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  • Accessing Instance Variables from NSTimer selector

    - by Timbo
    Firstly newbie question: What's the difference between a selector and a method? Secondly newbie question (who would have thought): I need to loop some code based on instance variables and pause between loops until some condition (of course based on instance variables) is met. I've looked at sleep, I've looked at NSThread. In both discussions working through those options many asked why don't I use NSTimer, so here I am. Ok so it's simple enough to get a method (selector? ) to fire on a schedule. Problem I have is that I don't know how to see instance variables I've set up outside the timer from within the code NSTimer fires. I need to see those variables from the NSTimer selector code as I 1) will be updating their values and 2) will set labels based on those values. Here's some code that shows the concept… eventually I'd invalidate the timers based on myVariable too, however I've excluded that for code clarity. MyClass *aMyClassInstance = [MyClass new]; [aMyClassInstance setMyVariable:0]; [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:1.0 target:self selector:@selector(doStuff) userInfo:nil repeats:YES]; [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:5.0 target:self selector:@selector(doSomeOtherStuff) userInfo:nil repeats:YES]; - (void) doStuff { [aMyClassInstance setMyVariable:11]; // don't actually have access to set aMyClassInstance.myVariable [self updateSomeUILabel:[NSNumber numberWithInt:aMyClassInstance.myVariable]]; // don't actually have access to aMyClassInstance.myVariable } - (void) doSomeOtherStuff { [aMyClassInstance setMyVariable:22]; // don't actually have access to set aMyClassInstance.myVariable [self updateSomeUILabel:[NSNumber numberWithInt:aMyClassInstance.myVariable]]; // don't actually have access to aMyClassInstance.myVariable } - (void) updateSomeUILabel:(NSNumber *)arg{ int value = [arg intValue]; someUILabel.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"myVariable = %d", value]; // Updates the UI with new instance variable values }

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  • When is a bool not a bool (compiler warning C4800)

    - by omatai
    Consider this being compiled in MS Visual Studio 2005 (and probably others): CPoint point1( 1, 2 ); CPoint point2( 3, 4 ); const bool point1And2Identical( point1 == point2 ); // C4800 warning const bool point1And2TheSame( ( point1 == point2 ) == TRUE ); // no warning What the...? Is the MSVC compiler brain-dead? As far as I can tell, TRUE is #defined as 1, without any type information. So by what magic is there any difference between these two lines? Surely the type of the expression inside the brackets is the same in both cases? [This part of the question now satisfactorily answered in the comments just below] Personally, I think that avoiding the warning by using the == TRUE option is ugly (though less ugly than the != 0 alternative, despite being more strictly correct), and it is better to use #pragma warning( disable:4800 ) to imply "my code is good, the compiler is an ass". Agree? Note - I have seen all manner of discussion on C4800 talking about assigning ints to bools, or casting a burger combo with large fries (hold the onions) to a bool, and wondering why there are strange results. I can't find a clear answer on what seems like a much simpler question... that might just shine line on C4800 in general.

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  • Conditional WHERE Clauses in SQL Server 2008

    - by user336786
    Hello, I am trying to execute a query on a table in my SQL Server 2008 database. I have a stored procedure that uses five int parameters. Currently, my parameters are defined as follows: @memberType int, @color int, @preference int, @groupNumber int, @departmentNumber int This procedure will be passed -1 or higher for each parameter. A value of -1 means that the WHERE clause should not consider that parameter in the join/clause. If the value of the parameter is greater than -1, I need to consider the value in my WHERE clause. I would prefer to NOT use an IF-ELSE statement because it seems sloppy for this case. I saw this question here. However, it did not work for me. I think the reason why is because each of the columns in my table can have a NULL value. Someone pointed this scenario out in the fifth answer. That appears to be happening to me. Is there a slick approach to my question? Or do I just need to brute force it (I hope not :(). Thank you!

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  • C++ arrays as parameters, EDIT: now includes variable scoping

    - by awshepard
    Alright, I'm guessing this is an easy question, so I'll take the knocks, but I'm not finding what I need on google or SO. I'd like to create an array in one place, and populate it inside a different function. I define a function: void someFunction(double results[]) { for (int i = 0; i<100; ++i) { for (int n = 0; n<16; ++n) //note this iteration limit { results[n] += i * n; } } } That's an approximation to what my code is doing, but regardless, shouldn't be running into any overflow or out of bounds issues or anything. I generate an array: double result[16]; for(int i = 0; i<16; i++) { result[i] = -1; } then I want to pass it to someFunction someFunction(result); When I set breakpoints and step through the code, upon entering someFunction, results is set to the same address as result, and the value there is -1.000000 as expected. However, when I start iterating through the loop, results[n] doesn't seem to resolve to *(results+n) or *(results+n*sizeof(double)), it just seems to resolve to *(results). What I end up with is that instead of populating my result array, I just get one value. What am I doing wrong? EDIT Oh fun, I have a typo: it wasn't void someFunction(double results[]). It was: void someFunction(double result[])... So perhaps this is turning into a scoping question. If my double result[16] array is defined in a main.cpp, and someFunction is defined in a Utils.h file that's included by the main.cpp, does the result variable in someFunction then wreak havoc on the result array in main?

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  • Passing user_id, site_id, and question_id to same table on create...

    - by bgadoci
    I can't seem to figure out how to do this. I am trying to pass four different variables to a single table. To be more specific I am trying to create a "like" in a likes table that also captures the site_id (like an answer), user_id, and the question_id. Here is the set up. class Like < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :site belongs_to :user belongs_to :question end I will spare you the reverse, has_many associations but they are there. Here is the likes controller where I think the problem is. class LikesController < ApplicationController def create @user = current_user @site = Site.find(params[:site_id]) @like = @site.likes.create!(params[:like]) @like.user = current_user @like.save respond_to do |format| format.html { redirect_to @site} format.js end end end This code successfully passes the like and site_id but after many different variations of trying I can't get it to pass the question id. Here is my form: /views/sites/_site.html.erb (though the partial is being displayed in the /views/questions/show.html.erb file). <% remote_form_for [site, Like.new] do |f| %> <%= f.hidden_field :site_name, :value => "#{site.name}" %> <%= f.hidden_field :ip_address, :value => "#{request.remote_ip}" %> <%= f.hidden_field :like, :value => "1" %> <%= submit_tag "^" , :class => 'voteup' %> <% end %>

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  • PHP: Opening/closing tags & performance?

    - by Tom
    Hi, This may be a silly question, but as someone relatively new to PHP, I'm wondering if there are any performance-related issues to frequently opening and closing PHP tags in HTML template code, and if so, what might be best practices in terms of working with php tags? My question is not about the importance/correctness of closing tags, or about which type of code is more readable than another, but rather about how the document gets parsed/executed and what impact it might have on performance. To illustrate, consider the following two extremes: Mixing PHP and HTML tags: <?php echo '<tr> <td>'.$variable1.'</td> <td>'.$variable2.'</td> <td>'.$variable3.'</td> <td>'.$variable4.'</td> <td>'.$variable5.'</td> </tr>' ?> // PHP tag opened once Separating PHP and HTML tags: <tr> <td><?php echo $variable1 ?></td> <td><?php echo $variable2 ?></td> <td><?php echo $variable3 ?></td> <td><?php echo $variable4 ?></td> <td><?php echo $variable5 ?></td> </tr> // PHP tag opened five times Would be interested in hearing some views on this, even if it's just to hear that it makes no difference. Thanks.

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  • Set DetailsView as selected row of GridView

    - by Nix
    I am afraid this is a brain fart question. But I have searched around and have not been able to find the answer. I am creating a GridView/DetailsView page. I have a grid that displays a bunch of rows, when a row is selected it uses a DetailsView to allow for Insert/Update. My question is what is the best way to link these? I do not want to reach out to the web service again, all the data i need is in the selected grid view row. I basically have 2 separate data sources that share the same "DataObjectTypeName", the first data source retrieves the data, and the other to do the CRUD. What is the best way to transfer the Selected Grid View row to the Details View? Am I going to have to manualy handle the Insert/Update events and call the data source myself? <asp:GridView ID="gvDetails" runat="server" DataKeyNames="ID, Code" DataSourceID="odsSearchData" > <Columns> <asp:BoundField DataField="RowA" HeaderText="A" SortExpression="RowA" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="RowB" HeaderText="B" SortExpression="RowB" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="RowC" HeaderText="C" SortExpression="RowC" /> ....Code... <asp:DetailsView ID="dvDetails" runat="server" DataKeyNames="ID, Code" DataSourceID="odsCRUD" GridLines="None" DefaultMode="Edit" AutoGenerateRows="false" Visible="false" Width="100%"> <Fields> <asp:BoundField DataField="RowA" HeaderText="A" SortExpression="RowA" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="RowB" HeaderText="B" SortExpression="RowB" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="RowC" HeaderText="C" SortExpression="RowC" /> ...

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  • ASP.net MVC Linq-To-SQL Extended Class Field Binding

    - by user336858
    Hi there, The short version of this question is "Is there a way to get automatic View Object binding for fields defined in a partial class for a Linq-To-SQL generated class?" Apologies if it's been asked before. Example Suppose I have a typical MVC setup with the tables: Posts {PostID, ...} Categories {CategoryID, ...} A post can have more than one category, and a category can identify more than one post. Thus suppose further that I need an extra table: PostCategories {PostID, CategoryID, ...} This handles the many-to-many relationship between posts and categories. As far as I know, there's no way to do this in Linq-to-SQL right now so I have to shoehorn it in by adding a partial Postclass to the project to add that functionality. Something like: public partial class Post { public IEnumerable<Category> Categories{ get { ... } set { ... } } } So here's my question: If a user is accessing my MVC application front-end and begins editing a Post object, they might enter an invalid category. When the server recognizes the invalid input, the usual practice is to return the faulty object to the original view for re-editing along with some error messages. The fields in the edit page are re-populated with the provided values. However I don't know how to get this mechanism to work with the properties I created with the partial class as shown above. Any terminology, links, or tips you can provide would be tremendously helpful!

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  • Phonegap: Will my mobile app 'feel' faster or slower once ported to phonegap?

    - by user15872
    So I'm designing everything in mobile Safari and I know that phonegap is essentially a stripped webview but... Question: Will my application will run better in phonegap? (revised below) a)I imagine my navigation and core app will load faster as the scripts and images are on the hard drive. Is this True? b)I assume since they've been working on it for 2 years now that they may have made some optimizations to make it quicker than just an average safari window. Is this true? (Assuming both html5/js/css code bases are pretty much the same and app is running on iOS.) Update: Sorry, I meant to compare apples to slightly different apples. Question 1 revised: Will my app see any performance benefits running with in a phonegap environment vs standard mobile safari? (compare mobile - to mobile) 1b) In what ways, other than loading time has phonegap optimized performance over standard mobile safari? Follow ups: 1) Are there any pitfalls, other than large libraries, that may cause phonegap to suffer a serious performance hit vs stand mobile safari? 2) Can I mix native and webview rendering? (i.e the top half of my app is rendered in with html/css/js and the bottom half native)

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  • How to get notified about changes of the history via history.pushState?

    - by Felix Kling
    So now that HTML5 introduces history.pushState to change the browsers history, websites start using this in combination with Ajax instead of changing the fragment identifier of the URL. Sadly that means that those calls cannot be detect anymore by onhashchange. My question is: Is there a reliable way (hack? ;)) to detect when a website uses history.pushState? The specification does not state anything about events that are raised (at least I couldn't find anything). I tried to create a facade and replaced window.history with my own JavaScript object, but it didn't have any effect at all. Further explanation: I'm developing a Firefox add-on that needs to detect these changes and act accordingly. I know there was a similar question a few days ago that asked whether listening to some DOM events would be efficient but I would rather not rely on that because these events can be generated for a lot of different reasons. Update: Here is a jsfiddle (use Firefox 4 or Chrome 8) that shows that onpopstate is not triggered when pushState is called (or am I doing something wrong? Feel free to improve it!). Update 2: Another (side) problem is that window.location is not updated when using pushState (but I read about this already here on SO I think).

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  • Leftover Nav Bar in Landscape View

    - by Rob Bonner
    Hello, I am working to force a view into landscape mode, and have picked up all kinds of cool tips to make this happen, but am stuck on one item that is left on the screen. I have my XIB file laid out in landscape, and in my code I create the view controller normally: RedeemViewController *aViewController = [[RedeemViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"RedeemViewController" bundle:nil]; aViewController.hidesBottomBarWhenPushed = YES; aViewController.wantsFullScreenLayout = YES; [[self navigationController] pushViewController:aViewController animated:YES]; Inside the controller viewDidLoad I complete the following: [[UIApplication sharedApplication] setStatusBarOrientation:UIInterfaceOrientationLandscapeRight]; [[self navigationController] setNavigationBarHidden:YES animated:YES]; [UIView beginAnimations:@"View Flip" context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:.75]; [UIView setAnimationCurve:UIViewAnimationCurveEaseInOut]; if (self.interfaceOrientation == UIInterfaceOrientationPortrait) { self.view.transform = CGAffineTransformIdentity; self.view.transform = CGAffineTransformMakeRotation(degreesToRadian(90)); self.view.bounds = CGRectMake(0.0, 0.0, 480, 320); } [UIView commitAnimations]; What I end up with is a perfectly rotated view, with a grey vertical bar on the left side (see pic). So to the question, how do I get rid of the bar? Edit: I am pretty sure this is the navigation bar that is not being hidden. This is a duplicate of another post, with some modified code, the other question was being answered with the bug.

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  • Reusing named_scope to define another named_scope

    - by Sergei Kozlov
    The problem essence as I see it One day, if I'm not mistaken, I have seen an example of reusing a named_scope to define another named_scope. Something like this (can't remember the exact syntax, but that's exactly my question): named_scope :billable, :conditions => ... named_scope :billable_by_tom, :conditions => { :billable => true, :user => User.find_by_name('Tom') } The question is: what is the exact syntax, if it's possible at all? I can't find it back, and Google was of no help either. Some explanations Why I actually want it, is that I'm using Searchlogic to define a complex search, which can result in an expression like this: Card.user_group_managers_salary_greater_than(100) But it's too long to be put everywhere. Because, as far as I know, Searchlogic simply defines named_scopes on the fly, I would like to set a named_scope on the Card class like this: named_scope from_big_guys, { user_group_managers_salary_greater_than(100) } - this is where I would use that long Searchlogic method inside my named_scope. But, again, what would be the syntax? Can't figure it out. Resume So, is named_scope nesting (and I do not mean chaining) actually possible?

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  • Implimenting Zend MVC for my existing site-first step?

    - by Joel
    Hi guys, OK-newbie question here. I'll try not to bombard SO with lots of questions-and hopefully this first one will show me the method I'll need to follow for subsequent conversions. I have a web-based calendar system that I developed, but it was coded for me procedurally (using PHP). I'm now working on learning OO and wanting to integrate this site into my localhost Zend Framework and slowly start converting parts to OO and the Zend Framework MVC process in particular. As I've said before, I understand that this will be a slow process, and when I'm done, I still probably won't have anything as OO friendly as if I had rewritten it from scratch, but I'd like to use this as a learning experience. So, I have dropped the whole site into my localhose/zend/Public folder, and everything is showing up great and linking to the database, etc. My question is-what would be the easiest first component to switch over to the MVC model? This site has a bit of everything-forms, login, authentication, some jQuery, etc. Can anyone point to a tutorial that would address what I'm trying to do? If indeed, a form would be one of the simpler things to switch, can someone walk me through those changes? Another idea is changing over all the header info, etc? Thanks for any pointers on where to start! EDIT: Also, I understand that SO is mainly for specific coding questions-I'm happy to share specific code, once I have an idea about which section to tackle first...

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  • Arrays not counting correctly

    - by Nick Gibson
    I know I was just asking a question earlier facepalm This is in Java coding by the way. Well after everyones VERY VERY helpful advice (thank you guys alot) I managed to get over half of the program running how I wanted. Everything is pointing in the arrays where I want them to go. Now I just need to access the arrays so that It prints the correct information randomly. This is the current code that im using: http://pastebin.org/301483 The specific code giving me problems is this: long aa; int abc; for (int i = 0; i < x; i++) { aa = Math.round(Math.random()*10); String str = Long.toString(aa); abc = Integer.parseInt(str); String[] userAnswer = new String[x]; if(abc > x) { JOptionPane.showMessageDialog(null,"Number is too high. \nNumber Generator will reset."); break; } userAnswer[i] = JOptionPane.showInputDialog(null,"Question "+quesNum+"\n"+questions[abc]+"\n\nA: "+a[abc]+"\nB: "+b[abc]+"\nC: "+c[abc]+"\nD: "+d[abc]); answer = userAnswer[i].compareTo(answers[i]); if(answer == 0) { JOptionPane.showMessageDialog(null,"Correct. \nThe Correct Answer is "+answers[abc]+""+i); } else { JOptionPane.showMessageDialog(null,"Wrong. \n The Correct Answer is "+answers[abc]+""+i); }//else

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  • PHP sleep() excution sequence while echoeing.

    - by Babiker
    I have the following: echo time()."<br>"; sleep(1); echo time()."<br>"; sleep(1); echo time()."<br>"; I wrote the preceding code with intention to echo time()."<br>" ln 1,echo time()."<br>" ln 4, wait a final second and then echo the final time()."<br>". Altough the time bieng echoed is correct when it comes to the intervals between time(), all echo functions are echoeing after the total of the waiting period/parameters in each sleep function. This is how the script runs: Excutes. Waits 2 secons. echoes 1275540664 1275540665 1275540666 Notice the correct incrementation in time() being echoed. My question is why is it not behaving like expected to where it echoes, waits a second, echoes again, waits one final second and then echos the last parameter? I know my question is a little confusing due to my wording, but i will try my hardest to answer any comments regarding this, thanks.

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  • data ownership and performance

    - by Ami
    We're designing a new application and we ran into some architectural question when thinking about data ownership. we broke down the system into components, for example Customer and Order. each of this component/module is responsible for a specific business domain, i.e. Customer deals with CRUD of customers and business process centered around customers (Register a n new customer, block customer account, etc.). each module is the owner of a set of database tables, and only that module may access them. if another module needs data that is owned by another module, it retrieves it by requesting it from that module. so far so good, the question is how to deal with scenarios such as a report that needs to show all the customers and for each customer all his orders? in such a case we need to get all the customers from the Customer module, iterate over them and for each one get all the data from the Order module. performance won't be good...obviously it would be much better to have a stored proc join customers table and orders table, but that would also mean direct access to the data that is owned by another module, creating coupling and dependencies that we wish to avoid. this is a simplified example, we're dealing with an enterprise application with a lot of business entities and relationships, and my goal is to keep it clean and as loosely coupled as possible. I foresee in the future many changes to the data scheme, and possibly splitting the system into several completely separate systems. I wish to have a design that would allow this to be done in a relatively easy way. Thanks!

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  • OSGi bundle imports packages from non-bundle jars: create bundles for them?

    - by John Simmons
    I am new to OSGi, and am using Equinox. I have done several searches and can find no answer to this. The discussion at OSGI - handling 3rd party JARs required by a bundle helps somewhat, but does not fully answer my question. I have obtained a jar file, rabbitmq-client.jar, that is already packaged as an OSGi bundle (with Bundle-Name and other such properties in its MANIFEST.MF), that I would like to install as a bundle. This jar imports packages org.apache.commons.io and org.apache.commons.io.input from commons-io-1.2.jar. The RabbitMQ client 2.7.1 distribution also includes commons-cli-1.1.jar, so I presume that it is required as well. I examined the manifests of these commons jars and found that they do not appear to be packaged as bundles. That is, their manifests have none of the standard bundle properties. My specific question is: if I install rabbitmq-client.jar as a bundle, what is the proper way to get access to the packages that it needs to import from the commons jars? There are only three alternatives that I can think of, without rebuilding rabbitmq-client.jar. The packages from the commons jars are already included in the Equinox global classpath, and rabbitmq-client.jar will get them automatically from there. I must make another bundle with the two commons jars, export the needed packages, and install that bundle in Equinox. I must put these two commons jars in the global classpath when I start Equinox, and they will be available to rabbitmq-client.jar from there. I have read that one normally does not use the global classpath in an OSGi container. I am not clear on whether items from the global classpath are even available when building individual bundle classpaths. However, I note that rabbitmq-client.jar also imports other packages such as javax.net, which I presume come from the global classpath. Or is there some other bundle that exports them? Thanks for any assistance!

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  • Searching the head of CVS

    - by bobtheowl2
    I'm looking for a 'relatively' easy way to search through cvs to look for a particular string in the HEAD revisions. I realize the way CVS stores versions makes this difficult. But I'm trying to come up with some script to allow this search (performance is not expected here). Currently this command will output the contents of the head files cvs co -r HEAD -p stdout = file contents (to be grepped for the search string) stderr = the file name/header info (to be grepped for the line that signifies file name). Ideally, I want to grep the contents and display the header + a few lines before and after the searched item (the output of this likely directed to some file). I found a way to grep the stdout and stderr using different values. And the resulting stdout/stderr displayed is in the right order. But any attempt to redirect it to a file messes up the order? { { cvs co -r HEAD -p myModule 4>&- | grep 'myString' 2>&4 4>&- } 4>&2 2>&1 >&3 3>&- | grep 'Check' >&2 3>&- } 3>&1 Question 1. Is there an easier way to do this all together? Question 2. If not, how do I get the output of the code above to append to a file in the same order as displayed on the console?

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  • Port Java Application to Android

    - by mihirk
    I am not so sure about the question or what I should call what I am trying to achieve. I use a dialer called super sify. Here is the download - http://thegoan.com/supersify/supersify.zip The when extracted it has two files for linux, one is a .jar file which consists of some classes. The application was written in java. The other is a .sh file, which is a shell executable and takes some parameters like username and password and machine id and stuff. I want to port this app to android. What exactly would I have to do. Some more information is the .jar file is named supersify.jar and the .sh file is named ss.sh so here is the code for ss.sh java -jar supersify.jar $* if [ $? -eq 1 ] then read fi Please help me out. This is an open source software.So I am not doing any illegal modifications. I need to port this app to android, so would I have to write the whole thing again or just something else. I know some basic hello world android app development, and I have made an app to add two numbers, I am still on my way to become an android app developer, but I need this app and will learn a lot to make this possible unless it involves rewriting all the java classes. Thank you in advance If you have anymore question I will be glad to answer to them :D.

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  • Creating UTF-8 files in Java from a runnable Jar

    - by RuntimeError
    I have a little Java project where I've set the properties of the class files to UTF-8 (I use a lot of foreign characters not found on the default CP1252). The goal is to create a text file (in Windows) containing a list of items. When running the class files from Eclipse itself (hitting Ctrl+F11) it creates the file flawlessly and opening it in another editor (I'm using Notepad++) I can see the characters as I wanted. +--------------------------------------------------+ ¦ Universidade2010 (18/18)¦ ¦ hidden: 0¦ +--------------------------------------------------¦ But, when I export the project (using Eclipse) as a runnable Jar and run it using 'javaw -jar project.jar' the new file created is a mess of question marks ???????????????????????????????????????????????????? ? Universidade2010 (19/19)? ? hidden: 0? ???????????????????????????????????????????????????? I've followed some tips on how to use UTF-8 (which seems to be broken by default on Java) to try to correct this so now I'm using Writer w = new OutputStreamWriter(fos, "UTF-8"); and writing the BOM header to the file like in this question already answered but still without luck when exporting to Jar Am I missing some property or command-line command so Java knows I want to create UTF-8 files by default ?

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  • Alert and if changes behaviour dom copying

    - by lowkey
    Hi guys! Tried to make a little old school ajax (iframe-javascript) script. A bit of mootools is used for DOM navigation Description: HTML: 1 iframe called "buffer" 1 div called "display" JAVASCRIPT: (short: copy iframe content into a div on the page) 1) onLoad on iframe triggers handler(), a counter makes sure it only run once (this is because otherwise firefox will go into feedback loop. What i think happens: iframe on load handler() copyBuffer change src of iframe , and firefox takes that as an onload again) 2) copybuffer() is called, it sets src of iframe then copies iframe content into div, then erases iframe content THE CODE: count=0; function handler(){ if (count==0){ copyBuffer(); count++; } } function copyBuffer(){ $('buffer').set('src','http://www.somelink.com/'); if (window.frames['buffer'] && $('display') ) { $('display').innerHTML = window.frames['buffer'].document.body.innerHTML; window.frames['buffer'].document.body.innerHTML=""; } } problems: QUESTION 1) nothing happens, the content is not loaded into the div. But if i either: A) remove the counter and let the script run in a feedback loop: the content is suddenly copied into the div, but off course there is a feedback loop going on, you can see it keeps loading in the status bar. OR B) insert an alert in the copyBuffer function. The content is copied, without the feedback loop. why does this happen? QUESTION 2) The If wrapped around the copying code i got from a source on the internet. I am not sure what it does? If i remove it the code does not work in: Safari and Chrome. Many thanks in advance!

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  • Algorithm to determine indices i..j of array A containing all the elements of another array B

    - by Skylark
    I came across this question on an interview questions thread. Here is the question: Given two integer arrays A [1..n] and B[1..m], find the smallest window in A that contains all elements of B. In other words, find a pair < i , j such that A[i..j] contains B[1..m]. If A doesn't contain all the elements of B, then i,j can be returned as -1. The integers in A need not be in the same order as they are in B. If there are more than one smallest window (different, but have the same size), then its enough to return one of them. Example: A[1,2,5,11,2,6,8,24,101,17,8] and B[5,2,11,8,17]. The algorithm should return i = 2 (index of 5 in A) and j = 9 (index of 17 in A). Now I can think of two variations. Let's suppose that B has duplicates. This variation doesn't consider the number of times each element occurs in B. It just checks for all the unique elements that occur in B and finds the smallest corresponding window in A that satisfies the above problem. For example, if A[1,2,4,5,7] and B[2,2,5], this variation doesn't bother about there being two 2's in B and just checks A for the unique integers in B namely 2 and 5 and hence returns i=1, j=3. This variation accounts for duplicates in B. If there are two 2's in B, then it expects to see at least two 2's in A as well. If not, it returns -1,-1. When you answer, please do let me know which variation you are answering. Pseudocode should do. Please mention space and time complexity if it is tricky to calculate it. Mention if your solution assumes array indices to start at 1 or 0 too. Thanks in advance.

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  • Alternate colors on click with jQuery

    - by Jace Cotton
    I'm sure there is a simple solution to this, and I'm sure this is a duplicate question, though I have been unable to solve my solution particularly because I don't really know how to phrase it in order to search for other questions/solutions, so I'm coming here hoping for some help. Basically, I have spans with classes that assigns a background-color property, and inside those spans are words. I have three of these spans, and each time a user clicks on a span I want the class to change (thus changing the background color and inner text). HTML: <span class="alternate"> <span class="blue showing">Lorem</span> <span class="green">Ipsum</span> <span class="red">Dolor</span> </span> CSS: .alternate span { display : none } .alternate .showing { display : inline } .blue { background : blue } .green { background : green } .red { background : red } jQuery: $(".alternate span").each(function() { $(this).on("click", function() { $(this).removeClass("showing"); $(this).next().addClass("showing"); }); }); This solution works great using $.next until I get to the third click, whereafter .showing is removed, and is not added since there are no more $.next options. How do I, after getting to the last-child, add .showing to the first-child and then start over? I have tried various options including if($(".alternate span:last-child").hasClass("showing")) { etc. etc. }, and I attempted to use an array and for loop though I failed to make it work. Newb question, I know, but I can't seem to solve this so as a last resort I'm coming here.

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  • Is NFS capable of preserving order of operations?

    - by JustJeff
    I have a diskless host 'A', that has a directory NFS mounted on server 'B'. A process on A writes to two files F1 and F2 in that directory, and a process on B monitors these files for changes. Assume that B polls for changes faster than A is expected to make them. Process A seeks the head of the files, writes data, and flushes. Process B seeks the head of the files and does reads. Are there any guarantees about how the order of the changes performed by A will be detected at B? Specifically, if A alternately writes to one file, and then the other, is it reasonable to expect that B will notice alternating changes to F1 and F2? Or could B conceivably detect a series of changes on F1 and then a series on F2? I know there are a lot of assumptions embedded in the question. For instance, I am virtually certain that, even operating on just one file, if A performs 100 operations on the file, B may see a smaller number of changes that give the same result, due to NFS caching some of the actions on A before they are communicated to B. And of course there would be issues with concurrent file access even if NFS weren't involved and both the reading and the writing process were running on the same real file system. The reason I'm even putting the question up here is that it seems like most of the time, the setup described above does detect the changes at B in the same order they are made at A, but that occasionally some events come through in transposed order. So, is it worth trying to make this work? Is there some way to tune NFS to make it work, perhaps cache settings or something? Or is fine-grained behavior like this just too much expect from NFS?

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  • Is there an algorithm for finding an item that matches certain properties, like a 20 questions game?

    - by lala
    A question about 20 questions games was asked here: However, if I'm understanding it correctly, the answers seem to assume that each question will go down a hierarchal branching tree. A binary tree should work if the game went like this: Is it an animal? Yes. Is it a mammal? Yes. Is it a feline? Yes. Because feline is an example of a mammal and mammal is an example of an animal. But what if the questions go like this? Is it a mammal? Yes. Is it a predator? Yes. Does it have a long nose? No. You can't branch down a tree with those kinds of questions, because there are plenty of predators that aren't mammals. So you can't have your program just narrow it down to mammal and have predators be a subset of mammals. So is there a way to use a binary search tree that I'm not understanding or is there a different algorithm for this problem?

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