Search Results

Search found 11529 results on 462 pages for 'rvalue reference'.

Page 423/462 | < Previous Page | 419 420 421 422 423 424 425 426 427 428 429 430  | Next Page >

  • Can't access font resource in Silverlight class library

    - by Matt
    I have a reasonably large Silveright 3.0 project on the go, and I'm having issues accessing a couple of custom font resources from within one of the assemblies. I've got a working test solution where I have added a custom font as a resource, and can access it fine from XAML using: <TextBlock Text="Test" FontFamily="FontName.ttf#Font Name" /> The test solution consists of the TestProject.Application and the TestProject.Application.Web projects, with all the fun and games obviously in the TestProject.Application project However, when I try this in my main solution, the fonts refuse to show in the correct type face (instead showing in the default font). There's no difference in the way the font has been added to project between the test solution and the main solution, and the XAML is identical. However, there is a solution layout difference. In the main solution, as well as having a MainApp.Application and MainApp.Application.Web project, I also have a MainApp.Application.ViewModel project and a MainApp.Application.Views project, and the problem piece of XAML is the in the MainApp.Application.Views project (not the .Application project like the test solution). I've tried putting the font into either the .Application or .Application.Views project, tried changing the Build Action to Content, Embedded Resource etc, all to no avail. So, is there an issue accessing font resources from a child assembly that I don't know about, or has anyone successfully done this? My long term need will be to have the valid custom fonts being stored as resources in a separate .Application.FontLibrary assembly that will be on-demand downloaded and cached, and the XAML controls in the .Application.Views project will need to reference this FontLibrary assembly to get the valid fonts. I've also tried xcreating this separate font library assembly, and I can't seem to get the fonts from the second assembly. As some additional information, I've also tried the following font referencing approaches: <TextBlock Text="Test" FontFamily="/FontName.ttf#Font Name" /> <TextBlock Text="Test" FontFamily="pack:application,,,/FontName.ttf#Font Name" /> <TextBlock Text="Test" FontFamily="pack:application,,,/MainApp.Application.Views;/FontName.ttf#Font Name" /> <TextBlock Text="Test" FontFamily="pack:application,,,/MainApp.Application.Views;component/FontName.ttf#Font Name" /> And a few similar variants with different assembly references/sub directories/random semi colons. And so far nothing works... anyone struck this (and preferably solved it)?

    Read the article

  • .NET and C# Exceptions. What is it reasonable to catch.

    - by djna
    Disclaimer, I'm from a Java background. I don't do much C#. There's a great deal of transfer between the two worlds, but of course there are differences and one is in the way Exceptions tend to be thought about. I recently answered a C# question suggesting that under some circstances it's reasonable to do this: try { some work } catch (Exeption e) { commonExceptionHandler(); } (The reasons why are immaterial). I got a response that I don't quite understand: until .NET 4.0, it's very bad to catch Exception. It means you catch various low-level fatal errors and so disguise bugs. It also means that in the event of some kind of corruption that triggers such an exception, any open finally blocks on the stack will be executed, so even if the callExceptionReporter fuunction tries to log and quit, it may not even get to that point (the finally blocks may throw again, or cause more corruption, or delete something important from the disk or database). May I'm more confused than I realise, but I don't agree with some of that. Please would other folks comment. I understand that there are many low level Exceptions we don't want to swallow. My commonExceptionHandler() function could reasonably rethrow those. This seems consistent with this answer to a related question. Which does say "Depending on your context it can be acceptable to use catch(...), providing the exception is re-thrown." So I conclude using catch (Exception ) is not always evil, silently swallowing certain exceptions is. The phrase "Until .NET 4 it is very bad to Catch Exception" What changes in .NET 4? IS this a reference to AggregateException, which may give us some new things to do with exceptions we catch, but I don't think changes the fundamental "don't swallow" rule. The next phrase really bothers be. Can this be right? It also means that in the event of some kind of corruption that triggers such an exception, any open finally blocks on the stack will be executed (the finally blocks may throw again, or cause more corruption, or delete something important from the disk or database) My understanding is that if some low level code had lowLevelMethod() { try { lowestLevelMethod(); } finally { some really important stuff } } and in my code I call lowLevel(); try { lowLevel() } catch (Exception e) { exception handling and maybe rethrowing } Whether or not I catch Exception this has no effect whatever on the excution of the finally block. By the time we leave lowLevelMethod() the finally has already run. If the finally is going to do any of the bad things, such as corrupt my disk, then it will do so. My catching the Exception made no difference. If It reaches my Exception block I need to do the right thing, but I can't be the cause of dmis-executing finallys

    Read the article

  • Unset/Change Binding in WPF

    - by captcalamares
    How can I unset the binding applied to an object so that I can apply another binding to it from a different location? Suppose I have two data templates binded to the same object reference. Data Template #1 is the default template to be loaded. I try to bind a button command to a Function1 from my DataContext class: <Button Content="Button 1" CommandParameter="{Binding }" Command="{Binding DataContext.Function1, RelativeSource={RelativeSource AncestorType={x:Type Window}}}"/> This actually works and the function gets binded. However, when I try to load Data Template # 2 to the same object (while trying to bind another button command to a different function (Function2) from my DataContext class): <Button Content="Button 2" CommandParameter="{Binding }" Command="{Binding DataContext.Function2, RelativeSource={RelativeSource AncestorType={x:Type Window}}}" /> It doesn't work and the first binding is still the one executed. Is there a workaround to this? EDIT (for better problem context): I defined my templates in my Window.Resources: <Window.Resources> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type local:ViewModel1}"> <local:View1 /> </DataTemplate> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type local:ViewModel2}"> <local:View2 /> </DataTemplate> </Window.Resources> The View1.xaml and the View2.xaml contain the button definitions that I described above (I want them to command the control of my process flow). ViewModel1 and ViewModel2 are my ViewModels that implement the interface IPageViewModel which is the type of my variable CurrentPageViewModel. In my XAML, I binded ContentControl to the variable CurrentPageViewModel: <ContentControl Content="{Binding CurrentPageViewModel}" HorizontalAlignment="Center"/> In my .CS, I have a list defined as List<IPageViewModel> PageViewModels, which I use to contain the instances of my two View Models: PageViewModels.Add(new ViewModel1()); PageViewModels.Add(new ViewModel2()); // Set starting page CurrentPageViewModel = PageViewModels[0]; When I try to change my CurrentPageViewModel to the other view model, this is when I want the new binding to work. Unfortunately, it doesn't. Am I doing things the right way?

    Read the article

  • Rails 3 NameError (cannot remove Object::Version) error

    - by Jeff D
    Can anyone point me at what might be causing this error? There is no ApplicationTrace, and it locks the server hard on my development machine. I think it has something to do with the way rails reloads your classes in development mode, and it appears to have something to do with a Version constant. I can't find a reference to this though. Can anyone point me in the direction of what would cause this? activesupport (3.0.3) lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:645:in `remove_const' activesupport (3.0.3) lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:645:in `remove_constant' activesupport (3.0.3) lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:645:in `instance_eval' activesupport (3.0.3) lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:645:in `remove_constant' activesupport (3.0.3) lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:521:in `remove_unloadable_constants!' activesupport (3.0.3) lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:521:in `each' activesupport (3.0.3) lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:521:in `remove_unloadable_constants!' activesupport (3.0.3) lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:317:in `clear' railties (3.0.3) lib/rails/application/bootstrap.rb:60:in `_callback_after_7' activesupport (3.0.3) lib/active_support/callbacks.rb:419:in `_run_call_callbacks' actionpack (3.0.3) lib/action_dispatch/middleware/callbacks.rb:44:in `call' rack (1.2.1) lib/rack/sendfile.rb:107:in `call' actionpack (3.0.3) lib/action_dispatch/middleware/remote_ip.rb:48:in `call' actionpack (3.0.3) lib/action_dispatch/middleware/show_exceptions.rb:46:in `call' railties (3.0.3) lib/rails/rack/logger.rb:13:in `call' rack (1.2.1) lib/rack/runtime.rb:17:in `call' activesupport (3.0.3) lib/active_support/cache/strategy/local_cache.rb:72:in `call' rack (1.2.1) lib/rack/lock.rb:11:in `call' rack (1.2.1) lib/rack/lock.rb:11:in `synchronize' rack (1.2.1) lib/rack/lock.rb:11:in `call' actionpack (3.0.3) lib/action_dispatch/middleware/static.rb:30:in `call' railties (3.0.3) lib/rails/application.rb:168:in `call' railties (3.0.3) lib/rails/application.rb:77:in `send' railties (3.0.3) lib/rails/application.rb:77:in `method_missing' railties (3.0.3) lib/rails/rack/log_tailer.rb:14:in `call' rack (1.2.1) lib/rack/content_length.rb:13:in `call' rack (1.2.1) lib/rack/handler/webrick.rb:52:in `service' /Volumes/files/jeffdeville/.rvm/rubies/ree-1.8.7-2010.02/lib/ruby/1.8/webrick/httpserver.rb:104:in `service' /Volumes/files/jeffdeville/.rvm/rubies/ree-1.8.7-2010.02/lib/ruby/1.8/webrick/httpserver.rb:65:in `run' /Volumes/files/jeffdeville/.rvm/rubies/ree-1.8.7-2010.02/lib/ruby/1.8/webrick/server.rb:173:in `start_thread' /Volumes/files/jeffdeville/.rvm/rubies/ree-1.8.7-2010.02/lib/ruby/1.8/webrick/server.rb:162:in `start' /Volumes/files/jeffdeville/.rvm/rubies/ree-1.8.7-2010.02/lib/ruby/1.8/webrick/server.rb:162:in `start_thread' /Volumes/files/jeffdeville/.rvm/rubies/ree-1.8.7-2010.02/lib/ruby/1.8/webrick/server.rb:95:in `start' /Volumes/files/jeffdeville/.rvm/rubies/ree-1.8.7-2010.02/lib/ruby/1.8/webrick/server.rb:92:in `each' /Volumes/files/jeffdeville/.rvm/rubies/ree-1.8.7-2010.02/lib/ruby/1.8/webrick/server.rb:92:in `start' /Volumes/files/jeffdeville/.rvm/rubies/ree-1.8.7-2010.02/lib/ruby/1.8/webrick/server.rb:23:in `start' /Volumes/files/jeffdeville/.rvm/rubies/ree-1.8.7-2010.02/lib/ruby/1.8/webrick/server.rb:82:in `start' rack (1.2.1) lib/rack/handler/webrick.rb:13:in `run' rack (1.2.1) lib/rack/server.rb:213:in `start' railties (3.0.3) lib/rails/commands/server.rb:65:in `start' railties (3.0.3) lib/rails/commands.rb:30 railties (3.0.3) lib/rails/commands.rb:27:in `tap' railties (3.0.3) lib/rails/commands.rb:27 script/rails:6:in `require' script/rails:6

    Read the article

  • A better UPDATE method in LINQ to SQL

    - by Refracted Paladin
    The below is a typical, for me, Update method in L2S. I am still fairly new to a lot of this(L2S & business app development) but this just FEELs wrong. Like there MUST be a smarter way of doing this. Unfortunately, I am having trouble visualizing it and am hoping someone can provide an example or point me in the right direction. To take a stab in the dark, would I have a Person Object that has all these fields as Properties? Then what, though? Is that redundant since L2S already mapped my Person Table to a Class? Is this just 'how it goes', that you eventually end up passing 30 parameters(or MORE) to an UPDATE statement at some point? For reference, this is a business app using C#, WinForms, .Net 3.5, and L2S over SQL 2005 Standard. Here is a typical Update Call for me. This is in a file(BLLConnect.cs) with other CRUD methods. Connect is the name of the DB that holds tblPerson When a user clicks save() this is what is eventually called with all of these fields having, potentially, been updated-- public static void UpdatePerson(int personID, string userID, string titleID, string firstName, string middleName, string lastName, string suffixID, string ssn, char gender, DateTime? birthDate, DateTime? deathDate, string driversLicenseNumber, string driversLicenseStateID, string primaryRaceID, string secondaryRaceID, bool hispanicOrigin, bool citizenFlag, bool veteranFlag, short ? residencyCountyID, short? responsibilityCountyID, string emailAddress, string maritalStatusID) { using (var context = ConnectDataContext.Create()) { var personToUpdate = (from person in context.tblPersons where person.PersonID == personID select person).Single(); personToUpdate.TitleID = titleID; personToUpdate.FirstName = firstName; personToUpdate.MiddleName = middleName; personToUpdate.LastName = lastName; personToUpdate.SuffixID = suffixID; personToUpdate.SSN = ssn; personToUpdate.Gender = gender; personToUpdate.BirthDate = birthDate; personToUpdate.DeathDate = deathDate; personToUpdate.DriversLicenseNumber = driversLicenseNumber; personToUpdate.DriversLicenseStateID = driversLicenseStateID; personToUpdate.PrimaryRaceID = primaryRaceID; personToUpdate.SecondaryRaceID = secondaryRaceID; personToUpdate.HispanicOriginFlag = hispanicOrigin; personToUpdate.CitizenFlag = citizenFlag; personToUpdate.VeteranFlag = veteranFlag; personToUpdate.ResidencyCountyID = residencyCountyID; personToUpdate.ResponsibilityCountyID = responsibilityCountyID; personToUpdate.EmailAddress = emailAddress; personToUpdate.MaritalStatusID = maritalStatusID; personToUpdate.UpdateUserID = userID; personToUpdate.UpdateDateTime = DateTime.Now; context.SubmitChanges(); } }

    Read the article

  • Do You Really Know Your Programming Languages?

    - by Kristopher Johnson
    I am often amazed at how little some of my colleagues know or care about their craft. Something that constantly frustrates me is that people don't want to learn any more than they need to about the programming languages they use every day. Many programmers seem content to learn some pidgin sub-dialect, and stick with that. If they see a keyword or construct that they aren't familiar with, they'll complain that the code is "tricky." What would you think of a civil engineer who shied away from calculus because it had "all those tricky math symbols?" I'm not suggesting that we all need to become "language lawyers." But if you make your living as a programmer, and claim to be a competent user of language X, then I think at a minimum you should know the following: Do you know the keywords of the language and what they do? What are the valid syntactic forms? How are memory, files, and other operating system resources managed? Where is the official language specification and library reference for the language? The last one is the one that really gets me. Many programmers seem to have no idea that there is a "specification" or "standard" for any particular language. I still talk to people who think that Microsoft invented C++, and that if a program doesn't compile under VC6, it's not a valid C++ program. Programmers these days have it easy when it comes to obtaining specs. Newer languages like C#, Java, Python, Ruby, etc. all have their documentation available for free from the vendors' web sites. Older languages and platforms often have standards controlled by standards bodies that demand payment for specs, but even that shouldn't be a deterrent: the C++ standard is available from ISO for $30 (and why am I the only person I know who has a copy?). Programming is hard enough even when you do know the language. If you don't, I don't see how you have a chance. What do the rest of you think? Am I right, or should we all be content with the typical level of programming language expertise? Update: Several great comments here. Thanks. A couple of people hit on something that I didn't think about: What really irks me is not the lack of knowledge, but the lack of curiosity and willingness to learn. It seems some people don't have any time to hone their craft, but they have plenty of time to write lots of bad code. And I don't expect people to be able to recite a list of keywords or EBNF expressions, but I do expect that when they see some code, they should have some inkling of what it does. Few people have complete knowledge of every dark corner of their language or platform, but everyone should at least know enough that when they see something unfamiliar, they will know how to get whatever additional information they need to understand it.

    Read the article

  • Assembly Load and loading the "sub-modules" dependencies - "cannot fild the file specified"

    - by Ted
    There are several questions out there that ask the same question. However the answers they received I cannot understand, so here goes: Similar questions: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1874277/dynamically-load-assembly-and-manually-force-path-to-get-referenced-assemblies ; http://stackoverflow.com/questions/22012/loading-assemblies-and-its-dependencies-closed The question in short: I need to figure out how dependencies, ie References in my modules can be loaded dynamically. Right now I am getting "The system cannot find the file specified" on Assemblies referenced in my so called modules. I cannot really get how to use the AssemblyResolve event... The longer version I have one application, MODULECONTROLLER, that loads separate modules. These "separate modules" are located in well-known subdirectories, like appBinDir\Modules\Module1 appBinDir\Modules\Module2 Each directory contains all the DLLs that exists in the bin-directory of those projects after a build. So the MODULECONTROLLER loads all the DLLs contained in those folders using this code: byte[] bytes = File.ReadAllBytes(dllFileFullPath); Assembly assembly = null; assembly = Assembly.Load(bytes); I am, as you can see, loading the byte[]-array (so I dont lock the DLL-files). Now, in for example MODULE1, I have a static reference called MyGreatXmlProtocol. The MyGreatXmlProtocol.dll then also exists in the directory appBinDir\Modules\Module1 and is loaded using the above code When code in the MODULE1 tries to use this MyGreatXmlProtocol, I get: Could not load file or assembly 'MyGreatXmlProtocol, Version=1.0.3797.26527, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified. So, in a post (like this one) they say that To my understanding reflection will load the main assembly and then search the GAC for the referenced assemblies, if it cannot find it there, you can then incorparate an assemblyResolve event: First; is it really needed to use the AssemblyResolve-event to make this work? Shouldnt my different MODULEs themself load their DLLs, as they are statically referenced? Second; if AssemblyResolve is the way to go - how do I use it? I have attached a handler to the Event but I never get anything on MyGreatXmlProctol... === EDIT === CODE regarding the AssemblyResolve-event handler: public GUI() { InitializeComponent(); AppDomain.CurrentDomain.AssemblyResolve += new ResolveEventHandler(CurrentDomain_AssemblyResolve); ... } // Assembly CurrentDomain_AssemblyResolve(object sender, ResolveEventArgs args) { Console.WriteLine(args.Name); return null; } Hope I wasnt too fuzzy =) Thx

    Read the article

  • Few doubts regarding Bitmaps , Images & `using` blocks

    - by imageWorker
    I caught up in this problem. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2559826/garbage-collector-not-doing-its-job-memory-consumption-1-5gb-outofmemory-exc I feel that there is something wrong in my understanding. Please clarify these things. Destructor & IDisposable.Dispose are two methods for freeing resources that are not not under the control of .NET. Which means, everything except memory. right? using blocks are just better way of calling IDisposable.Dispose() method of an object. This is the main code I'm referring to. class someclass { static someMethod(Bitmap img) { Bitmap bmp = new Bitmap(img); //statement1 // some code here and return } } here is class I'm using for testing: class someotherClass { public static voide Main() { foreach (string imagePath in imagePathsArray) { using (Bitmap img1 = new Bitmap(imagePath)) { someclass.someMethod(img1); // does some more processing on `img1` } } } } Is there any memory leak with statement1? Question1: If each image size is say 10MB. Then does this bmp object occupy atleast 10MB? What I mean is, will it make completely new copy of entire image? or just refer to it? Question2:should I or should I not put the statement1 in using block? My Argument: We should not. Because using is not for freeing memory but for freeing the resources (file handle in this case). If I use it in using block. It closes file handle here encapsulated by this bmp object. It means we are also closing filehandle for the caller's img1 object. Which is not correct? As of the memory leak. No there is no scope of memory leak here. Because reference bmp is destroyed when this method is returned. Which leaves memory it refered without any pointer. So, its garbage collected. Am I right? Edit: class someclass { static Bitmap someMethod(Bitmap img) { Bitmap bmp = new Bitmap(img); //can I use `using` block on this enclosing `return bmp`; ??? // do some processing on bmp here return bmp; } }

    Read the article

  • Trappings MySQL Warnings on Calls Wrapped in Classes -- Python

    - by chernevik
    I can't get Python's try/else blocks to catch MySQL warnings when the execution statements are wrapped in classes. I have a class that has as a MySQL connection object as an attribute, a MySQL cursor object as another, and a method that run queries through that cursor object. The cursor is itself wrapped in a class. These seem to run queries properly, but the MySQL warnings they generate are not caught as exceptions in a try/else block. Why don't the try/else blocks catch the warnings? How would I revise the classes or method calls to catch the warnings? Also, I've looked through the prominent sources and can't find a discussion that helps me understand this. I'd appreciate any reference that explains this. Please see code below. Apologies for verbosity, I'm newbie. #!/usr/bin/python import MySQLdb import sys import copy sys.path.append('../../config') import credentials as c # local module with dbase connection credentials #============================================================================= # CLASSES #------------------------------------------------------------------------ class dbMySQL_Connection: def __init__(self, db_server, db_user, db_passwd): self.conn = MySQLdb.connect(db_server, db_user, db_passwd) def getCursor(self, dict_flag=True): self.dbMySQL_Cursor = dbMySQL_Cursor(self.conn, dict_flag) return self.dbMySQL_Cursor def runQuery(self, qryStr, dict_flag=True): qry_res = runQueryNoCursor(qryStr=qryStr, \ conn=self, \ dict_flag=dict_flag) return qry_res #------------------------------------------------------------------------ class dbMySQL_Cursor: def __init__(self, conn, dict_flag=True): if dict_flag: dbMySQL_Cursor = conn.cursor(MySQLdb.cursors.DictCursor) else: dbMySQL_Cursor = conn.cursor() self.dbMySQL_Cursor = dbMySQL_Cursor def closeCursor(self): self.dbMySQL_Cursor.close() #============================================================================= # QUERY FUNCTIONS #------------------------------------------------------------------------------ def runQueryNoCursor(qryStr, conn, dict_flag=True): dbMySQL_Cursor = conn.getCursor(dict_flag) qry_res =runQueryFnc(qryStr, dbMySQL_Cursor.dbMySQL_Cursor) dbMySQL_Cursor.closeCursor() return qry_res #------------------------------------------------------------------------------ def runQueryFnc(qryStr, dbMySQL_Cursor): qry_res = {} qry_res['rows'] = dbMySQL_Cursor.execute(qryStr) qry_res['result'] = copy.deepcopy(dbMySQL_Cursor.fetchall()) qry_res['messages'] = copy.deepcopy(dbMySQL_Cursor.messages) qry_res['query_str'] = qryStr return qry_res #============================================================================= # USAGES qry = 'DROP DATABASE IF EXISTS database_of_armaments' dbConn = dbMySQL_Connection(**c.creds) def dbConnRunQuery(): # Does not trap an exception; warning displayed to standard error. try: dbConn.runQuery(qry) except: print "dbConn.runQuery() caught an exception." def dbConnCursorExecute(): # Does not trap an exception; warning displayed to standard error. dbConn.getCursor() # try/except block does catches error without this try: dbConn.dbMySQL_Cursor.dbMySQL_Cursor.execute(qry) except Exception, e: print "dbConn.dbMySQL_Cursor.execute() caught an exception." print repr(e) def funcRunQueryNoCursor(): # Does not trap an exception; no warning displayed try: res = runQueryNoCursor(qry, dbConn) print 'Try worked. %s' % res except Exception, e: print "funcRunQueryNoCursor() caught an exception." print repr(e) #============================================================================= if __name__ == '__main__': print '\n' print 'EXAMPLE -- dbConnRunQuery()' dbConnRunQuery() print '\n' print 'EXAMPLE -- dbConnCursorExecute()' dbConnCursorExecute() print '\n' print 'EXAMPLE -- funcRunQueryNoCursor()' funcRunQueryNoCursor() print '\n'

    Read the article

  • Flex/Air/AS3 Selecting and Populating a unFocused tab.

    - by Deyon
    I'm having a problem displaying data from a function to text box within a tab. If you run the code and click "Select Tab 2 and Fill..." I get an error; "TypeError: Error #1009: Cannot access a property or method of a null object reference." I'm guessing this is because "Tab 2" is/was not rendered yet. Now if I run the code, select "Tab 2" then select "Tab 1" and click "Select Tab 2 and Fill..." it works the way I would like. Dose any one know a way around this problem. ----Full Flex 4/Flash Builder Code just copy paste---- <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <s:WindowedApplication xmlns:fx="http://ns.adobe.com/mxml/2009" xmlns:s="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/spark" xmlns:mx="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/halo" creationComplete=" "> <fx:Script> <![CDATA[ public function showtab2():void { mytextbox.text="I made it!"; tn.selectedIndex=1; } ]]> </fx:Script> <fx:Declarations> <!-- Place non-visual elements (e.g., services, value objects) here --> </fx:Declarations> <mx:Panel title="TabNavigator Container Example" height="90%" width="90%" paddingTop="10" paddingLeft="10" paddingRight="10" paddingBottom="10"> <mx:Label width="100%" color="blue" text="Select the tabs to change the panel."/> <mx:TabNavigator id="tn" width="100%" height="100%"> <!-- Define each panel using a VBox container. --> <mx:VBox label="Panel 1"> <mx:Label text="TabNavigator container panel 1"/> <mx:Button label="Select Tab 2 and Fill with Text" click="showtab2()"/> </mx:VBox> <mx:VBox label="Panel 2"> <mx:Label text="TabNavigator container panel 2"/> <s:TextInput id="mytextbox" /> </mx:VBox> </mx:TabNavigator> <mx:HBox> </mx:HBox> </mx:Panel> </s:WindowedApplication>

    Read the article

  • Writing a managed wrapper for unmanaged (C++) code - custom types/structs

    - by Bobby
    faacEncConfigurationPtr FAACAPI faacEncGetCurrentConfiguration( faacEncHandle hEncoder); I'm trying to come up with a simple wrapper for this C++ library; I've never done more than very simple p/invoke interop before - like one function call with primitive arguments. So, given the above C++ function, for example, what should I do to deal with the return type, and parameter? FAACAPI is defined as: #define FAACAPI __stdcall faacEncConfigurationPtr is defined: typedef struct faacEncConfiguration { int version; char *name; char *copyright; unsigned int mpegVersion; unsigned long bitRate; unsigned int inputFormat; int shortctl; psymodellist_t *psymodellist; int channel_map[64]; } faacEncConfiguration, *faacEncConfigurationPtr; AFAIK this means that the return type of the function is a reference to this struct? And faacEncHandle is: typedef struct { unsigned int numChannels; unsigned long sampleRate; ... SR_INFO *srInfo; double *sampleBuff[MAX_CHANNELS]; ... double *freqBuff[MAX_CHANNELS]; double *overlapBuff[MAX_CHANNELS]; double *msSpectrum[MAX_CHANNELS]; CoderInfo coderInfo[MAX_CHANNELS]; ChannelInfo channelInfo[MAX_CHANNELS]; PsyInfo psyInfo[MAX_CHANNELS]; GlobalPsyInfo gpsyInfo; faacEncConfiguration config; psymodel_t *psymodel; /* quantizer specific config */ AACQuantCfg aacquantCfg; /* FFT Tables */ FFT_Tables fft_tables; int bitDiff; } faacEncStruct, *faacEncHandle; So within that struct we see a lot of other types... hmm. Essentially, I'm trying to figure out how to deal with these types in my managed wrapper? Do I need to create versions of these types/structs, in C#? Something like this: [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Sequential)] struct faacEncConfiguration { uint useTns; ulong bitRate; ... } If so then can the runtime automatically "map" these objects onto eachother? And, would I have to create these "mapped" types for all the types in these return types/parameter type hierarchies, all the way down until I get to all primitives? I know this is a broad topic, any advice on getting up-to-speed quickly on what I need to learn to make this happen would be very much appreciated! Thanks!

    Read the article

  • initializing a vector of custom class in c++

    - by Flamewires
    Hey basically Im trying to store a "solution" and create a vector of these. The problem I'm having is with initialization. Heres my class for reference class Solution { private: // boost::thread m_Thread; int itt_found; int dim; pfn_fitness f; double value; std::vector<double> x; public: Solution(size_t size, int funcNo) : itt_found(0), x(size, 0.0), value(0.0), dim(30), f(Eval_Functions[funcNo]) { for (int i = 1; i < (int) size; i++) { x[i] = ((double)rand()/((double)RAND_MAX))*maxs[funcNo]; } } Solution() : itt_found(0), x(31, 0.0), value(0.0), dim(30), f(Eval_Functions[1]) { for (int i = 1; i < 31; i++) { x[i] = ((double)rand()/((double)RAND_MAX))*maxs[1]; } } Solution operator= (Solution S) { x = S.GetX(); itt_found = S.GetIttFound(); dim = S.GetDim(); f = S.GetFunc(); value = S.GetValue(); return *this; } void start() { value = f (dim, x); } /* plus additional getter/setter methods*/ } Solution S(30, 1) or Solution(2, 5) work and initalizes everything, but I need X of these solution objects. std::vector<Solution> Parents(X) will create X solutions with the default constructor and i want to construct using the (int, int) constructor. Is there any easy(one liner?) way to do this? Or would i have to do something like: size_t numparents = 10; vector<Solution> Parents; Parents.reserve(numparents); for (int i = 0; i<(int)numparents; i++) { Solution S(31, 0); Parents.push_back(S); }

    Read the article

  • Emacs, C++ code completion for vectors

    - by Caglar Toklu
    Hi, I am new to Emacs, and I have the following code as a sample. I have installed GNU Emacs 23.1.1 (i386-mingw-nt6.1.7600), installed cedet-1.0pre7.tar.gz. , installed ELPA, and company. You can find my simple Emacs configuration at the bottom. The problem is, when I type q[0] in main() and press . (dot), I see the 37 members of the vector, not Person although first_name and last_name are expected. The completion works as expected in the function greet() but it has nothing to do with vector. My question is, how can I accomplish code completion for vector elements too? #include <iostream> #include <vector> using namespace std; class Person { public: string first_name; string last_name; }; void greet(Person a_person) { // a_person.first_name is completed as expected! cout << a_person.first_name << "|"; cout << a_person.last_name << endl; }; int main() { vector<Person> q(2); Person guy1; guy1.first_name = "foo"; guy1.last_name = "bar"; Person guy2; guy2.first_name = "stack"; guy2.last_name = "overflow"; q[0] = guy1; q[1] = guy2; greet(guy1); greet(guy2); // cout q[0]. I want to see first_name or last_name here! } My Emacs configuration: ;;; This was installed by package-install.el. ;;; This provides support for the package system and ;;; interfacing with ELPA, the package archive. ;;; Move this code earlier if you want to reference ;;; packages in your .emacs. (when (load (expand-file-name "~/.emacs.d/elpa/package.el")) (package-initialize)) (load-file "~/.emacs.d/cedet/common/cedet.el") (semantic-load-enable-excessive-code-helpers) (require 'semantic-ia) (global-srecode-minor-mode 1) (semantic-add-system-include "/gcc/include/c++/4.4.2" 'c++-mode) (semantic-add-system-include "/gcc/i386-pc-mingw32/include" 'c++-mode) (semantic-add-system-include "/gcc/include" 'c++-mode) (defun my-semantic-hook () (imenu-add-to-menubar "TAGS")) (add-hook 'semantic-init-hooks 'my-semantic-hook)

    Read the article

  • Windows phone app xaml error

    - by thewarri0r9
    i am developing an app for windows phone 8 and i stuck on this code which visual studio showing invalid xaml. But Code compiles and works well. Invalid xaml Code is : <DataTemplate x:Key="AddrBookItemTemplate"> <StackPanel Margin="0,0,0,2" Orientation="Horizontal"> <StackPanel Width="80" Orientation="Horizontal" Height="80"> <Ellipse Margin="0" Height="70" Width="70" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Stroke="{x:Null}"> <Ellipse.Fill> <ImageBrush Stretch="Fill" ImageSource="{Binding imageBytes, Converter={StaticResource BytesToImageConverter}}"/> </Ellipse.Fill> </Ellipse> </StackPanel> <StackPanel Height="80" Margin="0" Width="380" HorizontalAlignment="Left"> <TextBlock FontWeight="Bold" Text="{Binding FirstName}" FontFamily="Segoe WP Semibold" FontSize="30" VerticalAlignment="Top" Margin="5,0,0,0" HorizontalAlignment="Left" /> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Phone}" FontFamily="Segoe WP" FontSize="24" Foreground="{StaticResource PhoneTextBoxReadOnlyBrush}" Margin="5,0,0,-12" Width="320" HorizontalAlignment="Left" VerticalAlignment="Top"/> </StackPanel> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> I am serializing image by converting it to byte, it works fine but if image is null it gives an error. code behind: if (e.Results != null) { List<AddressBook> source = new List<AddressBook>(); foreach (var result in e.Results) { if (result.PhoneNumbers.FirstOrDefault() != null && result.GetPicture()!=null) { BitmapImage bmp = new BitmapImage(); BitmapImage nullbmp = new BitmapImage(); if (result.GetPicture() == null) { bmp.UriSource = new Uri(@"/Images/ci2.png", UriKind.RelativeOrAbsolute); } else { bmp.SetSource(result.GetPicture()); } listobj.Add(new AddressBook() { FirstName = result.DisplayName != null ? result.DisplayName : "", imageBytes = AddressBook.imageConvert(bmp), EmailAddress = "", LastName = "", Phone = result.PhoneNumbers.FirstOrDefault() != null ? result.PhoneNumbers.FirstOrDefault().PhoneNumber : "", }); } } Above code show an error "object reference not set to instance of an object". I want to show the default image (or color) in ellipse when image is null.What should I do?

    Read the article

  • Spring's JdbcDaoSupport (using MySQL Connector/J) fails after executing sql that adds FK

    - by John
    I am using Spring's JdbcDaoSupport class with a DriverManagerDataSource using the MySQL Connector/J 5.0 driver (driverClassName=com.mysql.jdbc.driver). allowMultiQueries is set to true in the url. My application is an in-house tool we recently developed that executes sql scripts in a directory one-by-one (allows us to re-create our schema and reference table data for a given date, etc, but I digress). The sql scripts sometime contain multiple statements (hence allowMultiQueries), so one script can create a table, add indexes for that table, etc. The problem happens when including a statement to add a foreign key constraint in one of these files. If I have a file that looks like... --(column/constraint names are examples) CREATE TABLE myTable ( fk1 BIGINT(19) NOT NULL, fk2 BIGINT(19) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (fk1, fk2) ); ALTER TABLE myTable ADD CONSTRAINT myTable_fk1 FOREIGN KEY (fk1) REFERENCES myOtherTable (id) ; ALTER TABLE myTable ADD CONSTRAINT myTable_fk2 FOREIGN KEY (fk2) REFERENCES myOtherOtherTable (id) ; then JdbcTemplate.execute throws an UncategorizedSqlException with the following error message and stack trace: Exception in thread "main" org.springframework.jdbc.UncategorizedSQLException: StatementCallback; uncategorized SQLException for SQL [ THE SQL YOU SEE ABOVE LISTED HERE ]; SQL state [HY000]; error code [1005]; Can't create table 'myDatabase.myTable' (errno: 150); nested exception is java.sql.SQLException: Can't create table 'myDatabase.myTable' (errno: 150) at org.springframework.jdbc.support.AbstractFallbackSQLExceptionTranslator.translate(AbstractFallbackSQLExceptionTranslator.java:83) at org.springframework.jdbc.support.AbstractFallbackSQLExceptionTranslator.translate(AbstractFallbackSQLExceptionTranslator.java:80) at org.springframework.jdbc.support.AbstractFallbackSQLExceptionTranslator.translate(AbstractFallbackSQLExceptionTranslator.java:80) and the table and foreign keys are not inserted. Also, especially weird: if I take the foreign key statements out of the script I showed above and then place them in their own script that executes after (so I now have 1 script with just the create table statement, and 1 script with the add foreign key statements that executes after that) then what happens is: tool executes create table script, works fine, table is created tool executes add fk script, throws the same exception as seen above (except errno=121 this time), but the FKs actually get added (!!!) In other words, when the create table/FK statements are in the same script then the exception is thrown and nothing is created, but when they are different scripts a nearly identical exception is thrown but both things get created. Any help on this would be greatly appreciated. Please let me know if you'd like me to clarify anything more.

    Read the article

  • How do I create a thread-safe write-once read-many value in Java?

    - by Software Monkey
    This is a problem I encounter frequently in working with more complex systems and which I have never figured out a good way to solve. It usually involves variations on the theme of a shared object whose construction and initialization are necessarily two distinct steps. This is generally because of architectural requirements, similar to applets, so answers that suggest I consolidate construction and initialization are not useful. By way of example, let's say I have a class that is structured to fit into an application framework like so: public class MyClass { private /*ideally-final*/ SomeObject someObject; MyClass() { someObject=null; } public void startup() { someObject=new SomeObject(...arguments from environment which are not available until startup is called...); } public void shutdown() { someObject=null; // this is not necessary, I am just expressing the intended scope of someObject explicitly } } I can't make someObject final since it can't be set until startup() is invoked. But I would really like it to reflect it's write-once semantics and be able to directly access it from multiple threads, preferably avoiding synchronization. The idea being to express and enforce a degree of finalness, I conjecture that I could create a generic container, like so: public class WoRmObject<T> { private T object; WoRmObject() { object=null; } public WoRmObject set(T val) { object=val; return this; } public T get() { return object; } } and then in MyClass, above, do: private final WoRmObject<SomeObject> someObject; MyClass() { someObject=new WoRmObject<SomeObject>(); } public void startup() { someObject.set(SomeObject(...arguments from environment which are not available until startup is called...)); } Which raises some questions for me: Is there a better way, or existing Java object (would have to be available in Java 4)? Is this thread-safe provided that no other thread accesses someObject.get() until after it's set() has been called. The other threads will only invoke methods on MyClass between startup() and shutdown() - the framework guarantees this. Given the completely unsynchronized WoRmObject container, it is ever possible under either JMM to see a value of object which is neither null nor a reference to a SomeObject? In other words, does has the JMM always guaranteed that no thread can observe the memory of an object to be whatever values happened to be on the heap when the object was allocated.

    Read the article

  • How do I check for the existence of an external file with XSL?

    - by LOlliffe
    I've found a lot of examples that reference Java and C for this, but how do I, or can I, check for the existence of an external file with XSL. First, I realize that this is only a snippet, but it's part of a huge stylesheet, so I'm hoping it's enough to show my issue. <!-- Use this template for Received SMSs --> <xsl:template name="ReceivedSMS"> <!-- Set/Declare "SMSname" variable (local, evaluates per instance) --> <xsl:variable name="SMSname"> <xsl:value-of select=" following-sibling::Name"/> </xsl:variable> <fo:table font-family="Arial Unicode MS" font-size="8pt" text-align="start"> <fo:table-column column-width=".75in"/> <fo:table-column column-width="6.75in"/> <fo:table-body> <fo:table-row> <!-- Cell contains "speakers" icon --> <fo:table-cell display-align="after"> <fo:block text-align="start"> <fo:external-graphic src="../images/{$SMSname}.jpg" content-height="0.6in"/> What I'd like to do, is put in an "if" statement, surronding the {$SMSname}.jpg line. That is: <fo:block text-align="start"> <xsl:if test="exists( the external file {$SMSname}.jpg)"> <fo:external-graphic src="../images/{$SMSname}.jpg" content-height="0.6in"/> </xsl:if> <xsl:if test="not(exists( the external file {$SMSname}.jpg))"> <fo:external-graphic src="../images/unknown.jpg" content-height="0.6in"/> </xsl:if> </fo:block> Because of "grouping", etc., I'm using XSLT 2.0. I hope that this is something that can be done. I hope even more that it's something simple. As always, thanks in advance for any help. LO

    Read the article

  • LINQ Except operator and object equality

    - by Abhijeet Patel
    Here is an interesting issue I noticed when using the Except Operator: I have list of users from which I want to exclude some users: The list of users is coming from an XML file: The code goes like this: interface IUser { int ID { get; set; } string Name { get; set; } } class User: IUser { #region IUser Members public int ID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } #endregion public override string ToString() { return ID + ":" +Name; } public static IEnumerable<IUser> GetMatchingUsers(IEnumerable<IUser> users) { IEnumerable<IUser> localList = new List<User> { new User{ ID=4, Name="James"}, new User{ ID=5, Name="Tom"} }.OfType<IUser>(); var matches = from u in users join lu in localList on u.ID equals lu.ID select u; return matches; } } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { XDocument doc = XDocument.Load("Users.xml"); IEnumerable<IUser> users = doc.Element("Users").Elements("User").Select (u => new User { ID = (int)u.Attribute("id"), Name = (string)u.Attribute("name") } ).OfType<IUser>(); //still a query, objects have not been materialized var matches = User.GetMatchingUsers(users); var excludes = users.Except(matches); // excludes should contain 6 users but here it contains 8 users } } When I call User.GetMatchingUsers(users) I get 2 matches as expected. The issue is that when I call users.Except(matches) The matching users are not being excluded at all! I am expecting 6 users ut "excludes" contains all 8 users instead. Since all I'm doing in GetMatchingUsers(IEnumerable users) is taking the IEnumerable and just returning the IUsers whose ID's match( 2 IUsers in this case), my understanding is that by default "Except" will use reference equality for comparing the objects to be excluded. Is this not how "Except" behaves? What is even more interesting is that if I materialize the objects using .ToList() and then get the matching users, and call "Except", everything works as expected! Like so: IEnumerable users = doc.Element("Users").Elements("User").Select (u = new User { ID = (int)u.Attribute("id"), Name = (string)u.Attribute("name") } ).OfType().ToList(); //explicity materializing all objects by calling ToList() var matches = User.GetMatchingUsers(users); var excludes = users.Except(matches); // excludes now contains 6 users as expected I don't see why I should need to materialize objects for calling "Except" given that its defined on IEnumerable? Any suggesstions / insights would be much appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Good design of mapping Java Domain objects to Tables (using Hibernate)

    - by M. McKenzie
    Hey guys, I have a question that is more in the realm of design, than implementation. I'm also happy for anyone to point out resources for the answer and I'll gladly, research for myself. Highly simplified Java and SQL: Say I have a business domain POJO called 'Picture' with three attributes. class Picture int idPicture String fileName long size Say I have another business domain POJO called "Item" with 3 attributes Class Item int idItem String itemName ArrayList itemPictures These would be a normal simple relationship. You could say that 'Picture' object, will never exist outside an 'Item' object. Assume a picture belongs only to a specific item, but that an item can have multiple pictures Now - using good database design (3rd Normal Form), we know that we should put items and pictures in their own tables. Here is what I assume would be correct. table Item int idItem (primary key) String itemName table Picture int idPicture (primary key) varchar(45) fileName long size int idItem (foreign key) Here is my question: If you are making Hibernate mapping files for these objects. In the data design, your Picture table needs a column to refer to the Item, so that a foreign key relation can be maintained. However,in your business domain objects - your Picture does not hold a reference/attribute to the idItem - and does not need to know it. A java Picture instance is always instantiated inside an Item instance. If you want to know the Item that the Picture belongs to you are already in the correct scope. Call myItem.getIdItem() and myItem.getItemPictures(),and you have the two pieces of information you need. I know that Hibernate tools have a generator that can auto make your POJO's from looking at your database. My problem stems from the fact that I planned out the data design for this experiment/project first. Then when I went to make the domain java objects, I realized that good design dictated that the objects hold other objects in a nested way. This is obviously different from the way that a database schema is - where all objects(tables) are flat and hold no other complex types within them. What is a good way to reconcile this? Would you: (A) Make the hibernate mapping files so that Picture.hbm.xml has a mapping to the POJO parent's idItem Field (if it's even possible) (B) Add an int attribute in the Picture class to refer to the idItem and set it at instantiation, thus simplifying the hbm.xml mapping file by having all table fields as local attributes in the class (C) Fix the database design because it is wrong, dork. I'd truly appreciate any feedback

    Read the article

  • Java - is this an idiom or pattern, behavior classes with no state

    - by Berlin Brown
    I am trying to incorporate more functional programming idioms into my java development. One pattern that I like the most and avoids side effects is building classes that have behavior but they don't necessarily have any state. The behavior is locked into the methods but they only act on the parameters passed in. The code below is code I am trying to avoid: public class BadObject { private Map<String, String> data = new HashMap<String, String>(); public BadObject() { data.put("data", "data"); } /** * Act on the data class. But this is bad because we can't * rely on the integrity of the object's state. */ public void execute() { data.get("data").toString(); } } The code below is nothing special but I am acting on the parameters and state is contained within that class. We still may run into issues with this class but that is an issue with the method and the state of the data, we can address issues in the routine as opposed to not trusting the entire object. Is this some form of idiom? Is this similar to any pattern that you use? public class SemiStatefulOOP { /** * Private class implies that I can access the members of the <code>Data</code> class * within the <code>SemiStatefulOOP</code> class and I can also access * the getData method from some other class. * * @see Test1 * */ class Data { protected int counter = 0; public int getData() { return counter; } public String toString() { return Integer.toString(counter); } } /** * Act on the data class. */ public void execute(final Data data) { data.counter++; } /** * Act on the data class. */ public void updateStateWithCallToService(final Data data) { data.counter++; } /** * Similar to CLOS (Common Lisp Object System) make instance. */ public Data makeInstance() { return new Data(); } } // End of Class // Issues with the code above: I wanted to declare the Data class private, but then I can't really reference it outside of the class: I can't override the SemiStateful class and access the private members. Usage: final SemiStatefulOOP someObject = new SemiStatefulOOP(); final SemiStatefulOOP.Data data = someObject.makeInstance(); someObject.execute(data); someObject.updateStateWithCallToService(data);

    Read the article

  • How to implement a caching model without violating MVC pattern?

    - by RPM1984
    Hi Guys, I have an ASP.NET MVC 3 (Razor) Web Application, with a particular page which is highly database intensive, and user experience is of the upmost priority. Thus, i am introducing caching on this particular page. I'm trying to figure out a way to implement this caching pattern whilst keeping my controller thin, like it currently is without caching: public PartialViewResult GetLocationStuff(SearchPreferences searchPreferences) { var results = _locationService.FindStuffByCriteria(searchPreferences); return PartialView("SearchResults", results); } As you can see, the controller is very thin, as it should be. It doesn't care about how/where it is getting it's info from - that is the job of the service. A couple of notes on the flow of control: Controllers get DI'ed a particular Service, depending on it's area. In this example, this controller get's a LocationService Services call through to an IQueryable<T> Repository and materialize results into T or ICollection<T>. How i want to implement caching: I can't use Output Caching - for a few reasons. First of all, this action method is invoked from the client-side (jQuery/AJAX), via [HttpPost], which according to HTTP standards should not be cached as a request. Secondly, i don't want to cache purely based on the HTTP request arguments - the cache logic is a lot more complicated than that - there is actually two-level caching going on. As i hint to above, i need to use regular data-caching, e.g Cache["somekey"] = someObj;. I don't want to implement a generic caching mechanism where all calls via the service go through the cache first - i only want caching on this particular action method. First thought's would tell me to create another service (which inherits LocationService), and provide the caching workflow there (check cache first, if not there call db, add to cache, return result). That has two problems: The services are basic Class Libraries - no references to anything extra. I would need to add a reference to System.Web here. I would have to access the HTTP Context outside of the web application, which is considered bad practice, not only for testability, but in general - right? I also thought about using the Models folder in the Web Application (which i currently use only for ViewModels), but having a cache service in a models folder just doesn't sound right. So - any ideas? Is there a MVC-specific thing (like Action Filter's, for example) i can use here? General advice/tips would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • SQL Native Client 10 Performance miserable (due to server-side cursors)

    - by namezero
    we have an application that uses ODBC via CDatabase/CRecordset in MFC (VS2010). We have two backends implemented. MSSQL and MySQL. Now, when we use MSSQL (with the Native Client 10.0), retrieving records with SELECT is dramatically slow via slow links (VPN, for example). The MySQL ODBC driver does not exhibit this nasty behavior. For example: CRecordset r(&m_db); r.Open(CRecordset::snapshot, L"SELECT a.something, b.sthelse FROM TableA AS a LEFT JOIN TableB AS b ON a.ID=b.Ref"); r.MoveFirst(); while(!r.IsEOF()) { // Retrieve CString strData; crs.GetFieldValue(L"a.something", strData); crs.MoveNext(); } Now, with the MySQL driver, everything runs as it should. The query is returned, and everything is lightning fast. However, with the MSSQL Native Client, things slow down, because on every MoveNext(), the driver communicates with the server. I think it is due to server-side cursors, but I didn't find a way to disable them. I have tried using: ::SQLSetConnectAttr(m_db.m_hdbc, SQL_ATTR_ODBC_CURSORS, SQL_CUR_USE_ODBC, SQL_IS_INTEGER); But this didn't help either. There are still long-running exec's to sp_cursorfetch() et al in SQL Profiler. I have also tried a small reference project with SQLAPI and bulk fetch, but that hangs in FetchNext() for a long time, too (even if there is only one record in the resultset). This however only happens on queries with LEFT JOINS, table-valued functions, etc. Note that the query doesn't take that long - executing the same SQL via SQL Studio over the same connection returns in a reasonable time. Question1: Is is possible to somehow get the native client to "cache" all results locally use local cursors in a similar fashion as the MySQL driver seems to do it? Maybe this is the wrong approach altogether, but I'm not sure how else to do this. All we want is to retrieve all data at once from a SELECT, then never talk the server again until the next query. We don't care about recordset updates, deletes, etc or any of that nonsense. We only want to retrieve data. We take that recordset, get all the data, and delete it. Question2: Is there a more efficient way to just retrieve data in MFC with ODBC?

    Read the article

  • using a Singleton to pass credentials in a multi-tenant application a code smell?

    - by Hans Gruber
    Currently working on a multi-tenant application that employs Shared DB/Shared Schema approach. IOW, we enforce tenant data segregation by defining a TenantID column on all tables. By convention, all SQL reads/writes must include a Where TenantID = '?' clause. Not an ideal solution, but hindsight is 20/20. Anyway, since virtually every page/workflow in our app must display tenant specific data, I made the (poor) decision at the project's outset to employ a Singleton to encapsulate the current user credentials (i.e. TenantID and UserID). My thinking at the time was that I didn't want to add a TenantID parameter to each and every method signature in my Data layer. Here's what the basic pseudo-code looks like: public class UserIdentity { public UserIdentity(int tenantID, int userID) { TenantID = tenantID; UserID = userID; } public int TenantID { get; private set; } public int UserID { get; private set; } } public class AuthenticationModule : IHttpModule { public void Init(HttpApplication context) { context.AuthenticateRequest += new EventHandler(context_AuthenticateRequest); } private void context_AuthenticateRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { var userIdentity = _authenticationService.AuthenticateUser(sender); if (userIdentity == null) { //authentication failed, so redirect to login page, etc } else { //put the userIdentity into the HttpContext object so that //its only valid for the lifetime of a single request HttpContext.Current.Items["UserIdentity"] = userIdentity; } } } public static class CurrentUser { public static UserIdentity Instance { get { return HttpContext.Current.Items["UserIdentity"]; } } } public class WidgetRepository: IWidgetRepository{ public IEnumerable<Widget> ListWidgets(){ var tenantId = CurrentUser.Instance.TenantID; //call sproc with tenantId parameter } } As you can see, there are several code smells here. This is a singleton, so it's already not unit test friendly. On top of that you have a very tight-coupling between CurrentUser and the HttpContext object. By extension, this also means that I have a reference to System.Web in my Data layer (shudder). I want to pay down some technical debt this sprint by getting rid of this singleton for the reasons mentioned above. I have a few thoughts on what an better implementation might be, but if anyone has any guidance or lessons learned they could share, I would be much obliged.

    Read the article

  • Programmatically Binding to a Property

    - by M312V
    I know it's a generic title, but my question is specific. I think it will boil down to a question of practice. So, I have the following code: public class Component : UIElement { public Component() { this.InputBindings.Add(new MouseBinding(SomeCommandProperty, new MouseGesture(MouseAction.LeftClick))); } } I could easily aggregate the ViewModel that owns SomeCommandProperty into the Component class, but I'm currently waiving that option assuming there is another way. Component is a child of ComponentCollection which is child of a Grid which DataContext is the ViewModel. ComponentCollection as the name suggests contains a collection of Components. <Grid Name="myGrid"> <someNamespace:ComponentCollection x:Name="componentCollection"/> </Grid> It's the same scenario as the XAML below, but with TextBlock. I guess I'm trying to replicate what's being done in the XAML below programatically. Again, Component's top most ancestor's DataContext is set to ViewModel. <Grid Name="myGrid"> <TextBlock Text="SomeText"> <TextBlock.InputBindings> <MouseBinding Command="{Binding SomeCommandProperty}" MouseAction="LeftClick" /> </TextBlock.InputBindings> </TextBlock> </Grid> Update 1 Sorry, I'm unable to comment because I lack the reputation points. Basically, I have a custom control which inherit from a Panel which children are a collection of Component. It's not a hack, like I've mentioned, I could directly have access to SomeCommandProperty If I aggregate the ViewModel into Component. Doing so, however, feels icky. That is, having direct access to ViewModel from a Model. I guess the question I'm asking is. Given the situation that Component's parent UIElement's DataContext is set to ViewModel, is it possible to access SomeCommandProperty without Component owning a reference to the ViewModel that owns SomeCommandProperty? Programatically, that is. Using ItemsControl doesn't change the fact that I still need to bind SomeCommandProperty to each Items.

    Read the article

  • Selecting and Populating a unFocused tab.

    - by Deyon
    I'm having a problem displaying data from a function to text box within a tab. If you run the code and click "Select Tab 2 and Fill..." I get an error; "TypeError: Error #1009: Cannot access a property or method of a null object reference." I'm guessing this is because "Tab 2" is/was not rendered yet. Now if I run the code, select "Tab 2" then select "Tab 1" and click "Select Tab 2 and Fill..." it works the way I would like. Dose any one know a way around this problem. ----Full Flex 4/Flash Builder Code just copy paste---- <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <s:WindowedApplication xmlns:fx="http://ns.adobe.com/mxml/2009" xmlns:s="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/spark" xmlns:mx="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/halo" creationComplete=" "> <fx:Script> <![CDATA[ public function showtab2():void { mytextbox.text="I made it!"; tn.selectedIndex=1; } ]]> </fx:Script> <fx:Declarations> <!-- Place non-visual elements (e.g., services, value objects) here --> </fx:Declarations> <mx:Panel title="TabNavigator Container Example" height="90%" width="90%" paddingTop="10" paddingLeft="10" paddingRight="10" paddingBottom="10"> <mx:Label width="100%" color="blue" text="Select the tabs to change the panel."/> <mx:TabNavigator id="tn" width="100%" height="100%"> <!-- Define each panel using a VBox container. --> <mx:VBox label="Panel 1"> <mx:Label text="TabNavigator container panel 1"/> <mx:Button label="Select Tab 2 and Fill with Text" click="showtab2()"/> </mx:VBox> <mx:VBox label="Panel 2"> <mx:Label text="TabNavigator container panel 2"/> <s:TextInput id="mytextbox" /> </mx:VBox> </mx:TabNavigator> <mx:HBox> </mx:HBox> </mx:Panel> </s:WindowedApplication>

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 419 420 421 422 423 424 425 426 427 428 429 430  | Next Page >