Search Results

Search found 10804 results on 433 pages for 'attribute keys'.

Page 364/433 | < Previous Page | 360 361 362 363 364 365 366 367 368 369 370 371  | Next Page >

  • How to convert struct to char array in C

    - by falcojr
    I'm trying to convert a struct to a char array to send over the network. However, I get some weird output from the char array when I do. #include <stdio.h> struct x { int x; } __attribute__((packed)); int main() { struct x a; a.x=127; char *b = (char *)&a; int i; for (i=0; i<4; i++) printf("%02x ", b[i]); printf("\n"); for (i=0; i<4; i++) printf("%d ", b[i]); printf("\n"); return 0; } Here is the output for various values of a.x (on an X86 using gcc): 127: 7f 00 00 00 127 0 0 0 128: ffffff80 00 00 00 -128 0 0 0 255: ffffffff 00 00 00 -1 0 0 0 256: 00 01 00 00 0 1 0 0 I understand the values for 127 and 256, but why do the numbers change when going to 128? Why wouldn't it just be: 80 00 00 00 128 0 0 0 Am I forgetting to do something in the conversion process or am I forgetting something about integer representation? *Note: This is just a small test program. In a real program I have more in the struct, better variable names, and I convert to little-endian. *Edit: formatting

    Read the article

  • Python access an object byref / Need tagging

    - by Aaron C. de Bruyn
    I need to suck data from stdin and create a object. The incoming data is between 5 and 10 lines long. Each line has a process number and either an IP address or a hash. For example: pid=123 ip=192.168.0.1 - some data pid=123 hash=ABCDEF0123 - more data hash=ABCDEF123 - More data ip=192.168.0.1 - even more data I need to put this data into a class like: class MyData(): pid = None hash = None ip = None lines = [] I need to be able to look up the object by IP, HASH, or PID. The tough part is that there are multiple streams of data intermixed coming from stdin. (There could be hundreds or thousands of processes writing data at the same time.) I have regular expressions pulling out the PID, IP, and HASH that I need, but how can I access the object by any of those values? My thought was to do something like this: myarray = {} for each line in sys.stdin.readlines(): if pid and ip: #If we can get a PID out of the line myarray[pid] = MyData().pid = pid #Create a new MyData object, assign the PID, and stick it in myarray accessible by PID. myarray[pid].ip = ip #Add the IP address to the new object myarray[pid].lines.append(data) #Append the data myarray[ip] = myarray[pid] #Take the object by PID and create a key from the IP. <snip>do something similar for pid and hash, hash and ip, etc...</snip> This gives my an array with two keys (a PID and an IP) and they both point to the same object. But on the next iteration of the loop, if I find (for example) an IP and HASH and do: myarray[hash] = myarray[ip] The following is False: myarray[hash] == myarray[ip] Hopefully that was clear. I hate to admit that waaay back in the VB days, I remember being able handle objects byref instead of byval. Is there something similar in Python? Or am I just approaching this wrong?

    Read the article

  • how to display my list with n amount on each line in Python

    - by user1786698
    im trying to display my list with 7 states on each line here is what i have so far, but it displays as one long string of all the states with quotes around each state. I forgot to mention that this is for my CS class and we havent learned iter yet so we not allowed to use it. the only hint i was given was to to turn STATE_LIST into a string then use '\n' to break it up state = str(STATE_LIST) displaystates = Text(Point(WINDOW_WIDTH/2, WINDOW_HEIGHT/2), state.split('\n')) displaystates.draw(win) and STATE_LIST looks like this STATE_VOTES = { "AL" : 9, # Alabama "AK" : 3, # Alaska "AZ" : 11, # Arizona "AR" : 6, # Arkansas "CA" : 55, # California "CO" : 9, # Colorado "CT" : 7, # Connecticut "DE" : 3, # Delaware "DC" : 3, # Washington DC "FL" : 29, # Florida "GA" : 16, # Georgia "HI" : 4, # Hawaii "ID" : 4, # Idaho "IL" : 20, # Illinois "IN" : 11, # Indiana "IA" : 6, # Iowa "KS" : 6, # Kansas "KY" : 8, # Kentucky "LA" : 8, # Louisiana "ME" : 4, # Maine "MD" : 10, # Maryland "MA" : 11, # Massachusetts "MI" : 16, # Michigan "MN" : 10, # Minnesota "MS" : 6, # Mississippi "MO" : 10, # Missouri "MT" : 3, # Montana "NE" : 5, # Nebraska "NV" : 6, # Nevada "NH" : 4, # New Hampshire "NJ" : 14, # New Jersey "NM" : 5, # New Mexico "NY" : 29, # New York "NC" : 15, # North Carolina "ND" : 3, # North Dakota "OH" : 18, # Ohio "OK" : 7, # Oklahoma "OR" : 7, # Oregon "PA" : 20, # Pennsylvania "RI" : 4, # Rhode Island "SC" : 9, # South Carolina "SD" : 3, # South Dakota "TN" : 11, # Tennessee "TX" : 38, # Texas "UT" : 6, # Utah "VT" : 3, # Vermont "VA" : 13, # Virginia "WA" : 12, # Washington "WV" : 5, # West Virginia "WI" : 10, # Wisconsin "WY" : 3 # Wyoming } STATE_LIST = sorted(list(STATE_VOTES.keys())) I am trying to get it to look somewhat like this

    Read the article

  • General many-to-many relationship problem ( Postgresql )

    - by David
    Hi, i have two tables: CREATE TABLE "public"."auctions" ( "id" VARCHAR(255) NOT NULL, "auction_value_key" VARCHAR(255) NOT NULL, "ctime" TIMESTAMP WITHOUT TIME ZONE NOT NULL, "mtime" TIMESTAMP WITHOUT TIME ZONE NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT "pk_XXXX2" PRIMARY KEY("id"), ); and CREATE TABLE "public"."auction_values" ( "id" NUMERIC DEFAULT nextval('default_seq'::regclass) NOT NULL, "fk_auction_value_key" VARCHAR(255) NOT NULL, "key" VARCHAR(255) NOT NULL, "value" TEXT, "ctime" TIMESTAMP WITHOUT TIME ZONE NOT NULL, "mtime" TIMESTAMP WITHOUT TIME ZONE NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT "pk_XXXX1" PRIMARY KEY("id"), ); if i want to create a many-to-many relationship on the auction_value_key like this: ALTER TABLE "public"."auction_values" ADD CONSTRAINT "auction_values_fk" FOREIGN KEY ("fk_auction_value_key") REFERENCES "public"."auctions"("auction_value_key") ON DELETE NO ACTION ON UPDATE NO ACTION NOT DEFERRABLE; i get this SQL error: ERROR: there is no unique constraint matching given keys for referenced table "auctions" Question: As you might see, i want "auction_values" to be be "reused" by different auctions without duplicating them for every auction... So i don't want a key relation on the "id" field in the auctions table... Am i thinking wrong here or what is the deal? ;) Thanks

    Read the article

  • Checking inherited attributes in an 'ancestry' based SQL table

    - by Brendon Muir
    I'm using the ancestry gem to help organise my app's tree structure in the database. It basically writes a childs ancestor information to a special column called 'ancestry'. The ancestry column for a particular child might look like '1/34/87' where the parent of this child is 87, and then 87's parent is 34 and 34's is 1. It seems possible that we could select rows from this table each with a subquery that checks all the ancestors to see if a certain attribute it set. E.g. in my app you can hide an item and its children just by setting the parent element's visibility column to 0. I want to be able to find all the items where none of their ancestors are hidden. I tried converting the slashes to comma's with the REPLACE command but IN required a set of comma separated integers rather than one string with comma separated string numbers. It's funny, because I can do this query in two steps, e.g. retrieve the row, then take its ancestry column, split out the id's and make another query that checks that the id is IN that set of id's and that visibility isn't ever 0 and whala! But joining these into one query seems to be quite a task. Much searching has shown a few answers but none really do what I want. SELECT * FROM t1 WHERE id = 99; 99's ancestry column reads '1/34/87' SELECT * FROM t1 WHERE visibility = 0 AND id IN (1,34,87); kind of backwards, but if this returns no rows then the item is visible. Has anyone come across this before and come up with a solution. I don't really want to go the stored procedure route. It's for a rails app.

    Read the article

  • Core data migration failing with "Can't find model for source store" but managedObjectModel for source is present

    - by Ira Cooke
    I have a cocoa application using core-data, which is now at the 4th version of its managed object model. My managed object model contains abstract entities but so far I have managed to get migration working by creating appropriate mapping models and creating my persistent store using addPersistentStoreWithType:configuration:options:error and with the NSMigratePersistentStoresAutomaticallyOption set to YES. NSDictionary *optionsDictionary = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObject:[NSNumber numberWithBool:YES] forKey:NSMigratePersistentStoresAutomaticallyOption]; NSURL *url = [NSURL fileURLWithPath: [applicationSupportFolder stringByAppendingPathComponent: @"MyApp.xml"]]; NSError *error=nil; [theCoordinator addPersistentStoreWithType:NSXMLStoreType configuration:nil URL:url options:optionsDictionary error:&error] This works fine when I migrate from model version 3 to 4, which is a migration that involves adding attributes to several entities. Now when I try to add a new model version (version 5), the call to addPersistentStoreWithType returns nil and the error remains empty. The migration from 4 to 5 involves adding a single attribute. I am struggling to debug the problem and have checked all the following; The source database is in fact at version 4 and the persistentStoreCoordinator's managed object model is at version 5. The 4-5 mapping model as well as managed object models for versions 4 and 5 are present in the resources folder of my built application. I've tried various model upgrade paths. Strangely I find that upgrading from an early version 3 - 5 works .. but upgrading from 4 - 5 fails. I've tried adding a custom entity migration policy for migration of the entity whose attributes are changing ... in this case I overrode the method beginEntityMapping:manager:error: . Interestingly this method does get called when migration works (ie when I migrate from 3 to 4, or from 3 to 5 ), but it does not get called in the case that fails ( 4 to 5 ). I'm pretty much at a loss as to where to proceed. Any ideas to help debug this problem would be much appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Symfony: How to hide form fields from display and then set values for them in the action class

    - by Tom
    I am fairly new to symfony and I have 2 fields relating to my table "Pages"; created_by and updated_by. These are related to the users table (sfGuardUser) as foreign keys. I want these to be hidden from the edit/new forms so I have set up the generator.yml file to not display these fields: form: display: General: [name, template_id] Meta: [meta_title, meta_description, meta_keywords] Now I need to set the fields on the save. I have been searching for how to do this all day and tried a hundred methods. The method I have got working is this, in the actions class: protected function processForm(sfWebRequest $request, sfForm $form) { $form_params = $request->getParameter($form->getName()); $form_params['updated_by'] = $this->getUser()->getGuardUser()->getId(); if ($form->getObject()->isNew()) $form_params['created_by'] = $this->getUser()->getGuardUser()->getId(); $form->bind($form_params, $request->getFiles($form->getName())); So this works. But I get the feeling that ideally I shouldnt be modifying the web request, but instead modifying the form/object directly. However I havent had any success with things like: $form->getObject()->setUpdatedBy($this->getUser()->getGuardUser()); If anyone could offer any advice on the best ways about solving this type of problem I would be very grateful. Thanks, Tom

    Read the article

  • Raw types and subtyping

    - by Dmitrii
    We have generic class SomeClass<T>{ } We can write the line: SomeClass s= new SomeClass<String>(); It's ok, because raw type is supertype for generic type. But SomeClass<String> s= new SomeClass(); is correct to. Why is it correct? I thought that type erasure was before type checking, but it's wrong. From Hacker's Guide to Javac When the Java compiler is invoked with default compile policy it performs the following passes: parse: Reads a set of *.java source files and maps the resulting token sequence into AST-Nodes. enter: Enters symbols for the definitions into the symbol table. process annotations: If Requested, processes annotations found in the specified compilation units. attribute: Attributes the Syntax trees. This step includes name resolution, type checking and constant folding. flow: Performs data ow analysis on the trees from the previous step. This includes checks for assignments and reachability. desugar: Rewrites the AST and translates away some syntactic sugar. generate: Generates Source Files or Class Files. Generic is syntax sugar, hence type erasure invoked at 6 pass, after type checking, which invoked at 4 pass. I'm confused.

    Read the article

  • XML parsing by DOM

    - by blackpearl
    NodeList nList2 = doc.getElementsByTagName("dep"); Map<String, List<Map<String, String>>> depMap = new HashMap<String, List<Map<String, String>>>(); for (int temp = 0; temp < nList2.getLength(); temp++) { Element el = (Element)nList2.item(temp); String type=el.getAttribute("type"); Node nNode = nList2.item(temp); if (nNode.getNodeType() == Node.ELEMENT_NODE) { Element eElement = (Element) nNode; List<Map<String,String>> depList = new ArrayList<Map<String,String>>(); String governor = getTagValue("governor", eElement); String dependent = getTagValue("dependent", eElement); Map<String, String> govdepmap = new HashMap<String, String>(); govdepmap.put(governor, dependent); depList.add(govdepmap); List<Map<String,String>> flist = new ArrayList<Map<String,String>>(); flist.add(govdepmap); depMap.put(type, flist); } } I have the following structure in my XML file: going I Now i want to store the "idx" attribute of each "governor" and "dependent" tag. What code should I change or add?

    Read the article

  • XmlAttribute/XmlText cannot be used to encode complex type

    - by Conrad C
    I want to serialize a class Ticket into xml. I get the error :"XmlAttribute/XmlText cannot be used to encode complex type" because of my customfield class. This is how the xml for customfields should look like ( the attribute array is nesseray but I don't understand how to create it): <custom_fields type="array"> <custom_field name="Standby Reason" id="6"> <value/> </custom_field> <custom_field name="Close Date" id="84"> Class Ticket public class Ticket { [XmlElement("custom_fields")] public CustomFields Custom_fields { get; set; } Class CustomFields [Serializable] public class CustomFields { [XmlAttribute("array")] public List<CustomField> custom_field { get; set; } Class CustomField [Serializable] public class CustomField { [XmlIgnore] public string Name { get; set; } [XmlElement] public int Id { get; set; } [XmlElement] public string Value { get; set; }

    Read the article

  • C# Byte[] to Url Friendly String

    - by LorenVS
    Hello, I'm working on a quick captcha generator for a simple site I'm putting together, and I'm hoping to pass an encrypted key in the url of the page. I could probably do this as a query string parameter easy enough, but I'm hoping not too (just because nothing else runs off the query string)... My encryption code produces a byte[], which is then transformed using Convert.ToBase64String(byte[]) into a string. This string, however, is still not quite url friendly, as it can contain things like '/' and '='. Does anyone know of a better function in the .NET framework to convert a byte array to a url friendly string? I know all about System.Web.HttpUtility.UrlEncode() and its equivalents, however, they only work properly with query string parameters. If I url encode an '=' inside of the path, my web server brings back a 400 Bad Request error. Anyways, not a critical issue, but hoping someone can give me a nice solution **EDIT: Just to be absolutely sure exactly what I'm doing with the string, I figured I would supply a little more information. The byte[] that results from my encryption algorithm should be fed through some sort of algorithm to make it into a url friendly string. After this, it becomes the content of an XElement, which is then used as the source document for an XSLT transformation, and is used as a part of the href attribute for an anchor. I don't believe the xslt transformation is causing the issues, since what is coming through on the path appears to be an encoded query string parameter, but causes the HTTP 400 I've also tried HttpUtility.UrlPathEncode() on a base64 string, but that doesn't seem to do the trick either (I still end up with '/'s in my url)**

    Read the article

  • How to exit grid with ctrl-TAB when grid is on a tabpage (onkeydown works when grid not on tabpage)

    - by Charles Hankey
    winforms .net 3.5 Ultrawingrid 9.2 In my subclass of Ultrawingrid.Ultragrid : Protected Overrides Sub OnKeyDown(ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.KeyEventArgs) If e.KeyCode = Windows.Forms.Keys.Tab andalso e.control = True then SetFocusToNextControl(True) End if Mybase.OnKeyDown(e) End Sub This works fine. But when the grid is dropped on a TabControl tabpage, the ctrl-tab looks very different to the sub above. e.keycode is seen as controlkey {17} I realize that by default cntrl-Tab moves between tabpages. I need to override this behavior. My thought is I probably need a subclass of the tabControl which will pass the keycombo through just as the form does but I confess to being clueless as to how to accomplish that. I tried to override the onkeydown of a tabcontrol subclass and just issuing a return and not and base call to onkeydown if the ctrl-tab combo was pressed but it seemed to see the e.keycode as controlkey as well. FWIW I tried a different combination like ctrl-E and got pretty much the same result with focus disappearing from the grid but not going anywhere I could detect. The sub still saw the e.control as controlkey. Oddly, ctrl-X, ctrl-A etc all work in the grid and a ctrl-Delete combo I put in the subclass for deleting a row works fine. Once again - grid directly on form and it all works. I'm definitely over my head on this one. Guidance much appreciated. vb or c# fine. TIA

    Read the article

  • How can I force PHP's fopen() to return the current version of a web page?

    - by Edward Tanguay
    The current content of this google docs page is: However, when reading this page with the following PHP fopen() script, I get an older, cached version: I've tried two solutions proposed in this question (a random attribute and using POST) and I also tried clearstatcache() but I always get the cached version of the web page. What do I have to change in the following script so that fopen() returns the current version of the web page? <?php $url = 'http://docs.google.com/View?id=dc7gj86r_32g68627ff&amp;rand=' . getRandomDigits(10); echo $url . '<hr/>'; echo loadFile($url); function loadFile($sFilename) { clearstatcache(); if (floatval(phpversion()) >= 4.3) { $sData = file_get_contents($sFilename); } else { if (!file_exists($sFilename)) return -3; $opts = array('http' => array( 'method' => 'POST', 'content'=>'' ) ); $context = stream_context_create($opts); $rHandle = fopen($sFilename, 'r'); if (!$rHandle) return -2; $sData = ''; while(!feof($rHandle)) $sData .= fread($rHandle, filesize($sFilename)); fclose($rHandle); } return $sData; } function getRandomDigits($numberOfDigits) { $r = ""; for($i=1; $i<=$numberOfDigits; $i++) { $nr=rand(0,9); $r .= $nr; } return $r; } ?>

    Read the article

  • SubSonic generated code and always filtering records

    - by cmroanirgo
    Hi, I have a table called "Users" that has a column called "deleted", a boolean indicating that the user is "Deleted" from the system (without actually deleting it, of course). I also have a lot of tables that have a FK to the Users.user_id column. Subsonic generates (very nicely) the code for all the foreign keys in a similar manner: public IQueryable<person> user { get { var repo=user.GetRepo(); return from items in repo.GetAll() where items.user_id == _user_id select items; } } Whilst this is good and all, is there a way to generate the code in such a way to always filter out the "Deleted" users too? In the office here, the only suggestion we can think of is to use a partial class and extend it. This is obviously a pain when there are lots and lots of classes using the User table, not to mention the fact that it's easy to inadvertently use the wrong property (User vs ActiveUser in this example): public IQueryable<User> ActiveUser { get { var repo=User.GetRepo(); return from items in repo.GetAll() where items.user_id == _user_id and items.deleted == 0 select items; } } Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Entity Framework. Updating EntityCollection using disconnected objects via navigation property.

    - by yougotiger
    I have a question, much liket this unanswered one. I'm trying to work with the entity framework, and having a tough time getting my foreign tables to update. I have something basically like this in the DB: Incident (table): -ID -other fields Responses (table): -FK:Incident.ID -other fields And and entities that match: Incident (entity) -ID -Other fields -Responses (EntityCollection of Responses via navigation property) Each Incident can have 0 or more responses. In my Webpage, I have a form to allow the user to enter all the details of an Incident, including a list of responses. I can add everything to the database when a new Incident is created, however I'm having difficulty with editing the Incident. When the page loads for edit, I populate the form and then store the responses in the viewstate. When the user changes the list of responses (adds one, deletes one or edits one). I store this back into the viewstate. Then when the user clicks the save button, I'd like to save the changes to the Incident and the Responses back to the DB. I cannot figure out how to get the responses from the detached viewstate into the Incident object so that they can be updated together. Currently when the user clicks save, I'm getting the Incident to edit from the db, making changes to the Incident's fields and then saving it back to the DB. However I can't figure out how to have the detached list of responses from the viewstate attach to the Incident. I have tried the following without success: Clearning the Incident.Responses collection and adding the ones from the viewstate back in: Incident.Responses.Clear() for each objResponse in Viewstate("Responses") Incident.Responses.add(objResponse) next Creating an EntityCollection from my list and then assiging that to the Incident.Responses Incident.Responses = EntityCollectionFromViewstateList Iterating through the responses in Incident.Response and assigning the corresponding object from viewstate: for each ObjResponse in Incident.Responses objResponse = objCorrespondingModifedResonseFromViewState Next These all fail, I'd like to be able to merge the changes into the Inicdent object so that when the BLL calls SaveChanges on the changes to both the Incident and Responses will happen at the same time. Any suggestions? I keep finding lots of stuff about assigning foreign keys (singular), but I haven't found a great solution for doing a set of entities assigned to another entity in this manner.

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to order by a composite key with JPA and CriteriaBuilder

    - by Kjir
    I would like to create a query using the JPA CriteriaBuilder and I would like to add an ORDER BY clause. This is my entity: @Entity @Table(name = "brands") public class Brand implements Serializable { public enum OwnModeType { OWNER, LICENCED } @EmbeddedId private IdBrand id; private String code; //bunch of other properties } Embedded class is: @Embeddable public class IdBrand implements Serializable { @ManyToOne private Edition edition; private String name; } And the way I am building my query is like this: CriteriaBuilder cb = em.getCriteriaBuilder(); CriteriaQuery<Brand> q = cb.createQuery(Brand.class).distinct(true); Root<Brand> root = q.from(Brand.class); if (f != null) { f.addCriteria(cb, q, root); f.addOrder(cb, q, root, sortCol, ascending); } return em.createQuery(q).getResultList(); And here are the functions called: public void addCriteria(CriteriaBuilder cb, CriteriaQuery<?> q, Root<Brand> r) { } public void addOrder(CriteriaBuilder cb, CriteriaQuery<?> q, Root<Brand> r, String sortCol, boolean ascending) { if (ascending) { q.orderBy(cb.asc(r.get(sortCol))); } else { q.orderBy(cb.desc(r.get(sortCol))); } } If I try to set sortCol to something like "id.edition.number" I get the following error: javax.ejb.EJBException: java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: Unable to resolve attribute [id.name] against path Any idea how I could accomplish that? I tried searching online, but I couldn't find a hint about this... Also would be great if I could do a similar ORDER BY when I have a @ManyToOne relationship (for instance, "id.edition.number")

    Read the article

  • How to parameterize a path in ANT?

    - by strelokstrelok
    I have the following defined in a file called build-dependencies.xml <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <project name="build-dependencies"> ... <path id="common-jars"> <fileset file="artifacts/project-1/jar/some*.jar" /> <fileset file="artifacts/project-2/jar/someother*.jar" /> </path> ... </project> I include it at the top of my build.xml file. Now I need to make the artifacts folder a parameter so it can be changed during execution of different targets. Having this... <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <project name="build-dependencies"> ... <path id="common-jars"> <fileset file="${artifacts}/project-1/jar/some*.jar" /> <fileset file="${artifacts}/project-2/jar/someother*.jar" /> </path> ... </project> ...and defining an "artifacts" property (and changing it) in the target does not work because it seems that the property substitution happens when the path is defined in build-dependencies.xml How can I solve this? One way I was thinking was to have a parameterized macro and call that before the path is actually used, but that seems not elegant. Something like this: <macrodef name="create-common-jars"> <attribute name="artifacts"/> <sequential> <path id="common-jars"> <fileset file="@{artifacts}/project-1/jar/some*.jar" /> <fileset file="@{artifacts}/project-2/jar/someother*.jar" /> </path> </sequential> </macrodef>

    Read the article

  • Copy constructor using private attributes

    - by Pedro Magueija
    Hello all, My first question here so be gentle. I would like arguments for the following code: public class Example { private String name; private int age; ... // copy constructor here public Example(Example e) { this.name = e.name; // accessing a private attribute of an instance this.age = e.age; } ... } I believe this breaks the modularity of the instance passed to the copy construct. This is what I believe to be correct: public class Example { private String name; private int age; ... // copy constructor here public Example(Example e) { this.setName(e.getName()); this.setAge(e.getAge()); } ... } A friend has exposed a valid point of view, saying that in the copy construct we should create the object as fast as possible. And adding getter/setter methods would result in unnecessary overhead. I stand on a crossroad. Can you shed some light?

    Read the article

  • In xpath why can I use greater-than symbol > but not less-than <

    - by runrunraygun
    Using c#3 compiled transforms the following seems to work just fine... <xsl:choose> <xsl:when test="$valA > $valB"> <xsl:value-of select="$maxUnder" /> </xsl:when> <xsl:when test="$valA &lt; $valC"> <xsl:value-of select="$maxOver" /> </xsl:when> </xsl:choose> However if i dare use a < in place of &lt; it gives an error... <xsl:choose> <xsl:when test="$valA > $valB"> <xsl:value-of select="$maxUnder" /> </xsl:when> <xsl:when test="$valA < $valC"> <xsl:value-of select="$maxOver" /> </xsl:when> </xsl:choose> System.Xml.XmlException: '<', hexadecimal value 0x3C, is an invalid attribute character. So why is > ok and not < ?

    Read the article

  • How to wrtie a XML License Line(ended with a forward slash '/') in C#?

    - by Nano HE
    I want to write a XML file as below: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <books xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"> <License licenseId="" licensePath="" /> Some piece of my code attached here // Create a new file in D:\\ and set the encoding to UTF-8 XmlTextWriter textWriter = new XmlTextWriter("D:\\books.xml", System.Text.Encoding.UTF8); // Format automatically textWriter.Formatting = Formatting.Indented; // Opens the document textWriter.WriteStartDocument(); // Write the namespace declaration. textWriter.WriteStartElement("books", null); // Write the genre attribute. textWriter.WriteAttributeString("xmlns", "xsd", null, "http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"); textWriter.WriteAttributeString("xmlns", "xsi", null, "http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"); And now I need to write the License Line below in C# <License licenseId="" licensePath="" /> But I don't know how to move on for I found the Line ended with the forward slash / .Thank you.

    Read the article

  • desing pattern for related inputs

    - by curiousMo
    My question is a design question : let's say i have a data entry web page with 4 drop down lists, each depending on the previous one, and a bunch of text boxes. country (ddl), state (ddl), city (ddl), boro (ddl), address (txtBox), zipcode(txtbox). and an object that represents a datarow with a value for each. naturally the country, state, city and boro values will be values of primary keys of some lookup tables. when the user chooses to edits that record, i would load it from database and load it into the page. the issue that I have is how to streamline loading the ddls. i have some code that would grab the object, look thru its values and move them to their corresponding input controls in one shot. but in this case i will have to load possible values of country, then assign values, then load values of state, then assign value ans so on. I guess i am looking for an elegant solution. i am using asp.net, but i think it is irrelevant to the question. i am looking more into a design pattern. thanks

    Read the article

  • Hiding Opetions of a Selection with JQuery

    - by Syed Abdul Rahman
    Okay, let's start with an example. <select id = "selection1">     <option value = "1" id = "1">Number 1</option>     <option value = "2" id = "2">Number 2</option>     <option value = "3" id = "3">Number 3</option> </select> Now from here, we have a dropdown with 3 options. What I want to do now is to hide an option. Adding style = "display:none" will not help. The option would not appear in the dropdownlist, but using the arrow keys, you can still select it. Essentially, it does exactly what the code says. It isn't displayed, and it stops there. A JQuery function of $("1").hide() will not work. Plus, I don't only want to hide the option, I want to completely remove it. Any possibility on doing so? Do I have to use parent/sibling/child elements? If so, I'm still not sure how. Any help on this would be greatly appreciated. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Why does Hibernate ignore the JPA2 standardized properties in my persistence.xml?

    - by Ophidian
    I have an extremely simple web application running in Tomcat using Spring 3.0.1, Hibernate 3.5.1, JPA 2, and Derby. I am defining all of my database connectivity in persistence.xml and merely using Spring for dependency injection. I am using embedded Derby as my database. Everything works correctly when I define the driver and url properties in persistence.xml in the classic Hibernate manner as thus: <property name="hibernate.connection.driver_class" value="org.apache.derby.jdbc.EmbeddedDriver"/> <property name="hibernate.connection.url" value="jdbc:derby:webdb;create=true"/> The problems occur when I switch my configuration to the JPA2 standardized properties as thus: <property name="javax.persistence.jdbc.driver" value="org.apache.derby.jdbc.EmbeddedDriver"/> <property name="javax.persistence.jdbc.url" value="jdbc:derby:webdb;create=true"/> When using the JPA2 property keys, the application bails hard with the following exception: java.lang.UnsupportedOperationException: The user must supply a JDBC connection Does anyone know why this is failing? NOTE: I have copied the javax... property strings straight from the Hibernate reference documentation, so a typo is extremely unlikely.

    Read the article

  • With Google Website Optimizer's multivariate testing, can I vary multiple css classes on a single di

    - by brahn
    I would like to use Google Website Optimizer (GWO)'s multivariate tests to test some different versions of a web page. I can change from version to version just by varying some class tags on a div, i.e. the different versions are of this form: <div id="testing" class="foo1 bar1">content</div> <div id="testing" class="foo1 bar2">content</div> <div id="testing" class="foo2 bar1">content</div> <div id="testing" class="foo2 bar2">content</div> In the ideal, I would be able to use GWO section code in place of each class, and google would just swap in the appropriate tags (foo1 or foo2, bar1 or bar2). However, naively doing this results in horribly malformed code because I would be trying to put <script> tags inside the div's class attribute: <div id="testing" class=" <script>utmx_section("foo-class")</script>foo1</noscript> <script>utmx_section("bar-class")</script>bar1</noscript> "> content </div> And indeed, the browser chokes all over it. My current best approach is just to use a different div for each variable in the test, as follows: <script>utmx_section("foo-class-div")</script> <div class="foo1"> </noscript> <script>utmx_section("bar-class-div")</script> <div class="bar1"> </noscript> content </div> </div> So testing multiple variables requires layer of div-nesting per variable, and it all seems rather awkward. Is there a better approach that I could use in which I just vary the classes on a single div?

    Read the article

  • Why doesn't keyboard input work for a ScrollViewer when the child control has input focus?

    - by Ashley Davis
    Why doesn't keyboard input work for a ScrollViewer when the child control has input focus? This is the scenario. A WPF window opens. It sets the focus to a control that is embedded in a ScrollViewer. I hit the up and down and left and right keys. The ScrollViewer doesn't seem to handle the key events, anyone know why? This is the simplest possible example: <Window x:Class="WpfApplication1.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300" FocusManager.FocusedElement="{Binding ElementName=control}" > <Grid> <ScrollViewer HorizontalScrollBarVisibility="Auto" > <ItemsControl x:Name="control" Width="1000" Height="1000" /> </ScrollViewer> </Grid> </Window> When you start the app that contains this window, "control" appears to have the focus as I intended. Pressing the key seems to result in bubbling key events reaching the ScrollViewer (I checked for this using WPF Snoop). I can't work out why it doesn't respond to the input.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 360 361 362 363 364 365 366 367 368 369 370 371  | Next Page >