Search Results

Search found 10804 results on 433 pages for 'attribute keys'.

Page 361/433 | < Previous Page | 357 358 359 360 361 362 363 364 365 366 367 368  | Next Page >

  • Base class deleted before subclass during python __del__ processing

    - by Oddthinking
    Context I am aware that if I ask a question about Python destructors, the standard argument will be to use contexts instead. Let me start by explaining why I am not doing that. I am writing a subclass to logging.Handler. When an instance is closed, it posts a sentinel value to a Queue.Queue. If it doesn't, a second thread will be left running forever, waiting for Queue.Queue.get() to complete. I am writing this with other developers in mind, so I don't want a failure to call close() on a handler object to cause the program to hang. Therefore, I am adding a check in __del__() to ensure the object was closed properly. I understand circular references may cause it to fail in some circumstances. There's not a lot I can do about that. Problem Here is some simple example code: explicit_delete = True class Base: def __del__(self): print "Base class cleaning up." class Sub(Base): def __del__(self): print "Sub-class cleaning up." Base.__del__(self) x = Sub() if explicit_delete: del x print "End of thread" When I run this I get, as expected: Sub-class cleaning up. Base class cleaning up. End of thread If I set explicit_delete to False in the first line, I get: End of thread Sub-class cleaning up. Exception AttributeError: "'NoneType' object has no attribute '__del__'" in <bound method Sub.__del__ of <__main__.Sub instance at 0x00F0B698>> ignored It seems the definition of Base is removed before the x._del_() is called. The Python Documentation on _del_() warns that the subclass needs to call the base-class to get a clean deletion, but here that appears to be impossible. Can you see where I made a bad step?

    Read the article

  • Switching AM/PM in ASP.NET AJAX MaskedEdit localization

    - by Greg
    The sample page for the MaskedEdit says "Tip: Type 'A' or 'P' to switch AM/PM". Are these keys hardcoded? Does the control automatically change itself for cultures that use 12-hour designators that don't start with A or P? Or is just broken for those? example: Arabic (Saudi Arabia) - AM: ? Arabic (Saudi Arabia) - PM: ? Chinese (Taiwan) - AM: ?? Chinese (Taiwan) - PM: ?? Greek (Greece) - AM: pµ Greek (Greece) - PM: µµ Korean (Korea) - AM: ?? Korean (Korea) - PM: ?? Albanian (Albania) - AM: PD Albanian (Albania) - PM: MD Persian (Iran) - AM: ?.? Persian (Iran) - PM: ?.? Vietnamese (Vietnam) - AM: SA Vietnamese (Vietnam) - PM: CH Afrikaans (South Africa) - PM: nm Punjabi (India) - AM: ????? Punjabi (India) - PM: ??? Syriac (Syria) - AM: ?.? Syriac (Syria) - PM: ?.? If this control doesn't handle this situation, does anyone know of a control that does?

    Read the article

  • RIA Services for transmitting non DB object-graph

    - by Mike Gates
    I have been getting into RIA services because I thought it would simplify dealing with the services layer of web applications I wish to build. I see lots of examples out there showing how to create DomainService classes which expose and consume entities that have some kind of relational database backing, and therefore have foreign-key relationships. However, I would like to know how to expose and consume normal object graphs...objects that contain references to eachother but don't have foreign keys. For example, say I want a service operation called "GetFolderInformation(string pathToFolder)". I want this to return a custom object called "FolderInformation" structured with: - string Name - IEnumerable<FileInformation> Files I cannot get this to work because it seems that RIA wants to deal with entities that have foreign key relationships. Why? Why can't the serializer just see my object references and recreate that in the proxy on the other side? Data exists behind service layers that doesn't necessarily have foreign key relationships...like folder/file for example. EDIT: I realized I hadn't asked my question! My question is, is there a way to do what I am trying to do?

    Read the article

  • Localization: How to allow the user to define custom resources without compiling?

    - by gehho
    In our application, we have a collection of data items, each with a DisplayedName property. This property should be localized, i.e. it should be displayed in the language selected by the user. Therefore, another property, DisplayedNameResourceKey, specifies which resource should be returned by the DisplayedName property. In simplified code this means something like this: public string DisplayedName { get { return MyResources.ResourceManager.GetObject(this.DisplayedNameResourceKey); } } public string DisplayedNameResourceKey { get; set; } Now, the problem is: The user should be able to edit these items including the DisplayedName, or more precisely the DisplayedNameResourceKey. And not only this, but the user should also be able to somehow define new resources which he can then reference. That is, he can either choose from a predefined set of resources (some commonly used names), or define a custom resource which then needs to be localized by the user as well. However, the user cannot add custom resources to MyResources at runtime and without compiling. Therefore, another approach is needed. It does not have to be an extremely user-friendly way (e.g. UI is not required) because this will typically be done by our service engineers. I was thinking about using a txt or csv file containing pairs of resource keys and the corresponding translations. A separate file would exist for every language at a predefined location. But I am not really satisfied with that idea because it involves a lot of work to resolve the resources. Does anyone know a good approach for such a situation?

    Read the article

  • How do I find the module dependencies of my Perl script?

    - by zoul
    I want another developer to run a Perl script I have written. The script uses many CPAN modules that have to be installed before the script can be run. Is it possible to make the script (or the perl binary) to dump a list of all the missing modules? Perl prints out the missing modules’ names when I attempt to run the script, but this is verbose and does not list all the missing modules at once. I’d like to do something like: $ cpan -i `said-script --list-deps` Or even: $ list-deps said-script > required-modules # on my machine $ cpan -i `cat required-modules` # on his machine Is there a simple way to do it? This is not a show stopper, but I would like to make the other developer’s life easier. (The required modules are sprinkled across several files, so that it’s not easy for me to make the list by hand without missing anything. I know about PAR, but it seems a bit too complicated for what I want.) Update: Thanks, Manni, that will do. I did not know about %INC, I only knew about @INC. I settled with something like this: print join("\n", map { s|/|::|g; s|\.pm$||; $_ } keys %INC); Which prints out: Moose::Meta::TypeConstraint::Registry Moose::Meta::Role::Application::ToClass Class::C3 List::Util Imager::Color … Looks like this will work.

    Read the article

  • Key strokes in wpf window hosted in MFC ActiveX running in Internet Explorer

    - by user310046
    We have an MFC ActiveX control created in Visual Studio 2008 with CLR support which creates a WPF grid and shows a WPF window within that grid. This ActiveX is hosted within Internet Explorer and it shows up and works nicely except that the tab key, backspace, function keys etc. does not work since they are handeled by IE instead of the WPF window. Regular characters works nicely. This is a known feature and previously when we used to have MFC based dialogs within this ActiveX we used this: http://support.microsoft.com/kb/187988. By just using this code directly the AfxGetApp()->PreTranslateMessage((LPMSG)lParam) statement will return FALSE, so I'm not able to get the key stroke to be handled by the WPF window. I beleive I need to ask the WPF application this instead of the CWinApp, but I'm not sure how and if this can be done. Does anyone have enough understanding of what's going on here to get this to work? Using XBAP instead of ActiveX is not an option as this is run in an intranet application which needs more access than the sandbox can give us. I hope this is enough information. With best regards Svein Dybvik

    Read the article

  • A doubt on DOM parser used with Python

    - by fixxxer
    I'm using the following python code to search for a node in an XML file and changing the value of an attribute of one of it's children.Changes are happening correctly when the node is displayed using toxml().But, when it is written to a file, the attributes rearrange themselves(as seen in the Source and the Final XML below). Could anyone explain how and why this happen? Python code: #!/usr/bin/env python import xml from xml.dom.minidom import parse dom=parse("max.xml") #print "Please enter the store name:" for sku in dom.getElementsByTagName("node"): if sku.getAttribute("name") == "store": sku.childNodes[1].childNodes[5].setAttribute("value","Delhi,India") print sku.toxml() xml.dom.ext.PrettyPrint(dom, open("new.xml", "w")) a part of the Source XML: <node name='store' node_id='515' module='mpx.lib.node.simple_value.SimpleValue' config_builder='' inherant='false' description='Configurable Value'> <match> <property name='1' value='point'/> <property name='2' value='0'/> <property name='val' value='Store# 09204 Staten Island, NY'/> <property name='3' value='str'/> </match> </node> Final XML : <node config_builder="" description="Configurable Value" inherant="false" module="mpx.lib.node.simple_value.SimpleValue" name="store" node_id="515"> <match> <property name="1" value="point"/> <property name="2" value="0"/> <property name="val" value="Delhi,India"/> <property name="3" value="str"/> </match> </node>

    Read the article

  • jQuery .attr() crashing Internet Explorer

    - by Sunyatasattva
    Hello everyone, This is my first time posting a question here, as I usually try to find solutions myself. This one, though, being an IE issue, just drives me crazy. I use jQuery cycle plug-in on a website I made and, to populate a caption div, I use a little function that is called after the image is loaded, which uses the "alt" attribute of the image. This seems to exasperate Internet Explorer, which, doesn't have the time to fulfill this apparently so-complicated task, and, as the slideshow cycles, it enters in an infinite loop and eventually crashes – the newer the version, the worse the crash: the older IEs just display an error message saying “The webpage cannot be displayed”, while the newer (7 and 8) completely crash the system. I have no idea on how to solve or work around this. Here is the problematic code. function changeCaption() { var caption = $("img", this).attr("alt"); $('#caption').fadeIn("slow").html(caption); } Thanks in advance for any pointer: I am amazed as how something so simple and globally recognized (didn't encounter any other browser who had problem with this), can cause a problem so big. I also read somewhere that being able to crash a browser remotely is a serious issue :) Lucio

    Read the article

  • need primitive public key signature with out of band key distribution

    - by Mike D
    I pretty much a complete neophyte at this signature business so I don't know if what I'm asking is nonsense or not. Anyway, here goes... I want to send an out of band message (don't worry about how it gets there) to a program I've written on a distant machine. I want the program to have some confidence the message is legit by attaching a digital signature to the message. The message will be small less than 200 characters. It seems a public key based signature is what I want to use. I could embed the public key in the program. I understand that the program would be vulnerable to attack by anyone who modifies it BUT I'm not too worried about that. The consequences are not dire. I've looked through the MSDN and around the web but the prospect of diving in is daunting. I'm writing in straight c++, no NET framework or other fancy stuff. I've had no experience including NET framework stuff and little luck during previous attempts. Can anyone point me at some very basic resources to get me started? I need to know 1)how to generate the public and private keys 2)how to sign the message 3)how to verify the signature Any help much appreciated. TIA, Mike

    Read the article

  • PHP $_SERVER['HTTP_HOST'] vs. $_SERVER['SERVER_NAME'], am I understanding the man pages correctly?

    - by Jeff
    I did a lot of searching and also read the PHP $_SERVER man page. Do I have this right regarding which to use for my PHP scripts for simple link definitions used throughout my site? $_SERVER['SERVER_NAME'] is based on your web servers' config file (Apache2 in my case), and varies depending on a few directives: (1) VirtualHost, (2) ServerName, (3) UseCanonicalName, etc. $_SERVER['HTTP_HOST'] is based on the request from the client. Therefore, it would seem to me that the proper one to use in order to make my scripts as compatible as possible would be $_SERVER['HTTP_HOST']. Is this assumption correct? Followup comments: I guess I got a little paranoid after reading this article and noting that someone said "they wouldn't trust any of the $_SERVER vars": http://markjaquith.wordpress.com/2009/09/21/php-server-vars-not-safe-in-forms-or-links/ and also: http://www.php.net/manual/en/reserved.variables.server.php (comment: Vladimir Kornea 14-Mar-2009 01:06) Apparently the discussion is mainly about $_SERVER['PHP_SELF'] and why you shouldn't use it in the form action attribute without proper escaping to prevent XSS attacks. My conclusion about my original question above is that it is "safe" to use $_SERVER['HTTP_HOST'] for all links on a site without having to worry about XSS attacks, even when used in forms. Please correct me if I'm wrong.

    Read the article

  • jQuery: list appended not displaying bullets

    - by Shizhidi
    I have the following html: <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <script src="http://code.jquery.com/jquery-latest.js"></script> </head> <body> <span>not so important</span> <span title="some specific text"><img src="/img/some.gif" /></span> <span title="more specific text">important 1</span> <span title="more specific text">important 2</span> <span title="more specific text">important 3</span> <span title="more specific text"><img src="/img/some.gif" /></span> <ul> <li>example 1</li> <li>example 2</li> <li>example 3</li> <ul> <script> var ul = $('body').append($('<ul>')); $("span[title*='specific text']") .contents() .filter(function(){ return $(this).nodeType != 1; }) .each(function(){ ul.append($('<li>' + $(this).text() + '</li>')); }) </script> </body> </html> I want to retrieve the text within a 'span' whose title attribute contains "specific text", in this case "important 1", "important 2" and "important 3". Then I want to list them below just like the example. However the bullets do not appear, why is that? Any hints would be appreciated!

    Read the article

  • Visual Studio 2008 freeze after save

    - by Klay
    I recently added about a dozen classes from another solution into my current solution in Visual Studio. After adding these classes, Visual Studio started freezing for about 10 seconds whenever I Save. The cursor disappears and mouse clicks and keys do nothing. Some interesting points: Even after I removed the classes, the freezing behavior is still there. Freezing occurs whether I've made changes to the code or not. This behavior ONLY seems to affect this particular version of this solution. No other solutions exhibit this behavior. Older versions of this solution are not affected. In Sysinternals Process Explorer, whenever I save in Visual Studio, the I/O bytes graph jumps from 0 to 2MB for about 5 seconds, then drops to about 1 MB for a split second, then jumps back to 2MB for another 5 seconds. Processor use goes up to about 3-5% during this time. Here are the details of my setup: C# Silverlight project (maybe 20 classes), .NET version 3.5 SP1, Visual Studio 2008 v9.0.30729 SP1. EDIT: I edited this question extensively to reflect the more detailed information. I thought this might be preferable to starting a new question.

    Read the article

  • Can't override "From" address in MailMessage class using .config login credentials

    - by Jeff
    I'm updating some existing code that sends a simple email using .Net's SMTP classes. Sample code is below. The SMTP host is google and login info is contained in the App.config as shown below (obviously not real login info :)). The problem I'm having, and I haven't been able to find any answers Googling, is that I can NOT override the display of the "from" email address that's contained in the "username" attribute off the Network element in the config in the delivered email. In the line below that explicitly sets the From property off the myMailMessage object, that value, "[email protected]" does NOT display when the email is received. It still shows as "[email protected]" from the Network tag. However, the From name "Sparky" does appear in the email. I've tried adding a custom "From" header to the Header property of the myMailMessage but that didn't work either. Is there anyway to login to the smtp server, as shown below using the Network tag credentials, but in the actual email received override the From email address that's displayed? Sample code: MailMessage myMailMessage = new MailMessage(); myMailMessage.Subject = "My New Mail"; myMailMessage.Body = "This is my test mail to check"; myMailMessage.From = new MailAddress("[email protected]", "Sparky"); myMailMessage.To.Add(new MailAddress("[email protected]", "receiver name")); SmtpClient mySmtpClient = new SmtpClient(); mySmtpClient.Send(myMailMessage); in App.config: <system.net> <mailSettings> <smtp deliveryMethod="Network" from="[email protected]"> <network host="smtp.gmail.com" port="587" userName="[email protected]" password="mypassword" defaultCredentials="false"/> </smtp> </mailSettings> </system.net>

    Read the article

  • jQuery server ping slowly but surely filling memory?

    - by danspants
    I use the following piece of code to test if our server is running whilst the user is in a page. I've also started adding other functions that grab small amounts of data that are constantly changing and are to be relayed to the user (Files waiting for download, messages, reports etc). I've noticed recently that if I leave any page open (all pages contain the same function), the browser takes up more and more system memory which I can only attribute to this regular task (overnight it reached 1.6 gb). Is there some way of clearing out the data that is being accumulated? Is this normal behaviour? As far as i can tell, every time I call the function it should overwrite the previously retrieved data? function testServer(){ jQuery.ajax({ type:"HEAD", url:"/media/d_arrow_blue.png", error: function(msg) { jQuery.jGrowl("Server Disconnected"); } }); //retrieves count of files awaiting download - move to seperate function jQuery.get("/get_files/",{"type":"count"},function(data) { jQuery("#downloadList").children("div").text(data); }); }; jQuery().doTimeout(6000,function() { testServer(); return true; });

    Read the article

  • About Data Objects and DAO Design when using Hibernate

    - by X. Ma
    I'm hesitating between two designs of a database project using Hibernate. Design #1. (1) Create a general data provider interface, including a set of DAO interfaces and general data container classes. It hides the underneath implementation. A data provider implementation could access data in database, or an XML file, or a service, or something else. The user of a data provider does not to know about it. (2) Create a database library with Hibernate. This library implements the data provider interface in (1). The bad thing about Design #1 is that in order to hide the implementation details, I need to create two sets of data container classes. One in the general data provider interface - let's call them DPI-Objects, the other set is used in the database library, exclusively for entity/attribute mapping in Hibernate - let's call them H-Objects. In the DAO implementation, I need to read data from database to create H-Objects (via Hibernate) and then convert H-Objects into DPI-Objects. Design #2. Do not create a general data provider interface. Expose H-Objects directly to components that use the database lib. So the user of the database library needs to be aware of Hibernate. I like design #1 more, but I don't want to create two sets of data container classes. Is that the right way to hide H-Objects and other Hibernate implementation details from the user who uses the database-based data provider? Are there any drawbacks of Design #2? I will not implement other data provider in the new future, so should I just forget about the data provider interface and use Design #2? What do you think about this? Thanks for your time!

    Read the article

  • Using Linq2Sql to insert data into multiple tables using an auto incremented primary key

    - by Thomas
    I have a Customer table with a Primary key (int auto increment) and an Address table with a foreign key to the Customer table. I am trying to insert both rows into the database in one nice transaction. using (DatabaseDataContext db = new DatabaseDataContext()) { Customer newCustomer = new Customer() { Email = customer.Email }; Address b = new Address() { CustomerID = newCustomer.CustomerID, Address1 = billingAddress.Address1 }; db.Customers.InsertOnSubmit(newCustomer); db.Addresses.InsertOnSubmit(b); db.SubmitChanges(); } When I run this I was hoping that the Customer and Address table automatically had the correct keys in the database since the context knows this is an auto incremented key and will do two inserts with the right key in both tables. The only way I can get this to work would be to do SubmitChanges() on the Customer object first then create the address and do SubmitChanges() on that as well. This would create two roundtrips to the database and I would like to see if I can do this in one transaction. Is it possible? Thanks

    Read the article

  • SHGetFolderPath returns path with question marks in it

    - by Colen
    Hi, Our application calls ShGetFolderPath when it runs, to get the My Documents folder. This normally works great. However, for three users - ???????, Jörg and Jörgen (see if you can spot the pattern!) - the call returns some very strange results. For example, for ???????, the call returns: c:\Users\???????\Documents I assume there's some sort of character encoding shenanigan going on here, possibly related to Unicode, but I don't have any experience with that sort of thing. How can I get a useful path to the folder (and other related folders) out of windows, without grovelling through registry keys for the information? In an email to me, ??????? ("Dmitry"), told me his "my documents" folder was actually located here: C:\Users\43D6~1\Documents So I know there's a way to get a "normal" version of the path out of Windows, I just don't know what it is. Background: Our application is not unicode-aware, and uses standard "char *" strings. How can we get the "normal" path? I'm not opposed to calling the "unicode" version of the function, then converting it to "normal" text, if that's possible. Converting the application entirely to use unicode is not an option here (we don't have the time). Thanks.

    Read the article

  • C# Byte[] to Url Friendly String

    - by LorenVS
    Hello, I'm working on a quick captcha generator for a simple site I'm putting together, and I'm hoping to pass an encrypted key in the url of the page. I could probably do this as a query string parameter easy enough, but I'm hoping not too (just because nothing else runs off the query string)... My encryption code produces a byte[], which is then transformed using Convert.ToBase64String(byte[]) into a string. This string, however, is still not quite url friendly, as it can contain things like '/' and '='. Does anyone know of a better function in the .NET framework to convert a byte array to a url friendly string? I know all about System.Web.HttpUtility.UrlEncode() and its equivalents, however, they only work properly with query string parameters. If I url encode an '=' inside of the path, my web server brings back a 400 Bad Request error. Anyways, not a critical issue, but hoping someone can give me a nice solution **EDIT: Just to be absolutely sure exactly what I'm doing with the string, I figured I would supply a little more information. The byte[] that results from my encryption algorithm should be fed through some sort of algorithm to make it into a url friendly string. After this, it becomes the content of an XElement, which is then used as the source document for an XSLT transformation, and is used as a part of the href attribute for an anchor. I don't believe the xslt transformation is causing the issues, since what is coming through on the path appears to be an encoded query string parameter, but causes the HTTP 400 I've also tried HttpUtility.UrlPathEncode() on a base64 string, but that doesn't seem to do the trick either (I still end up with '/'s in my url)**

    Read the article

  • Exception Handling in ASP.NET MVC and Ajax - [HandleException] filter

    - by Graham
    All, I'm learning MVC and using it for a business app (MVC 1.0). I'm really struggling to get my head around exception handling. I've spent a lot of time on the web but not found anything along the lines of what I'm after. We currently use a filter attribute that implements IExceptionFilter. We decorate a base controller class with this so all server side exceptions are nicely routed to an exception page that displays the error and performs logging. I've started to use AJAX calls that return JSON data but when the server side implementation throws an error, the filter is fired but the page does not redirect to the Error page - it just stays on the page that called the AJAX method. Is there any way to force the redirect on the server (e.g. a ASP.NET Server.Transfer or redirect?) I've read that I must return a JSON object (wrapping the .NET Exception) and then redirect on the client, but then I can't guarantee the client will redirect... but then (although I'm probably doing something wrong) the server attempts to redirect but then gets an unauthorised exception (the base controller is secured but the Exception controller is not as it does not inherit from this) Has anybody please got a simple example (.NET and jQuery code). I feel like I'm randomly trying things in the hope it will work Exception Filter so far... public class HandleExceptionAttribute : FilterAttribute, IExceptionFilter { #region IExceptionFilter Members public void OnException(ExceptionContext filterContext) { if (filterContext.ExceptionHandled) { return; } filterContext.Controller.TempData[CommonLookup.ExceptionObject] = filterContext.Exception; if (filterContext.HttpContext.Request.IsAjaxRequest()) { filterContext.Result = AjaxException(filterContext.Exception.Message, filterContext); } else { //Redirect to global handler filterContext.Result = new RedirectToRouteResult(new RouteValueDictionary(new { controller = AvailableControllers.Exception, action = AvailableActions.HandleException })); filterContext.ExceptionHandled = true; filterContext.HttpContext.Response.Clear(); } } #endregion private JsonResult AjaxException(string message, ExceptionContext filterContext) { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(message)) { message = "Server error"; //TODO: Replace with better message } filterContext.HttpContext.Response.StatusCode = (int)HttpStatusCode.InternalServerError; filterContext.HttpContext.Response.TrySkipIisCustomErrors = true; //Needed for IIS7.0 return new JsonResult { Data = new { ErrorMessage = message }, ContentEncoding = Encoding.UTF8, }; } }

    Read the article

  • General many-to-many relationship problem ( Postgresql )

    - by David
    Hi, i have two tables: CREATE TABLE "public"."auctions" ( "id" VARCHAR(255) NOT NULL, "auction_value_key" VARCHAR(255) NOT NULL, "ctime" TIMESTAMP WITHOUT TIME ZONE NOT NULL, "mtime" TIMESTAMP WITHOUT TIME ZONE NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT "pk_XXXX2" PRIMARY KEY("id"), ); and CREATE TABLE "public"."auction_values" ( "id" NUMERIC DEFAULT nextval('default_seq'::regclass) NOT NULL, "fk_auction_value_key" VARCHAR(255) NOT NULL, "key" VARCHAR(255) NOT NULL, "value" TEXT, "ctime" TIMESTAMP WITHOUT TIME ZONE NOT NULL, "mtime" TIMESTAMP WITHOUT TIME ZONE NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT "pk_XXXX1" PRIMARY KEY("id"), ); if i want to create a many-to-many relationship on the auction_value_key like this: ALTER TABLE "public"."auction_values" ADD CONSTRAINT "auction_values_fk" FOREIGN KEY ("fk_auction_value_key") REFERENCES "public"."auctions"("auction_value_key") ON DELETE NO ACTION ON UPDATE NO ACTION NOT DEFERRABLE; i get this SQL error: ERROR: there is no unique constraint matching given keys for referenced table "auctions" Question: As you might see, i want "auction_values" to be be "reused" by different auctions without duplicating them for every auction... So i don't want a key relation on the "id" field in the auctions table... Am i thinking wrong here or what is the deal? ;) Thanks

    Read the article

  • Generating JavaScript in C# and subsequent testing

    - by Codebrain
    We are currently developing an ASP.NET MVC application which makes heavy use of attribute-based metadata to drive the generation of JavaScript. Below is a sample of the type of methods we are writing: function string GetJavascript<T>(string javascriptPresentationFunctionName, string inputId, T model) { return @"function updateFormInputs(value){ $('#" + inputId + @"_SelectedItemState').val(value); $('#" + inputId + @"_Presentation').val(value); } function clearInputs(){ " + helper.ClearHiddenInputs<T>(model) + @" updateFormInputs(''); } function handleJson(json){ clearInputs(); " + helper.UpdateHiddenInputsWithJson<T>("json", model) + @" updateFormInputs(" + javascriptPresentationFunctionName + @"()); " + model.GetCallBackFunctionForJavascript("json") + @" }"; } This method generates some boilerplace and hands off to various other methods which return strings. The whole lot is then returned as a string and written to the output. The question(s) I have are: 1) Is there a nicer way to do this other than using large string blocks? We've considered using a StringBuilder or the Response Stream but it seems quite 'noisy'. Using string.format starts to become difficult to comprehend. 2) How would you go about unit testing this code? It seems a little amateur just doing a string comparison looking for particular output in the string. 3) What about actually testing the eventual JavaScript output? Thanks for your input!

    Read the article

  • How to organize integrity tests and code unit tests?

    - by karlthorwald
    I have several files with code testing code (which uses a "unittest" class). Later I found it would be nice to test database integrity also. I put this into a separate directory tree. (Things like the keys have correct format, parent and child nodes are pointing correctly and such.) I use the same unittest class for the integrity tests. Now I wonder if it makes really sense to keep this separate. To test the integrity of data I often duplicate parts of code that I use to test the code that handles the data. But it is not the same. The code tests use test databases (that get deleted after each test) and the integrity tests connect to the live data and analyze it. The integrity tests I want to call from cron and send an alarm if something happens in the live database. How would you handle that? Are there standards for such a setup? What is your experience? My tendency is to put everything in the same file, which would result in the code tests also being executed by the cron on the production environment.

    Read the article

  • SQL Concurrent test update question

    - by ptoinson
    Howdy Folks, I have a SQLServer 2008 database in which I have a table for Tags. A tag is just an id and a name. The definition of the tags table looks like: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[Tag]( [ID] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [Name] [varchar](255) NOT NULL CONSTRAINT [PK_Tag] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [ID] ASC )WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ) Name is also a unique index. further I have several processes adding data to this table at a pretty rapid rate. These processes use a stored proc that looks like: ALTER PROC [dbo].[lg_Tag_Insert] @Name varchar(255) AS DECLARE @ID int SET @ID = (select ID from Tag where Name=@Name ) if @ID is null begin INSERT Tag(Name) VALUES (@Name) RETURN SCOPE_IDENTITY() end else begin return @ID end My issues is that, other than being a novice at concurrent database design, there seems to be a race condition that is causing me to occasionally get an error that I'm trying to enter duplicate keys (Name) into the DB. The error is: Cannot insert duplicate key row in object 'dbo.Tag' with unique index 'IX_Tag_Name'. This makes sense, I'm just not sure how to fix this. If it where code I would know how to lock the right areas. SQLServer is quite a different beast. First question is what is the proper way to code this 'check, then update pattern'? It seems I need to get an exclusive lock on the row during the check, rather than a shared lock, but it's not clear to me the best way to do that. Any help in the right direction will be greatly appreciated. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Is this a clean way to manage AsyncResults with Generic Methods?

    - by Michael Stum
    I've contributed Async Support to a Project I'm using, but I made a bug which I'm trying to fix. Basically I have this construct: private readonly Dictionary<WaitHandle, object> genericCallbacks = new Dictionary<WaitHandle, object>(); public IAsyncResult BeginExecute<T>(RestRequest request, AsyncCallback callback, object state) where T : new() { var genericCallback = new RequestExecuteCaller<T>(this.Execute<T>); var asyncResult = genericCallback.BeginInvoke(request, callback, state); genericCallbacks[asyncResult.AsyncWaitHandle] = genericCallback; return asyncResult; } public RestResponse<T> EndExecute<T>(IAsyncResult asyncResult) where T : new() { var cb = genericCallbacks[asyncResult.AsyncWaitHandle] as RequestExecuteCaller<T>; genericCallbacks.Remove(asyncResult.AsyncWaitHandle); return cb.EndInvoke(asyncResult); } So I have a generic BeginExecute/EndExecute method pair. As I need to store the delegate that is called on EndExecute somewhere I created a dictionary. I'm unsure about using WaitHandles as keys though, but that seems to be the only safe choice. Does this approach make sense? Are WaitHandles unique or could I have two equal ones? Or should I instead use the State (and wrap any user provided state into my own State value)? Just to add, the class itself is non-generic, only the Begin/EndExecute methods are generic.

    Read the article

  • Can I use manifests to consume a COM server without specifying its version?

    - by sharptooth
    Two of our programs use the same COM server (also made by us) with the same class ids. Each program when installing copies the COM server files into its folder and regsvr32s the COM server. The problem is how to install the COM server so that the user can install either one or both of our programs into different folders in any order and likely of different versions. Clearly it's impossible without changing the class ids and that's lots of hassle with configurations. Ideally we would like to use manifests for that and go without regsvr32. The problem is every time I read about reg-free COM (for example, here) there's the version attribute in the assemblyIdentity. The version number should change every nightly build and I totally don't like the idea of (automatically) adjusting it. I understand why specifying dependency on a specific version is good, but it's completely useless in our scenarion. Is there a way to write manifests for both the COM server and the consumer so that they don't specify versions and just work with whatever version of the file happens to be in the folder? Also is there a way to restrict the search to the same folder as the consumer?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 357 358 359 360 361 362 363 364 365 366 367 368  | Next Page >