppName", "You must specify an application name"); } } We tried to step into the .NET source code to see what value string.IsNullOrEmpty was receiving, but the IDE printed this message when we attempted to evaluate the variable: 'Cannot obtain value of local or argument 'value' as it is not available at this instruction pointer, possibly because it has been optimized away.' (None of the projects involved have optimizations enabled). So, we decided to try explicitly setting the value of the variable inside the method itself, immediately before the length check -- but that didn't help. // Lets try this again. public AppActiveDirectoryDomain(string AppName, string DomainName) { // Explicitly set the value for testing purposes. AppName = "AOD"; if (AppName == null) { throw new ArgumentNullException("AppName", "You must specify an application name"); } if (AppName.Length == 0) { // This exception gets thrown, even though it obviously isn't a zero length string. throw new ArgumentNullException("AppName", "You must specify an application name"); } } We're really pulling our hair out on this one. Has anyone else experienced behavior like this? Any tips on debugging it?

    Read the article

  • Scrolling to the bottom of a div on page load: issue with syntaxhighlighter

    - by Rayne
    I've been using this code: var objDiv = document.getElementById("code"); objDiv.scrollTop = objDiv.scrollHeight; to scroll to the very bottom of the div. It worked perfectly in FF and Chrome (I asked a question about it not working in Chrome a few days ago, but it appears the guy who was testing it on Chrome was incorrect, so I tested it myself) until I started syntax highlighting the code that I put in the div with SyntaxHighlighter. Before, I was putting the code in a <p> and breaking lines with <br />, but the <br /> stuff doesn't fly with SyntaxHighlighter, so I replaced all of those with newlines (not entirely certain if this is important, but it's worth mentioning). Now, when the page loads, it does scroll, but not all the way down. It scrolls nearly to the bottom. I've tried all the methods listed in the other question I mentioned but they all do the same thing, or nothing at all. Is there anything else I can try? Here is the relevant piece of the generated HTML. Forgive the poor formatting, I'm not writing the HTML by hand, but rather using Hiccup with Clojure, and it doesn't bother with formatting. <div class="scroll" id="code"><pre class="brush: clojure">=> (doseq [x (range 1 100)] (println x)) 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 nil </pre></div><script type="text/javascript">var objDiv = document.getElementById("code"); objDiv.scrollTop = objDiv.scrollHeight;</script>

    Read the article

  • does sfWidgetFormSelect provide a string or an int of the selected item?

    - by han
    Hey guys, I'm having an annoying problem. I'm trying to find out what fields of a form were changed, and then insert that into a table. I managed to var_dump in doUpdateObjectas shown in the following public function doUpdateObject($values) { parent::doUpdateObject($values); var_dump($this->getObject()->getModified(false)); var_dump($this->getObject()->getModified(true)); } And it seems like $this-getObject()-getModified seems to work in giving me both before and after values by setting it to either true or false. The problem that I'm facing right now is that, some how, sfWidgetFormSelect seems to be saving one of my fields as a string. before saving, that exact same field was an int. (I got this idea by var_dump both before and after). Here is what the results on both var dumps showed: array(1) {["annoying_field"]=> int(3)} array(1) {["annoying_field"]=>string(1)"3"} This seems to cause doctrine to think that this is a modification and thus gives a false positive. In my base form, I have under $this->getWidgets() 'annoying_field' => new sfWidgetFormInputText(), under $this->setValidators 'annoying_field' => new sfValidatorInteger(array('required' => false)), and lastly in my configured Form.class.php I have reconfigured the file as such: $this->widgetSchema['annoying_field'] = new sfWidgetFormSelect(array('choices' => $statuses)); statuses is an array containing values like {""a", "b", "c", "d"} and I just want the index of the status to be stored in the database. And also how can I insert the changes into another database table? let's say my Log table? Any ideas and advice as to why this is happen is appreciated, I've been trying to figure it out and browsing google for various keywords with no avail. Thanks! Edit: ok so I created another field, integer in my schema just for testing. I created an entry, saved it, and edited it. this time the same thing happened!

    Read the article

  • Ldap_add() : Invalid Syntax

    - by Suezy
    I have a program here that uses the ldap_add, when i try to run the program, it displays an error: Warning: ldap_add() [function.ldap-add]: Add: Invalid syntax in /var/www/suey/costcenter.20090617.php on line 780 My lil' code here is: $ldapservers='ourServer'; $ds = ldap_connect($ldapservers); if ($ds){ $r = ldap_bind($ds, $ldaprootun, $ldaprootpw); $add = ldap_add($ds, "uid=$fuid, $ldapbasedn", $infonew); } ldapbasedn is set to o=ourGroup; infonew is an array of entries (person information) and am so sure that the array is not empty because i already tested it. the uid is not empty too. What could be wrong? Is it the entries(array)? or the server am trying to connect to? I tried testing the ldap_bind, and it also works well too..hmmm.. Pls help.. thanks! I found the problem.. it's in the index infonew["createdBy"] = getenv("REMOTE_USER"); it returns NULL! now, is that right?

    Read the article

  • Yet another "What is this code doing"-type of Perl code

    - by Mike
    I have inherited some code from a guy whose favorite past time was to shorten every line to its absolute minimum (and sometimes only to make it look cool). His code is hard to understand but I managed to understand (and rewrite) most of it. Now I have stumbled on a piece of code which, no matter how hard I try, I cannot understand. my @heads = grep {s/\.txt$//} OSA::Fast::IO::Ls->ls($SysKey,'fo','osr/tiparlo',qr{^\d+\.txt$}) || (); my @selected_heads = (); for my $i (0..1) { $selected_heads[$i] = int rand scalar @heads; for my $j (0..@heads-1) { last if (!grep $j eq $_, @selected_heads[0..$i-1]); $selected_heads[$i] = ($selected_heads[$i] + 1) % @heads; #WTF? } my $head_nr = sprintf "%04d", $i; OSA::Fast::IO::Cp->cp($SysKey,'',"osr/tiparlo/$heads[$selected_heads[$i]].txt","$recdir/heads/$head_nr.txt"); OSA::Fast::IO::Cp->cp($SysKey,'',"osr/tiparlo/$heads[$selected_heads[$i]].cache","$recdir/heads/$head_nr.cache"); } From what I can understand, this is supposed to be some kind of randomizer, but I never saw a more complex way to achieve randomness. Or are my assumptions wrong? At least, that's what this code is supposed to do. Select 2 random files and copy them. === NOTES === The OSA Framework is a Framework of our own. They are named after their UNIX counterparts and do some basic testing so that the application does not need to bother with that.

    Read the article

  • Calculate posterior distribution of unknown mis-classification with PRTools in MATLAB

    - by Samuel Lampa
    I'm using the PRTools MATLAB library to train some classifiers, generating test data and testing the classifiers. I have the following details: N: Total # of test examples k: # of mis-classification for each classifier and class I want to do: Calculate and plot Bayesian posterior distributions of the unknown probabilities of mis-classification (denoted q), that is, as probability density functions over q itself (so, P(q) will be plotted over q, from 0 to 1). I have that (math formulae, not matlab code!): P(q|k,N) = Posterior * Prior / Normalization constant = P(k|q,N) * P(q|N) / P(k|N) The prior is set to 1, so I only need to calculate the posterior and normalization constant. I know that the posterior can be expressed as (where B(N,k) is the binomial coefficient): P(k|q,N) = B(N,k) * q^k * (1-q)^(N-k) ... so the Normalization constant is simply an integral of the posterior above, from 0 to 1: P(k|N) = B(N,k) * integralFromZeroToOne( q^k * (1-q)^(N-k) ) (The Binomial coefficient ( B(N,k) ) can be omitted thoughappears in both the posterior and normalization constant, so it can be omitted.) Now, I've heard that the integral for the normalization constant should be able to be calculated as a series ... something like: k!(N-k)! / (N+1)! Is that correct? (I have some lecture notes from with this series, but can't figure out if it is for the normalization constant integral, or for the posterior distribution of mis-classification (q)) Also, hints are welcome as how to practically calculate this? (factorials are easily creating truncation errors right?) ... AND, how to practically calculate the final plot (the posterior distribution over q, from 0 to 1).

    Read the article

  • Hibernate: deletes not cascading for self-referencing entities

    - by jwaddell
    I have the following (simplified) Hibernate entities: @Entity @Table(name = "package") public abstract class Package { protected Content content; @ManyToOne(cascade = {javax.persistence.CascadeType.ALL}) @JoinColumn(name = "content_id") @Fetch(value = FetchMode.JOIN) public Content getContent() { return content; } public void setContent(Content content) { this.content = content; } } @Entity @Table(name = "content") public class Content { private Set<Content> subContents = new HashSet<Content>(); @ManyToMany(fetch = FetchType.EAGER) @JoinTable(name = "subcontents", joinColumns = {@JoinColumn(name = "content_id")}, inverseJoinColumns = {@JoinColumn(name = "elt")}) @Cascade(value = {org.hibernate.annotations.CascadeType.DELETE, org.hibernate.annotations.CascadeType.REPLICATE}) @Fetch(value = FetchMode.SUBSELECT) public Set<Content> getSubContents() { return subContents; } public void setSubContents(Set<Content> subContents) { this.subContents = subContents; } } So a Package has a Content, and a Content is self-referencing in that it has many sub-Contents (which may contain sub-Contents of their own etc). The relationships are required to be ManyToOne (Package to Content) and ManyToMany (Content to sub-Contents) but for the case I am currently testing each sub-Content only relates to one Package or Content. The problem is that when I delete a Package and flush the session, I get a Hibernate error stating that I'm violating a foreign key constraint on table subcontents, with a particular content_id still referenced from table subcontents. I've tried specifically (recursively) deleting the Contents before deleting the Package but I get the same error. Is there a reason why this entity tree is not being deleted properly?

    Read the article

  • Looking for fast, minimal, preferrably free disc cloning software [closed]

    - by Dave
    We have to test our application installation and functionality on many Windows operating system versions and languages (XP, Vista, Win7; English, Spanish, Portuguese, etc; 32-bit & b4-bit.) While we can do much of this in virtual machines, we have noticed that VM's sometimes hide problems, or raise false bugs. So, we need to do "bare metal" OS installation for much of our testing. I have been using Acronis True Image for the past year, and am not impressed. It often gives random errors which require a reboot, and is really slow. For example, when trying to restore an image, it goes through a "Locking partition" cycle about three times (once after you click OK on each step of the wizard), each of which can take 5 minutes to complete. This all happens BEFORE it actually starts the image copy, which is sometimes quick (3-5 minutes), sometimes long (hours). The size of all of our images are roughly the same, so that is not related. So, anyway, I'm looking to switch to something else: I only need very basic functionality--just creating images of entire discs, and then restoring those images onto the exact same hard drive at a later date. That's it. I'm not opposed to paying for a good piece of software, but if there is something free out there that does the job well, that would be a preference. My OS on which the imaging software would run is Windows Vista, but a bootable media (into a Linux flavor) would be fine also, as long as its quick to use and reliable. Recommendations? (Also, moderators, if this should be a CW, I'll be happy to mark it as such; unclear about the rules there.)

    Read the article

  • How do I protect the trunk from hapless newbies?

    - by Michael Haren
    A coworker relayed the following problem, let's say it's fictional to protect the guilty: A team of 5-10 works on a project which is issue-driven. That is, the typical flow goes like this: a chunk of work (bug, enhancement, etc.) is created as an issue in the issue tracker The issue is assigned to a developer The developer resolves the issue and commits their code changes to the trunk At release time, the frozen, and heavily tested trunk or release branch or whatever is built in release mode and released The problem he's having is that a couple newbies made several bad commits that weren't caught due to an unfortunate chain of events. This was followed by a bad release with a rollback or flurry of hot fixes. One idea we're toying with: Revoke commit access to the trunk for newbies and make them develop on a per-developer branch (we're using SVN): Good: newbies are isolated and can't hurt others Good: committers merge newbie branches with the trunk frequently Good: this enforces rigid code reviews Bad: this is burdensome on the committers (but there's probably no way around it since the code needs reviewed!) Bad: it might make traceability of trunk changes a little tougher since the reviewer would be doing the commit--not too sure on this. Update: Thank you, everyone, for your valuable input. I have concluded that this is far less a code/coder problem than I first presented. The root of the issue is that the release procedure failed to capture and test some poor quality changes to the trunk. Plugging that hole is most important. Relying on the false assumption that code in the trunk is "good" is not the solution. Once that hole--testing--is plugged, mistakes by everyone--newbie or senior--will be caught properly and dealt with accordingly. Next, a greater emphasis on code reviews and mentorship (probably driven by some systematic changes to encourage it) will go a long way toward improving code quality. With those two fixes in place, I don't think something as rigid or draconian as what I proposed above is necessary. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • JUnit confusion: use 'extend Testcase' or '@Test' ?

    - by Rabarberski
    I've found the proper use (or at least the documentation) of JUnit very confusing. This question serves both as a future reference and as a real question. If I've understood correctly, there are two main approaches to create and run a JUnit test: Approach A: create a class that extends TestCase, and start test methods with the word test. When running the class as a JUnit Test (in Eclipse), all methods starting with the word test are automatically run. import junit.framework.TestCase; public class DummyTestA extends TestCase { public void testSum() { int a = 5; int b = 10; int result = a + b; assertEquals(15, result); } } Approach B: create a 'normal' class and prepend a @Test annotation to the method. Note that you do NOT have to start the method with the word test. import org.junit.*; import static org.junit.Assert.*; public class DummyTestB { @Test public void Sum() { int a = 5; int b = 10; int result = a + b; assertEquals(15, result); } } Mixing the two seems not to be a good idea, see e.g. this stackoverflow question: Now, my questions(s): What is the preferred approach, or when would you use one instead of the other? Approach B allows for testing for exceptions by extending the @Test annotation like in @Test(expected = ArithmeticException.class). But how do you test for exceptions when using approach A? When using approach A, you can group a number of test classes in a test suite. TestSuite suite = new TestSuite("All tests");<br/> suite.addTestSuite(DummyTestA.class); suite.addTestSuite(DummyTestAbis.class);` But this can't be used with approach B (since each testclass should subclass TestCase). What is the proper way to group tests for approach B?

    Read the article

  • code to ping websites works sometimes ...

    - by trustfundbaby
    I'm testing out a piece of code to ping a bunch of websites I own on a regular basis, to make sure they're up. I'm using rails and so far I have this hideous test action that I'm using to try it out (see below). The problem though, is that sometimes it works, and other times it won't ... sometimes it runs through the code just fine, other times, it seems to completely ignore the begin/rescue block ... a. I need help figuring out what the problem is b. And refactoring this to make it look respectable. Your help is much appreciated. require 'net/http' require 'uri' def ping @sites = NewsSource.all @sites.each do |site| if site.uri and !site.uri.empty? uri = URI.parse(site.uri) response = nil path = uri.path.blank? ? '/' : uri.path path = uri.query.blank? ? path : "#{path}?#{uri.query}" begin Net::HTTP.start(uri.host, uri.port) {|http| http.open_timeout = 30 http.read_timeout = 30 response = http.head(path) } if response.code.eql?('200') or response.code.eql?('301') or response.code.eql?('302') site.up = true else site.up = false end site.up_check_msg = response.message site.up_check_code = response.code rescue Errno::EBADF rescue Timeout::Error site.up = false site.up_check_msg = 'timeout' site.up_check_code = '408' end site.up_check_time = 0.seconds.ago site.save end end end

    Read the article

  • (Not So) Silly Objective-C inheritance problem when using property - GCC Bug?

    - by Ben Packard
    Update 2 - Many people are insisting I need to declare an iVar for the property. Some are saying not so, as I am using Modern Runtime (64 bit). I can confirm that I have been successfully using @property without iVars for months now. Therefore, I think the 'correct' answer is an explanation as to why on 64bit I suddenly have to explicitly declare the iVar when (and only when) i'm going to access it from a child class. The only one I've seen so far is a possible GCC bug (thanks Yuji). Not so simple after all... Update - I messed up one line of the original copy and paste - corrected. The @property call was missing (nonatomic, retain) but is a red herring - STILL NEED AN ANSWER! Thanks. I've been scratching my head with this for a couple of hours - I haven't used inheritance much. Here I have set up a simple Test B class that inherits from Test A, where an ivar is declared. But I get the compilation error that the variable is undeclared. This only happens when I add the property and synthesize declarations - works fine without them. TestA Header: #import <Cocoa/Cocoa.h> @interface TestA : NSObject { NSString *testString; } @end TestA Implementation is empty: #import "TestA.h" @implementation TestA @end TestB Header: #import <Cocoa/Cocoa.h> #import "TestA.h" @interface TestB : TestA { } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString *testProp; @end TestB Implementation (Error - 'testString' is undeclared) #import "TestB.h" @implementation TestB @synthesize testProp; - (void)testing{ NSLog(@"test ivar is %@", testString); } @end

    Read the article

  • Recommended approach to port to ASP.NET MVC

    - by tshao
    I think many of us used to face the same question, what's the best practices to port existing web forms App to MVC. The situation for me is that we'll support both web forms and MVC at the same time. It means, we create new features in MVC, while maintaining legacy pages in web forms, and they're all in a same project. The point is: we want to keep the DRY (do not repeat yourself) principle and reduce duplicate code as much as possible. The ASPX page is not a problem as we only create new features in MVC, but there're still some shared components we want to re-use the both new / legacy pages: Master page UserControl The question here is: Is that possible to create a common master page / usercontrol that could be used in both web forms and MVC? I know that ViewMasterPage inherits from MasterPage and ViewUserControl inherits from UserControl, so it's maybe OK to let both web forms and MVC ASPX page refer to the MVC version. I did some testing and found sometimes it generates errors during the rendering of usercontrols. Any idea / experience you can share with me? Very appreciate to it.

    Read the article

  • Access violations in strange places when using Windows file dialogs

    - by Robert Oschler
    A long time ago I found out that I was getting access violations in my code due to the use of the Delphi Open File and/or Save File dialogs, which encapsulate the Windows dialogs. I asked some questions on a few forums and I was told that it may have been due to the way some programs add hooks to the shell system that result in DLLs getting injected in every process, some of which can cause havoc with a program. For the record, the programming environment I use is Delphi 6 Professional running on Windows XP 32-bit. At the time I got around it by not using Delphi's Dialog components and instead calling straight into comdlg32.dll. This solved the problem wonderfully. Today I was working with memory mapped files for the first time and sure enough, access violations started cropping up in weird parts of the code. I tried my comdlg32.dll direct calls and this time it didn't help. To isolate the problem as a test I created a list box with the exact same files I was using during testing. These are the exact same test files I was selecting from an Open File dialog and then launching my memory mapped file with. I set things up so that by clicking on a file in the list box, I would use that file in my memory mapped file test instead of calling into a comdlg32.dll dialog function to select a test file. Again, the access violatons vanished. To show you how dramatic a fix it was I went from experiencing an access violation within 1 to 3 trials to none at all. Unfortunately, it's going to bite me later on of course when I do need to use file dialogs. Has anyone else dealt with this issue too and found the real culprit? Did any of you find a solution I could use to fix this problem instead of dancing around it like I am now? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Button Onclick event (which is in codbehind) doesn't get triggered in MVC 2

    - by rksprst
    I had an MVC 1.0 web application that was in VS 2008; I just upgraded the project to VS 2010 which automatically upgraded MVC to 2.0. I have a bunch of viewpages have codebehind files that were manually added. The project worked fine before the upgrade, but now the onclick even't don't get triggered. I.e. I have an asp:button with an onclick event that points to a method in the codebehind. When you click the button, the onclick event doesn't get triggered. In fact, when you look at the Page variable, IsPostBack is false. This is really bizarre and I'm wondering if anyone know what happened and how to fix it. I'm thinking it has something to do with the changes in MVC 2.0; but I'm not sure. Any help is really appreciated, I've been trying to figure this out for a while. (deleting the codebehinds and moving that to the controller is not really an option since there is so many pages, moving back to vs 2008 is a last resort as I want to make use of some of the VS 2010 features like performance testing.)

    Read the article

  • Timer Service in ejb 3.1 - schedule calling timeout problem

    - by Greg
    Hi Guys, I have created simple example with @Singleton, @Schedule and @Timeout annotations to try if they would solve my problem. The scenario is this: EJB calls 'check' function every 5 secconds, and if certain conditions are met it will create single action timer that would invoke some long running process in asynchronous fashion. (it's sort of queue implementation type of thing). It then continues to check, but as long as long running process is there it won't start another one. Below is the code I came up with, but this solution does not work, because it looks like asynchronous call I'm making is in fact blocking my @Schedule method. @Singleton @Startup public class GenerationQueue { private Logger logger = Logger.getLogger(GenerationQueue.class.getName()); private List<String> queue = new ArrayList<String>(); private boolean available = true; @Resource TimerService timerService; @Schedule(persistent=true, minute="*", second="*/5", hour="*") public void checkQueueState() { logger.log(Level.INFO,"Queue state check: "+available+" size: "+queue.size()+", "+new Date()); if (available) { timerService.createSingleActionTimer(new Date(), new TimerConfig(null, false)); } } @Timeout private void generateReport(Timer timer) { logger.info("!!--timeout invoked here "+new Date()); available = false; try { Thread.sleep(1000*60*2); // something that lasts for a bit } catch (Exception e) {} available = true; logger.info("New report generation complete"); } What am I missing here or should I try different aproach? Any ideas most welcome :) Testing with Glassfish 3.0.1 latest build - forgot to mention

    Read the article

  • jQuery modal dialog on ajaxStart event

    - by bdl
    I'm trying to use a jQuery UI modal dialog as a loading indicator via the ajaxStart, ajaxStop / ajaxComplete events. When the page fires, an Ajax handler loads some data, and the modal dialog shows just fine. However, it never hides or closes the dialog when the Ajax event is complete. It's a very small bit of code from the local server that is returned, so the actual Ajax event is very quick. Here's my actual code for the modal div: $("#modalwindow").dialog({ modal: true, height: 50, width: 200, zIndex: 999, resizable: false, title: "Please wait..." }) .bind("ajaxStart", function(){ $(this).show(); }) .bind("ajaxStop", function(){ $(this).hide(); }); The Ajax event is just a plain vanilla $.ajax({}) GET method call. Based on some searching here and Google, I've tried altering the ajaxStop handler to use $("#modalwindow").close(), $("#modalwindow").destroy(), etc. (#modalwindow referred to here as to give explicit context). I've also tried using the standard $("#modalwindow").dialog({}).ajaxStart(... as well. Should I be binding the events to a different object? Or calling them from within the $.ajax() complete event? I should mention, I'm testing on the latest IE8, FF 3.6 and Chrome. All have the same / effect.

    Read the article

  • Can I get consistent CSS colors across browsers?

    - by Trevor Burnham
    I'm testing a new site, and I have a div with background-color: #bbf6bb; That seems innocuous enough to me. And yet, on my MacBook Pro, the color looks very different in Firefox 3.6 vs. Safari 4. In Safari, it's the color I'd expect from the hex value: a pale green. In Firefox, there's a definite bluish tint, making the color turquoise. I'm aware of color inconsistencies that result from different treatment of images across browsers, but in pure CSS? Really? I'm guessing that Firefox trying to correct for my display in hopes of delivering better consistency with print, but I'd much rather have my site look the same hue to my users regardless of their choice of browser. Any ideas? Can someone confirm that Firefox is the culprit here? [Update: This seems to have been a fluke. Specifically, it's a narrow issue with Firefox—see my answer below. I'm puzzled, but relieved.]

    Read the article

  • Is there a useDirtyFlag option for Tomcat 6 cluster configuration?

    - by kevinjansz
    In Tomcat 5.0.x you had the ability to set useDirtyFlag="false" to force replication of the session after every request rather than checking for set/removeAttribute calls. <Cluster className="org.apache.catalina.cluster.tcp.SimpleTcpCluster" managerClassName="org.apache.catalina.cluster.session.SimpleTcpReplicationManager" expireSessionsOnShutdown="false" **useDirtyFlag="false"** doClusterLog="true" clusterLogName="clusterLog"> ... The comments in the server.xml stated this may be used to make the following work: <% HashMap map = (HashMap)session.getAttribute("map"); map.put("key","value"); %> i.e. change the state of an object that has already been put in the session and you can be sure that this object still be replicated to the other nodes in the cluster. According to the Tomcat 6 documentation you only have two "Manager" options - DeltaManager & BackupManager ... neither of these seem to allow this option or anything like it. In my testing the default setup: <Cluster className="org.apache.catalina.ha.tcp.SimpleTcpCluster"/> where you get the DeltaManager by default, it's definitely behaving as useDirtyFlag="true" (as I'd expect). So my question is - is there an equivalent in Tomcat 6? Looking at the source I can see a manager implementation "org.apache.catalina.ha.session.SimpleTcpReplicationManager" which does have the useDirtyFlag but the javadoc comments in this state it's "Tomcat Session Replication for Tomcat 4.0" ... I don't know if this is ok to use - I'm guessing not as it's not mentioned in the main cluster configuration documentation.

    Read the article

  • Concurrent WCF calls via shared channel

    - by Kent Boogaart
    I have a web tier that forwards calls onto an application tier. The web tier uses a shared, cached channel to do so. The application tier services in question are stateless and have concurrency enabled. But they are not being called concurrently. If I alter the web tier to create a new channel on every call, then I do get concurrent calls onto the application tier. But I wanted to avoid that cost since it is functionally unnecessary for my scenario. I have no session state, and nor do I need to re-authenticate the caller each time. I understand that the creation of the channel factory is far more expensive than than the creation of the channels, but it is still a cost I'd like to avoid if possible. I found this article on MSDN that states: While channels and clients created by the channels are thread-safe, they might not support writing more than one message to the wire concurrently. If you are sending large messages, particularly if streaming, the send operation might block waiting for another send to complete. Firstly, I'm not sending large messages (just a lot of small ones since I'm doing load testing) but am still seeing the blocking behavior. Secondly, this is rather open-ended and unhelpful documentation. It says they "might not" support writing more than one message but doesn't explain the scenarios under which they would support concurrent messages. Can anyone shed some light on this?

    Read the article

  • How do I use IIS6 style metabase paths in IIS7 AppCmd tool?

    - by Mike Atlas
    I'm currently in the process of upgrading old II6 automation scripts that use the IISVdir tool to create/modify/update apps and virtual directories, and replacing them with AppCmd for IIS7. The IIS6, "IISVDir" commands reference paths in that are from the metabase, eg, "/W3SVC/1/ROOT/MyApp" - where 1 is ID of the "Default Web Site" site. The command doesn't actually require the display name of the site to make changes to it. This works well, since on a different language OS, the "Default Web Site" site name could be named, for example, "??? Web ???" or anything else for that matter. But this flexibility is lost if AppCmd can only reference "Default Web Site" via its name, and not a language-neutral identifier. So, how can I script AppCmd to refer to sites, vdirs and apps using language neutral identifiers to reference the "Default App Site"? Perhaps I need to start creating my own site instead, from the start, and name it something else specific, and stop using "Default Web Site" as the root? (Disclosure: I only have a IIS7-English machine that I am working on currently, but I have both IIS6-English and IIS6-Japanese machines for testing my old scripts - so perhaps it really is just "Default Web Site" still on Win2k8-Japanese?)

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 325 326 327 328 329 330 331 332 333 334 335 336  | Next Page >