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  • How to encapsulate a WinAPI application into a C++ class

    - by Semen Semenych
    There is a simple WinAPI application. All it does currently is this: register a window class register a tray icon with a menu create a value in the registry in order to autostart and finally, it checks if it's unique using a mutex As I'm used to writing code mainly in C++, and no MFC is allowed, I'm forced to encapsulate this into C++ classes somehow. So far I've come up with such a design: there is a class that represents the application it keeps all the wndclass, hinstance, etc variables, where the hinstance is passed as a constructor parameter as well as the icmdshow and others (see WinMain prototype) it has functions for registering the window class, tray icon, reigstry information it encapsulates the message loop in a function In WinMain, the following is done: Application app(hInstance, szCmdLIne, iCmdShow); return app.exec(); and the constructor does the following: registerClass(); registerTray(); registerAutostart(); So far so good. Now the question is : how do I create the window procedure (must be static, as it's a c-style pointer to a function) AND keep track of what the application object is, that is, keep a pointer to an Application around. The main question is : is this how it's usually done? Am I complicating things too much? Is it fine to pass hInstance as a parameter to the Application constructor? And where's the WndProc? Maybe WndProc should be outside of class and the Application pointer be global? Then WndProc invokes Application methods in response to various events.

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  • Partial class or "chained inheritance"

    - by Charlie boy
    Hi From my understanding partial classes are a bit frowned upon by professional developers, but I've come over a bit of an issue; I have made an implementation of the RichTextBox control that uses user32.dll calls for faster editing of large texts. That results in quite a bit of code. Then I added spellchecking capabilities to the control, this was made in another class inheriting RichTextBox control as well. That also makes up a bit of code. These two functionalities are quite separate but I would like them to be merged so that I can drop one control on my form that has both fast editing capabilities and spellchecking built in. I feel that simply adding the code form one class to the other would result in a too large code file, especially since there are two very distinct areas of functionality, so I seem to need another approach. Now to my question; To merge these two classes should I make the spellchecking RichTextBox inherit from the fast edit one, that in turn inherits RichTextBox? Or should I make the two classes partials of a single class and thus making them more “equal” so to speak? This is more of a question of OO principles and exercise on my part than me trying to reinvent the wheel, I know there are plenty of good text editing controls out there. But this is just a hobby for me and I just want to know how this kind of solution would be managed by a professional. Thanks!

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  • problem configure JBoss to work with JNDI(2)

    - by Spiderman
    in continuation to the question from last week: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2828237/problem-configure-jboss-to-work-with-jndi I'm trying to bind datasource in JBoss and use it in my application. In my struggling, I already managed to avoid the javax.naming.NameNotFoundException by: 1. using in java new InitialContext().lookup(connection); instead of new JndiObjectFactoryBean().setJndiName(connection); 2. changing the connection name from: 'jndi-name' to 'java:jndi-name' Now the problem is that the datasouce that I get from the lookup is null. I created the datsource file: <datasources> <local-tx-datasource> <jndi-name>bilby</jndi-name> <connection-url>jdbc:oracle:myURL</connection-url> <driver-class>oracle.jdbc.OracleDriver </driver-class> <user-name>myUsername</user-name> <password>myPassword</password> <exception-sorter-class- name>org.jboss.resource.adapter.jdbc.vendor.OracleExceptionSorter</exception-sorter-class-name> <metadata> <type-mapping>Oracle9i</type-mapping> </metadata> </local-tx-datasource> </datasources> and put it under \server\default\deploy\oracle-ds.xml I get during runtime the line: 18:37:56,560 INFO [ConnectionFactoryBindingService] Bound ConnectionManager 'jb oss.jca:service=DataSourceBinding,name=bilby' to JNDI name 'java:bilby' So my question is - why do I get null as my datasource???

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  • JPA - Real primary key generated ID for references

    - by Val
    I have ~10 classes, each of them, have composite key, consist of 2-4 values. 1 of the classes is a main one (let's call it "Center") and related to other as one-to-one or one-to-many. Thinking about correct way of describing this in JPA I think I need to describe all the primary keys using @Embedded / @PrimaryKey annotations. Question #1: My concern is - does it mean that on the database level I will have # of additional columns in each table referring to the "Center" equal to number of column in "Center" PK? If yes, is it possible to avoid it by using some artificial unique key for references? Could you please give an idea how real PK and the artificial one needs to be described in this case? Note: The reason why I would like to keep the real PK and not just use the unique id as PK is - my application have some data loading functionality from external data sources and sometimes they may return records which I already have in local database. If unique ID will be used as PK - for new records I won't be able to do data update, since the unique ID will not be available for just downloaded ones. At the same time it is normal case scenario for application and it just need to update of insert new records depends on if the real composite primary key matches. Question #2: All of the 10 classes have common field "date" which I described in an abstract class which each of them extends. The "date" itself is never a key, but it always a part of composite key for each class. Composite key is different for each class. To be able to use this field as a part of PK should I describe it in each class or is there any way to use it as is? I experimented with @Embedded and @PrimaryKey annotations and always got an error that eclipselink can't find field described in an abstract class. Thank you in advance! PS. I'm using latest version of eclipselink & H2 database.

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  • I want just the insert query for a temp table.

    - by John Stephen
    Hi..I am using C#.Net and Sql Server ( Windows Application ). I had created a temporary table. When a button is clicked, temporary table (#tmp_emp_details) is created. I am having another button called "insert Values" and also 5 textboxes. The values that are entered in the textbox are used and whenever com.ExecuteNonQuery(); line comes, it throws an error message Invalid object name '#tbl_emp_answer'.. Below is the set of code.. Please give me a solution. Code for insert (in insert value button): private void btninsertvalues_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { username = txtusername.Text; examloginid = txtexamloginid.Text; question = txtquestion.Text; answer = txtanswer.Text; useranswer = txtanswer.Text; SqlConnection con = new SqlConnection("Data Source=.;Initial Catalog=tempdb;Integrated Security=True;"); SqlCommand com = new SqlCommand("Insert into #tbl_emp_answer values('"+username+"','"+examloginid+"','"+question+"','"+answer+"','"+useranswer+"')", con); con.Open(); com.ExecuteNonQuery(); con.Close(); }

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  • About Interview structure for test automation lab developers

    - by Ikaso
    Hi, I am interviewing new applicants for a team that is doing test automation on our company product(s). The team is composed of junior software developers and a team leader. The product runs on windows and has both managed and unmanaged parts. The test automation is done on both client side (user mode and kernel mode) and server side (IIS, Windows Services, backend). We are doing mainly intergration tests and black box tests. I am trying to figure out how to organize my interview. My overall idea is to ask about a project they have done, then ask some technical questions (multithreading, GC, design patterns) and one programming question. Please note that there is another interview done before me with 2 programming questions. My programming question is rather simple (for example: reversing a singly-linked linked list). My coworkers think that my questions will not find good developers since my questions are rather simple and well known, but so far most of the applicants fail those questions. My questions are: Should I change the structure of my interview for this kind of job? What questions do you ask to figure our if the applicant is test oriented? (Maybe I should provide a buggy implementation of a problem and let them find the bugs and then ask them about what tests they would have done) Regards,

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  • How can I create global context variables in JBOSS?

    - by NobodyMan
    This is a follow-up to a question I posted a while back: "Can I use a single WAR in multiple environments?". I was able to create a single-war solution in Tomcat, but now we are migrating our app to JBoss 4.2 and I can't figure out how to set up global environment variables. In Tomcat 6 this was pretty straightforward: I simply put the following snippet in tomcat/conf/Catalina/myappname.xml: <Context ...> <Environment name="TARGET_ENV" value="DEV" type="java.lang.String" override="false"/> </Context> Then in my app I was able to resolve the environment name with the following: Context context = (Context) InitialContext().lookup("java:comp/env"); String targetEnvironment = (String) context.lookup("TARGET_ENV"); The problem is that I can't find out where/how to place global variables in JBoss. I've tried putting the <Environment> tag in the following files to no avail: server/all/deploy/jboss-web.deployer/context.xml server/default/deploy/jboss-web.deployer/context.xml I know that I can put environment variables in my app's web.xml but that defeats the purpose of having a unified war - I'd still need custom .war's for dev, qa and prod. I'm a JBoss newbie so if there's any additional information that would help just let me know and I'll append to this question. Many thanks! --N

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  • What exactly does this PHP code do?

    - by Rob
    Alright, my friend gave me this code for requesting headers and comparing them to what the header should be. It works perfectly, but I'm not sure why. Here is the code: $headers = apache_request_headers(); $customheader = "Header: 7ddb6ffab28bb675215a7d6e31cfc759"; foreach ($headers as $header => $value) { // 1 $custom .= "$header: $value"; // 2 } $mystring = $custom; // 3 $findme = $customheader; // 4 $pos = strpos($mystring, $findme); if ($pos !== false) { // Do something } else{ exit(); } //If it doesn't match, exit. I commented with some numbers relating to the following questions: 1: What exactly is happening here? Is it setting the $headers as $header AND $value? 2: Again, don't have any idea what is going on here. 3: Why set the variable to a different variable? This is the only area where the variable is getting used, so is there a reason to set it to something else? 4: Same question as 3. I'm sorry if this is a terrible question, but its been bothering me, and I really want to know WHY it works. Well, I understand why it works, I guess I just want to know more specifically. Thanks for any insight you can provide.

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  • S3 file Uploading from Mac app though PHP?

    - by Ilija Tovilo
    I have asked this question before, but it was deleted due too little information. I'll try to be more concrete this time. I have an Objective-C mac application, which should allow users to upload files to S3-storage. The s3 storage is mine, the users don't have an Amazon account. Until now, the files were uploaded directly to the amazon servers. After thinking some more about it, it wasn't really a great concept, regarding security and flexibility. I want to add a server in between. The user should authenticate with my server, the server would open a session if the authentication was successful, and the file-sharing could begin. Now my question. I want to upload the files to S3. One option would be to make a POST-request and wait until the server would receive the file. Problems here are, that there would be a delay, when the file is being uploaded from my server to the S3 servers, and it would double the uploading time. Best would be, if I could validate the request, and then redirecting it, so the client uploads it directly to the s3-storage. Not sure if this is possible somehow. Uploading directly to S3 doesn't seem to be very smart. After looking into other apps like Droplr and Dropmark, it looks like they don't do this. Btw. I did this using Little Snitch. They have their api on their own web-server, and that's it. Could someone clear things up for me? EDIT How should I transmit my files to S3? Is there a way to "forward" it, or do I have to upload it to my server and then upload it from there to S3? Like I said, other apps can do this efficiently and without the need of communicating with S3 directly.

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  • C# Interface Method calls from a controller

    - by ArjaaAine
    I was just working on some application architecture and this may sound like a stupid question but please explain to me how the following works: Interface: public interface IMatterDAL { IEnumerable<Matter> GetMattersByCode(string input); IEnumerable<Matter> GetMattersBySearch(string input); } Class: public class MatterDAL : IMatterDAL { private readonly Database _db; public MatterDAL(Database db) { _db = db; LoadAll(); //Private Method } public virtual IEnumerable<Matter> GetMattersBySearch(string input) { //CODE return result; } public virtual IEnumerable<Matter> GetMattersByCode(string input) { //CODE return results; } Controller: public class MatterController : ApiController { private readonly IMatterDAL _publishedData; public MatterController(IMatterDAL publishedData) { _publishedData = publishedData; } [ValidateInput(false)] public JsonResult SearchByCode(string id) { var searchText = id; //better name for this var results = _publishedData.GetMattersBySearch(searchText).Select( matter => new { MatterCode = matter.Code, MatterName = matter.Name, matter.ClientCode, matter.ClientName }); return Json(results); } This works, when I call my controller method from jquery and step into it, the call to the _publishedData method, goes into the class MatterDAL. I want to know how does my controller know to go to the MatterDAL implementation of the Interface IMatterDAL. What if I have another class called MatterDAL2 which is based on the interface. How will my controller know then to call the right method? I am sorry if this is a stupid question, this is baffling me.

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  • Why won't WPF databindings show text when ToString() has a collaborating object?

    - by Jay
    In a simple form, I bind to a number of different objects -- some go in listboxes; some in textblocks. A couple of these objects have collaborating objects upon which the ToString() method calls when doing its work -- typically a formatter of some kind. When I step through the code I see that when the databinding is being set up, ToString() is called the collaborating object is not null and returns the expected result when inspected in the debugger, the objects return the expected result from ToString() BUT the text does not show up in the form. The only common thread I see is that these use a collaborating object, whereas the other bindings that show up as expected simply work from properties and methods of the containing object. If this is confusing, here is the gist in code: public class ThisThingWorks { private SomeObject some_object; public ThisThingWorks(SomeObject s) { some_object = s; } public override string ToString() { return some_object.name; } } public class ThisDoesntWork { private Formatter formatter; private SomeObject some_object; public ThisDoesntWork(SomeObject o, Formatter f) { formatter = f; some_object = o; } public override string ToString() { return formatter.Format(some_object.name); } } Again, let me reiterate -- the ToString() method works in every other context -- but when I bind to the object in WPF and expect it to display the result of ToString(), I get nothing. Update: The issue seems to be what I see as a buggy behaviour in the TextBlock binding. If I bind the Text property to a property of the DataContext that is declared as an interface type, ToString() is never called. If I change the property declaration to an implementation of the interface, it works as expected. Other controls, like Label work fine when binding the Content property to a DataContext property declared as either the implementation or the interface. Because this is so far removed from the title and content of this question, I've created a new question here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2917878/why-doesnt-textblock-databinding-call-tostring-on-a-property-whose-compile-tim

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  • Selecting a form which is in an iframe using jQuery

    - by Khnle
    I have a form inside an iframe which is inside a jQuery UI dialog box. The form contains a file input type. The jQuery UI dialog contains an Upload button. When this button is clicked, I would like to programmatically call the submit method. My question is how I could select the form which is in a iframe using jQuery. The following code should clarify the picture: <div id="upload_file_picker_dlg" title="Upload file"> <iframe id="upload_file_iframe" src="/frame_src_url" frameborder=0 width=100% scrolling=no></iframe> </div> frame_src_url contains: <form action="/UploadTaxTable" enctype="multipart/form-data" method="post" id="upload-form"> <p>Select a file to be uploaded:</p> <p> <input type="file" name="datafile" size="60"> </p> The jQueryUI dialog box javascript code: $('#upload_file_picker_dlg').dialog({ ... buttons: { 'Close': function() { $(this).dialog('close'); }, 'Upload': function() { $('#upload-form').submit(); //question is related to this line $(this).dialog('close'); } }, .... }); From the javascript code snippet above, how can I select the form with id upload-form that is in the iframe whose id is upload_file_iframe ?

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  • Is boost shared_ptr <XXX> thread safe?

    - by sxingfeng
    I have a question about boost :: shared_ptr. There are lots of thread. class CResource { xxxxxx } class CResourceBase { public: void SetResource(shared_ptr<CResource> res) { m_Res = res; } shared_ptr<CResource> GetResource() { return m_Res; } private: shared_ptr<CResource> m_Res; } CResourceBase base; //---------------------------------------------- Thread A: while (true) { ...... shared_ptr<CResource> nowResource = base.GetResource(); nowResource.doSomeThing(); ... } Thread B: shared_ptr<CResource> nowResource; base.SetResource(nowResource); ... //----------------------------------------------------------- If thread A do not care the nowResource is the newest . Will this part of code have problem? I mean when ThreadB do not SetResource completely, Thread A get a wrong smart point by GetResource? Another question : what does thread-safe mean? If I do not care about whether the resource is newest, will the shared_ptr nowResource crash the program when the nowResource is released or will the problem destroy the shared_point?

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  • Convert charset in mysql query

    - by Yousf
    Hi, I have a question about converting charset from inside mysql query. I have a 2 databases. One for the website (joomla), the other for forum (IPB). I am doing query from inside joomla, which by default have "SET NAMES UTF8". I want to query a table inside the forum databases. A table called "ibf_topics". This table has latin1 encoding. I do the following to select anything from the not-utf8 table. //convert connection to handle latin1. $query = "SET NAMES latin1"; $db->setQuery($query); $db->query(); $query = "select id, title from other_database.ibf_topics"; $db->setQuery($query); $db->query(); //read result into an array. //return connection to handle UTF8. $query = "SET NAMES UTF8"; $db->setQuery($query); $db->query(); After that, when I want to use the selected tile, I use the following: echo iconv("CP1256", "UTF-8", $topic['title']) The question is, is there anyway to avoid all this hassle? For now, I can't change forum database to UTF8 and I can't change joomla database to latin1 :S

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  • asp.net, wcf authentication and caching

    - by andrew
    I need to place my app business logic into a WCF service. The service shouldn't be dependent on ASP.NET and there is a lot of data regarding the authenticated user which is frequently used in the business logic hence it's supposed to be cached (probably using a distributed cache). As for authentication - I'm going to use two level authentication: Front-End - forms authentication back-end (WCF Service) - message username authentication. For both authentications the same custom membership provider is supposed to be used. To cache the authenticated user data, I'm going to implement two service methods: 1) Authenticate - will retrieve the needed data and place it into the cache(where username will be used as a key) 2) SignOut - will remove the data from the cache Question 1. Is correct to perform authentication that way (in two places) ? Question 2. Is this caching strategy worth using or should I look at using aspnet compatible service and asp.net session ? Maybe, these questions are too general. But, anyway I'd like to get any suggestions or recommendations. Any Idea

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  • How do I get Facebook Application Login to work

    - by Javaaaa
    I just started making an application for Facebook, however I ran into problem early on. The first step I want people to do is to give permission to access their profile. All over the web are examples of how to do this with: $user_id = $facebook->require_login(); However, this is the way it works using the Old PHP API. I have downloaded and installed the new one in my application folder and it is not working anymore. My question is (and i really have been searching for an answer for a long time) what is the code to do this with the new API? (and related question: is it better to use the old API, or learn to work with the new one when I am just starting making apps right now) I have this code now; <?php // Awesome Facebook Application // // Name: - // require_once 'facebook-php-sdk/src/facebook.php'; // Create our Application instance. $facebook = new Facebook(array( 'appId' => $app_id, 'secret' => $app_secret, 'cookie' => true )); $loginUrl = $facebook->getLoginUrl(array( 'req_perms' => 'email,user_birthday,publish_stream,sms,status_update,user_location' )); echo "<p>hello, <fb:name uid=\"$user_id\" useyou=\"false\" />!</p>"; ?>

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  • How to call a method from another class that's been instantiated within the current class

    - by Pavan
    my screen has a few views like such __________________ | _____ | | | | | //viewX is a video screen | | | | | viewX | vY | | //viewY is a custom uiview i created. | |____| | //it contains a method which i would like to call that toggles |_________________| //the hidden property of this view. and when it hides, a little | | //button is replaced no the top right corner on top of viewX | viewZ | //the video layer | | |_________________| //viewZ is a view containing many square views - thumbnails. my question is, i dont know how to register for touch events so that it recognises any touch event on no matter which view the user touches the screen.. atm im handling the touch events for each view inside it. so all works well... however what im trying to do is that when the user taps anywhere else on the screen but on viewY, viewY should dissapear by calling that method in the viewY class. this viewY class is instantiated and has no xib file attached to it. the uiview is created progammatically in the viewY class. this whole class for viewY behviour is instantiated in viewX - the video view. my boss says add delegates.. although i have now clue how to do that... any help? is there anyway i can just make it really simple and be able to say REMOVE VIEW no matter which class im calling from? Also ive seen other people achieve this by using these funky arrows - ... <- etc.. although im not sure if thats what i need or how to implement such a thing. ah i think ive made my question quite complicated but i really mean it to be a simple one, and know it can be done in an easy way!

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  • Message Handlers and the WeakReference issue

    - by user1058647
    The following message Handler works fine receiving messages from my service... private Handler handler = new Handler() { public void handleMessage(Message message) { Object path = message.obj; if (message.arg1 == 5 && path != null) //5 means its a single mapleg to plot on the map { String myString = (String) message.obj; Gson gson = new Gson(); MapPlot mapleg = gson.fromJson(myString, MapPlot.class); myMapView.getOverlays().add(new DirectionPathOverlay(mapleg.fromPoint, mapleg.toPoint)); mc.animateTo(mapleg.toPoint); } else { if (message.arg1 == RESULT_OK && path != null) { Toast.makeText(PSActivity.this, "Service Started" + path.toString(), Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); } else { Toast.makeText(PSActivity.this,"Service error" + String.valueOf(message.arg1), Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); } } }; }; However, even though it tests out alright in the AVD (I'm feeding it a large KML file via DDMS) the "object path = message.obj;" line has a WARNING saying "this Handler class should be static else leaks might occur". But if I say "static Handler handler = new Handler()" it won't compile complaining that I "cannot make a static reference to a non-static field myMapView. If I can't make such references, I can't do anything useful. This led me into several hours of googling around on this issue and learning more about weakReferences than I ever wanted to know. The often found reccomendation I find is that I should replace... private Handler handler = new Handler() with static class handler extends Handler { private final WeakReference<PSActivity> mTarget; handler(PSActivity target) { mTarget = new WeakReference<PSActivity>(target); } But this won't compile still complaining that I can't make a static reference to a non-dtatic field. So, my question a week or to ago was "how can I write a message handler for android so my service can send data to my activity. Even though I have working code, the question still stands with the suffix "without leaking memory". Thanks, Gary

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  • I don't like Python functions that take two or more iterables. Is it a good idea?

    - by Xavier Ho
    This question came from looking at this question on Stackoverflow. def fringe8((px, py), (x1, y1, x2, y2)): Personally, it's been one of my pet peeves to see a function that takes two arguments with fixed-number iterables (like a tuple) or two or more dictionaries (Like in the Shotgun API). It's just hard to use, because of all the verbosity and double-bracketed enclosures. Wouldn't this be better: >>> class Point(object): ... def __init__(self, x, y): ... self.x = x ... self.y = y ... >>> class Rect(object): ... def __init__(self, x1, y1, x2, y2): ... self.x1 = x1 ... self.y1 = y1 ... self.x2 = x2 ... self.y2 = y2 ... >>> def fringe8(point, rect): ... # ... ... >>> >>> point = Point(2, 2) >>> rect = Rect(1, 1, 3, 3) >>> >>> fringe8(point, rect) Is there a situation where taking two or more iterable arguments is justified? Obviously the standard itertools Python library needs that, but I can't see it being pretty in maintainable, flexible code design.

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  • Bind an Incode DataTemplate in WPF

    - by Mike Bynum
    I have a WPF Application which is using MVVM. I know that there ways of doing this in XAML but I am working on a plugin architecture and came up with a solution where a plugin exposes it's viewmodel to my plugin host's viewmodel and it's datatemplate. I want to leave the lifetime management of the plugin view up to WPF. I have tried having the plugins expose a UserControl but ran into issues when WPF decided to dispose of my UserControl so I would not reattach it without weird hacky work arounds. I am having issues getting some sort of binding working to where i can bind a control to the data and it's template to my data template. I have a ViewModel which looks something like: public class MyViewModel { public DataTemplate SelectedTemplate{ get; set;} public object SelectedViewModel {get; set;} } The selected template and viewmodel are determined somewhere else in the code but are irrelevant to my question. My question is how i can bind to a DataTemplate so that I know how to display the data shown in the SelectedViewModel. The DataTemplate is a DataTemplate created incode which respresents: <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type vm:MyViewModel}"> <v:MyUserControl /> </DataTemplate> I have tried: <UserControl Template="{Binding Path=SelectedTemplate}" Content="{Binding Path=SelectedViewModel"} /> But UserControl expects a control template and not a data template.

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  • Treating differential operator as algebraic entity

    - by chappar
    I know that this question is offtopic and don't belong here. But i didn't know somewhere else to ask. So here is the question. I was reading e:the story of a number by Eli Maor, where he treats differential operator as just like any algebraic entity. For example if we have a differential equation like y’’ + 5y’ - 6y = 0. This can be treaed as (D^2 + 5D – 6)y = 0. So, either y = 0 (trivial solution) or (D^2 + 5D – 6) = 0. Factoring out above equation we get (D-1)(D+6)= 0 with solutions as D = 1 and D = -6. Since D does not have any meaning on its own, multiplying by y on both the sides we get Dy = y and Dy = -6y for which the solutions are Ae^x and Be^-6x. Combining these 2 solutions we get Ae^x + Be^-6x. Now my doubt is this approach break when we have an equation like D^2y = 0. Which means y = 0 (again trivial) or D^2 = 0 which means D = 0. Now Dy = y*0 = 0. That means y = C ( a constant). The actual answer should be Cx. I know that it is stupidity to treat D^2 = 0 as D = 0, it led me to doubt the entire process of treating differential equation as algebraic equation. Can someone throw light on this? Or any other site where i might get answer?

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  • using replace to produce javascript code, django

    - by durdenk
    I want to use highcharts with my django site but it requires a comlex javascript code such as below. So I wanted to get this script in my python code and replace apropriate portions then write it in my template, first question is, is this a dump way to do that for a person not knowing javascript. I can read it tough. Second question is, Why I cant replace this string. Lets say this string is a variable like this. lineChartsTemplate = """ ... ... """ if I try and do lineChartsTemplate .replace('dataCategory', dataCategory) it basically suppossed to change dataCategory text with my dataCategory variable, but no such luck. I need guidance here. thx. $(function () { var chart = new Highcharts.Chart({ chart: { renderTo: 'container', type: 'bar' }, xAxis: { categories: dataCategory }, yAxis: { }, legend: { layout: 'vertical', floating: true, backgroundColor: '#FFFFFF', align: 'right', verticalAlign: 'top', y: 60, x: -60 }, tooltip: { formatter: function() { return '<b>'+ this.series.name +'</b><br/>'+ this.x +': '+ this.y; } }, plotOptions: { }, series: [{ data: dataList , name : 'Satislar'}] }); });

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  • What are major differences between C# and Java?

    - by enba
    I just want to clarify one thing. This is not a question on which one is better, that part I leave to someone else to discuss. I don't care about it. I've been asked this question on my job interview and I thought it might be useful to learn a bit more. These are the ones I could come up with: Java is "platform independent". Well nowadays you could say there is the Mono project so C# could be considered too but I believe it is a bit exaggerating. Why? Well, when a new release of Java is done it is simultaneously available on all platforms it supports, on the other hand how many features of C# 3.0 are still missing in the Mono implementation? Or is it really CLR vs. JRE that we should compare here? Java doesn't support events and delegates. As far as I know. In Java all methods are virtual Development tools: I believe there isn't such a tool yet as Visual Studio. Especially if you've worked with team editions you'll know what I mean. Please add others you think are relevant. Update: Just popped up my mind, Java doesn't have something like custom attributes on classes, methods etc. Or does it?

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  • Chrome renders button links completely screwed up when placed inside a paragraph

    - by Ferdy
    I am fairly proficient in CSS but now I am running into a very strange rendering issue in Google Chrome 9. I am trying to create some fancy looking link buttons (basically heavily styled anchors). Here is some example markup: <a href="" class="button"> <figure class="sprite icon icon_back"></figure> Link button with icon</a> This markup may look a litte strange to you, there's a few things you should know: I am using HTML5's figure class to include an icon as part of the button. I have the proper reset CSS applied and Chrome can render this tag for sure. Instead of actually pointing to an image I am applying CSS classes to the figure element. Within the CSS I am using the spriting technique to show the correct portion of a single large sprite image. All of this is working fine in Firefox, and actually also in Chrome. The correct rendering can be seen in the following image: It renders like that in both Firefox and Chrome. Here comes the problem, if I place such a button within paragraph tags <p></p> this is what happens in Chrome only: Notice how the button is ripped apart? Only in Chrome and only when placed inside a paragraph. It gets even stranger: this only happens for the first button inside the paragraph, if I would place three buttons inside a paragraph, only the 1st one is screwed up. Your first question would probably be about the CSS. It is rather verbose so hereby a temporary link to the page in question: Edit: link to live page removed, was only temporary for problem inspection.

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  • fix needed for bug in TextField/Text

    - by Mark
    Sort of a complicated scenario - just curious if anyone else could come up with something: I have a Text control and when I scroll it and stop the scroll with the cursor over some text that has a url, the cursor doesn't revert to a hand, and also flash player starts acting as if a selection is being made from the last cursor position. So IOW a bonafide bug in flash as far as I can determine. The above probably wasn't completely clear so let me elaborate. If you grab a scrollbar thumb and start moving it up and down, you don't actually have to keep the mouse pointer on the thumb while doing so. When you stop the scroll, the mouse pointer could be outside the browser window, inside your flash application, but not currently on the scroll bar thumb, or wherever. The previously mentioned bug occurs when you stop the scroll with the mouse pointer positioned over text with an html anchor (a hyperlink). At that point the cursor enters into some state of limbo, and doesn't show the url hand pointer, and furthermore acts as if some text selection is taking place from the last cursor position prior to the scroll. So the question would be, what sort of event could I simulate in code to jolt flash out of this erroneous state it is in. And furthermore in what event could I perform this simulated event (given that for example there is no AS3 event to signal the end of a scroll.) To be clear, the Text control in question is on a canvas, and that canvas (call it A) is on another canvas which actually owns the scrollbar, and scrolling takes place by changing the scrollRect of canvas A.

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