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  • RestSharp post object to WCF

    - by steve
    Im having an issue posting an object to my wcf rest webservice. On the WCF side I have the following: [WebInvoke(UriTemplate = "", Method = "POST")] public void Create(myObject object) { //save some stuff to the db } When im debugging this never gets hit - it does however get hit when I remove the parameter so im guessing ive done something wrong on the restSharp side of things. Heres my code for that part: var client = new RestClient(ApiBaseUri); var request = new RestRequest(Method.POST); request.RequestFormat = DataFormat.Xml; request.AddBody(myObject); var response = client.Execute(request); Am I doing this wrong? How can the WCF side see my object? What way should I be making the reqest? Or should I be handling it differently WCF side? Things ive tried: request.AddObject(myObject); and request.AddBody(request.XmlSerialise.serialise(myObject)); Any help and understanding in what could possibly be wrong would be much appreciated. Thanks.

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  • Why is there no autorelease pool when I do performSelectorInBackground: ?

    - by Thanks
    I am calling a method that goes in a background thread: [self performSelectorInBackground:@selector(loadViewControllerWithIndex:) withObject:[NSNumber numberWithInt:viewControllerIndex]]; then, I have this method implementation that gets called by the selector: - (void) loadViewControllerWithIndex:(NSNumber *)indexNumberObj { NSAutoreleasePool *arPool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; NSInteger vcIndex = [indexNumberObj intValue]; Class c; UIViewController *controller = [viewControllers objectAtIndex:vcIndex]; switch (vcIndex) { case 0: c = [MyFirstViewController class]; break; case 1: c = [MySecondViewController class]; break; default: NSLog(@"unknown index for loading view controller: %d", vcIndex); // error break; } if ((NSNull *)controller == [NSNull null]) { controller = [[c alloc] initWithNib]; [viewControllers replaceObjectAtIndex:vcIndex withObject:controller]; [controller release]; } if (controller.view.superview == nil) { UIView *placeholderView = [viewControllerPlaceholderViews objectAtIndex:vcIndex]; [placeholderView addSubview:controller.view]; } [arPool release]; } Althoug I do create an autorelease pool there for that thread, I always get this error: 2009-05-30 12:03:09.910 Demo[1827:3f03] *** _NSAutoreleaseNoPool(): Object 0x523e50 of class NSCFNumber autoreleased with no pool in place - just leaking Stack: (0x95c83f0f 0x95b90442 0x28d3 0x2d42 0x95b96e0d 0x95b969b4 0x93a00155 0x93a00012) If I take away the autorelease pool, I get a whole bunch of messages like these. I also tried to create an autorelease pool around the call of the performSelectorInBackground:, but that doesn't help. I suspect the parameter, but I don't know why the compiler complains about an NSCFNumber. Am I missing something? My Instance variables are all "nonatomic". Can that be a problem? UPDATE: I may also suspect that some variable has been added to an autorelease pool of the main thread (maybe an ivar), and now it trys to release that one inside the wrong autorelease pool? If so, how could I fix that? (damn, this threading stuff is complex ;) )

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  • UITableView Inactive Until Scroll iPhone

    - by dubbeat
    HI, I'm trying to find the cause of some annoying behaviour with my UITableView. In each cell of my table (10 of them ) I asynchronously load an image. The problem is, is that if I don't touch the app at all the imageviews will permanently show a loading icon. However as soon as I scroll a cell off the screen and back on again the image shows straight away. What could be causing this "stuck in the mud" behaviour? Is there a way to force whatever gets called when the list is scrolled to make the needed update happen? #define ASYNC_IMAGE_TAG 9999 #define LABEL_TAG 8888 // Customize the appearance of table view cells. - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { PromoListItem *promo = [promoList objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; AsyncImageView *asyncImageView = nil; UILabel *label = nil; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier] autorelease]; CGRect frame; frame.origin.x = 0; frame.origin.y = 0; frame.size.width = 100; frame.size.height = 100; asyncImageView = [[[AsyncImageView alloc] initWithFrame:frame] autorelease]; asyncImageView.tag = ASYNC_IMAGE_TAG; [cell.contentView addSubview:asyncImageView]; frame.origin.x = 110; frame.size.width =100; label = [[[UILabel alloc] initWithFrame:frame] autorelease]; label.tag = LABEL_TAG; [cell.contentView addSubview:label]; cell.accessoryType = UITableViewCellAccessoryDisclosureIndicator; } else { asyncImageView = (AsyncImageView *) [cell.contentView viewWithTag:ASYNC_IMAGE_TAG]; label = (UILabel *) [cell.contentView viewWithTag:LABEL_TAG]; } NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:promo.imgurl]; [asyncImageView loadImageFromURL:url]; label.text = promo.artistname; return cell; }

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  • Looping login with Facebook JS SDK and Rails

    - by nafe
    I'm using the Facebook JS SDK for single-sign with my rails app. I translated the php code from the Facebook example (at the bottom of the page under "Single Sign-on with the JavaScript SDK") into ruby. This appeared to be working great but I've noticed one user that gets continual redirects when trying to login. The logs look like: Processing UsersController#login (for X.X.X.X at 2010-05-22 17:25:55) [GET] Redirected to http://myapp.com/ Completed in 0ms (DB: 0) | 302 Found [http://myapp.com/login] (times as many entries as my unfortunate user leaves the browser redirecting in a loop). My client side code includes a callback with the "auth.sessionChange": FB.Event.subscribe('auth.sessionChange', function(response) { if (response.session) { // A user has logged in, and a new cookie has been saved window.location = "/login"; } else { // The user has logged out, and the cookie has been cleared window.location = "/logout"; } }); So it seems to me like this event is continually firing. Although, I can't test this theory because I can't recreate this scenario locally. I don't think it's the rails controller. The code here is just: def login # if first time user create db entry # now redirect back to where the user came from begin redirect_to :back rescue ActionController::RedirectBackError redirect_to root_url end end Does anyone have any idea on what's going on?

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  • Protecting an Application's Memory From Tampering

    - by Changeling
    We are adding AES 256 bit encryption to our server and client applications for encrypting the TCP/IP traffic containing sensitive information. We will be rotating the keys daily. Because of that, the keys will be stored in memory with the applications. Key distribution process: Each server and client will have a list of initial Key Encryption Key's (KEK) by day If the client has just started up or the server has just started up, the client will request the daily key from the server using the initial key. The server will respond with the daily key, encrypted with the initial key. The daily key is a randomly generated set of alphanumeric characters. We are using AES 256 bit encryption. All subsequent communications will be encrypted using that daily key. Nightly, the client will request the new daily key from the server using the current daily key as the current KEK. After the client gets the new key, the new daily key will replace the old daily key. Is it possible for another bad application to gain access to this memory illegally or is this protected in Windows? The key will not be written to a file, only stored in a variable in memory. If an application can access the memory illegally, how can you protect the memory from tampering? We are using C++ and XP (Vista/7 may be an option in the future so I don't know if that changes the answer).

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  • Submit form with JS

    - by Thomas
    Im working with a shopping cart plugin and that uses a basic form on the product page to submit values like price, product name, etc.. The problem is that the plugin uses a standard submit button to send the values and I would like to replace said button with a prettier custom jquery rollover. In order to make this happen I used some JS and tossed a link around my custom submit button: <a href="#" onclick="document.forms[0].submit()" value="Add to Cart" onsubmit="return ReadForm(this, true);"> <img class="fade" src="style/img/add_btn.jpg" style="background: url(style/img/add_ro.png);" alt=""/> </a> The form submits and the user is redirected to the homepage but the data in the form doesn't seem to get submitted and the product never gets added to the 'cart' page. I suspect that the form is getting submitted but I am failing to fire some additional JS function that submits the data. The plugin adds some JS to the top of the page: <!-- // function ReadForm (obj1, tst) { // Read the user form var i,j,pos; val_total="";val_combo=""; for (i=0; i<obj1.length; i++) { // run entire form obj = obj1.elements[i]; // a form element if (obj.type == "select-one") { // just selects if (obj.name == "quantity" || obj.name == "amount") continue; pos = obj.selectedIndex; // which option selected val = obj.options[pos].value; // selected value val_combo = val_combo + "(" + val + ")"; } } // Now summarize everything we have processed above val_total = obj1.product_tmp.value + val_combo; obj1.product.value = val_total; } //--> If you want to check out the the site in question, take a look here and click 'add to cart button': http://hardtopdepot.com/?p=34 You can see the cart at the top: http://hardtopdepot.com/?page_id=50 Any help would be super appreciated- thanks!

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  • Cocoa Drag and Drop, reading back the data

    - by kodai
    Ok, I have a NSOutlineView set up, and I want it to capture PDF's if a pdf is dragged into the NSOutlineView. My first question, I have the following code: [outlineView registerForDraggedTypes:[NSArray arrayWithObjects:NSStringPboardType, NSFilenamesPboardType, nil]]; In all the apple Docs and examples I've seen I've also seen something like MySupportedType being an object registered for dragging. What does this mean? Do I change the code to be: [outlineView registerForDraggedTypes:[NSArray arrayWithObjects:@"pdf", NSStringPboardType, NSFilenamesPboardType, nil]]; Currently I have it set up to recognize drag and drop, and I can even make it spit out the URL of the dragged file once the drag is accepted, however, this leads me to my second question. I want to keep a copy of those PDF's app side. I suppose, and correct me if I'm wrong, that the best way to do this is to grab the data off the clipboard, save it in some persistant store, and that's that. (as apposed to using some sort of copy command and literally copying the file to the app director.) That being said, I'm not sure how to do that. I've the code: - (BOOL)outlineView:(NSOutlineView *)ov acceptDrop:(id <NSDraggingInfo>)info item:(id)item childIndex:(NSInteger)childIndex { NSPasteboard *pboard = [info draggingPasteboard]; NSURL *fileURL; if ( [[pboard types] containsObject:NSURLPboardType] ) { fileURL = [NSURL URLFromPasteboard:pboard]; // Perform operation using the file’s URL } NSData *data = [pboard dataForType:@"NSPasteboardTypePDF"]; But this never actually gets any data. Like I said before, it does get the URL, just not the data. Does anyone have any advise on how to get this going? Thanks so much!

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  • Webbrowser locks first Excel Instance

    - by figus
    VB.NET 2008 - WinForms Hi Everyone! I've been looking for an answer to my problem but I only find more questions related to my problem... The thing is that I'm using a AxWebBrowser control in VB.NET 2008 to open a excel file in a WindowsForm, it opens succesfully and everything... but the problem is this: If I had a Excel File Open before opening another Excel File in my WebBrowser Control, the window that contains the file that was already open gets locked... (I can't give focus to that Excel window... If I click on it, the focus returns to my application) I tried creating a new excel instance with CreateObject("Excel.Application") just before loading the file, but the WebBrowser locks the first Excel Instance... Is there a way to lock it to the last instance??? I use the WebBrowser1.Navigate(Url) method to load the file... where Url is a String like C:\myExcelFile.xlsm WebBrowser1.Document.Application.UserControl is also True, but it get's locked. Any Suggestion?? Thanks in Advance!!!

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  • Programmatically controlled virtual drive

    - by Robert Lin
    How would I go about creating a virtual drive with which I can programmatically and dynamically change the contents? For instance, program A starts running and creates a virtual drive. When program B looks in the drive, it sees an error log and starts reading/processing it. In the middle of all this program A gets a signal from somewhere and decides to add to the log. I want program B to be unaware of the change and just keep on going. Program B should continue reading as if nothing happened. Program A would just report a rediculously large file size for the log and then fill it in as appropriate. Program A would fill the log with tags if program B tries to read past the last entry. I know this is a weird request but there's really no other way to do this... I basically can't rewrite program B so I need to fool it. How do I do this in windows? How about OSX?

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  • Increment non unique field during SQL insert

    - by phill
    I'm not sure how to word this cause I am a little confused at the moment, so bare with me while I attempt to explain, I have a table with the following fields: OrderLineID, OrderID, OrderLine, and a few other unimportant ones. OrderLineID is the primary key and is always unique(which isn't a problem), OrderID is a foreign key that isn't unique(also not a problem), and OrderLine is a value that is not unique in the table, but should be unique for any OrderIDs that are the same...so if that didn't make sense, perhaps a picture OrderLineID, OrderID, OrderLine 1 1 1 2 1 2 3 1 3 4 2 1 5 2 2 For all OrderIDs there is a unique OrderLine. I am trying to create an insert statement that gets the max OrderLine value for a specific OrderId so I can increment it, but it's not working so well and I could use a little help. What I have right now is below, I build the sql statement in a program and replace OrderID # with an actual value. I am pretty sure the problem is with the nested select statement, and incrementing the result, but I can't find any examples that do this since my google skills are weak apparently.... INSERT INTO tblOrderLine (OrderID, OrderLine) VALUES (<OrderID #>, (SELECT MAX(OrderLine) FROM tblOrderLine WHERE orderID = <same OrderID #>)+1) any help would be nice.

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  • Transitioning from FlexBuilder 3 to FlashBuilder 4 ... there and back again.

    - by Robusto
    It's growing pains time again. Some of our stuff requires FlashBuilder 4 and some still requires FlexBuilder 3. Both are installed OK, and no projects use both IDEs. The trouble is, when I go back to work on a FlexBuilder 3 project it takes freakin' forever to build and I get weird errors like these: This doesn't seem to cause any identifiable problems except to throw up a modal dialog at various points in the build process, forcing user interaction. But I do notice that memory fills up fast in FB3 and generally FB3 starts behaving strangely and ultimately quits once it gets up over 700MB. This is only a temporary bridge situation until we get all projects into FB4, but "temporary" could mean weeks if not months. Does anyone have any advice for how to get through this bridge period? Is there anything I can do to make these two IDEs work and play well together? Failing that, does anyone know what "java.lang.String" is the "reason" for the problem? Does Eclipse have a resource bundle somewhere that is getting corrupted when i go back and forth between the two?

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  • Validation control issue

    - by Mael
    Hello, I have a multiview that simulates a menu with different kind of options. Each view within the multiview control holds a bunch of controls (listbox, label, etc..) Everything worked just fine, until i wanted to implement Validation control(s). For example when i click on my menu viewA gets displayed with its controls. There i wish to implement a RequiredFieldValidator. But the problem is, if i click on a other menu option (which is in fact a other view in my multiview) then it gives the error message 'Please enter a message" which is the errorMessage of the first RequiredFieldValidator of the first menu option (first view). All my controls are named with a unique name, so there is no mixup amongst the ControlToValidate="" Offcourse this is not suitable, cause those menu choices are indepentant. And its not the intention i have to fill in everything, cause its a menu afterall, and not a form where i have to enter everything at once. How can i have a RequiredFieldValidator on my views that do not take each other in account? Some code on how my active view is handled protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!IsPostBack) { View activeView = (View)this.mvMultiview.FindControl(this.getViewFromRequest()); if (!(activeView == null)) { this.mvMultiview.SetActiveView(activeView); } } } Thanks.

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  • ob_start() is partially capturing data

    - by AAA
    I am using the following code: PHP: // Generate Guid function NewGuid() { $s = strtoupper(uniqid(rand(),true)); $guidText = substr($s,0,8) . '-' . substr($s,8,4) . '-' . substr($s,12,4). '-' . substr($s,16,4). '-' . substr($s,20); return $guidText; } // End Generate Guid $Guid = NewGuid(); $alphabet = '123456789abcdefghijkmnopqrstuvwxyzABCDEFGHJKLMNPQRSTUVWXYZ'; function base_encode($num, $alphabet) { $base_count = strlen($alphabet); $encoded = ''; while ($num >= $base_count) { $div = $num/$base_count; $mod = ($num-($base_count*intval($div))); $encoded = $alphabet[$mod] . $encoded; $num = intval($div); } if ($num) $encoded = $alphabet[$num] . $encoded; return $encoded; } function base_decode($num, $alphabet) { $decoded = 0; $multi = 1; while (strlen($num) > 0) { $digit = $num[strlen($num)-1]; $decoded += $multi * strpos($alphabet, $digit); $multi = $multi * strlen($alphabet); $num = substr($num, 0, -1); } return $decoded; } ob_start(); echo base_encode($Guid, $alphabet); //should output: bUKpk $theid = ob_get_contents(); ob_get_clean(); The problem: When i echo $theid, it shows the complete entry, but as it is being inserted into the database, only the first entry in the sequence gets inserted, for example for the entry buKPK, only 'b' is being inserted not the rest.

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  • Distributed Message Ordering

    - by sbanwart
    I have an architectural question on handling message ordering. For purposes of this question, the transport is irrelevant, so I'm not going to specify one. Say we have three systems, a website, a CRM and an ERP. For this example, the ERP will be the "master" system in terms of data ownership. The website and the CRM can both send a new customer message to the ERP system. The ERP system then adds a customer and publishes the customer with the newly assigned account number so that the website and CRM can add the account number to their local customer records. This is a pretty straight forward process. Next we move on to placing orders. The account number is required in order for the CRM or website to place an order with the ERP system. However the CRM will permit the user to place an order even if the customer lacks an account number. (For this example assume we can't modify the CRM behavior) This creates the possibility that a user could create a new customer, and place an order before the account number gets updated in the CRM. What is the best way to handle this scenario? Would it be best to send the order message sans account number and let it go to an error queue? Would it be better to have the CRM endpoint hold the message and wait until the account number is updated in the CRM? Maybe something completely different that I haven't thought of? Thanks in advance for any help.

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  • Using JQuery with dynamically added controls (MVC)

    - by Mario
    I have a set of radio buttons that are dynamically generated (via JSON call): StringBuilder sbEligAll = new StringBuilder(); sbEligAll.Append("<div id='currentselectiondepartment'>"); sbEligAll.Append(" <input type='radio' name='selectalldepartment' id='radCurrent' value='0' /><label for='radCurrent'>Current</label>"); sbEligAll.Append(" <input type='radio' name='selectalldepartment' id='radFuture' value='1' /><label for='radFuture'>Future</label>"); sbEligAll.Append(" <input type='radio' name='selectalldepartment' id='radCurrentAll' value='2' /><label for='radCurrentAll'>Current All</label>"); sbEligAll.Append(" <input type='radio' name='selectalldepartment' id='radFutureAll' value='3' /><label for='radFutureAll'>Future All</label>"); sbEligAll.Append("</div>"); Then: return Json(new { TableList = sbElig.ToString() }, JsonRequestBehavior.AllowGet); Is there a way to get jQuery to be able to interact with these? For example: $("input[name=selectalldepartment]").change(function() { var str = $('input[name=selectalldepartment]:checked').val(); $(".radiolist[value='" + str + "']").attr("checked", true); }); I've tried everything I know how to do, but the jQuery just doesnt fire. (I've added alerts to the jQuery code to see if it actually gets called, and it does not). Any thoughts?! Thanks!

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  • ArrayAccess multidimensional (un)set?

    - by anomareh
    I have a class implementing ArrayAccess and I'm trying to get it to work with a multidimensional array. exists and get work. set and unset are giving me a problem though. class ArrayTest implements ArrayAccess { private $_arr = array( 'test' => array( 'bar' => 1, 'baz' => 2 ) ); public function offsetExists($name) { return isset($this->_arr[$name]); } public function offsetSet($name, $value) { $this->_arr[$name] = $value; } public function offsetGet($name) { return $this->_arr[$name]; } public function offsetUnset($name) { unset($this->_arr[$name]); } } $arrTest = new ArrayTest(); isset($arrTest['test']['bar']); // Returns TRUE echo $arrTest['test']['baz']; // Echo's 2 unset($arrTest['test']['bar']; // Error $arrTest['test']['bar'] = 5; // Error I know $_arr could just be made public so you could access it directly, but for my implementation it's not desired and is private. The last 2 lines throw an error: Notice: Indirect modification of overloaded element. I know ArrayAccess just generally doesn't work with multidimensional arrays, but is there anyway around this or any somewhat clean implementation that will allow the desired functionality? The best idea I could come up with is using a character as a separator and testing for it in set and unset and acting accordingly. Though this gets really ugly really fast if you're dealing with a variable depth. Does anyone know why exists and get work so as to maybe copy over the functionality? Thanks for any help anyone can offer.

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  • What are the most time consuming checks performed by .NET when executing a managed appplication?

    - by ltorje
    I've developed a .NET based Windows service that uses part managed (C#) and unmanaged code (C/C++ libraries). In some domain environments (e.g. Win 2k3 32bit server inside domain abc.com) sometimes the service takes more than 30 seconds to start (especially on OS restart), thus failing to start the service. I suspect that it has something to do with enterprise level security but I do not know for sure. http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa720255%28VS.71%29.aspx I've tried the following without success: - delay loading references by moving the using directives as far as possible from the servicebase implementation (especially the xml namespace - know to cause delays in loading) - delay loading and configuring log4net - precompiling the code by using ngen - delaying the start of the worker thread - add/remove manifest + decencies set inside - sign/unsign the binaries - use the configuration settings (there are a lot of settings and the scope level for all is set to application ) as later as possible - add all dependencies to GAC I didn't tried yet to add security demands for the class that has the Main method implemented. I didn't tries to implement my own configuration loader because after inspecting the autogenerated code, I've noticed that the setting class is a singletone and it gets its instance on call. By completely removing the log4net dependency it worked, but this is not an option. When the network card is disabled the service starts immediately. Any suggestions/comments/solution you have would be most welcomed.

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  • memory leak in php script

    - by Jasper De Bruijn
    Hi, I have a php script that runs a mysql query, then loops the result, and in that loop also runs several queries: $sqlstr = "SELECT * FROM user_pred WHERE uprType != 2 AND uprTurn=$turn ORDER BY uprUserTeamIdFK"; $utmres = mysql_query($sqlstr) or trigger_error($termerror = __FILE__." - ".__LINE__.": ".mysql_error()); while($utmrow = mysql_fetch_array($utmres, MYSQL_ASSOC)) { // some stuff happens here // echo memory_get_usage() . " - 1241<br/>\n"; $sqlstr = "UPDATE user_roundscores SET ursUpdDate=NOW(),ursScore=$score WHERE ursUserTeamIdFK=$userteamid"; if(!mysql_query($sqlstr)) { $err_crit++; $cLog->WriteLogFile("Failed to UPDATE user_roundscores record for user $userid - teamuserid: $userteamid\n"); echo "Failed to UPDATE user_roundscores record for user $userid - teamuserid: $userteamid<br>\n"; break; } unset($sqlstr); // echo memory_get_usage() . " - 1253<br/>\n"; // some stuff happens here too } The update query never fails. For some reason, between the two calls of memory_get_usage, there is some memory added. Because the big loop runs about 500.000 or more times, in the end it really adds up to alot of memory. Is there anything I'm missing here? could it herhaps be that the memory is not actually added between the two calls, but at another point in the script? Edit: some extra info: Before the loop it's at about 5mb, after the loop about 440mb, and every update query adds about 250 bytes. (the rest of the memory gets added at other places in the loop). The reason I didn't post more of the "other stuff" is because its about 300 lines of code. I posted this part because it looks to be where the most memory is added.

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  • Select those objects whose related objects IDs are *all* in given string

    - by Jannis
    Hi Django people, I want to build a frontend to a recipe database which enables the user to search for a list of recipes which are cookable with the ingredients the user supplies. I have the following models class Ingredient(models.Model): name = models.CharField(max_length=100, unique=True) slug = models.SlugField(max_length=100, unique=True) importancy = models.PositiveSmallIntegerField(default=4) […] class Amount(models.Model): recipe = models.ForeignKey('Recipe') ingredient = models.ForeignKey(Ingredient) […] class Rezept(models.Model): name = models.CharField(max_length=100) slug = models.SlugField() instructions = models.TextField() ingredients = models.ManyToManyField(Ingredient, through=Amount) […] and a rawquery which does exactly what I want: It gets all the recipes whose required ingredients are all contained in the list of strings that the user supplies. If he supplies more than necessary, it's fine too. query = "SELECT *, COUNT(amount.zutat_id) AS selected_count_ingredients, (SELECT COUNT(*) FROM amount WHERE amount.recipe_id = amount.id) AS count_ingredients FROM amount LEFT OUTER JOIN amount ON (recipe.id = recipe.recipe_id) WHERE amount.ingredient_id IN (%s) GROUP BY amount.id HAVING count_ingredient=selected_count_ingredient" % ",".join([str(ingredient.id) for ingredient in ingredients]) rezepte = Rezept.objects.raw(query) Now, what I'm looking for is a way that does not rely on .raw() as I would like to do it purely with Django's queryset methods. Additionally, it would be awesome if you guys knew a way of including the ingredient's importancy in the lookup so that a recipe is still shown as a result even though one of its ingredients (that has an importancy of 0) is not supplied by the user.

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  • iPhone application update (using Core Data on Sqlite)

    - by owen
    I have an app which is using Core Data on Sqlite, Now I have a update which has some DB structure changes say adding a new table I know when an app get updated, it updates the app binary only, nothing on document directory will be changed. When the app gets updated and launchs at the first time and run [[NSPersistentStoreCoordinator alloc] initWithManagedObjectModel:[self managedObjectModel]]; It will find the difference between the data model and DB structure in Sqlite and will throw an exception and quit. Error: "The model used to open the store is incompatible with the one used to create the store" So, can anyone here give me some idea how to update an app when there is a DB structure change? I think we can run a DB script to create that new table when it launchs the update at the first time. But if there are other changes like changing the type of some fields or deleting some fields, and we need to migrate the old data, this is really a headache. In this case, Is the only way to do is creating a new app? Is there anyone tried something similar like this?

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  • [php] Cookies only changing value every two page refreshes?

    - by Gazillion
    Hello, I'm trying to implement some pixel tracking where I will save certain values in a cookie to then forward users to another page. If users purchase a product after being forwarded to the online store by us the store adds an image tag in the page with our php script included. With the values set in the cookie we would like to track conversions. I understand this tracking technique has some limitations (like if a user has cookies turned off or if they do not load images but that's the direction my client wanted to go in). The problem I'm having is that the cookie's behaviour is extremely... random. I've been trying to track their values (with a var_dump so I don't have to wait for a page reload to view the cookie's value) but it seems the value for one field only gets refreshed every two page reloads. setcookie("tracking[cn]", $cn, time()+3600*24*7,'/','mydomain.com'); setcookie("tracking[t]", $t, time()+3600*24*7,'/','mydomain.com'); setcookie("tracking[kid]", $kid, time()+3600*24*7,'/','mydomain.com'); redirectTo($redirect_url); the values of cn, t are fine but for some reason kid is always wrong (having taken the value of the previous kid) Any help would be extremely appreciated I've been at this all evening! :)

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  • Why am I getting "(304) Not Modified" error on some links when using HttpWebRequest?

    - by Greg
    Hi, Any ideas why on some links that I try to access using HttpWebRequest I am getting "The remote server returned an error: (304) Not Modified." in the code? The code I'm using is from Jeff's post here. Note the concept of the code is a simple proxy server, so I'm pointing my browser at this locally running piece of code, which gets my browsers request, and then proxies it on by creating a new HttpWebRequest, as you'll see in the code. It works great for most sites/links, but for some this error comes up. You will see one key bit in the code is where it seems to copy the http header settings from the browser request to it's request out to the site, and it copies in the header attributes. Not sure if the issue is something to do with how it mimics this aspect of the request and then what happens as the result comes back? case "If-Modified-Since": request.IfModifiedSince = DateTime.Parse(listenerContext.Request.Headers[key]); break; I get the issue for example from http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Main_Page thanks

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  • Model binding & derived model classes

    - by Richard Ev
    Does ASP.NET MVC offer any simple way to get model binding to work when you have model classes that inherit from others? In my scenario I have a View that is strongly typed to List<Person>. I have a couple of classes that inherit from Person, namely PersonTypeOne and PersonTypeTwo. I have three strongly typed partial views with names that match these class names (and render form elements for the properties of their respective models). This means that in my main View I can have the following code: <% for(int i = 0; i < Model.Count; i++) { Html.RenderPartial(Model[i].GetType().Name, Model[i]); } %> This works well, apart from when the user submits the form the relevant controller action method just gets a List<Person>, rather than a list of Person, PersonTypeOne and PersonTypeTwo. This is pretty much as expected as the form submission doesn't contain enough information to tell the default model binder to create any instances of PersonTypeOne and PersonTypeTwo classes. So, is there any way to get such functionality from the default model binder?

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  • Programmatically change an EditorGrid's cell value

    - by Snowright
    Hi, I have an Editor Grid where if a specific cell is in focus (is being edited), a window containing a tree panel pops up allowing the user to choose a node from the treepanel as the new value of the cell. This way, the user isn't actually editing the cell in question, but is using the window to choose the new value. However, I am having difficulties setting the value of the cell in question programmatically. Below is the code I use to set the grid up, including the column model that chooses what editor to use for a cell depending on the value type: var editorCM = new Ext.grid.ColumnModel({ //config ,editors : { //rest of editors 'id' : new Ext.grid.GridEditor(new Ext.form.TextField({readOnly : true})) } ,getCellEditor : function(col, row) { //choose editor depending on the type value of a cell } }) var editorGrid = new Ext.grid.EditorGridPanel({ //rest of config ,cm : editorCM }) Below is my code to change the cell's value once the user chooses from the treepanel. function submitNode(newValue) { var temp = editorGrid.GetSelectionModel().getSelectedCell(); //returns array containing column and row position of selected cell, which value we want to change. //temp[1] = column index, temp[0] = row index //Gets the cell editor at specific position and sets new value for that cell editorGrid.getColumnModel().getCellEditor(temp[1], temp[0]).setValue(newValue); } I've also tried a few other ways (all including setValue(newValue)), but have come up empty handed. I've looked through the API and the ExtJS forums for any clue but have also come up empty handed.

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  • Android: changing drawable states of option menu items seems to have side-effects

    - by pjv
    In my onCreateOptionsMenu() I have basically the following: public boolean onCreateOptionsMenu(Menu menu) { menu.add(Menu.NONE, MENU_ITEM_INSERT, Menu.NONE, R.string.item_menu_insert).setShortcut('3', 'a').setIcon(android.R.drawable.ic_menu_add); PackageManager pm = getPackageManager(); if(pm.hasSystemFeature(PackageManager.FEATURE_CAMERA) && pm.hasSystemFeature(PackageManager.FEATURE_CAMERA_AUTOFOCUS)){ menu.add(Menu.NONE, MENU_ITEM_SCAN_ADD, Menu.NONE, ((Collectionista.DEBUG)?"DEBUG Scan and add item":getString(R.string.item_menu_scan_add))).setShortcut('4', 'a').setIcon(android.R.drawable.ic_menu_add); } ... } And in onPrepareOptionsMenu among others the following: final boolean scanAvailable = ScanIntent.isInstalled(this); final MusicCDItemScanAddTask task = new MusicCDItemScanAddTask(this); menu.findItem(MENU_ITEM_SCAN_ADD).setEnabled(scanAvailable && (tasks == null || !existsTask(task))); As you see, two options items have the same drawable set (android.R.drawable.ic_menu_add). Now, if in onPrepareOptionsMenu the second menu item gets disabled, its label and icon become gray, but also the icon of the first menu item becomes gray, while the label of that fist menu item stays black and it remains clickable. What is causing this crosstalk between the two icons/drawables? Shouldn't the system handle things like mutate() in this case? I've included a screenshot:

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