Search Results

Search found 43110 results on 1725 pages for 'noob question'.

Page 409/1725 | < Previous Page | 405 406 407 408 409 410 411 412 413 414 415 416  | Next Page >

  • Catching specific vs. generic exceptions in c#

    - by Scott Vercuski
    This question comes from a code analysis run against an object I've created. The analysis says that I should catch a more specific exception type than just the basic Exception. Do you find yourself using just catching the generic Exception or attempting to catch a specific Exception and defaulting to a generic Exception using multiple catch blocks? One of the code chunks in question is below: internal static bool ClearFlags(string connectionString, Guid ID) { bool returnValue = false; SqlConnection dbEngine = new SqlConnection(connectionString); SqlCommand dbCmd = new SqlCommand("ClearFlags", dbEngine); SqlDataAdapter dataAdapter = new SqlDataAdapter(dbCmd); dbCmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; try { dbCmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@ID", ID.ToString()); dbEngine.Open(); dbCmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); dbEngine.Close(); returnValue = true; } catch (Exception ex) { ErrorHandler(ex); } return returnValue; } Thank you for your advice EDIT: Here is the warning from the code analysis Warning 351 CA1031 : Microsoft.Design : Modify 'ClearFlags(string, Guid)' to catch a more specific exception than 'Exception' or rethrow the exception

    Read the article

  • Modifying SQL Database on Shared Hosting

    - by apocalypse9
    I have a live database on a shared hosting server. I am making some major changes to my site's code and I would like to fix some stupid mistakes I made in initially designing the database. These changes involve altering the size of a large number of fields, and enforcing referential integrity between tables properly. I would like to make the changes on both my local test server and the remote server if possible. I should note that while I'm fairly comfortable with writing complex queries to handle data, I have very little experience modifying database structure without a graphical interface. I can access the remote database in the visual studio database explorer but I can not use that for anything other than data manipulation. I installed Sql Management Studio express last night and after 40+ crashes I gave up - I couldn't even patch the damn thing. The remote server is SQL 2005 / The MyLittleAdmin web interface is available. So my question is what is the best way to accomplish these changes. Is there a graphical interface I can use on the remote server? If not is there an easy way to copy the database to my local machine, fix it, and re upload? Finally if none of the above are viable does anyone have links to a decent info on fixing referential integrity via query? Sorry for the somewhat general question - I feel like I am making this far harder than it should be but after searching / trying all night i haven't gotten anywhere. Thanks in advance for the help. I really appreciate it. ...Also does anyone have a time machine I can borrow- I need to go kick my past self's ass for this.

    Read the article

  • WCF data services (OData), query with inheritance limitation?

    - by Mathieu Hétu
    Project: WCF Data service using internally EF4 CTP5 Code-First approach. I configured entities with inheritance (TPH). See previous question on this topic: Previous question about multiple entities- same table The mapping works well, and unit test over EF4 confirms that queries runs smoothly. My entities looks like this: ContactBase (abstract) Customer (inherits from ContactBase), this entity has also several Navigation properties toward other entities Resource (inherits from ContactBase) I have configured a discriminator, so both Customer and Resource map to the same table. Again, everythings works fine on the Ef4 point of view (unit tests all greens!) However, when exposing this DBContext over WCF Data services, I get: - CustomerBases sets exposed (Customers and Resources sets seems hidden, is it by design?) - When I query over Odata on Customers, I get this error: Navigation Properties are not supported on derived entity types. Entity Set 'ContactBases' has a instance of type 'CodeFirstNamespace.Customer', which is an derived entity type and has navigation properties. Please remove all the navigation properties from type 'CodeFirstNamespace.Customer'. Stacktrace: at System.Data.Services.Serializers.SyndicationSerializer.WriteObjectProperties(IExpandedResult expanded, Object customObject, ResourceType resourceType, Uri absoluteUri, String relativeUri, SyndicationItem item, DictionaryContent content, EpmSourcePathSegment currentSourceRoot) at System.Data.Services.Serializers.SyndicationSerializer.WriteEntryElement(IExpandedResult expanded, Object element, ResourceType expectedType, Uri absoluteUri, String relativeUri, SyndicationItem target) at System.Data.Services.Serializers.SyndicationSerializer.<DeferredFeedItems>d__b.MoveNext() at System.ServiceModel.Syndication.Atom10FeedFormatter.WriteItems(XmlWriter writer, IEnumerable`1 items, Uri feedBaseUri) at System.ServiceModel.Syndication.Atom10FeedFormatter.WriteFeedTo(XmlWriter writer, SyndicationFeed feed, Boolean isSourceFeed) at System.ServiceModel.Syndication.Atom10FeedFormatter.WriteFeed(XmlWriter writer) at System.ServiceModel.Syndication.Atom10FeedFormatter.WriteTo(XmlWriter writer) at System.Data.Services.Serializers.SyndicationSerializer.WriteTopLevelElements(IExpandedResult expanded, IEnumerator elements, Boolean hasMoved) at System.Data.Services.Serializers.Serializer.WriteRequest(IEnumerator queryResults, Boolean hasMoved) at System.Data.Services.ResponseBodyWriter.Write(Stream stream) Seems like a limitation of WCF Data services... is it? Not much documentation can be found on the web about WCF Data services (OData) and inheritance specifications. How can I overpass this exception? I need these navigation properties on derived entities, and inheritance seems the only way to provide mapping of 2 entites on the same table with Ef4 CTP5... Any thoughts?

    Read the article

  • Retaining Managed objects - more general retaining objects

    - by Luuk D. Jansen
    A quick question regarding Managed Objects. I created an Array with Managed Objects (in Object 1: TableViewConbtroller), and pass one of those objects to another class/object (object 2: TableCell). The original array should still be retained in the original caller class. Then Object 2 is released, does that mean that that particular item in the array is released as well, as the reference to it in Object 2 was released? I am trying to better understand how to work with ManagedObjects as I get 'Object was released' errors. [EDIT] After some experimenting I came across the following scenario: I have the main AppDelegate. In a different class I create an AppDelegate to obtain the ManagedObjectContext. appDelegate = (iDomsAppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; [self setContext:[appDelegate managedObjectContext]]; When the class is finished, and I release it, the variable in the class 'appDelegate' is also released. But then the ManagedObjectContext is closed, and obvious any future attempt to use it will cause a crash. So should I leave the appDelegate unreleased? This comes to the same question as the above about when and how to release in those situations where an objects is used from another class. I think a way of putting it is, how to know when you own an object and when not.

    Read the article

  • Entity Framework - Many to Many Subquery

    - by Jorin
    I asked a question about this previously but my database structure has changed, and while it made other things simpler, now this part is more complicated. Here is the previous question. At the time, my EF Context had a UsersProjects object because there were other properties. Now that I've simplified that table, it is just the keys, so all my EF context knows about is Users and Projects and the M2M relationship between them. There is no more UsersProjects as far as EF knows. So my goal is to say "show me all the users who are working on projects with me." in SQL, this would go something like: SELECT * FROM Users INNER JOIN UsersProjects ON Users.ID=UsersProjects.UserID WHERE ProjectID IN (SELECT ProjectID FROM UsersProjects WHERE UserID=@UserID) and I started in EF with something like this: var myProjects = (from p in edmx.Projects where p.Users.Contains(edmx.Users.FirstOrDefault(u => u.Email == UserEmail)) orderby p.Name select p).ToList(); var associatedUsers = (from u in edmx.Users where myProjects.Contains(?????????) //where myProjects.Any(????????) select u); The trick is finding what to put in the ????????. Anyone help here?

    Read the article

  • How can variadic char template arguments from user defined literals be converted back into numeric types?

    - by Pubby
    This question is being asked because of this one. C++11 allows you to define literals like this for numeric literals: template<char...> OutputType operator "" _suffix(); Which means that 503_suffix would become <'5','0','3'> This is nice, although it isn't very useful in the form it's in. How can I transform this back into a numeric type? This would turn <'5','0','3'> into a constexpr 503. Additionally, it must also work on floating point literals. <'5','.','3> would turn into int 5 or float 5.3 A partial solution was found in the previous question, but it doesn't work on non-integers: template <typename t> constexpr t pow(t base, int exp) { return (exp > 0) ? base * pow(base, exp-1) : 1; }; template <char...> struct literal; template <> struct literal<> { static const unsigned int to_int = 0; }; template <char c, char ...cv> struct literal<c, cv...> { static const unsigned int to_int = (c - '0') * pow(10, sizeof...(cv)) + literal<cv...>::to_int; }; // use: literal<...>::to_int // literal<'1','.','5'>::to_int doesn't work // literal<'1','.','5'>::to_float not implemented

    Read the article

  • php form submit and the resend infromation screen

    - by Para
    Hello, I want to ask a best practice question. Suppose I have a form in php with 3 fields say name, email and comment. I submit the form via POST. In PHP I try and insert the date into the database. Suppose the insertion fails. I should now show the user an error and display the form filled in with the data he previously inserted so he can correct his error. Showing the form in it's initial state won't do. So I display the form and the 3 fields are now filled in from PHP with echo or such. Now if I click refresh I get a message saying "Are you sure you want to resend information?". OK. Suppose after I insert the data I don't carry on but I redirect to the same page but with the necessary parameters in the query string. This makes the message go away but I have to carry 3 parameters in the query string. So my question is: How is it better to do this? I want to not carry around lots of parameters in the query string but also not get that error. How can this be done? Should I use cookies to store the form information.

    Read the article

  • In which year was the date the same as the original year?

    - by Marta
    It's my first question on this site, but I always found this site really useful. What I mean with my question is: you ask the person to give a date (eg. Fill in a date [dd-mm-yyyy]: 16-10-2013) you than have to ask an interval between 2 years (eg. Give an interval [yyyy-yyyy]:1800-2000) When the program runs, it has to show what day of the week the given date is. In this case it was a Wednesday. Than the program has to look in which year, in between the interval, the date 16 October also fell on a Wednesday. So in the end it has to look something like this: Fill in a date: [dd-mm-yyyy]: 16-10-2013 Give an interval [yyyy-yyyy]: 1900-2000 16 October was a wednesday in the following years: 1905 1911 1916 1922 1933 1939 1944 1950 1961 1967 1972 1978 1989 1995 2000 The full date is Wednesday 16 October, 2013 The small (or biggest) problem is, I am not allowed to use the DATE.function in java. If someone can help me with the second part I would be really really happy, cause I have no idea how I am supposed to do this To find out what day of the week the given date falls, I use the Zeller Congruence class Day { Date date; //To grab the month and year form the Date class int day; final static String[] DAYS_OF_WEEK = { "Saturday", "Sunday", "Monday", "Tuesday", "Wednesday", "Thursday", "Friday" }; public void dayWeekInterval{ //code to grab the interval from interval Class, and doing stuff here } public void dayOfTheWeek { int m = date.getMonth(); int y = date.getYear(); if (m < 3) { m += 12; y -= 1; } int k = y % 100; int j = y / 100; int day = ((q + (((m + 1) * 26) / 10) + k + (k / 4) + (j / 4)) + (5 * j)) % 7; return day; } public string ToString(){ return "" + DAYS_OF_WEEK[day] + day; } }

    Read the article

  • Java Enumeration of Musical Notes

    - by Crupler
    How would you create an enumeration of the musical notes in Java, with each notes having an octave and then a keyed variable? This is what I have so far... public enum Notes { c, cS, d, dS, e, f, fS, g, gS, a, aS, b; int octave; boolean isPlaying; } So when I access the enums in my code I write something like this... Notes.c.octave = 4; Notes.c.isPlaying = true; Now here is my question: How can I have an isPlaying boolean for each note in each octave? Like so: Notes.c.octave.isPlaying = true; Or would I have to go like: public enum Notes { c1, cS1, d1, dS1, e1, f1, fS1, g1, gS1, a1, aS1, b1 c2, cS2, d2, dS2, e2, f2, fS2, g2, gS2, a2, aS2, b2; etc... boolean isPlaying; } Thank you in advance for taking your time to answer this question!

    Read the article

  • Looking for a 'pick a-or-b' voting system script

    - by user324455
    Apologies: this is my first time on stackoverflow and I'm starting with a question and seeking advice. Sorry. Caveats: I know HTML and CSS pretty well. Javascript and PHP are not completely alien, but I'm really pretty basic on those. That said, I'm pretty sharp and willing to search for explanations independently. Ok, so my question is this: I want to create a site with a voting system very much like the one on kittenwar.com - the page loads 2 random images from a db of some sort and you click on the one you want to 'win'. Ranked pairs kind of deal. Then there is a leaderboard of those images which have the highest win-loss ratio. There also needs to be an uploader for peeps to upload their own images and have them go into an approval workflow, and from there into the db that feeds the voting thing. I tried a pre-made solution ('photo battle') but found it was completely standalone, so trying to integrate it or change any of the options was a nightmare, plus it was buggy. i'm sure there has to be a relatively easy way to do this, right? Ideally I'd like to build my site in Joomla and integrate this functionality somehow. I'd be very grateful for any advice on this. Thanks Tom

    Read the article

  • ControlCollection extension method optimization

    - by Johan Leino
    Hi, got question regarding an extension method that I have written that looks like this: public static IEnumerable<T> FindControlsOfType<T>(this ControlCollection instance) where T : class { T control; foreach (Control ctrl in instance) { if ((control = ctrl as T) != null) { yield return control; } foreach (T child in FindControlsOfType<T>(ctrl.Controls)) { yield return child; } } } public static IEnumerable<T> FindControlsOfType<T>(this ControlCollection instance, Func<T, bool> match) where T : class { return FindControlsOfType<T>(instance).Where(match); } The idea here is to find all controls that match a specifc criteria (hence the Func<..) in the controls collection. My question is: Does the second method (that has the Func) first call the first method to find all the controls of type T and then performs the where condition or does the "runtime" optimize the call to perform the where condition on the "whole" enumeration (if you get what I mean). secondly, are there any other optimizations that I can do to the code to perform better. An example can look like this: var checkbox = this.Controls.FindControlsOfType<MyCustomCheckBox>( ctrl => ctrl.CustomProperty == "Test" ) .FirstOrDefault();

    Read the article

  • Problem registering a COM server written for Excel registered on client machine (can't set full path

    - by toytrains
    In this previous question <How to get COM Server for Excel written in VB.NET installed and registered in Automation Servers list? there is an example of how to create the full path to a registry key using VS 2008. Everything in the previous answer works correctly except the full path that I am setting (using the registry editor in VS) for mscoree.dll is not working (meaning it seems to do nothing). The full registry path is: HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT\CLSID{my_GUID}\InprocServer32(default) and the value I am setting is: [SystemFolder]mscoree.dll I can put anything (including hardcoding the full path) but the setting does not seem to matter and the registry always contains mscoree.dll without any path. I have tried adding another value to the registry path via VS and that works correctly including having the full path as specified by [SystemFolder]. The reason I need the full path (as explained in the previous question) is that without the path, Excel generates an error when the automation server is selected as it cannot find mscoree.dll (interestingly even though I receive an error the registration works OK). I am doing the install via a setup project which otherwise works fine. I am installing on a VISTA*64 system but have gotten the same error on other OS's. Does anyone know what I am doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • Trailing comments after variable assignment subvert comparison

    - by nobar
    In GNU make, trailing comments appended to variable assignments prevent subsequent comparison (via ifeq) from working correctly. Here's the Makefile... A = a B = b ## trailing comment C = c RESULT := ifeq "$(A)" "a" RESULT += a endif ifeq "$(B)" "b" RESULT += b endif ifeq "$(C)" "c" RESULT += c endif rule: @echo RESULT=\"$(RESULT)\" @echo A=\"$(A)\" @echo B=\"$(B)\" @echo C=\"$(C)\" Here's the output... $ make RESULT=" a c" A="a" B="b " C="c" As you can see from the displayed value of RESULT, the ifeq was affected by the presence of the comment in the assignment of B. Echoing the variable B, shows that the problem is not the comment, but the intervening space. The obvious solution is to explicitly strip the whitespace prior to comparison like so... ifeq "$(strip $(B))" "b" RESULT += b endif However this seems error prone. Since the strip operation is not needed unless/until a comment is used, you can leave out the strip and everything will initially work just fine -- so chances are you won't always remember to add the strip. Later, if someone adds a comment when setting the variable, the Makefile no longer works as expected. Note: There is a closely related issue, as demonstrated in this question, that trailing whitespace can break string compares even if there is no comment. Question: Is there a more fool-proof way to deal with this issue?

    Read the article

  • What is the correct stage to use for Google Guice in production in an application server?

    - by Yishai
    It seems like a strange question (the obvious answer would Production, duh), but if you read the java docs: /** * We want fast startup times at the expense of runtime performance and some up front error * checking. */ DEVELOPMENT, /** * We want to catch errors as early as possible and take performance hits up front. */ PRODUCTION Assuming a scenario where you have a stateless call to an application server, the initial receiving method (or there abouts) creates the injector new every call. If there all of the module bindings are not needed in a given call, then it would seem to have been better to use the Development stage (which is the default) and not take the performance hit upfront, because you may never take it at all, and here the distinction between "upfront" and "runtime performance" is kind of moot, as it is one call. Of course the downside of this would appear to be that you would lose the error checking, causing potential code paths to cause a problem by surprise. So the question boils down to are the assumptions in the above correct? Will you save performance on a large set of modules when the given lifetime of an injector is one call?

    Read the article

  • Routing redirection decision

    - by programming late night
    I have really no idea why I'm asking this as this a really completely irrelevant question for which I should have figured out an answer within milliseconds, yet I'm doing it. So in my project I have a Router class which splits up the request and selects the right page to be loaded. Fine so far. Now I have a page displayed when the user requests a page that doesn't exist, you know, 404. So theoretically, if the user entered mydomain.com/404 (I use mod_rewrite with a requests collector via index.php?req=*) the 404 error would be shown to him, but in fact there was no error - the 404 page would be displayed as a perfectly normal page. So if someone would try out requesting the 404 page via /404, he would be shown the page but he can't tell if the 404 page he requested doesn't exist and he is actually getting a, you guessed it, 404 error or if he actually found some flaw in the system that makes him able to see an error page when there is no error. I don't know how dumb this whole thing here is but I'm sure some of you have in fact ran into this problem already. Short version: If the user enters mydomain.com/404 the 404 page is shown even though there is no 404 error. I know this is a completely irrelevant question, please don't tell me, but I just spontaneously wanted to hear your thoughts on it. Strange eh? Should I redirect direct access to my 404-page to the home page? Should I do nothing? Should I just go to bed and stop asking irrelevant stuff?

    Read the article

  • Unable to save data in database manually and get latest auto increment id, cakePHP

    - by shabby
    I have checked this question as well and this one as well. I am trying to implement the model described in this question. What I want to do is, on the add function of message controller, create a record in thread table(this table only has 1 field which is primary key and auto increment), then take its id and insert it in the message table along with the user id which i already have, and then save it in message_read_state and thread_participant table. This is what I am trying to do in Thread Model: function saveThreadAndGetId(){ //$data= array('Thread' => array()); $data= array('id' => ' '); //Debugger::dump(print_r($data)); $this->save($data); debug('id: '.$this->id); $threadId = $this->getInsertID(); debug($threadId); $threadId = $this->getLastInsertId(); debug($threadId); die(); return $threadId; } $data= array('id' => ' '); This line from the above function adds a row in the thread table, but i am unable to retrieve the id. Is there any way I can get the id, or am I saving it wrongly? Initially I was doing the query thing in the message controller: $this->Thread->query('INSERT INTO threads VALUES();'); but then i found out that lastId function doesnt work on manual queries so i reverted.

    Read the article

  • How to encapsulate a WinAPI application into a C++ class

    - by Semen Semenych
    There is a simple WinAPI application. All it does currently is this: register a window class register a tray icon with a menu create a value in the registry in order to autostart and finally, it checks if it's unique using a mutex As I'm used to writing code mainly in C++, and no MFC is allowed, I'm forced to encapsulate this into C++ classes somehow. So far I've come up with such a design: there is a class that represents the application it keeps all the wndclass, hinstance, etc variables, where the hinstance is passed as a constructor parameter as well as the icmdshow and others (see WinMain prototype) it has functions for registering the window class, tray icon, reigstry information it encapsulates the message loop in a function In WinMain, the following is done: Application app(hInstance, szCmdLIne, iCmdShow); return app.exec(); and the constructor does the following: registerClass(); registerTray(); registerAutostart(); So far so good. Now the question is : how do I create the window procedure (must be static, as it's a c-style pointer to a function) AND keep track of what the application object is, that is, keep a pointer to an Application around. The main question is : is this how it's usually done? Am I complicating things too much? Is it fine to pass hInstance as a parameter to the Application constructor? And where's the WndProc? Maybe WndProc should be outside of class and the Application pointer be global? Then WndProc invokes Application methods in response to various events.

    Read the article

  • Inheritance and type parameters of Traversable

    - by Jesper
    I'm studying the source code of the Scala 2.8 collection classes. I have questions about the hierarchy of scala.collection.Traversable. Look at the following declarations: package scala.collection trait Traversable[+A] extends TraversableLike[A, Traversable[A]] with GenericTraversableTemplate[A, Traversable] trait TraversableLike[+A, +Repr] extends HasNewBuilder[A, Repr] with TraversableOnce[A] package scala.collection.generic trait HasNewBuilder[+A, +Repr] trait GenericTraversableTemplate[+A, +CC[X] <: Traversable[X]] extends HasNewBuilder[A, CC[A] @uncheckedVariance] Question: Why does Traversable extend GenericTraversableTemplate with type parameters [A, Traversable] - why not [A, Traversable[A]]? I tried some experimenting with a small program with the same structure and got a strange error message when I tried to change it to Traversable[A]: error: Traversable[A] takes no type parameters, expected: one I guess that the use of the @uncheckedVariance annotation in GenericTraversableTemplate also has to do with this? (That seems like a kind of potentially unsafe hack to force things to work...). Question: When you look at the hierarchy, you see that Traversable inherits HasNewBuilder twice (once via TraversableLike and once via GenericTraversableTemplate), but with slightly different type parameters. How does this work exactly? Why don't the different type parameters cause an error?

    Read the article

  • Make TBODY scrollable in Webkit browsers

    - by Andrew
    I'm aware of this question, but none of the answers work in Safari, Chrome, etc. The accepted strategy (as demonstrated here) is to set the tbody height and overflow properties like so: <table> <thead> <tr><th>This is the header and doesn't scroll</th></tr> </thead> <tbody style="height:100px; overflow:auto;"> <tr><td>content that scrolls</td></tr> <tr><td>content that scrolls</td></tr> <tr><td>content that scrolls</td></tr> <tr><td>content that scrolls</td></tr> <tr><td>content that scrolls</td></tr> <tr><td>content that scrolls</td></tr> <tr><td>content that scrolls</td></tr> </tbody> </table> Unfortunately, this does not work in any webkit browsers. There is a bug report about it that doesn't seem to be a high priority (reported June 05). So my question is: are there alternate strategies that do actually work? I've tried the two-table approach, but it's impossible to guarantee that the header will line up with the content. Do I just have to wait for Webkit to fix it?

    Read the article

  • What exactly does this PHP code do?

    - by Rob
    Alright, my friend gave me this code for requesting headers and comparing them to what the header should be. It works perfectly, but I'm not sure why. Here is the code: $headers = apache_request_headers(); $customheader = "Header: 7ddb6ffab28bb675215a7d6e31cfc759"; foreach ($headers as $header => $value) { // 1 $custom .= "$header: $value"; // 2 } $mystring = $custom; // 3 $findme = $customheader; // 4 $pos = strpos($mystring, $findme); if ($pos !== false) { // Do something } else{ exit(); } //If it doesn't match, exit. I commented with some numbers relating to the following questions: 1: What exactly is happening here? Is it setting the $headers as $header AND $value? 2: Again, don't have any idea what is going on here. 3: Why set the variable to a different variable? This is the only area where the variable is getting used, so is there a reason to set it to something else? 4: Same question as 3. I'm sorry if this is a terrible question, but its been bothering me, and I really want to know WHY it works. Well, I understand why it works, I guess I just want to know more specifically. Thanks for any insight you can provide.

    Read the article

  • I want just the insert query for a temp table.

    - by John Stephen
    Hi..I am using C#.Net and Sql Server ( Windows Application ). I had created a temporary table. When a button is clicked, temporary table (#tmp_emp_details) is created. I am having another button called "insert Values" and also 5 textboxes. The values that are entered in the textbox are used and whenever com.ExecuteNonQuery(); line comes, it throws an error message Invalid object name '#tbl_emp_answer'.. Below is the set of code.. Please give me a solution. Code for insert (in insert value button): private void btninsertvalues_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { username = txtusername.Text; examloginid = txtexamloginid.Text; question = txtquestion.Text; answer = txtanswer.Text; useranswer = txtanswer.Text; SqlConnection con = new SqlConnection("Data Source=.;Initial Catalog=tempdb;Integrated Security=True;"); SqlCommand com = new SqlCommand("Insert into #tbl_emp_answer values('"+username+"','"+examloginid+"','"+question+"','"+answer+"','"+useranswer+"')", con); con.Open(); com.ExecuteNonQuery(); con.Close(); }

    Read the article

  • Why won't WPF databindings show text when ToString() has a collaborating object?

    - by Jay
    In a simple form, I bind to a number of different objects -- some go in listboxes; some in textblocks. A couple of these objects have collaborating objects upon which the ToString() method calls when doing its work -- typically a formatter of some kind. When I step through the code I see that when the databinding is being set up, ToString() is called the collaborating object is not null and returns the expected result when inspected in the debugger, the objects return the expected result from ToString() BUT the text does not show up in the form. The only common thread I see is that these use a collaborating object, whereas the other bindings that show up as expected simply work from properties and methods of the containing object. If this is confusing, here is the gist in code: public class ThisThingWorks { private SomeObject some_object; public ThisThingWorks(SomeObject s) { some_object = s; } public override string ToString() { return some_object.name; } } public class ThisDoesntWork { private Formatter formatter; private SomeObject some_object; public ThisDoesntWork(SomeObject o, Formatter f) { formatter = f; some_object = o; } public override string ToString() { return formatter.Format(some_object.name); } } Again, let me reiterate -- the ToString() method works in every other context -- but when I bind to the object in WPF and expect it to display the result of ToString(), I get nothing. Update: The issue seems to be what I see as a buggy behaviour in the TextBlock binding. If I bind the Text property to a property of the DataContext that is declared as an interface type, ToString() is never called. If I change the property declaration to an implementation of the interface, it works as expected. Other controls, like Label work fine when binding the Content property to a DataContext property declared as either the implementation or the interface. Because this is so far removed from the title and content of this question, I've created a new question here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2917878/why-doesnt-textblock-databinding-call-tostring-on-a-property-whose-compile-tim

    Read the article

  • php convert european datetime to mysql datetime

    - by Mathlight
    I'm really stuck with this problem. I've got an datetime string like this: 28-06-14 11:01:00 I'm trying to convert it to 2014-06-28 11:01:00 so that i can insert it into the database ( with field type datetime. I've tryed multiple things like this: $datumHolder = new DateTime($data['datum'], new DateTimeZone('Europe/Amsterdam')); $datum1 = $datumHolder -> format("Y-m-d H:i:s"); $datum2 = date( 'Y-m-d', strtotime(str_replace('-', '/', $data['datum']) ) ); $datum3 = DateTime::createFromFormat( 'Y-m-d-:Hi:s', $data['datum']); This is the output i get: datum1: 2028-06-14 11:01:00 datum2: 1970-01-01 And i get an error for datum3: echo "datum3: " . $datum3->format( 'Y-m-d H:i:s'); . '<br />'; Call to a member function format() on a non-object So my question is very clear... What am I doing wrong / how to get this working? Thanks in advantage guys! I know that this question is asked many, many times... But whatever i try, i can't get it working...

    Read the article

  • WHY JSLint complains: "someFunction() was used before it was defined"?

    - by 7hi4g0
    Searching for the JSLint error "was used before it was defined" i've found these: JSLint: Using a function before it's defined error Function was used before it was defined - JSLint JSLint: was used before it was defined jsLint error: “somefunction() was used before it was defined” jslint - Should we tolerate misordered definitions? Problem None of those answers WHY the error is shown. Elaboration According to the ECMA-262 Specification functions are evaluated before execution starts, hence all functions declared using the function keyword are available to all the code idenpendent of the place they were declared (assuming they are acessible on that scope). This is otherwise known as hoisting. Douglas Crockford seems to think it is better to declare every function before the code that uses it regardless of the hoisting effect. According to StackOverflowNewbie in his question, this raises some code organization problems. Not to mention some people, like me, prefer to declare their functions underneath the main/init code. On those questions there are some ways to avoid or fix the error, such as using function expressions vs function declarations. But none of them showed me the reason of the error. Not even Crockford's site. Question(s) Why is it an error to call a function before the declaration, even if it was declared using the function keyword? Is it better to use function expressions instead of function declaration in the JSLint context? If one is preferred, why? Note Not looking for answers like: Crockford is a tyrant Is just Crockford's opinion Thank you :*

    Read the article

  • Synchronous Android activities

    - by rayman
    Ive made mis-leading topic in my last question, so i open this new question to clear what I realy want. sorry for the inconvenience. I wanna run two system(Android) activities one after another in specific order from my main activity. now as we know, startActivity is an asynchronous operation, so i cant keep on a specific order. so i thought maybe I should try to do it with dialogBox in the middle but also running a dialogBox is an asynchronous. now as i said the activities which i try to run are Android activities, so i cant even start them with startActivityForResult (or mybe i can, but i dont get any result back to my main(calling) activity) Any tricks how could i manage with this issue? Some code: first activity: Intent intent = new Intent(); intent.setFlags(Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK); intent.setAction(Settings.ACTION_APPLICATION_SETTINGS); startActivity(intent); second activity: Intent intent = new Intent(Intent.ACTION_VIEW); intent.setFlags(Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK); intent.setDataAndType(Uri.fromFile(tmpPackageFile .getAbsoluteFile()), "application/vnd.android.package-archive"); startActivity(intent); as you can see, i dont have any access to those activites, i can just run thire intents from my main activity.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 405 406 407 408 409 410 411 412 413 414 415 416  | Next Page >