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  • iOS6: do we have to set rootViewController in App delegate in order to support different orientations?

    - by Centurion
    The app was perfectly fine working in iOS5 in landscape orientation. However in iOS6, it started to use portrait orientation in all view controllers. The methods shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation are not called anymore. I read the new stuff about changed rotation mechanism in iOS6 and I was able to fix that by adding a line in my AppDelegate: self.window.rootViewController = _viewController _viewControler is the starting screen (Home-menu). All other view controllers implement shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation method and returns YES for landscape orientations only. So, it's perfectly working solution for the app that needs to support only one orientation. However, the problem is I need one view controller (lets call it phone-VC) to be presented in portrait orientation. Now, if I want this view controller would be rotated then I need to return YES in Home-menu controller that is assigned to rootViewControler in appDelegate. However, I can't do that because this rootViewController is starting window that need to presented in landscape only, otherwise the layout with graphics in this window will break. But if I don't return YES from its shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation (Home-menu) then the same method is not called in my view phone-VC that needs to be presented in portrait. Any ideas? Does the assignation of rootViewController is mandatory in AppDelegate? UPDATE: the problem exists on device (at least on iPhone4).

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  • Deserialization of a DataSet... deal with column name changes? how to migrate data from one column to another?

    - by Brian Kennedy
    So, we wanted to slightly generalize a couple columns in our typed dataset... basically dropped a foreign key constraint and then wanted to change a couple column names to better reflect their new state. All that is easy. The problem is that our users may have serialized out the old version of the DataSet as XML. We want to be able to read those old XML files and deserialize them into the revised DataSet. It seems that would be a fairly common desire... but I haven't yet figured out the right thing to search the internet for. One possible solution would seem to be some way to give a DataColumn an alias or alternate name such that when it reads the old column name, it knows that data can be read into the column with the new column name. I can find no support for any such thing. Another approach would seem to be an "after deserialization" method of some sort... so, I would let it read in the old column values into a normal DataColumn with that name, and then in the "after deserialization" method I would just move the data from the obsolete column into the new column, and then delete the old columns. That would seem to generalize to many other situations... and having such events or hooks is pretty common in ADO.NET. But I have looked for such a hook and haven't yet found it. If no "after deserialization" hook, it would seem I ought to be able to override ReadXml or ReadXmlSerializable methods to call the base and then do my "after" stuff to fix up old data into new. But it does not appear that is possible. Soooo, I have to think backward compatibility with old serialized DataSets and simple data migration would be a well-solved problem... so, trying to reinvent that wheel seems silly. But so far, I haven't seemed to find any documentation on doing those things. Suggestions? What is best practice for this?

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  • OOP/MVC advice on where to place a global helper function

    - by franko75
    Hi, I have a couple of controllers on my site which are handling form data. The forms use AJAX and I have quite a few methods across different controllers which are having to do some specific processing to return errors in a JSON encoded format - see code below. Obviously this isn't DRY and I need to move this code into a single helper function which I can use globally, but I'm wondering where this should actually go! Should I create a static helper class which contains this function (e.g Validation::build_ajax_errors()), or as this code is producing a format which is application specific and tied into the jQuery validation plugin I'm using, should it be a static method stored in, for example, my main Website controller which the form handling controllers extend from? //if ajax request, output errors if (request::is_ajax()) { //need to build errors into array form for javascript validation - move this into a helper method accessible globally $errors = $post->errors('form_data/form_error_messages'); $i = 0; $new_errors = array(); foreach ($errors as $key => $value) { $new_errors[$i][0] = '#' . $key; $new_errors[$i][1] = $value; $new_errors[$i][2] = "error"; $i++; } echo '{"jsonValidateReturn":' . json_encode($new_errors) . '}'; return; }

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  • zend-framework doctrine, and mvc pattern: what should connect data between models and forms?

    - by Skirmantas
    I am learning Zend Framework and Doctrine. I am wondering what is the best practice to connect forms to models and vice versa. I don't know where I should put my code. I have seen in Zendcast video tutorials where author creates methods like mapFormToRecord and mapRecordToForm in form class. Well I guess it is very handy when form is sophisticated and uses many records. Is it a good practice? I somehow believe that form-class should not need to know about data-records. And sometimes we might have model which is used in many forms. So It would be handy to have few functions in that model which would help to prepare data for forms. For example to give an array of id=name pairs so that it might be used in Zend_Form_Element_Select. However I would like to have a consistency. So I don't want to put this code nor in model nor in form because on different situations I act different. So only controller is what is left to deal it. However this will result in code duplication if one form will be used more than in one controller. Moreover controller gets bloated if form is not from the simple ones. Or maybe there is a consistent pattern in those data conversions between forms and models? I think that there is. At least in my simple cases. So maybe a separate class could be a solution? Where should I put such class and how should I name it? Another question: Zend_Form has validators and filter. Doctrine has validators and filters too. Which do we use and when? What is your way of dealing the connections between forms and models? (Sorry if it was hard for you to read my text. I don't have enough knowledge of English language to express myself freely)

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  • avoiding code duplication in Rails 3 models

    - by Dustin Frazier
    I'm working on a Rails 3.1 application where there are a number of different enum-like models that are stored in the database. There is a lot of identical code in these models, as well as in the associated controllers and views. I've solved the code duplication for the controllers and views via a shared parent controller class and the new view/layout inheritance that's part of Rails 3. Now I'm trying to solve the code duplication in the models, and I'm stuck. An example of one of my enum models is as follows: class Format < ActiveRecord::Base has_and_belongs_to_many :videos attr_accessible :name validates :name, presence: true, length: { maximum: 20 } before_destroy :verify_no_linked_videos def verify_no_linked_videos unless self.videos.empty? self.errors[:base] << "Couldn't delete format with associated videos." raise ActiveRecord::RecordInvalid.new self end end end I have four or five other classes with nearly identical code (the association declaration being the only difference). I've tried creating a module with the shared code that they all include (which seems like the Ruby Way), but much of the duplicate code relies on ActiveRecord, so the methods I'm trying to use in the module (validate, attr_accessible, etc.) aren't available. I know about ActiveModel, but that doesn't get me all the way there. I've also tried creating a common, non-persistent parent class that subclasses ActiveRecord::Base, but all of the code I've seen to accomplish this assumes that you won't have subclasses of your non-persistent class that do persist. Any suggestions for how best to avoid duplicating these identical lines of code across many different enum models?

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  • GridView ObjectDataSource LINQ Paging and Sorting using multiple table query.

    - by user367426
    I am trying to create a pageing and sorting object data source that before execution returns all results, then sorts on these results before filtering and then using the take and skip methods with the aim of retrieving just a subset of results from the database (saving on database traffic). this is based on the following article: http://www.singingeels.com/Blogs/Nullable/2008/03/26/Dynamic_LINQ_OrderBy_using_String_Names.aspx Now I have managed to get this working even creating lambda expressions to reflect the sort expression returned from the grid even finding out the data type to sort for DateTime and Decimal. public static string GetReturnType<TInput>(string value) { var param = Expression.Parameter(typeof(TInput), "o"); Expression a = Expression.Property(param, "DisplayPriceType"); Expression b = Expression.Property(a, "Name"); Expression converted = Expression.Convert(Expression.Property(param, value), typeof(object)); Expression<Func<TInput, object>> mySortExpression = Expression.Lambda<Func<TInput, object>>(converted, param); UnaryExpression member = (UnaryExpression)mySortExpression.Body; return member.Operand.Type.FullName; } Now the problem I have is that many of the Queries return joined tables and I would like to sort on fields from the other tables. So when executing a query you can create a function that will assign the properties from other tables to properties created in the partial class. public static Account InitAccount(Account account) { account.CurrencyName = account.Currency.Name; account.PriceTypeName = account.DisplayPriceType.Name; return account; } So my question is, is there a way to assign the value from the joined table to the property of the current table partial class? i have tried using. from a in dc.Accounts where a.CompanyID == companyID && a.Archived == null select new { PriceTypeName = a.DisplayPriceType.Name}) but this seems to mess up my SortExpression. Any help on this would be much appreciated, I do understand that this is complex stuff.

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  • How to compensate the flipped coordinate system of core graphics for easy drawing?

    - by mystify
    It's really a pain, but always when I draw an UIImage in -drawRect:, it's upside-down. When I flip the coordinates, the image draws correctly, but at the cost of all other CG functions drawing "wrong" (flipped). What's your strategy when you have to draw images and other things? Is there any rule of thumb how to not get stuck in this problem over and over again? Also, one nasty thing when I flip the y-axis is, that my CGRect from the UIImageView frame is wrong. Instead of the origin appearing at 10,10 upper left as expected, it appears at the bottom. But at the same time, all those normal line drawing functions of CGContext take correct coordinates. drawing a line in -drawRect with origin 10,10 upper left, will really start at upper left. But at the same time that's strange, because core graphics actually has a flipped coordinate system with y 0 at the bottom. So it seems like something is really inconsistent there. Drawing with CGContext functions takes coordinates as "expected" (cmon, nobody thinks in coordinates starting from bottom left, that's silly), while drawing any kind of image still works the "wrong" way. Do you use helper methods to draw images? Or is there anything useful that makes image drawing not a pain in the butt?

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  • How do you pass a generic delegate argument to a method in .NET 2.0

    - by Seth Spearman
    Hello, I have a class with a delegate declaration as follows... Public Class MyClass Public Delegate Function Getter(Of TResult)() As TResult 'the following code works. Public Shared Sub MyMethod(ByVal g As Getter(Of Boolean)) 'do stuff End Sub End Class However, I do not want to explicitly type the Getter delegate in the Method call. Why can I not declare the parameter as follows... ... (ByVal g As Getter(Of TResult)) Is there a way to do it? My end goal was to be able to set a delegate for property setters and getters in the called class. But my reading indicates you can't do that. So I put setter and getter methods in that class and then I want the calling class to set the delegate argument and then invoke. Is there a best practice for doing this. I realize in the above example that I can set set the delegate variable from the calling class...but I am trying to create a singleton with tight encapsulation. For the record, I can't use any of the new delegate types declared in .net35. Answers in C# are welcome. Any thoughts? Seth

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  • How to check at runtime if a class implements certain interface?

    - by mare
    Let's say I have some content classes like Page, TabGroup, Tab, etc. Certain of those will be implementing my IWidgetContainer interface - it means they will geet an additional field named ContainedItems from the interface and some methods for manipulating this field. Now I need to reflect the fact that some class implements this interface by rendering out some special custom controls in my ASP.NET MVC Views (like jQuery Add/Remove/Move/Reorder buttons). For instance, TabGroup will implement IWidgetContainer because it will contain tabs but a tab will not implement it because it won't have the ability to contain anything. So I have to somehow check in my view, when I render my content objects (The problem is, I use my base class as strong type in my view not concrete classes), whether it implements IWidgetContainer. How is that possible or have I completely missed something? To rephrase the question, how do you reflect some special properties of a class (like interface implementation) in the UI in general (not necessarily ASP.NET MVC)? Here's my code so far: [DataContract] public class ContentClass { [DataMember] public string Slug; [DataMember] public string Title; [DataMember] protected ContentType Type; } [DataContract] public class Group : ContentClass, IWidgetContainer { public Group() { Type = ContentType.TabGroup; } public ContentList ContainedItems { get; set; } public void AddContent(ContentListItem toAdd) { throw new NotImplementedException(); } public void RemoveContent(ContentListItem toRemove) { throw new NotImplementedException(); } } [DataContract] public class GroupElement : ContentClass { public GroupElement() { Type = ContentType.Tab; } } Interface: interface IWidgetContainer { [DataMember] ContentList ContainedItems { get; set; } void AddContent(ContentListItem toAdd); void RemoveContent(ContentListItem toRemove); }

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  • How might a C# programmer approach writing a solution in javascript?

    - by Ben McCormack
    UPDATE: Perhaps this wasn't clear from my original post, but I'm mainly interested in knowing a best practice for how to structure javascript code while building a solution, not simply learning how to use APIs (though that is certainly important). I need to add functionality to a web site and our team has decided to approach the solution using a web service that receives a call from a JSON-formatted AJAX request from within the web site. The web service has been created and works great. Now I have been tasked with writing the javascript/html side of the solution. If I were solving this problem in C#, I would create separate classes for formatting the request, handling the AJAX request/response, parsing the response, and finally inserting the response somehow into the DOM. I would build properties and methods appropriately into each class, doing my best to separate functionality and structure where appropriate. However, I have to solve this problem in javascript. Firstly, how could I approach my solution in javascript in the way I would approach it from C# as described above? Or more importantly, what's a better way to approach structuring code in javascript? Any advice or links to helpful material on the web would be greatly appreciated. NOTE: Though perhaps not immediately relevant to this question, it may be worth noting that we will be using jQuery in our solution.

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  • Segmentation Fault when trying to push a string to the back of a list.

    - by user308012
    I am trying to write a logger class for my C++ calculator, but I'm experiencing a problem while trying to push a string into a list. I have tried researching this issue and have found some information on this, but nothing that seems to help with my problem. I am using a rather basic C++ compiler, with little debugging utilities and I've not used C++ in quite some time (even then it was only a small amount). My code: #ifndef _LOGGER_H_ #define _LOGGER_H_ #include <iostream> #include <list> #include <string> using std::cout; using std::cin; using std::endl; using std::list; using std::string; class Logger { private: list<string> *mEntries; public: Logger() { // Initialize the entries list mEntries = new list<string>(); } ~Logger() { // Release the list mEntries->clear(); delete mEntries; } // Public Methods void WriteEntry(string entry) { // *** BELOW LINE IS MARKED WITH THE ERROR *** mEntries->push_back(string(entryData)); } void DisplayEntries() { cout << endl << "**********************" << endl << "* Logger Entries *" << endl << "**********************" << endl << endl; for(list<string>::iterator it = mEntries->begin(); it != mEntries->end(); it++) { cout << *it << endl; } } }; #endif I am calling the WriteEntry method by simply passing in a string, like so: mLogger->WriteEntry("Testing"); Any advice on this would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Advice on Linq to SQL mapping object design

    - by fearofawhackplanet
    I hope the title and following text are clear, I'm not very familiar with the correct terms so please correct me if I get anything wrong. I'm using Linq ORM for the first time and am wondering how to address the following. Say I have two DB tables: User ---- Id Name Phone ----- Id UserId Model The Linq code generator produces a bunch of entity classes. I then write my own classes and interfaces which wrap these Linq classes: class DatabaseUser : IUser { public DatabaseUser(User user) { _user = user; } public Guid Id { get { return _user.Id; } } ... etc } so far so good. Now it's easy enough to find a users phones from Phones.Where(p => p.User = user) but surely comsumers of the API shouldn't need to be writing their own Linq queries to get at data, so I should wrap this query in a function or property somewhere. So the question is, in this example, would you add a Phones property to IUser or not? In other words, should my interface specifically be modelling my database objects (in which case Phones doesn't belong in IUser), or are they actually simply providing a set of functions and properties which are conceptually associated with a User (in which case it does)? There seems drawbacks to both views, but I'm wondering if there is a standard approach to the problem. Or just any general words of wisdom you could share. My first thought was to use extension methods but in fact that doesn't work in this case.

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  • PHP static objects giving a fatal error

    - by Webbo
    I have the following PHP code; <?php component_customer_init(); component_customer_go(); function component_customer_init() { $customer = Customer::getInstance(); $customer->set(1); } function component_customer_go() { $customer = Customer::getInstance(); $customer->get(); } class Customer { public $id; static $class = false; static function getInstance() { if(self::$class == false) { self::$class = new Customer; } else { return self::$class; } } public function set($id) { $this->id = $id; } public function get() { print $this->id; } } ?> I get the following error; Fatal error: Call to a member function set() on a non-object in ....../classes/customer.php on line 9 Can anyone tell me why I get this error? I know this code might look strange, but it's based on a component system that I'm writing for a CMS. The aim is to be able to replace HTML tags in the template e.g.; <!-- component:customer-login --> with; <?php component_customer_login(); ?> I also need to call pre-render methods of the "Customer" class to validate forms before output is made etc. If anyone can think of a better way, please let me know but in the first instance, I'd like to know why I get the "Fatal error" mentioned above. Cheers

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  • How do I implement Hibernate Pagination using a cursor (so the results stay consistent, despite new

    - by hunterae
    Hey all, Is there any way to maintain a database cursor using Hibernate between web requests? Basically, I'm trying to implement pagination, but the data that is being paged is consistently changing (i.e. new records are added into the database). We are trying to set it up such that when you do your initial search (returning a maximum of 5000 results), and you page through the results, those same records always appear on the same page (i.e. we're not continuously running the query each time next and previous page buttons are clicked). The way we're currently implementing this is by merely selecting 5000 (at most) primary keys from the table we're paging, storing those keys in memory, and then just using 20 primary keys at a time to fetch their details from the database. However, we want to get away from having to store these keys in memory and would much prefer a database cursor that we just keep going back to and moving backwards and forwards over the cursor to generate pages. I tried doing this with Hibernate's ScrollableResults but found that I could not call methods like next() and previous() would cause an exception if you within a different web request / Hibernate session (no surprise there). Is there any way to reattach a ScrollableResults object to a Session, much the same way you would reattach a detached database object to make it persistent? Are there any other approaches to implement this data paging with consistent paging results without caching the primary keys?

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  • Array passing between classes, gone?

    - by Kenneth
    Hey guys . i have two classes, SelectionScreenTable & GraphView. In the SelectionScreenTable class .h, i declared a NSMutableArray called usagedatas NSMutableArray *usagedatas; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSMutableArray *usagedatas; In the SelectionScreenTable class.m i remembered to @synthesize. Later on, while processing my methods, i did a NSLog(@"usagedatas count:%i",usagedatas.count); to check whether it has value and it returned 1. so yeah its good up to this point. And in the -(void) dealloc , i remembered to released it . [usagedatas release]; So now comes ME trying to use it in another class. In GraphView.m i imported the "SelectionScreenTable.h". in the -(void)viewDidLoad i did SelectionScreenTable *UD = [SelectionScreenTable alloc]; NSLog(@"GraphView UD.usagedataas.count = :%i",UD.usagedatas.count); it returned 0. Any idea guys?

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  • What's the correct way to pass parameters from VBScript to COM interface implemented in C#?

    - by nopopem
    I'm trying to expose a fairly simple C# class to COM which should be usable from VBScript (among others). Some objects need to be created via COM calls and will be used in furter calls later on. The definition of the exposed classes and interfaces looks like this: namespace Test { [InterfaceType(ComInterfaceType.InterfaceIsIDispatch)] public interface IComInterface { IFoo CreateFoo(); void UseFoo(int x, IFoo f); } [ClassInterface(ClassInterfaceType.None)] public sealed class CComInterface : IComInterface { public CComInterface() {} public IFoo CreateFoo() { return new Foo(); } public void UseFoo(int x, IFoo f) { f.Bar(); } } [InterfaceType(ComInterfaceType.InterfaceIsIDispatch)] public interface IFoo { void Bar(); } [ClassInterface(ClassInterfaceType.None)] public class Foo : IFoo { internal Foo() {} public void Bar() {} } } The simplest thinkable COM client in VBScript does this: Dim ci Set ci = WScript.CreateObject("Test.CComInterface") Dim foo Set foo = ci.CreateFoo foo.Bar ci.UseFoo 0, foo While the call to Bar succeeds, calling UseFoo fails with "Error 5: invalid procedure call or invalid argument" The generated IDL seems ok to me: dispinterface IComInterface { properties: methods: [id(0x60020003)] IFoo* CreateFoo(); [id(0x60020004)] void UseFoo( [in] long x, [in] IFoo* f); }; The vbs call succeeds when I wrap the second parameter in parentheses like this: ci.UseFoo 0, (foo) As far as I understand (I'm no VBScript expert however) this forces the reference to foo to be passed by value, i.e. a copy of the reference is being made. How can I change the interface so that it can be called with the foo reference directly? Since this will be a public interface used by customers I don't like the idea of having to explain why all the objects created need to be passed back in an extra pair of parentheses...

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  • Conversion failed when converting datetime from character string

    - by salvationishere
    I am developing a C# VS 2008 / SQL Server 2005 Express website application. I have tried some of the fixes for this problem but my call stack differs from others. And these fixes did not fix my problem. What steps can I take to troubleshoot this? Here is my error: System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException was caught Message="Conversion failed when converting datetime from character string." Source=".Net SqlClient Data Provider" ErrorCode=-2146232060 LineNumber=10 Number=241 Procedure="AppendDataCT" Server="\\\\.\\pipe\\772EF469-84F1-43\\tsql\\query" State=1 StackTrace: at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection.OnError(SqlException exception, Boolean breakConnection) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnection.OnError(SqlException exception, Boolean breakConnection) at System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.ThrowExceptionAndWarning(TdsParserStateObject stateObj) at System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.Run(RunBehavior runBehavior, SqlCommand cmdHandler, SqlDataReader dataStream, BulkCopySimpleResultSet bulkCopyHandler, TdsParserStateObject stateObj) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.FinishExecuteReader(SqlDataReader ds, RunBehavior runBehavior, String resetOptionsString) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.RunExecuteReaderTds(CommandBehavior cmdBehavior, RunBehavior runBehavior, Boolean returnStream, Boolean async) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.RunExecuteReader(CommandBehavior cmdBehavior, RunBehavior runBehavior, Boolean returnStream, String method, DbAsyncResult result) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.InternalExecuteNonQuery(DbAsyncResult result, String methodName, Boolean sendToPipe) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.ExecuteNonQuery() at ADONET_namespace.ADONET_methods.AppendDataCT(DataTable dt, Dictionary`2 dic) in c:\Documents and Settings\Admin\My Documents\Visual Studio 2008\WebSites\Jerry\App_Code\ADONET methods.cs:line 102 And here is the related code. When I debugged this code, "dic" only looped through the 3 column names, but did not look into row values which are stored in "dt", the Data Table. public static string AppendDataCT(DataTable dt, Dictionary<string, string> dic) { if (dic.Count != 3) throw new ArgumentOutOfRangeException("dic can only have 3 parameters"); string connString = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["AW3_string"].ConnectionString; string errorMsg; try { using (SqlConnection conn2 = new SqlConnection(connString)) { using (SqlCommand cmd = conn2.CreateCommand()) { cmd.CommandText = "dbo.AppendDataCT"; cmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; cmd.Connection = conn2; foreach (string s in dic.Keys) { SqlParameter p = cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue(s, dic[s]); p.SqlDbType = SqlDbType.VarChar; } conn2.Open(); cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); conn2.Close(); errorMsg = "The Person.ContactType table was successfully updated!"; } } }

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  • How to check if an entityset is populated

    - by TheQ
    How can i check if an entityset of a linq-object is populated or not? Example code below. My model have two methods, one joins data, and the other does not: public static Member GetMemberWithSettings(Guid memberId) { using (DataContext db = new DataContext()) { DataLoadOptions dataLoadOptions = new DataLoadOptions(); dataLoadOptions.LoadWith<Member>(x => x.Settings); db.LoadOptions = dataLoadOptions; var query = from x in db.Members where x.MemberId == memberId select x; return query.FirstOrDefault(); } } public static Member GetMember(Guid memberId) { using (DataContext db = new DataContext()) { var query = from x in db.Members where x.MemberId == memberId select x; return query.FirstOrDefault(); } } Then my control have the following code: Member member1 = Member.GetMemberWithSettings(memberId); Member member2 = Member.GetMember(memberId); Debug.WriteLine(member1.Settings.Count); Debug.WriteLine(member2.Settings.Count); The last line will generate a "Cannot access a disposed object" exception. I know that i can get rid of that exception just by not disposing the datacontext, but then the last line will generate a new query to the database, and i don't want that. What i would like is something like: Debug.WriteLine((member1.Settings.IsPopulated()) ? member1.Settings.Count : -1); Debug.WriteLine((member2.Settings.IsPopulated()) ? member2.Settings.Count : -1); Is it possible?

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  • Internal Java code best practice for dealing with invalid REST API parameters

    - by user326389
    My colleague wrote the following stackoverflow question: other stack overflow question on this topic The question seems to have been misinterpreted and I want to find out the answer, so I'm starting this new question... hopefully a little more clear. Basically, we have a REST API. Users of our API call our methods with parameters. But sometimes users call them with the wrong parameters!! Maybe a mistake in their code, maybe they're just trying to play with us, maybe they're trying to see how we respond, who knows! We respond with HTTP status error codes and maybe a detailed description of the invalid parameter in the XML response. All is well. But internally we deal with these invalid parameters by throwing exceptions. For example, if someone looks up a Person object by giving us their profile id, but the profile id doesn't exist... we throw a PersonInvalidException when looking them up. Then we catch this exception in our API controller and send back an HTTP 400 status error code. Our question is... is this the best practice, throwing exceptions internally for this kind of user error? These exceptions never get propogated back to the user, this is a REST API. They only make our code cleaner. Otherwise we could have a validation method in each of our API controllers to make sure the parameters all make sense, but that seems inefficient. We have to look up things in our database potentially twice. Or we could return nulls and check for them, but that sucks... What are your thoughts?

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  • Convert enumeration to string

    - by emptyheaded
    I am trying to build a function that converts an item from an enum to its corresponding string. The enums I use are fairly long, so I didn't want to use a switch-case. I found a method using boost::unordered_map very convenient, but I don't know how to make a default return (when there is no item matching the enum). const boost::unordered_map<enum_type, const std::string> enumToString = boost::assign::map_list_of (data_1, "data_1") (data_2, "data_2"); I tried to create an additional function: std::string convert(enum_type entry) { if (enumToString.find(entry)) // not sure what test to place here, return enumToString.at(entry); //because the find method returns an iter else return "invalid_value"; } I even tried something exceedingly wrong: std::string convert(enum_type entry) { try{ return enumToString.at(entry); } catch(...){ return "invalid_value"; } } Result: evil "Debug" runtime error. Can somebody give me a suggestion on how to either 1) find an easier method to convert enum to a string with the same name as the enum item 2) find a way to use already built boost methods to get a default value from a hash map (best option) 3) find what to place in the test to use a function that returns either the pair of the key-value, or a different string if the key is not found in the map. Thank you very much.

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  • Ruby on Rails How do I access variables of a model inside itself like in this example?

    - by banditKing
    I have a Model like so: # == Schema Information # # Table name: s3_files # # id :integer not null, primary key # owner :string(255) # notes :text # created_at :datetime not null # updated_at :datetime not null # last_accessed_by_user :string(255) # last_accessed_time_stamp :datetime # upload_file_name :string(255) # upload_content_type :string(255) # upload_file_size :integer # upload_updated_at :datetime # class S3File < ActiveRecord::Base #PaperClip methods attr_accessible :upload attr_accessor :owner Paperclip.interpolates :prefix do |attachment, style| I WOULD LIKE TO ACCESS VARIABLE= owner HERE- HOW TO DO THAT? end has_attached_file( :upload, :path => ":prefix/:basename.:extension", :storage => :s3, :s3_credentials => {:access_key_id => "ZXXX", :secret_access_key => "XXX"}, :bucket => "XXX" ) #Used to connect to users through the join table has_many :user_resource_relationships has_many :users, :through => :user_resource_relationships end Im setting this variable in the controller like so: # POST /s3_files # POST /s3_files.json def create @s3_file = S3File.new(params[:s3_file]) @s3_file.owner = current_user.email respond_to do |format| if @s3_file.save format.html { redirect_to @s3_file, notice: 'S3 file was successfully created.' } format.json { render json: @s3_file, status: :created, location: @s3_file } else format.html { render action: "new" } format.json { render json: @s3_file.errors, status: :unprocessable_entity } end end end Thanks, any help would be appreciated.

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  • How to manage large amounts of delegates and usercallbacks in C# async http library

    - by Tyler
    I'm coding a .NET library in C# for communicating with XBMC via its JSON RPC interface using HTTP. I coded and released a preliminary version but everything is done synchronously. I then recoded the library to be asynchronous for my own purposes as I was/am building an XBMC remote for WP7. I now want to release the new async library but want to make sure it's nice and tidy before I do. Due to the async nature a user initiates a request, supplies a callback method that matches my delegate and then handles the response once it's been received. The problem I have is that within the library I track a RequestState object for the lifetime of the request, it contains the http request/response as well as the user callback etc. as member variables, this would be fine if only one type of object was coming back but depending on what the user calls they may be returned a list of songs or a list of movies etc. My implementation at the moment uses a single delegate ResponseDataRecieved which has a single parameter which is a simple Object - As this has only be used by me I know which methods return what and when I handle the response I cast said object to the type I know it really is - List, List etc. A third party shouldn't have to do this though - The delegate signature should contain the correct type of object. So then I need a delegate for every type of response data that can be returned to the third party - The specific problem is, how do I handle this gracefully internally - Do I have a bunch of different RequestState objects that each have a different member variable for the different delegates? That doesn't "feel" right. I just don't know how to do this gracefully and cleanly.

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  • Java: Tracking a user login session - Session EJBs vs HTTPSession

    - by bguiz
    If I want to keep track of a conversational state with each client using my web application, which is the better alternative - a Session Bean or a HTTP Session - to use? Using HTTP Session: //request is a variable of the class javax.servlet.http.HttpServletRequest //UserState is a POJO HttpSession session = request.getSession(true); UserState state = (UserState)(session.getAttribute("UserState")); if (state == null) { //create default value .. } String uid = state.getUID(); //now do things with the user id Using Session EJB: In the implementation of ServletContextListener registered as a Web Application Listener in WEB-INF/web.xml: //UserState NOT a POJO this this time, it is //the interface of the UserStateBean Stateful Session EJB @EJB private UserState userStateBean; public void contextInitialized(ServletContextEvent sce) { ServletContext servletContext = sce.getServletContext(); servletContext.setAttribute("UserState", userStateBean); ... In a JSP: public void jspInit() { UserState state = (UserState)(getServletContext().getAttribute("UserState")); ... } Elsewhere in the body of the same JSP: String uid = state.getUID(); //now do things with the user id It seems to me that the they are almost the same, with the main difference being that the UserState instance is being transported in the HttpRequest.HttpSession in the former, and in a ServletContext in the case of the latter. Which of the two methods is more robust, and why?

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  • Web scrapping from a Google Chrome extension

    - by limoragni
    I've started to develop a Chrome extension to navigate and prform actions on a website. Until now the extension is able to receive a couple of parameters and check a set of radio-buttons, fill in a few inputs of a form and then submit it. What I want to do now is to repeat the process, but I'm stuck when the page is reloaded. And I don't know how can I do to make the script reacts to the finish of the request. The workflow I want to achieve is the following (is for automaticly copying a certain object): Popup side Enter the number of the Master object to copy Enter the base name of the copies (example Mod, so the I can iterate and add mod1, mod2, modn) Enter the number of copies Background side Select master Select standard options Fill in inputs Submit form Wait for the page to complete the request and continue to the next copy. (here I need help) The problem is on the repetition, the rest is taking care of. I assume that must be a way of dealing with requests. Any ideas? By the way I'm doing it all with the extension and tabs methods of google chrome plus javascript and jquery.

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  • How to call a method after asynchronous task is complete

    - by doctordoder
    I have a class called WikiWebView which is a subclass of UIWebView which loads Wikipedia subjects and is designed to fetch all the links of the webpage, in order to create a sort of site map for the subject. My problem is that I can only create the links once the web page has loaded, but the loading isn't done right after [self loadRequest:requestObj] is called. - (void)loadSubject:(NSString *)subject { // load the actual webpage NSString *wiki = @"http://www.wikipedia.org/wiki/"; NSString *fullURL = [wiki stringByAppendingString:subject]; NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:fullURL]; NSURLRequest *requestObj = [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:url]; [self loadRequest:requestObj]; // [self createLinks]; // need this to be called after the view has loaded } - (void)createLinks { NSString *javascript = @"var string = \"\";" "var arr = document.getElementsByClassName(\"mw-redirect\");" "for (var i = 0; i < arr.length; ++i)" "{" "var redirectLink = arr[i].href;" "string = string + redirectLink + \" \";" "}" "string;"; NSString *links = [self stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString:javascript]; self.links = [links componentsSeparatedByString:@" "]; } I tried the normal delegation technique, which lead to this code being added: - (id)init { if (self = [super init]) { self.delegate = self; // weird } return self; } #pragma mark - UIWebViewDelegate - (void)webViewDidStartLoad:(UIWebView *)webView { ++_numProcesses; } - (void)webView:(UIWebView *)webView didFailLoadWithError:(NSError *)error { --_numProcesses; } - (void)webViewDidFinishLoad:(UIWebView *)webView { --_numProcesses; if (_numProcesses == 0) { [self createLinks]; } } However, the delegate methods are never called.. I've seen similar questions where the answers are to use blocks, but how would I do that in this case?

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