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  • Stop writing blank line at the end of CSV file (using MATLAB)

    - by Grant M.
    Hello all ... I'm using MATLAB to open a batch of CSV files containing column headers and data (using the 'importdata' function), then I manipulate the data a bit and write the headers and data to new CSV files using the 'dlmwrite' function. I'm using the '-append' and 'newline' attributes of 'dlmwrite' to add each line of text/data on a new line. Each of my new CSV files has a blank line at the end, whereas this blank line was not there before when I read in the data ... and I'm not using 'newline' on my final call of 'dlmwrite'. Does anyone know how I can keep from writing this blank line to the end of my CSV files? Thanks for your help, Grant EDITED 5/18/10 1:35PM CST - Added information about code and text file per request ... you'll notice after performing the procedure below that there appears to be a carriage return at the end of the last line in the new text file. Consider a text file named 'textfile.txt' that looks like this: Column1, Column2, Column3, Column4, Column 5 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 Here's a sample of the code I am using: % import data importedData = importdata('textfile.txt'); % manipulate data importedData.data(:,1) = 100; % store column headers into single comma-delimited % character array (for easy writing later) columnHeaders = importedData.textdata{1}; for counter = 2:size(importedData.textdata,2) columnHeaders = horzcat(columnHeaders,',',importedData.textdata{counter}); end % write column headers to new file dlmwrite('textfile_updated.txt',columnHeaders,'Delimiter','','newline','pc') % append all but last line of data to new file for dataCounter = 1:(size(importedData.data,2)-1) dlmwrite('textfile_updated.txt',importedData.data(dataCounter,:),'Delimiter',',','newline','pc','-append') end % append last line of data to new file, not % creating new line at end dlmwrite('textfile_updated.txt',importedData.data(end,:),'Delimiter',',','-append')

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  • Help: List contents of iPhone application bundle subpath??

    - by bluepill
    Hi, I am trying to get a listing of the directories contained within a subpath of my application bundle. I've done some searching and this is what I have come up with - (void) contents { NSArray *contents = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathsForResourcesOfType:nil inDirectory:@"DataDir"]; if (contents = nil) { NSLog(@"Failed: path doesn't exist or error!"); } else { NSString *bundlePathName = [[NSBundle mainBundle] bundlePath]; NSString *dataPathName = [bundlePathName stringByAppendingPathComponent: @"DataDir"]; NSFileManager *fileManager = [NSFileManager defaultManager]; NSMutableArray *directories = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; for (NSString *entityName in contents) { NSString *fullEntityName = [dataPathName stringByAppendingPathComponent:entityName]; NSLog(@"entity = %@", fullEntityName); BOOL isDir = NO; [fileManager fileExistsAtPath:fullEntityName isDirectory:(&isDir)]; if (isDir) { [directories addObject:fullEntityName]; NSLog(@" is a directory"); } else { NSLog(@" is not a directory"); } } NSLog(@"Directories = %@", directories); [directories release]; } } As you can see I am trying to get a listing of directories in the app bundle's DataDir subpath. The problem is that I get no strings in my contents NSArray. note: - I am using the simulator - When I manually look in the .app file I can see DataDir and the contents therein - The contents of DataDir are png files and directories that contain png files - The application logic needs to discover the contents of DataDir at runtime - I have also tried using NSArray *contents = [fileManager contentsOfDirectoryAtPath:DataDirPathName error:nil]; and I still get no entries in my contents array Any suggestions/alternative approaches? Thanks.

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  • Is there any need for me to use wstring in the following case

    - by Yan Cheng CHEOK
    Currently, I am developing an app for a China customer. China customer are mostly switch to GB2312 language in their OS encoding. I need to write a text file, which will be encoded using GB2312. I use std::ofstream file I compile my application under MBCS mode, not unicode. I use the following code, to convert CString to std::string, and write it to file using ofstream std::string Utils::ToString(CString& cString) { /* Will not work correctly, if we are compiled under unicode mode. */ return (LPCTSTR)cString; } To my surprise. It just works. I thought I need to at least make use of wstring. I try to do some investigation. Here is the MBCS.txt generated. I try to print a single character named ? (its value is 0xBDC5) When I use CString to carry this character, its length is 2. When I use Utils::ToString to perform conversion to std::string, the returned string length is 2. I write to file using std::ofstream My question is : When I exam MBCS.txt using a hex editor, the value is displayed as BD (LSB) and C5 (MSB). But I am using little endian machine. Isn't hex editor should show me C5 (LSB) and BD (MSB)? I check from wikipedia. GB2312 seems doesn't specific endianness. It seems that using std::string + CString just work fine for my case. May I know in what case, the above methodology will not work? and when I should start to use wstring?

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  • ADO.NET Data Services Media type requires a ';' character before a parameter definition.

    - by idahosaedokpayi
    I am experimenting with ADO.NET and I am seeing this error on the second attempt to browse the service: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" standalone="yes" ?> <error xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/ado/2007/08/dataservices/metadata"> <code /> <message xml:lang="en-US">Media type requires a ';' character before a parameter definition.</message> </error> The first attempt is normal. I am working with an exactly identical service on an internal development network and it is fine. I am including my connection string: <add name="J4Entities" connectionString="metadata=res://*;provider=System.Data.SqlClient;provider connection string=&quot;Data Source=MNSTSQL01N;Initial Catalog=J4;Integrated Security=True;MultipleActiveResultSets=True&quot;" providerName="System.Data.EntityClient"/> and my Data service class: using System; using System.Data.Services; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.ServiceModel.Web; public class Data : DataService< J4Model.J4Entities > { // This method is called only once to initialize service-wide policies. public static void InitializeService(IDataServiceConfiguration config) { // TODO: set rules to indicate which entity sets and service operations are visible, updatable, etc. // Examples: config.SetEntitySetAccessRule("*", EntitySetRights.AllRead); // config.SetServiceOperationAccessRule("MyServiceOperation", ServiceOperationRights.All); } } Is there something obvious I am not doing?

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  • Play! 1.2.5 with mongodb | Model Validation not happening

    - by TGV
    I have a simple User model whose fields are annotated with play validation annotations and morphia annotations like below. import play.data.validation.*; import play.modules.morphia.Model; import com.google.code.morphia.annotations.*; @Entity public class User extends Model{ @Id @Indexed(name="USERID", unique=true) public ObjectId userId; @Required public String userName; @Email @Indexed(name="USEREMAIL", unique=true) @Required public String userEmail; } Now I have a service which has a CreateNewUser method responsible for persisting the data. I have used Morphia plugin for the dao support. But the problem is that User Document gets persisted in mongo-db even if userName or userEmail is NULL. Also @Email validation does not happen // Below code is in app/controllers/Application.java User a = new User(); a.userName = "user1"; // calling bean to create user, userService is in app/service/UserService userService.createNewUser(a); It does not work even after adding @valid and validation.hasErrors() check.Below code is in app/service/UserService public void createNewUser(@Valid User user) { if (Validation.hasErrors()) { System.out.println("has errors"); } else { // TODO Auto-generated method stub userDao.save(user); } }

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  • Why is Excel's 'Evaluate' method a general expression evaluator?

    - by jtolle
    A few questions have come up recently involving the Application.Evaluate method callable from Excel VBA. The old XLM macro language also exposes an EVALUATE() function. Both can be quite useful. Does anyone know why the evaluator that is exposed can handle general expressions, though? My own hunch is that Excel needed to give people a way to get ranges from string addresses, and to get the value of named formulas, and just opening a portal to the expression evaluator was the easiest way. (The help for the VBA version does say its purpose it to "convert a Microsoft Excel name to an object or a value".) But of course you don't need the ability to evaluate arbitrary expressions just to do that. (That is, Excel could provide a Name.Evaluate method or something instead.) Application.Evaluate seems kind of...unfinished. It's full behavior isn't very well documented, and there are quite a few quirks and limitations (as described by Charles Williams here: http://www.decisionmodels.com/calcsecretsh.htm) with what is exposed. I suppose the answer could be simply "why not expose it?", but I'd be interested to know what design decisions led to this feature taking the form that it does. Failing that, I'd be interested to hear other hunches.

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  • Complex sorting on MySQL database

    - by ChrisR
    I'm facing the following situation. We've got an CMS with an entity with translations. These translations are stored in a different table with a one-to-many relationship. For example newsarticles and newsarticle_translations. The amount of available languages is dynamically determined by the same CMS. When entering a new newsarticle the editor is required to enter at least one translation, which one of the available languages he chooses is up to him. In the newsarticle overview in our CMS we would like to show a column with the (translated) article title, but since none of the languages are mandatory (one of them is mandatory but i don't know which one) i don't really know how to construct my mysql query to select a title for each newsarticle, regardless of the entered language. And to make it all a little harder, our manager asked for the possibilty to also be able to sort on title, so fetching the translations in a separate query is ruled out as far as i know. Anyone has an idea on how to solve this in the most efficient way? Here are my table schema's it it might help > desc news; +-----------------+----------------+------+-----+-------------------+----------------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +-----------------+----------------+------+-----+-------------------+----------------+ | id | int(10) | NO | PRI | NULL | auto_increment | | category_id | int(1) | YES | | NULL | | | created | timestamp | NO | | CURRENT_TIMESTAMP | | | user_id | int(10) | YES | | NULL | | +-----------------+----------------+------+-----+-------------------+----------------+ > desc news_translations; +-----------------+------------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +-----------------+------------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | id | int(10) unsigned | NO | PRI | NULL | auto_increment | | enabled | tinyint(1) | NO | | 0 | | | news_id | int(1) unsigned | NO | | NULL | | | title | varchar(255) | NO | | | | | summary | text | YES | | NULL | | | body | text | NO | | NULL | | | language | varchar(2) | NO | | NULL | | +-----------------+------------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ PS: i've though about subqueries and coalesce() solutions but those seem rather dirty tricks, wondering if something better is know that i'm not thinking of?

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  • What is the correct approach to using GWT with persistent objects?

    - by dankilman
    Hi, I am currently working on a simple web application through Google App engine using GWT. It should be noted that this is my first attempt at such a task. I have run into to following problem/dilema: I have a simple Class (getters/setters and nothing more. For the sake of clarity I will refer to this Class as DataHolder) and I want to make it persistent. To do so I have used JDO which required me to add some annotations and more specifically add a Key field to be used as the primary key. The problem is that using the Key class requires me to import com.google.appengine.api.datastore.Key which is ok on the server side, but then I can't use DataHolder on the client side, because GWT doesn't allow it (as far as I know). So I have created a sister Class ClientDataHolder which is almost identical, though it doesn't have all the JDO annotations nor the Key field. Now this actually works but It feels like I'm doing something wrong. Using this approach would require maintaining to separate classes for each entity I wish to have. So my question is: Is there a better way of doing this? Thank you.

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  • Django: Create custom template tag -> ImportError

    - by Alexander Scholz
    I'm sorry to ask this again, but I tried several solutions from stack overflow and some tutorials and I couldn't create a custom template tag yet. All I get is ImportError: No module named test_tag when I try to start the server via python manage.py runserver. I created a very basic template tag (found here: django templatetag?) like so: My folder structure: demo manage.py test __init__.py settings.py urls.py ... templatetags __init__.py test_tag.py test_tag.py: from django import template register = template.Library() @register.simple_tag def test_tag(input): if "foo" == input: return "foo" if "bar" == input: return "bar" if "baz" == input: return "baz" return "" index.html: {% load test_tag %} <html> <head> ... </head> <body> {% cms_toolbar %} {% foobarbaz "bar" %} {% foobarbaz "elephant" %} {% foobarbaz "foo" %} </body> </html> and my settings.py: INSTALLED_APPS = ( ... 'test_tag', ... ) Please let me know if you need further information from my settings.py and what I did wrong so I can't even start my server. (If I delete 'test_tag' from installed apps I can start the server but I get the error that test_tag is not known, of course). Thanks

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  • How to configure multiple mappings using FluentHibernate?

    - by chris.baglieri
    First time rocking it with NHibernate/Fluent so apologies in advance if this is a naive question. I have a set of Models I want to map. When I create my session factory I'm trying to do all mappings at once. I am not using auto-mapping (though I may if what I am trying to do ends up being more painful than it ought to be). The problem I am running into is that it seems only the top map is taking. Given the code snippet below and running a unit test that attempts to save 'bar', it fails and checking the logs I see NHibernate is trying to save a bar entity to the foo table. While I suspect it's my mappings it could be something else that I am simply overlooking. Code that creates the session factory (note I've also tried separate calls into .Mappings): Fluently.Configure().Database(MsSqlConfiguration.MsSql2008 .ConnectionString(c => c .Server(@"localhost\SQLEXPRESS") .Database("foo") .Username("foo") .Password("foo"))) .Mappings(m => { m.FluentMappings.AddFromAssemblyOf<FooMap>() .Conventions.Add(FluentNHibernate.Conventions.Helpers .Table.Is(x => "foos")); m.FluentMappings.AddFromAssemblyOf<BarMap>() .Conventions.Add(FluentNHibernate.Conventions.Helpers .Table.Is(x => "bars")); }) .BuildSessionFactory(); Unit test snippet: using (var session = Data.SessionHelper.SessionFactory.OpenSession()) { var bar = new Bar(); session.Save(bar); Assert.NotNull(bar.Id); }

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  • C++ Boolean problem (comparison between two arrays)

    - by Martin
    Hello! I have a problem to do. I already did some part of it, however I stuck and don't know exactly what to do next. The question: " You are given two arrays of ints, named A and B. One contains AMAXELEMENTS and the other contains BMAXELEMENTS. Write a Boolean-valued function that returns true if there is at least one point in A that is the same as a point in B, and false if there is no match between two arrays. " The two arrays are made up by me, I think if I know how to compare two arrays I will be fine, and I will be able to finish my problem. This is what I have so far (I changed AMAXELEMENTS to AMAX, and BMAXELEMENTS to BMAX): #include <iostream> using namespace std; int main(){ const int AMAX=5, BMAX=6; int i; bool c1=true,c2=false; int A[AMAX]={2,4,1,5,9}; int B[BMAX]={9,12,32,43,23,11}; for(i=0;i<BMAX;i++) if (B[i]==A[i]) // <---- I think this part has to look different, but I can't figure it out. cout<<c1<<endl; else cout<< c2<<endl; return 0; }

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  • WCF publish/subscribe service, and ASP.NET MVC client

    - by d3j4vu
    I managed to develop a custom WCF service, using the publish / subscribe model, and hosted inside a managed windows service. Everything's working. I developed an interface as the service contract implementing a method definition marked as a non-one way operation contract (OperationContract(IsOneWay = false)]. This, to make possible returns an instance of a custom class derived from System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult. In the MVC app, event fires ok. It wraps inside an action method, (just the one defined in the interface), but, and this is my current problem, i believe that something relative to the execution context of the windows service (and the hosted wcf counterpart) blocks the execution of the action method in the MVC app. This is what i have until now (some pieces ripped off just to be more clear): /// Method definition for the contract's service. Maps to a MVC ActionMethod. [OperationContract(IsOneWay = false)] ActionResult Imagen(string data, CustomActionResult result); The class to hold an ActionResult derived class instance: public class ServiceEventArgsMvc : ServiceEventArgs { /// <summary> /// /// </summary> public CustomActionResult Result { get; set; } } And the code in the MVC client app: /// <summary> /// Just a simple class to hold an abstract ActionResult derived class instance. /// </summary> public ActionResult Image(string data, CustomActionResult result) { ViewData["data"] = data; return View(); } Ok. ActionMethod sucessfully executes...but when it's done (and usually expected obtain a reditection to a View named Image, like the action method), the WCF service throws a Timeout exception, making clear that he's still waiting for a response from the MVC client. The response never arrives, so the MVC app never finish his work (redirect to the "Image" view as expected). Any ideas?. Guess i'm missing something very simple, but i don't know what it could be. This is drivin' me nuts.

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  • Login failed for user ''. The user is not associated with a trusted SQL Server connection

    - by Tony_Henrich
    My web service app on my Windows XP box is trying to log in to my sql server 2005 database on the same box. The machine is part of a domain. I am logged in in the domain and I am an admin on my machine. I am using Windows Authentication in my connection string as in "Server=myServerAddress;Database=myDataBase;Trusted_Connection=True". SQLServer is configured for both types of authentication (mixed mode) and accepts remote connections and accepts tcp and named pipes protocols. Integrated authentication is enabled in IIS and with and without anonymous access. 'Everyone' has access to computer from network setting in local security settings. ASPNET is a user in the sql server and has access to the daatabase. user is mapped to the login. The app works fine for other developers which means the app shouldn't be changed (It's not new code). So it seems it's my machine which has an issue. I am getting the error "Login failed for user ''. The user is not associated with a trusted SQL Server connection" Note the blank user name. Why am I getting this error when both the app and database are on my machine? I can use SQL Server authentication but don't want to. I can connect to the database using SSMS and my Windows credentials. It might be related to setspn, kerberos, delegation, AD. I am not sure what further checks to make?

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  • Make a <div> disappear inside a javascript script

    - by KeenClock
    First of all, I have this line of code on a random page : <script type="text/javascript" src="script.php"></script> On the page named "script.php", I have a <div class="something">random text</div> and the random text is displayed and everything is working fine. Now, I would like to know if it's possible to make that specific <div> to disappear without having to modify the code inside the "script.php" page. Thank you ! Edit: Thank you to all of you, you helped me found a solution, here is an example : <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="fr" lang="fr"><head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8" /> <title>Random page</title> <style type="text/css"> div.something { font-family: Tahoma; font-size: 12px; font-weight: bold; text-decoration: underline; } </style> <script type="text/javascript"> function hideSomething() { document.getElementsByClassName("something")[2].style.display = "none"; } </script> </head> <body> <div class="something">random text 1</div> <div class="something">random text 2</div> <div class="something">random text 3</div> <br /><input type="submit" value="Disappear" onclick="hideSomething()" /> </body> </html>

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  • How can I get my business objects layer to use the management layer in their methods?

    - by Tom Pickles
    I have a solution in VS2010 with several projects, each making up a layer within my application. I have business entities which are currently objects with no methods, and I have a management layer which references the business entities layer in it's project. I now think I have designed my application poorly and would like to move methods from helper classes (which are in another layer) into methods I'll create within the business entities themselves. For example I have a VirtualMachine object, which uses a helper class to call a Reboot() method on it which passes the request to the management layer. The static manager class talks to an API that reboots the VM. I want to move the Reboot() method into the VirtualMachine object, but I will need to reference the management layer: public void Reboot() { VMManager.Reboot(this.Name); } So if I add a reference to my management project in my entities project, I get the circular dependency error, which is how it should be. How can I sort this situation out? Do I need to an yet another layer between the entity layer and the management layer? Or, should I just forget it and leave it as it is. The application works ok now, but I am concerned my design isn't particularly OOP centric and I would like to correct this.

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  • LINQ to SQL - Lightweight O/RM?

    - by CoffeeAddict
    I've heard from some that LINQ to SQL is good for lightweight apps. But then I see LINQ to SQL being used for Stackoverflow, and a bunch of other .coms I know (from interviewing with them). Ok, so is this true? for an e-commerce site that's bringing in millions and you're typically only doing basic CRUDs most the time with the exception of an occasional stored proc for something more complex, is LINQ to SQL complete enough and performance-wise good enough or able to be tweaked enough to run happily on an e-commerce site? I've heard that you just need to tweak performance on the DB side when using LINQ to SQL for a better approach. So there are really 2 questions here: 1) Meaning/scope/definition of a "Lightweight" O/RM solution: What the heck does "lightweight" mean when people say LINQ to SQL is a "lightweight O/RM" and is that true??? If this is so lightweight then why do I see a bunch of huge .coms using it? Is it good enough to run major .coms (obviously it looks like it is) and what determines what the context of "lightweight" is...it's such a generic statement. 2) Performance: I'm working on my own .com and researching different O/RMs. I'm not really looking at the Entity Framework (yet), just want to figure out the LINQ to SQL basics here and determine if it will be efficient enough for me. The problem I think is you can't tweak or control the SQL it generates...

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  • Merging ILists to bind on datagridview to avoid using a database view

    - by P.Bjorklund
    In the form we have this where IntaktsBudgetsType is a poorly named enum that only specifies wether to populate the datagridview after customer or product (You do the budgeting either after product or customer) private void UpdateGridView() { bs = new BindingSource(); bs.DataSource = intaktsbudget.GetDataSource(this.comboBoxKundID.Text, IntaktsBudgetsType.PerKund); dataGridViewIntaktPerKund.DataSource = bs; } This populates the datagridview with a database view that merge the product, budget and customer tables. The logic has the following method to get the correct set of IList from the repository which only does GetTable<T>.ToList<T> public IEnumerable<IntaktsBudgetView> GetDataSource(string id, IntaktsBudgetsType type) { IList<IntaktsBudgetView> list = repository.SelectTable<IntaktsBudgetView>(); switch (type) { case IntaktsBudgetsType.PerKund: return from i in list where i.kundId == id select i; case IntaktsBudgetsType.PerProdukt: return from i in list where i.produktId == id select i; } return null; } Now I don't want to use a database view since that is read-only and I want to be able to perform CRUD actions on the datagridview. I could build a class that acts as a wrapper for the whole thing and bind the different table values to class properties but that doesn't seem quite right since I would have to do this for every single thing that requires "the merge". Something pretty important (and probably basic) is missing the the thought process but after spending a weekend on google and in books I give up and turn to the SO community.

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  • Array's index and argc signedness

    - by tusbar
    Hello, The C standard (5.1.2.2.1 Program startup) says: The function called at program startup is named main. [...] It shall be de?ned with a return type of int and with no parameters: int main(void) { /* ... */ } or with two parameters [...] : int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { /* ... */ } And later says: The value of argc shall be nonnegative. Why shouldn't argc be defined as an unsigned int, argc supposedly meaning 'argument count'? Should argc be used as an index for argv? So I started wondering if the C standard says something about the type of array's index. Is it signed? 6.5.2.1 Array subscripting: One of the expressions shall have type ‘‘pointer to object type’’, the other expression shall have integer type, and the result has type ‘‘type’’. It doesn't say anything about its signedness (or I didn't find it). It is pretty common to see codes using negatives array indexes (array[-1]) but isn't it undefined behavior? Should array's indexes be unsigned?

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  • Member function overloading/template specialization issue

    - by Ferruccio
    I've been trying to call the overloaded table::scan_index(std::string, ...) member function without success. For the sake of clarity, I have stripped out all non-relevant code. I have a class called table which has an overloaded/templated member function named scan_index() in order to handle strings as a special case. class table : boost::noncopyable { public: template <typename T> void scan_index(T val, std::function<bool (uint recno, T val)> callback) { // code } void scan_index(std::string val, std::function<bool (uint recno, std::string val)> callback) { // code } }; Then there is a hitlist class which has a number of templated member functions which call table::scan_index(T, ...) class hitlist { public: template <typename T> void eq(uint fieldno, T value) { table* index_table = db.get_index_table(fieldno); // code index_table->scan_index<T>(value, [&](uint recno, T n)->bool { // code }); } }; And, finally, the code which kicks it all off: hitlist hl; // code hl.eq<std::string>(*fieldno, p1.to_string()); The problem is that instead of calling table::scan_index(std::string, ...), it calls the templated version. I have tried using both overloading (as shown above) and a specialized function template (below), but nothing seems to work. After staring at this code for a few hours, I feel like I'm missing something obvious. Any ideas? template <> void scan_index<std::string>(std::string val, std::function<bool (uint recno, std::string val)> callback) { // code }

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  • What does P mean in Sort(Expression<Func<T, P>> expr, ListSortDirection direction)?

    - by Grasshopper
    I am attempting to use the answer in post: How do you sort an EntitySet<T> to expose an interface so that I can sort an EntitySet with a Binding list. I have created the class below and I get the following compiler error: "The type or namespace 'P' could not be found (are you missing a using directive or assembly reference?). Can someone tell me what the P means and which namespace I need to include to get the method below to compile? I am very new to delegates and lamba expressions. Also, can someone confirm that if I create a BindingList from my EntitySet that any modifications I make to the BindingList will be made to the EntitySet? Basically, I have an EntitySet that I need to sort and make changes to. Then, I will need to persist these changes using the original Entity that the BindingList came from. public class EntitySetBindingWrapper<T> : BindingList<T> { public EntitySetBindingWrapper(BindingList<T> root) : base(root) { } public void Sort(Expression<Func<T, P>> expr, ListSortDirection direction) { if (expr == null) base.RemoveSortCore(); MemberExpression propExpr = expr as MemberExpression; if (propExpr == null) throw new ArgumentException("You must provide a property", "expr"); PropertyDescriptorCollection descriptorCol = TypeDescriptor.GetProperties(typeof(T)); IEnumerable<PropertyDescriptor> descriptors = descriptorCol.Cast<PropertyDescriptor>(); PropertyDescriptor descriptor = descriptors.First(pd => pd.Name == propExpr.Member.Name); base.ApplySortCore(descriptor, direction); } }

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  • how to do validations when composing object of a class in other class ?

    - by haansi
    Hi, I have an IPAddress class which has one property named ip and in its setter I am validating data coming and if data is invalid it throws an error. (Its code is as the following): private string ip; public string IP { get { return ip; } set { string PartsOfIP = value.Split('.'); if (PartsOfIP.Length == 4) { foreach (string part in PartsOfIP) { int a = 0; bool result = int.TryParse(part, out a); if (result != true) { throw new Exception("Invalid IP"); } else { ip = value; } } } else { throw new Exception("Invalid IP"); } } In User Class I want to compose an object of IPAddress class. I am doing validations for properties of User in User class and validations of Ip in IPAddress class. My question is how I will compose IPAddress object in UserClass and what will be syntax for this ? If I again mention get and set here with IPAddress object in User class will my earlier mentioned (in IPAddress class) getter and setter work ? plz advice me in details thanks

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  • Can I split a single SQL 2008 DB Table into multiple filegroups, based on a discriminator column?

    - by Pure.Krome
    Hi folks, I've got a SQL Server 2008 R2 database which has a number of tables. Two of these tables contains a lot of large data .. mainly because one of them is VARBINARY(MAX) and the sister table is GEOGRAPHY. (Why two tables? Read Below if you're interested***) The data in these tables are geospatial shapes, such as zipcode boundaries. Now, the first 70K odd rows are for DataType = 1 the rest 5mil rows are for DataType = 2 Now, is it possible to split the table data into two files? so all rows that are for DataType != 2 goes into File_A and DataType = 2 goes into File_B? This way, when I backup the DB, I can skip adding File_B so my download is waaaaay smaller? Is this possible? I guessing you might be thinking - why not keep them as TWO extra tables? Mainly because in the code, the data is conceptually the same .. it's just happens that I want to split the storage of this model data. It really messes up my model if I now how two aggregates in my model, instead of one. ***Entity Framework doesn't like Tables with GEOGRAPHY, so i have to create a new table which transforms the GEOGRAPHY to VARBINARY, and then drop that into EF.

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  • HIbernate 3.5.1 - can I just drop in EHCache 2.0.1?

    - by caerphilly
    I'm using Hibernate 3.5.1, which comes with EHCache 1.5 bundled. If I want to use the latest EHCache release (2.0.1), is it just a matter of removing the ehcache-1.5.jar from my project, and replacing with ehcache-core-2.0.1.jar? Any issues to be aware of? Also - is a cache "region" in the Hibernate mapping file that same as a cache "name" in the ehcache configuration xml? What I want to do is define 2 named cache regions - one for read-only reference entities that won't change (lookup lists etc), and one for all other entities. So in ehcache I want to define two elements; <cache name="readonly"> ... </cache> <cache name="mutable"> ... </cache> And then in my Hibernate mapping files, I will specify the cache to be used for each entity: <hibernate-mapping> <class name="lookuplist"> <cache region="readonly" usage="read-only"/> <property> ... </property> </class> </hibernate-mapping> Will that work? Some of the documentation seems to imply that a separate region/cache gets created for each mapped class... Thanks.

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  • Javascript Namespace Help

    - by Jason
    Hi, I have a pretty big Javascript script with loads of global variables & functions in it. Then a piece of code that calls one function from this js file: myfunc(); Ok, now I have cloned this script and modified some functionality, all function prototypes and variables are named the same in both scripts. So now I have two scripts loaded and one call to myfunc(), now we have a clash because there are loads of global variables with the same names and two myfunc()s. What I want to do is wrap this cloned script in a namespace, so that I can modify the original call to: clone.myfunc() which will call the new function, but I also want myfunc() to just refer to the original script. In other words I can't touch the original script (no permissions) and I want to be able to use both the clone and the original at runtime. This is the script im cloning: http://pastebin.com/6KR5T3Ah Javascript namespaces seem quite tricky this seems a nice namespace method: var namespace = { foo: function() { } bar: function() { } } ... namespace.foo(); } However that requires using an object, and the script (as posted above) is humongous at nearly 4000 lines, too much to objectize I think? Anyone know a better solution to avoid namespace pollution, with one script I cant touch and one being a clone of that script. Just so I can call myfunc() and clone.myfunc() and all global variables will behave in their respected scope. It's either that, or I go through and modify everything to have unique names, which may take a lifetime This is a Mozilla addon if it helps context wise. Thanks.

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  • Exemplars of large document-centric applications with COM/XPCOM/.NET interfaces.

    - by Warren P
    I am looking for exemplars (design examples) showing the use of interfaces (aka 'protocols' for you smalltalkers) to design a document management architecture in a large Word Processor, Spreadsheet, vector graphic or publishing package, or office-productivity (non-database) application with support for as many of the following as possible: any open source project, will be ideal, and language of implementation is unimportant since I am looking for design examples, however an object oriented language with support for "interfaces" is a must. I know at least a dozen languages, and I'm willing to study any application's source. use of "interface" could loosely be applied to either XPCOM or COM interfaces, or .NET interfaces, or even the use of pure-virtual (virtual+abstract) base-classes for OOP languages that lack the ability to declare an interface distinct from a class. I am mostly looking for a robust, thorough and flexible implementation for a document, IDocument, various document views (IDocumentView), and whatever operations make sense in that case. I am particular interested in cases where the product in question is a real-world product. For example, if anybody familiar with OpenOffice can tell me if the code contains a good sample design. I am looking for design documentation that outlines the design of the interfaces for such an application. So for example, if the openoffice spreadsheet has such an interface design, then that might be the best case, because it is a widely used real-world design, with millions of users, rather than a textbook example, which is minimal, and contrived. I know that the Mozilla platform uses XPCOM, and its design is heavily "interface" oriented, but I am looking more for a "word processor" or "spreadsheet" type of document design, rather than a web-browser. I am particularly interested in the interfaces used to access to data and meta-data such as markup (attributes like bold, and italics, and font size), and the ability to search and look up named entities within a document.

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