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• PHP fails silently when php-code is within html tag

  - by Michal M

  PROBLEM UPDATED, READ BELOW For some reason my CI fails silently when loading view. Loading view is simply called from controller $this->load->view('templates/default.php'); Now. There are some functions in the loaded view that are not defined unless a proper helper is loaded as well. Normally, php would throw an error, but instead it fails silently here. I have no idea why. The template gets outputted till the line containing the undefined function. It took me long time to realise where my script is failing. Here's my setup: Windows 7 Ultimate Apache 2.2.15 PHP 5.3.2 with following error reporting settings: display_errors = On display_startup_errors = On error_reporting = E_ALL | E_STRICT CodeIgniter 1.7.2 Any ideas why would that be? UPDATE After further debugging, it turned out that PHP fails to report any errors when php code is inline with HTML and within the HTML tag. Now this is bizarre. This returns Fatal Error: <p><?php echo $bogus(); ?></p> This doesn't and fails silently: <p class="<?php echo $bogus(); ?>">paragraph</p> Why? :O UPDATE 2 Further investigation showed that if an error_log in PHP is specified, the errors are in fact reported in that file, but still not in the browser... Again, why? UPDATE 3 Actually my code should be slightly different. Checked another PHP installation on completely different machine and it confirmed the PHP bug. Reported here: http://bugs.php.net/bug.php?id=52040

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• WCF done broke.

  - by SteveCav

  WCF is completely fouled up on my machine. I start a new sln in VS2008. Add a project (WCF Service Lib).Build the project (builds ok). debug the project -- it gets halfway through the progress bar and bombs out with the error below (real path changed to "my mex path" so codeproject doesn't think its spam). I'm assuming it's file permissions but don't know where to start. Any ideas?: Error: Cannot obtain Metadata from my mex path If this is a Windows (R) Communication Foundation service to which you have access, please check that you have enabled metadata publishing at the specified address. For help enabling metadata publishing, please refer to the MSDN documentation at somewhere unhelpful Exchange Error URI: my mex path Metadata contains a reference that cannot be resolved: 'my mex path'. Could not connect to my mex path. TCP error code 10061: No connection could be made because the target machine actively refused it 127.0.0.1:8731. Unable to connect to the remote server No connection could be made because the target machine actively refused it 127.0.0.1:8731HTTP GET Error URI: my mex path There was an error downloading 'my mex path'. Unable to connect to the remote server No connection could be made because the target machine actively refused it 127.0.0.1:8731

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• Moq, a translator and an expression

  - by jeriley

  I'm working with an expression within a moq-ed "Get Service" and ran into a rather annoying issue. In order to get this test to run correctly and the get service to return what it should, there's a translator in between that takes what you've asked for, sends it off and gets what you -really- want. So, thinking this was easy I attempt this ... the fakelist is the TEntity objects (translated, used by the UI) and TEnterpriseObject is the actual persistance. mockGet.Setup(mock => mock.Get(It.IsAny<Expression<Func<TEnterpriseObject, bool>>>())).Returns( (Expression<Func<TEnterpriseObject, bool>> expression) => { var items = new List<TEnterpriseObject>(); var translator = (IEntityTranslator<TEntity, TEnterpriseObject>) ObjectFactory.GetInstance(typeof (IEntityTranslator<TEntity, TEnterpriseObject>)); fakeList.ForEach(fake => items.Add(translator.ToEnterpriseObject(fake))); items = items.Where(expression); var result = new List<TEnterpriseObject>(items); fakeList.Clear(); result.ForEach(item => translator.ToEntity(item)); return items; }); I'm getting the red squigglie under there items.where(expression) -- says it can't be infered from usage (confused between <Func<TEnterpriseObject,bool>> and <Func<TEnterpriseObject,int,bool>>) A far simpler version works great ... mockGet.Setup(mock => mock.Get(It.IsAny<Expression<Func<TEntity, bool>>>())).Returns( (Expression<Func<TEntity, bool>> expression) => fakeList.AsQueryable().Where(expression)); so I'm not sure what I'm missing... ideas?

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• SQL Server lock/hang issue

  - by mattwoberts

  Hi, I'm using SQL Server 2008 on Windows Server 2008 R2, all sp'd up. I'm getting occasional issues with SQL Server hanging with the CPU usage on 100% on our live server. It seems all the wait time on SQL Sever when this happens is given to SOS_SCHEDULER_YIELD. Here is the Stored Proc that causes the hang. I've added the "WITH (NOLOCK)" in an attempt to fix what seems to be a locking issue. ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[MostPopularRead] AS BEGIN SET NOCOUNT ON; SELECT c.ForeignId , ct.ContentSource as ContentSource , sum(ch.HitCount * hw.Weight) as Popularity , (sum(ch.HitCount * hw.Weight) * 100) / @Total as Percent , @Total as TotalHits from ContentHit ch WITH (NOLOCK) join [Content] c WITH (NOLOCK) on ch.ContentId = c.ContentId join HitWeight hw WITH (NOLOCK) on ch.HitWeightId = hw.HitWeightId join ContentType ct WITH (NOLOCK) on c.ContentTypeId = ct.ContentTypeId where ch.CreatedDate between @Then and @Now group by c.ForeignId , ct.ContentSource order by sum(ch.HitCount * hw.HitWeightMultiplier) desc END The stored proc reads from the table "ContentHit", which is a table that tracks when content on the site is clicked (it gets hit quite frequently - anything from 4 to 20 hits a minute). So its pretty clear that this table is the source of the problem. There is a stored proc that is called to add hit tracks to the ContentHit table, its pretty trivial, it just builds up a string from the params passed in, which involves a few selects from some lookup tables, followed by the main insert: BEGIN TRAN insert into [ContentHit] (ContentId, HitCount, HitWeightId, ContentHitComment) values (@ContentId, isnull(@HitCount,1), isnull(@HitWeightId,1), @ContentHitComment) COMMIT TRAN The ContentHit table has a clustered index on its ID column, and I've added another index on CreatedDate since that is used in the select. When I profile the issue, I see the Stored proc executes for exactly 30 seconds, then the SQL timeout exception occurs. If it makes a difference the web application using it is ASP.NET, and I'm using Subsonic (3) to execute these stored procs. Can someone please advise how best I can solve this problem? I don't care about reading dirty data... Thanks

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• Crashing when pushing a XIB based view controller onto navigation controller stack

  - by Michael

  I was attempting to clean up the implementation for a sub-panel on a navigation controller stack, so that the navigation bar could be customized in the XIB instead of doing it manually in the viewDidLoad method. The original (working) setup had the XIB set up with the "File's Owner" class set to the view controller class, and then the view at the top level. This works fine. In the "Interface Builder User Guide", p. 71, it describes the recommended way to build the XIBs for sub-panels ("additional navigation levels"). This approach leaves the "File's Owner" class as NSObject, but adds a UIViewController at the top level, and nests the view (and navigation item) underneath it. The UIViewController's view automatically gets connected to the contained view. When I try to push the controller init'd with this new XIB, the app crashes because of a missing view: SettingsViewController *controller = [[SettingsViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"SettingsView" bundle:nil]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:controller animated:YES]; 2010-04-23 11:17:37.135 xxxx[1173:207] * Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInternalInconsistencyException', reason: '-[UIViewController _loadViewFromNibNamed:bundle:] loaded the "SettingsTestView" nib but the view outlet was not set.' I've double checked everything, and tried building a clean XIB from scratch, but get the same result. I looked through a number of the code sample projects, and NONE of them use the documented/recommended approach--they all use the File's Owner class and manually set up the navigation bar in viewDidLoad like I originally had it. Is it possible to get it working the "recommended" way? Thanks! Michael

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• Python halts while iteratively processing my 1GB csv file

  - by Dan

  I have two files: metadata.csv: contains an ID, followed by vendor name, a filename, etc hashes.csv: contains an ID, followed by a hash The ID is essentially a foreign key of sorts, relating file metadata to its hash. I wrote this script to quickly extract out all hashes associated with a particular vendor. It craps out before it finishes processing hashes.csv stored_ids = [] # this file is about 1 MB entries = csv.reader(open(options.entries, "rb")) for row in entries: # row[2] is the vendor if row[2] == options.vendor: # row[0] is the ID stored_ids.append(row[0]) # this file is 1 GB hashes = open(options.hashes, "rb") # I iteratively read the file here, # just in case the csv module doesn't do this. for line in hashes: # not sure if stored_ids contains strings or ints here... # this probably isn't the problem though if line.split(",")[0] in stored_ids: # if its one of the IDs we're looking for, print the file and hash to STDOUT print "%s,%s" % (line.split(",")[2], line.split(",")[4]) hashes.close() This script gets about 2000 entries through hashes.csv before it halts. What am I doing wrong? I thought I was processing it line by line. ps. the csv files are the popular HashKeeper format and the files I am parsing are the NSRL hash sets. http://www.nsrl.nist.gov/Downloads.htm#converter UPDATE: working solution below. Thanks everyone who commented! entries = csv.reader(open(options.entries, "rb")) stored_ids = dict((row[0],1) for row in entries if row[2] == options.vendor) hashes = csv.reader(open(options.hashes, "rb")) matches = dict((row[2], row[4]) for row in hashes if row[0] in stored_ids) for k, v in matches.iteritems(): print "%s,%s" % (k, v)

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• setInterval works only the first time

  - by Neil

  Hi, I am trying to use setTimer to animate a slide show using straightforward jQuery. I provide the user with a button (in the form of a "DIV" with a button background image) that he clicks to start the show and which then turns into a pause button. The slides are supposed to change every 3 seconds. Here is the relevant code: playLink = $('<div id="lbPlayLink" />').click(function(){ $(playLink).hide(); $(pauseLink).show(); slideInterval = setInterval(function(){next()}, 3000) })[0]; pauseLink = $('<div id="lbPauseLink" />').click(function(){ $(playLink).show(); $(pauseLink).hide(); clearInterval(slideInterval); }).hide()[0]; The next() function call does the work of replacing the slide with the next one. I have checked out this function and it works perfectly if I call it directly (synchronously), however, when it gets called asonchronously by the "setInterval", it works fine the first time (3 seconds after I click on the button), but is never called again, even though it should be called 3 seconds later. I know it's never called as I put an "alert" call at the beginning and end of the function. If I replace the "next()" call in the "setInterval" by "alert('test')" then I can see the setInterval is doing what it is supposed to. I can't for the life of me see why "alert()" is OK but "next()" isn't, unless it has something to do with "scope" of functions, but in that case why does it work the first time? I've tried debugging the code with firebug, but it can't really help with timeout functions like this. Neither Firefox nor IE8 show any error messages. I've looked through the various posts here and elsewhere on setInterval, but can't see anything relevant that I haven't tried already. I've been experimenting now for about 3 hours and it's doing my head in. Can anyone suggest what I can try next? Thanks in advance Neil

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• Why does this Object wonk out & get deleted ?

  - by brainydexter

  Stepping through the debugger, the BBox object is okay at the entry of the function, but as soon as it enters the function, the vfptr object points to 0xccccc. I don't get it. What is causing this ? Why is there a virtual table reference in there when the object is not derived from other class. (Though, it resides in GameObject from which my Player class inherits and I retrieve the BBox from within player. But, why does the BBox have the reference ? Shouldn't it be player who should be maintained in that reference ?) For 1; some code for reference: A. I retrieve the bounding box from player. This returns a bounding box as expected. I then send its address to GetGridCells. const BoundingBox& l_Bbox = l_pPlayer-GetBoundingBox(); boost::unordered_set < Cell*, CellPHash & l_GridCells = GetGridCells ( &l_Bbox ); B. This is where a_pBoundingBox goes crazy and gets that garbage value. boost::unordered_set< Cell*, CellPHash CollisionMgr::GetGridCells(const BoundingBox *a_pBoundingBox) { I think the following code is also pertinent, so I'm sticking this in here anyways: const BoundingBox& Player::GetBoundingBox(void) { return BoundingBox( &GetBoundingSphere() ); } const BoundingSphere& Player::GetBoundingSphere(void) { BoundingSphere& l_BSphere = m_pGeomMesh-m_BoundingSphere; l_BSphere.m_Center = GetPosition(); return l_BSphere; } // BoundingBox Constructor BoundingBox(const BoundingSphere* a_pBoundingSphere); Can anyone please give me some idea as to why this is happening? Also, if you want me to post more code, please do let me know. Thanks!

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• Why is my html getting mal-formed?

  - by alkaloids

  I have the following table in a form that's embedded in a formtastic form (semantic_form_for). Everything I ask to be generated by ruby shows up, but the table gets badly mangled (essentially, the tags NEVER get formed. The table headers get drawn correctly There are 14 available_date objects that get passed, and they alternate between having a time value of 1 or 2, so this is just terribly boggling, but probably simple to fix... <table class="availability_table"> <tr> <th>Date</th> <th>Early</th> <th>Late</th> </tr> <% f.fields_for :available_dates do |ad| %> <% if ad.object.time == 1 #if this is an early shift, then start the new row %> <tr><td><%= ad.object.date.strftime('%a, %b %d, %Y') %></td> <td><%= ad.collection_select(:availability , LookupAvailability.all.collect, :id, :name) %></td> <% else #otherwise end the row with just a box%> <td><%= ad.collection_select(:availability , LookupAvailability.all.collect, :id, :name) %></td></tr> <% end %> <% end %> </table> So like I said, the form functions properly, and the objects all get updated and displayed correctly and all that, it's just that the HTML isn't getting echo'd out properly so my table is all mangled. Help!

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• multiple redirect??

  - by Ryan Pitts

  Ok, i won't go into the full details (too much to explain) but here is what i am trying to do. I have a button on a webpage (we'll call page-1) that links to a page (we'll call it page-2). This page opens in the same window. However, i need the page (page-2) that opens to open up a new window with another page (we'll call this one page-3) when it loads. So virtually when you click the initial button (on page-1) it will go to a new page (page-2) AND a window will open as well with a different page (page-3). This is where it gets tricky. I need page-2 to automatically redirect back to page-1 after it launches page-3. Is this possible and if so, how?? Could it be a JQuery thing? Please just give some answers...i know this is way crazy and a huge workaround - but this is my last resort for this particular website. I have to do it this way because of the lack of control over some of the code.

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• ASP.NET MVC PartialView generic ModelView

  - by Greg Ogle

  I have an ASP.NET MVC application which I want to dynamically pick the partial view and what data gets passed to it, while maintaining strong types. So, in the main form, I want a class that has a view model that contains a generically typed property which should contain the data for the partial view's view model. public class MainViewModel<T> { public T PartialViewsViewModel { get; set; } } In the User Control, I would like something like: Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl<MainViewModel<ParticularViewModel>>" %> Though in my parent form, I must put Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage<MainViewModel<ParticularViewModel>>" %> for it to work. Is there a way to work around this? The use case is to make the user control pluggable. I understand that I could inherit a base class, but that would put me back to having something like a dictionary instead of a typed view model.

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• Flex 3 - Issues with textArea "editable" property

  - by BS_C3

  Hello Community! I'm having issues with the property "editable" of textArea control. I have a component: OrderView.mxml and it's associated data class OrderViewData.as. Orderview.mxml is inside a viewStack to enable navigation from a component to another. In this particular case, OrderView.mxml is called by another component: SearchResult.mxml. I can thus navigate from SearchResult.mxml to OrderView.mxml, and back to SearchResult.mxml... OrderView.mxml has textArea and textInput control, that have to be editable or nonEditable depending on the property var isEditable:Boolean from OrderViewData.as. When the application is launched, isEditable = true. So, all textInput and textArea controls are editable the first time the user gets to OrderView.mxml. When the user clicks on the button order from OrderView.mxml, isEditable = false. When the user goes back to SearchResult.mxml, isEditable = true (again) -- Until here, everything works fine. The thing is: when the user goes back to OrderView.mxml for the second time (and beyond), even if the property isEditable = true, textArea controls are still non editable... But the textInput controls are editable! Here is some code for your comprehension: OrderView.mxml <mx:Canvas xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" backgroundColor="#F3EDEC"> <mx:TextArea id="contentTA" text="{OrderViewData.instance.contentTA}" enabled="{OrderViewData.instance.isEnabled}" width="100%" height="51" maxChars="18" styleName="ORTextInput" focusIn="if(OrderViewData.instance.isEditable) contentTA.setSelection(0, contentTA.length)"/> <mx:TextInput id="contentTI" text="{OrderViewData.instance.contentTI}" width="40" height="18" maxChars="4" styleName="ORTextInput" change="contentTI_change()" focusIn="if(OrderViewData.instance.isEditable) contentTI.setSelection(0, contentTI.length)" editable="{OrderViewData.instance.isEditable}"/> </mx:Canvas> Am I missing something? Thanks for any help you can provide. Regards. BS_C3

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• Using max-width = 100% and max-height = 100% on an image, calculate the display width/height

  - by NatalieMac

  I am creating a slideshow for images of various sizes to display centered vertically and horizontally within a canvas area. In my CSS, I set the width and height of the image to 100% so that each image would proportionally fill the canvas. I want the canvas to auto-size itself to fit within the viewer's screensize as the original size of the images is quite large (up to 800 pixels tall). I am using jQuery 1.4, and using the height of the image to calculate the top value for absolute positioning it to the middle of the canvas. I have tried using jQuery to get the .height(), innerHeight(), and outerHeight(), but it always gets the full size of the image. I extracted the DOM element from the jQuery object and tried using .width, .offsetWidth, and .clientWidth, but that too always seems to return the full size of the image. Firebug displays the correct dimensions, so I know there's some way of calculating the actual display height of the image, I just can't figure out what it is. How do you get the actual display height of an image if you've set max-height = 100%? I didn't want to have to calculate and set the height of each image in the js, but if I have to, I will. It just seems like I should be able to set the canvas size and have the images auto-adjust.

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• IE problem: keyboard interaction with checkbox

  - by Bobby Eickhoff

  I have an HTML table, and each row has a checkbox for selecting or deselecting its row. Whenever a checkbox changes value, I need to add or remove highlighting to the row and also ensure that the page's submit button is only enabled when at least one row is selected and disabled otherwise. The checkbox event handler is defined by the following function: function getCheckboxCallback() { return function () { var parentRow = getParentRow(this); if (!parentRow) { return; // No parent row found; abort } // Adjust the appearance of the row setSelected(parentRow, this.checked); // Count the number of selected table rows, and disable the submit // button whenever no rows are selected enforceInvariants(); return true; }; } Elsewhere in the same module, the checkboxes are given the event handlers: checkbox.onchange = getCheckboxCallback(); checkbox.onclick = getCheckboxCallback(); // alleged IE fix I'm working in Windows XP, and everything works fine in both Firefox 3 and Opera 9. However, IE 7 does not handle keyboard interaction well (mouse interaction works fine). The problem is that if a checkbox has the focus and I hit the spacebar, the checkbox doesn't get checked -- instead it gets half checked (it has the same shadowed appearance that it would get immediately after a mousedown). I have to press the spacebar a second time to actually check the box. Similarly, it requires two key presses to uncheck it. Oddly enough, if I hold down the spacebar for a few moments, then a single press works as expected. Can anyone explain what is going on here? Is there something I'm doing wrong in the JavaScript code that is causing this behavior? How can I fix this?

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• need primitive public key signature with out of band key distribution

  - by Mike D

  I pretty much a complete neophyte at this signature business so I don't know if what I'm asking is nonsense or not. Anyway, here goes... I want to send an out of band message (don't worry about how it gets there) to a program I've written on a distant machine. I want the program to have some confidence the message is legit by attaching a digital signature to the message. The message will be small less than 200 characters. It seems a public key based signature is what I want to use. I could embed the public key in the program. I understand that the program would be vulnerable to attack by anyone who modifies it BUT I'm not too worried about that. The consequences are not dire. I've looked through the MSDN and around the web but the prospect of diving in is daunting. I'm writing in straight c++, no NET framework or other fancy stuff. I've had no experience including NET framework stuff and little luck during previous attempts. Can anyone point me at some very basic resources to get me started? I need to know 1)how to generate the public and private keys 2)how to sign the message 3)how to verify the signature Any help much appreciated. TIA, Mike

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• Assigning Javascript click callbacks to Flash elements?

  - by Wes

  Bear in mind I'm a web developer but not a Flash developer and know little about Flash. I work with people who are the opposite and know very little about web development. Maybe someone who is good with both can answer this question? I work for an Advertisement software company and we are having fits with our Ad click-throughs opening tabs vs popups in different browsers. Tabs are preferred becaus pop-ups are subject to blockers. I read that tabs will always be opened if it is a callback triggered by a user click. This is fine with me. Problem is the Flash developers, using their external interface, are trying to open the new window when the Flash ad gets clicked themselves. So even though it's user initiated Flash behooves upon itself to open the website. I think this may be why they end up being popups instead of new tabs. Is there a way external to Flash using Javascript to assign the click events to Flash elements so that only new tabs will ever be opened by clicking the Flash element? Or a way through Flash can assign Javascript callbacks to its elements? Thanks!

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• Regexp that matches user-agents of end-user browsers but NOT crawlers with >90 % accuracy

  - by knorv

  I'm trying to construct a regexp that will evaluate to true for User-Agent:s of "browsers navigated by humans", but false for bots. Needless to say the matching will not be exact, but if it gets things right in say 90 % of cases that is more than good enough. My approach so far is to target the User-Agent string of the the five major desktop browsers (MSIE, Firefox, Chrome, Safari, Opera). Specifically I want the regexp NOT to match if the user-agent is a bot (Googlebot, msnbot, etc.). Currently I'm using the following regexp which appears to achieve the desired precision: ^(Mozilla.*(Gecko|KHTML|MSIE|Presto|Trident)|Opera).*$ I've observed small number of false negatives which are mostly mobile browsers. The exceptions all match: (BlackBerry|HTC|LG|MOT|Nokia|NOKIAN|PLAYSTATION|PSP|SAMSUNG|SonyEricsson) My question is: Given the desired accuracy level, how would you improve the regexp? Can you think of any major false positives or false negatives to the given regexp? Please note that the question is specifically about regexp-based User-Agent matching. There are a bunch of other approaches to solving this problem, but those are out of the scope of this question.

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• C function changes behaviour depending on whether it has a call to printf in it

  - by Daniel

  I have a function that processes some data and finds the threshold that classifies the data with the lowest error. It looks like this: void find_threshold(FeatureVal* fvals, sampledata* data, unsigned int num_samples, double* thresh, double* err, int* pol) { //code to calculate minThresh, minErr, minPol omitted printf("minThresh: %f, minErr: %f, minPol: %d\n", minThresh, minErr, minPol); *thresh = minThresh; *err = minErr; *pol = minPol; } Then in my test file I have this: void test_find_threshold() { //code to set up test data omitted find_threshold(fvals, sdata, 6, &thresh, &err, &pol); printf("Expected 5 got %f\n", thresh); assert(eq(thresh, 5.0)); printf("Expected 1 got %d\n", pol); assert(pol == 1); printf("Expected 0 got %f\n", err); assert(eq(err, 0.0)); } This runs and the test passes with the following output: minThresh: 5.000000, minErr: 0.000000, minPol: 1 Expected 5 got 5.000000 Expected 1 got 1 Expected 0 got 0.000000 However if I remove the call to printf() from find_threshold, suddenly the test fails! Commenting out the asserts so that I can see what gets returned, the output is: Expected 5 got -15.000000 Expected 1 got -1 Expected 0 got 0.333333 I cannot make any sense of this whatsoever.

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• SQL Server insert performance

  - by Jose

  I have an insert query that gets generated like this INSERT INTO InvoiceDetail (LegacyId,InvoiceId,DetailTypeId,Fee,FeeTax,Investigatorid,SalespersonId,CreateDate,CreatedById,IsChargeBack,Expense,RepoAgentId,PayeeName,ExpensePaymentId,AdjustDetailId) VALUES(1,1,2,1500.0000,0.0000,163,1002,'11/30/2001 12:00:00 AM',1116,0,550.0000,850,NULL,@ExpensePay1,NULL); DECLARE @InvDetail1 INT; SET @InvDetail1 = (SELECT @@IDENTITY); This query is generated for only 110K rows. It takes 30 minutes for all of these query's to execute I checked the query plan and the largest % nodes are A Clustered Index Insert at 57% query cost which has a long xml that I don't want to post. A Table Spool which is 38% query cost <RelOp AvgRowSize="35" EstimateCPU="5.01038E-05" EstimateIO="0" EstimateRebinds="0" EstimateRewinds="0" EstimateRows="1" LogicalOp="Eager Spool" NodeId="80" Parallel="false" PhysicalOp="Table Spool" EstimatedTotalSubtreeCost="0.0466109"> <OutputList> <ColumnReference Database="[SkipPro]" Schema="[dbo]" Table="[InvoiceDetail]" Column="InvoiceId" /> <ColumnReference Database="[SkipPro]" Schema="[dbo]" Table="[InvoiceDetail]" Column="InvestigatorId" /> <ColumnReference Column="Expr1054" /> <ColumnReference Column="Expr1055" /> </OutputList> <Spool PrimaryNodeId="3" /> </RelOp> So my question is what is there that I can do to improve the speed of this thing? I already run ALTER TABLE TABLENAME NOCHECK CONSTRAINTS ALL Before the queries and then ALTER TABLE TABLENAME NOCHECK CONSTRAINTS ALL after the queries. And that didn't shave off hardly anything off of the time. Know I am running these queries in a .NET application that uses a SqlCommand object to send the query. I then tried to output the sql commands to a file and then execute it using sqlcmd, but I wasn't getting any updates on how it was doing, so I gave up on that. Any ideas or hints or help?

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• Close application on error

  - by poke

  I’m currently writing an application for the Android platform that requires a mounted SD card (or ExternalStorage). I know that it might not be the best way to require something like that, but the application will work with quite a lot of data, and I don’t even want to think about storing that on the device’s storage. Anyway, to ensure that the application won’t run without the external storage, I do a quick check in the activity’s onCreate method. If the card is not mounted, I want to display an error message and then quit the application. My current approach looks like this: public void onCreate ( Bundle savedInstanceState ) { super.onCreate( savedInstanceState ); setContentView( R.layout.main ); try { // initialize data storage // will raise an exception if it fails, or the SD card is not mounted // ... } catch ( Exception e ) { AlertDialog.Builder builder = new AlertDialog.Builder( this ); builder .setMessage( "There was an error: " + e.getMessage() ) .setCancelable( false ) .setNeutralButton( "Ok.", new DialogInterface.OnClickListener() { public void onClick ( DialogInterface dialog, int which ) { MyApplication.this.finish(); } } ); AlertDialog error = builder.create(); error.show(); return; } // continue ... } When I run the application, and the exception gets raised (I raise it manually to check if everything works), the error message is displayed correctly. However when I press the button, the application closes and I get an Android error, that the application was closed unexpectedly (and I should force exit). I read some topics before on closing an application, and I know that it maybe shouldn’t happen like that. But how should I instead prevent the application from continuing to run? How do you close the application correctly when an error occurs?

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• Development/runtime Licensing mechanism for a C# class library?

  - by Darryl

  I'm developing a .Net class library (a data provider) and I'm starting to think about how I would handle licensing the library to prospective purchasers. By licensing, I mean the mechanics of trying to prevent my library from being used by those who haven't purchased it, not the software license (i.e., Apache, Gnu, etc). I've never dealt with licensing, and in the past, I've always developed apps, not libraries. I don't want to make things difficult for my customers; know it is not possible to make it ironclad. Just some mechanism that gives me decent protection without making the customer jump through hoops or gnash their teeth. I think the mechanism would check for a valid license when the class is being used in development mode, and not in runtime mode (when the customer's software is released to their customers). I think libraries are typically sold per developer, but I'm not sure how that could be accomplished without making the mechanism odious for my customers; maybe that gets left to the honor system. I Googled this and found many approaches. Ideally, I'd like to do something that is generally accepted and common, the "right" way class libraries are licensed, if that exists, rather than making my customers deal with yet another license mechanism. A firm push in the right direction will be greatly appreciated!

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• Exception Handling in ASP.NET MVC and Ajax - [HandleException] filter

  - by Graham

  All, I'm learning MVC and using it for a business app (MVC 1.0). I'm really struggling to get my head around exception handling. I've spent a lot of time on the web but not found anything along the lines of what I'm after. We currently use a filter attribute that implements IExceptionFilter. We decorate a base controller class with this so all server side exceptions are nicely routed to an exception page that displays the error and performs logging. I've started to use AJAX calls that return JSON data but when the server side implementation throws an error, the filter is fired but the page does not redirect to the Error page - it just stays on the page that called the AJAX method. Is there any way to force the redirect on the server (e.g. a ASP.NET Server.Transfer or redirect?) I've read that I must return a JSON object (wrapping the .NET Exception) and then redirect on the client, but then I can't guarantee the client will redirect... but then (although I'm probably doing something wrong) the server attempts to redirect but then gets an unauthorised exception (the base controller is secured but the Exception controller is not as it does not inherit from this) Has anybody please got a simple example (.NET and jQuery code). I feel like I'm randomly trying things in the hope it will work Exception Filter so far... public class HandleExceptionAttribute : FilterAttribute, IExceptionFilter { #region IExceptionFilter Members public void OnException(ExceptionContext filterContext) { if (filterContext.ExceptionHandled) { return; } filterContext.Controller.TempData[CommonLookup.ExceptionObject] = filterContext.Exception; if (filterContext.HttpContext.Request.IsAjaxRequest()) { filterContext.Result = AjaxException(filterContext.Exception.Message, filterContext); } else { //Redirect to global handler filterContext.Result = new RedirectToRouteResult(new RouteValueDictionary(new { controller = AvailableControllers.Exception, action = AvailableActions.HandleException })); filterContext.ExceptionHandled = true; filterContext.HttpContext.Response.Clear(); } } #endregion private JsonResult AjaxException(string message, ExceptionContext filterContext) { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(message)) { message = "Server error"; //TODO: Replace with better message } filterContext.HttpContext.Response.StatusCode = (int)HttpStatusCode.InternalServerError; filterContext.HttpContext.Response.TrySkipIisCustomErrors = true; //Needed for IIS7.0 return new JsonResult { Data = new { ErrorMessage = message }, ContentEncoding = Encoding.UTF8, }; } }

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• Google App Engine - Uploading blobs and authentication

  - by Keyur

  (I tried asking this on the GAE forums but didn't get an answer so am trying it here.) Currently to upload blobs, the app engine's blob store service creates a unique one- time URL that a user can post blobs to. My requirement is that I only want authenticated / authorized users to post blobs in my application. I can achieve this currently if the page that includes the multipart form to upload blobs is in my application. However, I am looking to providing a "REST API" for my users to upload their blobs. While it is true that the one-time nature of the upload URL mitigates the chances of rogue use but it's still possible. I was wondering if there is anyone on the app engine team here that can consider a feature where developers can register an upload listener. (Or if there is already a way, I'll be all ears). A standard servlet filter could also potentially do the job. This will give us an opportunity to authenticate / validate / decorate requests before the request gets forwarded to the blob store service. Thanks, Keyur

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• Why does my IMultiBindingConverter get an array of strings when used to set TextBox.Text?

  - by mcohen75

  Hi- I'm trying to use a MultiBinding with a converter where the child elements also have a converter. The XAML looks like so: <TextBlock> <TextBlock.Text> <MultiBinding Converter="{StaticResource localizedMessageConverter}" ConverterParameter="{x:Static res:Resources.RecordsFound}" > <Binding Converter="{StaticResource localizedMessageParameterConverter}" ConverterParameter="ALIAS" Path="Alias" Mode="OneWay" /> <Binding Converter="{StaticResource localizedMessageParameterConverter}" ConverterParameter="COUNT" Path="Count" Mode="OneWay" /> </MultiBinding> </TextBlock.Text> The problem I'm facing here is, whenever this is used with a TextBlock to specify the Text property, my IMultiValueConverter implementation gets an object collection of strings instead of the class returned by the IValueConverter. It seems that the ToString() method is called on the result of the inner converter and passed to the IMultiValueConverter. If used to specify the Content property of Label, all is well. It seems to me that the framework is assuming that the return type will be string, but why? I can see this for the MultiBinding since it should yield a result that is compatible with TextBlock.Text, but why would this also be the case for the Bindings inside a MultiBinding? If I remove the converter from the inner Binding elements, the native types are returned. In my case string and int.

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• What should be the "trunk" development, or release

  - by Nix

  I have the unfortunate opportunity of source control via Borland's StarTeam. It unfortunately does very few things well, and one supreme weakness is its view management. I love SVN and come from an SVN mindset. Our issue is post production release we are spending countless hours merging changes into a "production support" environment. Please do not harass me this was not my doing, I inherited it and am trying to present a better way of managing the repository. It is not an option to switch to a different SCM tool. Current setup Product.1.0 (TRUNK, current production code, and at this level are pending bug fixes) Product.2.0(true trunk anything checked in gets tested, and then released next production cycle, a lot of changes occur in this view) My proposal is going to be to swap them, have all development be done on the trunk (Production), tag on releases, and as needed create child views to represent production support bug fixes. Production Production.2.0.SP.1 I can not find any documentation to support the above proposal so I am trying to get feedback on whether or not the change is a good idea and if there is anything you would recommend doing differently.

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