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  • Using "as bool?" instead of "object something = ViewState["hi"]"

    - by Programmin Tool
    So I'm going through old code (2.0) and I came across this: object isReviewingValue = ViewState["IsReviewing"]; if (isReviewingValue is bool) { return (bool)isReviewingValue; } My first thought was to us the "as" keyword to avoid the unneeded (bool)isReviewingValue; But "as" only works with non value types. No problem, I just went ahead and did this: bool? isReviewingValue= ViewState["IsReviewing"] as bool?; if (isReviewingValue.HasValue) { return isReviewingValue.Value; } Question is: Besides looking a bit more readable, is this in fact better? EDIT: So this is getting more interesting. I decided to test it using a simple stopwatch and turns out that the second is much faster... Which after reading some of the responses here I didn't expect at all. I was thinking for sure my way was much slower. Tell me what I did wrong: public Stopwatch AsRun() { Stopwatch watch = new Stopwatch(); watch.Start(); for (Int32 loopCounter = 0; loopCounter < 10000; loopCounter++) { Boolean? test = true as Boolean?; if (test.HasValue) { Boolean something = test.Value; } } watch.Stop(); return watch; } public Stopwatch ObjectIsRun() { Stopwatch watch = new Stopwatch(); watch.Start(); for (Int32 loopCounter = 0; loopCounter < 10000; loopCounter++) { Object test = true; if (test is Boolean) { Boolean something = (Boolean)test; } } watch.Stop(); return watch; } Every time I run these methods against each other, the AsRun is twice as fast.

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  • LNK1104: cannot open file 'kernel32.lib'

    - by Geoff
    I Had VS2010 installed but found that intellisense wasn't working. I looked on the web and found that I wasn't the only one who had that issue. So, I installed VS2008 and everything was fine. Then I decided to clean up my computer and removed VS2010 and immediately started getting this error on my programs (new and old). Even a simple test program that has one cout command. I tried repairing VS2008 and that didn't work so I tried to uninstall and then reinstall and still I am getting the same problem. I have looked online for this issue and though I have found a lot of other people are experiencing this issue it is not the same. They are having problems with other external references, not the ones that should automatically be included like kernel32 and lib32 etc. I also tried the solution that worked for some people with their other references and I included the path (with and without quotes) to my kernel32 directory but still I get the same problem, or in some instances I will get LNK1104: cannot open file 'C:\WINDOWS\system32.obj' with and without quotes in the linker config. Can anyone please help?

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  • Generate Spring bean definition from a Java object

    - by joeslice
    Let's suggest that I have a bean defined in Spring: <bean id="neatBean" class="com..." abstract="true">...</bean> Then we have many clients, each of which have slightly different configuration for their 'neatBean'. The old way we would do it was to have a new file for each client (e.g., clientX_NeatFeature.xml) that contained a bunch of beans for this client (these are hand-edited and part of the code base): <bean id="clientXNeatBean" parent="neatBean"> <property id="whatever" value="something"/> </bean> Now, I want to have a UI where we can edit and redefine a client's neatBean on the fly. My question is: given a neatBean, and a UI that can 'override' properties of this bean, what would be a straightforward way to serialize this to an XML file as we do [manually] today? For example, if the user set property whatever to be "17" for client Y, I'd want to generate: <bean id="clientYNeatBean" parent="neatBean"> <property id="whatever" value="17"/> </bean> Note that moving this configuration to a different format (e.g., database, other-schema'd-xml) is an option, but not really an answer to the question at hand.

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  • Can I get away with this or is it just too crude and unpractical ?

    - by The_AlienCoder
    I spent the whole of last night searching for a free AspNet web chat control that I could simply drag into my website. Well the search was in vain as I could not find a control that matched my needs i.e List of users, 1 to 1 chat, Ability to kick out users.. In the end I decided to create my own control from scractch. Although it works well on my machine Im concerned that It maybe a little crude and unpractical on a shared hosting enviroment. Basically this is what I did : Created an sql database that stores the chat messages. Wrote the stored procedures and and included a statement that clears old messages Then the 'crude' part : Dragged an update panel and timer control on my page Dragged a Repeater databound to the chat messages table inside the update panel Dragged another update panel and inside it put a textbox and a button Configured the timer control to tick every 5 seconds. ..and then I made it all work like this In the timer tick event I 'refreshed' the messages display by invoking Databind() on my repeater i.e protected void Timer1_Tick(object sender, EventArgs e) { MyRepeater.DataBind(); } Then in my send button click event protected void btnSend_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { MyDataLayer.InsertMessage(Message, Sender, CurrTime); } Well It works well on my machine and Ive got the other functionalities(users list, kick out user..) to work by simply creating more tables. But like I said it seems a little crude to me. so I need a proffesional opinion. Should I run with this or try another Approach ?

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  • UIWebView loading/randering error after resize

    - by user1343869
    I have a screen with 2 UIWebView. The user can drag the views left and right to make the right and left view bigger (respectively) and the other one smaller (like UISplitView but customized and self made). I'm loading .html pages from strings and local .css files. After resizing the UIWebView If I load a new page there will be a black or white stripe on the right side of the UIWebView. This stripe is part of the web view (not a space between the views), and if I scroll the webView up and then down, the stripe will vanish and the page will be presented correctly. This issue occurs only in iOS 6 and only on the device (on the simulator it doesn't occur). Some notes: - The .css file contains elements with fixed position. Changing to absolute position didn't solve the problem but changed it: the black stripre occured during the drag. - As slower the drag is, the stripe will be bigger. - After resize the page is presented correctly, only when I load a new page the stripe is shown. - The time between resizing the web view and loading a page doesn't matter, it can be straight away or after couple of minutes. Now, as a workaround I create a new UIWebView and copy the old properties to the new. But than I need to reload the presented page which make a white blink... Any idea why does it happens, and how to fix it?

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  • And now for a complete change of direction from C++ function pointers

    - by David
    I am building a part of a simulator. We are building off of a legacy simulator, but going in different direction, incorporating live bits along side of the simulated bits. The piece I am working on has to, effectively route commands from the central controller to the various bits. In the legacy code, there is a const array populated with an enumerated type. A command comes in, it is looked up in the table, then shipped off to a switch statement keyed by the enumerated type. The type enumeration has a choice VALID_BUT_NOT_SIMULATED, which is effectively a no-op from the point of the sim. I need to turn those no-ops into commands to actual other things [new simulated bits| live bits]. The new stuff and the live stuff have different interfaces than the old stuff [which makes me laugh about the shill job that it took to make it all happen, but that is a topic for a different discussion]. I like the array because it is a very apt description of the live thing this chunk is simulating [latching circuits by row and column]. I thought that I would try to replace the enumerated types in the array with pointers to functions and call them directly. This would be in lieu of the lookup+switch.

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  • Need help with transferring data between MySQL db's using PHP

    - by JM4
    In one of the sites I manage, the client has decided to take on ACH/Bank Account administration where it was previously outsourced. As a result, the information submitted in our online form which used to simply store in a single database for processing now must sit in 'limbo' until the funds used for payment have been verified. My original plan is as follows: At the end of an enrollment, all form data is collected and stored in a single MySQL database. Our internal administrator will receive an email notification reminding him enrollments have taken place. He will process the ACH information collected and wait the 3-4 business days needed for payment to clear. Once the payment information has been returned as Good (haven't considered what I will do with the 'bad' yet), the administrator can log into a secure portal which allows him to click a button to 'process' the full information once compared and verified. the process is simplified as: Enrollment complete: data stored in DB 'A' Funds verified and link clicked: data from 'A' is copied to DB 'B' and 'A' is deleted. I have run similar processes with CSV output before and simply used //transfers old data to archive $transfer = mysql_query('INSERT INTO '.$archive.' SELECT * FROM '.$table) or die(mysql_error()); //empties existing table $query = mysql_query('TRUNCATE TABLE '.$table) or die(mysql_error()); but in those cases, ALL data returned was copied and deleted. I only want to copy and delete a single record. Any idea how to accomplish this?

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  • How to do a partial database backup and restore?

    - by Workshop Alex
    Simple problem. I'm working on a single SQL Server database which is shared between several offices. Each office has their own schema inside this database, thus dividing the database in logical pieces. (Plus one schema that is shared between multiple offices.) The database is stored on a dedicated server and we use a single database to keep the backup/restore procedure easier. The problem, however, is that the Accounting Office might be modifying a lot of data and then the Secretary Office makes a mistake which requires restoration of a backup. Unfortunately, restoring the backup means that Accounting will lose their recently added data. So, the alternative solution is by restoring the backup into a new database, remove the data from the old accounting schema and move the data for accounting only from the backup top the original database. This is the current solution and it's time-consuming and error-prone. So, is there a way to make backups of a single schema, possibly through code? And then to restore just that schema, probably through code too?

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  • Tools for debugging when debugger can't get you there?

    - by brian1001
    I have a fairly complex (approx 200,000 lines of C++ code) application that has decided to crash, although it crashes a little differently on a couple of different systems. The trick is that it doesn't crash or trap out in debugger. It only crashes when the application .EXE is run independently (either the debug EXE or the release EXE - both behave the same way). When it crashes in the debug EXE, and I get it to start debugging, the call stack is buried down into the windows/MFC part of things, and isn't reflecting any of my code. Perhaps I'm seeing a stack corruption of some sort, but I'm just not sure at the moment. My question is more general - it's about tools and techniques. I'm an old programmer (C and assembly language days), and a relative newcomer (couple/few years) to C++ and Visual Studio (2003 for this projecT). Are there tricks or techniques anyone's had success with in tracking down crashing issues when you cannot make the software crash in a debugger session? Stuff like permission issues, for example? The only thing I've thought of is to start plugging in debug/status messages to a logfile, but that's a long, hard way to go. Been there, done that. Any better suggestions? Am I missing some tools that would help? Is VS 2008 better for this kind of thing? Thanks for any guidance. Some very smart people here (you know who you are!). cheers.

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  • Holding variables in memory, C++

    - by b-gen-jack-o-neill
    Today something strange came to my mind. When I want to hold some string in C (C++) the old way, without using string header, I just create array and store that string into it. But, I read that any variable definition in C in local scope of function ends up in pushing these values onto the stack. So, the string is actually 2* bigger than needed. Because first, the push instructions are located in memory, but then when they are executed (pushed onto the stack) another "copy" of the string is created. First the push instructions, than the stack space is used for one string. So, why is it this way? Why doesn't compiler just add the string (or other variables) to the program instead of creating them once again when executed? Yes, I know you cannot just have some data inside program block, but it could just be attached to the end of the program, with some jump instruction before. And than, we would just point to these data? Because they are stored in RAM when the program is executed. Thanks.

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  • Why do you program? Why do you do what you do? [closed]

    - by Pirate for Profit
    To me, writing a new program is like a puzzle. Before you write any code for a large system, you have to carefully craft each piece in your mind and imagine how all the pieces will fit together. If you don't, your solution may end up being undefined. What I mean is, I often don't know what I'm doing so I'll come to this site and beg for a code snippet, and then somehow try to hack it into my projects. I started writing GW-Basic when I was around 8 years old. Then it progressed from there, went to california university and did some Python and C++, but really didn't learn anything(college = highsk00l++). I've mostly been self-taught, took awhile to break bad habits and I'd say only in recent years would I consider myself understanding of design patterns and all that stuff (no but honestly procedural dudes, I would not want to design and maintain a large system procedurally, yous crazy). And despite my username, money has NOT been a big motivator. I've gone from job to job, I can usually get the work done perfect very quickly, any delays on my part are understandable (well about as understandable as it gets in the industry). But I ain't gonna work for peanuts because I got mouths to feed. Why do you program? Why do you do what you do?

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  • Finding and displaying image src attributes

    - by MIF
    Hi I have a problem and an try to find in one week. I need help :( I have a script work with : <script type="text/javascript"> var list_images = 'image1.jpg|image2.jpg|image3.jpg|image4.jpg|image5.jpg|image6.jpg|image7.jpg'; var images = list_images.split('|'); </script> but know in blogger always give more tab in my script <script type="text/javascript"> var list_images = ' <div></div> <a href="anything"><img src="image1.jpg"><a/> <a href="anything"><img src="image2.jpg"><a/> <a href="anything"><img src="image3.jpg"><a/> <a href="anything"><img src="image4.jpg"><a/> <a href="anything"><img src="image5.jpg"><a/> <li><img src="image6.jpg"></li> <li><img src="image7.jpg"></li> <br/> '; var images = list_images.split('|'); </script> I want remove all tabs and convert them like var list_images = 'image1.jpg|image2.jpg|image3.jpg|image4.jpg|image5.jpg|image6.jpg|image7.jpg'; Finding and displaying image src attributes - Old question http://manhualayout.blogspot.com/2011/03/httpcomic.html - Work good http://manhualayout.blogspot.com/2011/02/blog-post.html - My problem make my crazy in one week :( I Can't just edit the variable of the block HTML ...I want find a way to search and replace to remove all and got the link with the | Please help me . Very very thanks .. Me so stupid :(

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  • Can Delphi 5 generate a .PDB file that VS can use?

    - by Vilx-
    We've got this large application written in Delphi 5, and development is ongoing to this day. There is research going on into migrating to newer versions, but so far there is no success, as some 3rd party components have not been updated in ages and do not work on later versions. In the meantime however people need to continue work on it. Now Delphi 5 IDE is no real treat. It's pretty bug-ridden and lacks a lot of features of contemporary IDEs which makes it difficult to use. Especially when it comes to debugging. So I was wondering - would it be possible to use Visual Studio in the process? As far as I know the .PDB file format is pretty old and is well documented. Could it be possible to make the Delphi compiler to somehow generate a .PDB files for it's compiled results? Then the program could be debugged with Visual Studio, possibly to a much greater extent than in the original IDE. Well, the absolute Holy Grail would be to move all development to VS, just keeping the compiler from Delphi, but I imagine that would be pretty impossible.

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  • Lazy load images in UITableViewCell

    - by lostInTransit
    Hi I have some 50 custom cells in my UITableView. I want to display an image and a label in the cells where I get the images from URLs. I want to do a lazy load of images so the UI does not freeze up while the images are being loaded. I tried getting the images in separate threads but I have to load each image every time a cell becomes visible again (Otherwise reuse of cells shows old images) Apps like Facebook load images only for cells currently visible and once the images are loaded, they are not loaded again. Can someone please tell me how to duplicate this behavior. Thanks. Edit Trying to cache images in an NSMutableDictionary object creates problems when the user scrolls fast. I am getting images only when scrolling completely stops and clearing out the cache on memory warning. But the app invariably gets a memory warning (due to size of images being cached) and clears the cache before reloading. If scrolling is very fast, it crashes. Any other suggestions are welcome

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  • managedObjectContext question...

    - by treasure
    Hello, I have an app which is a UITabBarController, I have defined two subviews Both tabs have their Class attribute in the Identity Inspector set to UINavigationController. Now i have managed to get this far with my coding after VERY LONG trials. - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; myAppDelegate *appDelegate = (myAppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; self.managedObjectContext = appDelegate.managedObjectContext; { NSError *error = nil; NSFetchRequest *fetchRequest = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; [fetchRequest setEntity:[NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"User" inManagedObjectContext:self.managedObjectContext]]; NSArray *fetchedItems = [self.managedObjectContext executeFetchRequest:fetchRequest error:&error]; NSEntityDescription *entityDesc = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"User" inManagedObjectContext:self.managedObjectContext]; // replace the old data with new. this DOESNT WORK if (fetchedItems.count > 0) { Usr *newUsr; for (newUsr in fetchedItems) { if ([newUsr.name isEqualToString:@"Line One"]) { newUsr.uName = @"Line One (new)"; } } } //add a new default data. THIS ADDS DATA TO MY TABLEVIEW BUT IT DOESNT SAVE THEM TO THE SQLITE User *addedDefaultdata = nil; addedDefaultdata = [[User alloc] initWithEntity:entityDesc insertIntoManagedObjectContext:self.managedObjectContext]; addedDefaultdata.name = @"Added new 1"; [addedDefaultdata release]; } NSError *error = nil; if (![[self fetchedResultsController] performFetch:&error]) { NSLog(@"Unresolved error %@, %@", error, [error userInfo]); abort(); } } and my appdelegate looks like this: - (void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(UIApplication *)application { [application setStatusBarStyle:UIStatusBarStyleBlackOpaque]; [window addSubview:navigationController.view]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; } now I cannot quire the "User" at all! although i get no errors or warnings! Any suggestions would be much appreciated! Thanks

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  • Does IE6 Really not Allow Me to set width/height from left/right/top/bottom???

    - by viatropos
    Building a site super quick and having it work on all my Mac browsers, I thought I'd take a gander on a friends old dell laptop with Windows XP and IE6. Nothing looks remotely correct. It's because I used lots of left/right/top/bottom (constraint) declarations to size elements proportionally to their parent's size (I didn't use percent sizes because the percents refer to the parent's size before margins and padding are applied, left/right/top/bottom refer to them after with position:absolute. I'm asking about that here :)). I've read lots these past few weeks on how horrible IE6 (and IE) is in general, but because of all the reasons people say to support it (large market share and the fear of installing better software), and because half the people in the company we're building a site for use IE6 (getting them to upgrade to Chrome slowly but surely), I thought if I could just get IE6 to render my constraints, that might help. So I am messing around with simple layouts here, and they work fine in my latest versions of Firefox, Safari, Chrome, and Opera, but IE6 is basically saying: If you haven't set a width or height on me, I'm assuming it's zero. But position:absolute; left:0px; right:0px; top:0px; bottom:0px; on a container that's width:1000px; height:1000px; should be the same as setting width:1000px; height:1000px on the child, no? Taking a quick look at the source for this, why won't IE6 render the constraint based absolutely positioned AND SIZED elements? (note: I will be messing around with that file for a while) Thanks

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  • Change post form data function into curl

    - by QLiu
    Hello Guys, In the old way in our website, when users clicks “logout” button. It runs a post form function; which will pass parameters (logout, sn) to external sites to execute “logout” function. Like: I do not want the users jump to the external site, therefore, i use curl to post data. (because we are in different domain, i guess Ajax request doesnot work ) Post the same data to execute logout function in external site. // create cURL resource $URL = "http://bswi.development.intra.local/"; //Initl curl $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $URL); // Load in the destination URL curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HTTPAUTH, CURLAUTH_BASIC); //Normal HTTP request, not SSL curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, "logout=1"); // receive server response ... curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, true); curl_exec ($ch); echo $content; curl_close ($ch); Do u think i am going in the right direction?

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  • jQuery - making sure content is loaded before it's faded in?

    - by Kenny Bones
    Hi, Nick Craver really helped me out alot with this code in this thread http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2743443/jquery-can-someone-help-stitching-jquery-code-with-ajaxcomplete/2743791#2743791 And it is working. But I notice that there's a small delay after I've clicked a link and before the content is actually loaded. It's not very intense content that's loaded either so I think it's got something to do with the order which things happen in the script. The original code looks like this: $('.dynload').live('click', function(){ var toLoad = $(this).attr('href')+' #content'; $('#content').fadeOut('fast',loadContent); $('#ajaxloader').fadeIn('normal'); function loadContent() { $('#content').load(toLoad,'',showNewContent()) } function showNewContent() { $('#content').fadeIn('fast',hideLoader()); //Cufon.replace('h1, h2, h3, h4, .menuwrapper', { fontFamily: 'advent'}); } function hideLoader() { $('#ajaxloader').fadeOut('normal'); } return false; }); The new code looks like this: $(function() { $('.dynload').live('click', function(){ $('#ajaxloader').fadeIn('fast'); $('#ajaxloaderfridge').fadeIn('fast'); var href = this.href + ' #content'; $('#content').fadeOut('fast',function() { $(this).load(href,'', function(data) { createMenus(); $('#ajaxloader').fadeOut('fast'); $('#ajaxloaderfridge').fadeOut('fast'); $('#content').fadeIn('fast'); Cufon.replace('h1, h2, h3, h4, .menuwrapper', { fontFamily: 'advent'}); }); }); return false; }); }); $(createMenus); function createMenus() { $('#kontrollpanel .slidepanels').kwicks({ min : 42, spacing : 3, isVertical : true, sticky : true, event : 'click' }); } In the original code, #content is faded out, then the function "loadContent" is started. Which is basically what is happening in the new script as well isn't it? And when I was using the old code, the content just faded out and faded in really fast and smooth and with no small pause delay before the content arrived.

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  • Is MySQL caching occurring, how to fix it?

    - by rlb.usa
    I think that MySQL or ASP.NET is caching my queries. I edited my MySQL sproc to remove some parameters but it keeps saying that those parameters are missing. Here is what happens: ASP.NET app calls a MySQL stored procedure. Everything works perfect. I delete some parameters from the sproc and ASP.NET parameter list accordingly. All parameters exactly match in case and order from the new ASP.NET and MySQL sproc code Upon execution, it fails, saying : System.ArgumentException: Parameter 'deleted_parameter_foo_bar' not found in the collection. at MySql.Data.MySqlClient.MySqlParameterCollection ... I delete the sproc from the database, restart my browser, and reexecute the ASP.NET page. It says the same error, that the parameter is missing - but the sproc itself doesn't exist anymore. ( I know 100% that I am editing/deleting from the right database. ) How do I fix this or make it work again; I want it to use my new sproc instead of the old one ? _o

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  • long startup time...Need help

    - by Jeff
    My app is all done and working great. So now I ran it on a old iPhone and the app takes 17.3 seconds to start!?!? i spent a lot of time looking into it and i found that the reason it is taking so long to load is i have a lot of views and each view has a png background image. All my views and made in IB and in my code: #import "MyTestAppDelegate.h" #import "MyTestViewController.h" @implementation MyTestAppDelegate @synthesize window; @synthesize viewController; - (void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(UIApplication *)application { // Override point for customization after app launch [window addSubview:viewController.view]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; } - (void)dealloc { [viewController release]; [window release]; [super dealloc]; } @end At the end of the code where is says: [window addSubview:viewController.view]; the app seems to be loading all the views in the nib at the same time. All the png's from all the views are about 12mb. There is no need for the app to load all the views at the same time during startup. Is there a way i can only load the first "home" view at startup? (All the views are part of the same nib.)

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  • java script is not working in mozila

    - by Piyush
    I have added some javascript in html page for input validation.same page is working correct in IE and chrome but in mozila its not working.The problem is when user inputs invalid data its supposed to show alert msg box and when user clicks OK it should return false to form...BUT mozila is not waiting for alert box it just shows alert box for 5-6 sec and then goes to next page defined in form action="nextpage.php" function validate_form(thisform) { with (thisform) { if (validate_required(oldpassword, "<b>Error: </b>Please enter the Old Password!") == false) { changeColor("oldpassword"); return false; } else if (valid_length(newpassword, "<b>Error: </b>Please enter the New Password!!") == false) {newpassword.value=""; changeColor("newpassword"); return false; } else if (valid_length(cnfpassword, "<b>Error: </b>Please enter the Confirm Password!!") == false) {cnfpassword.value=""; changeColor("cnfpassword"); return false; } else if (document.getElementById('newpassword').value != document.getElementById('cnfpassword').value) {changeColor("newpassword");cool.error("<b>Error: </b>Passwords entered are not same!"); newpassword.value="";cnfpassword.value="";return false;} } }function validate_required(field, alerttxt) { with (field) { if (value == null || value == "") { cool.error(alerttxt);return false; } else { return true; } } } cool.error is nothing but CSS nd Js for alert box.I thing there is not any problem in my code weather problem is in some browser settings.Is it so??? because it is working fine in IE and Chrome.

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  • CArray doesn't call copy constructors on memory reallocations, now what?

    - by MMx
    Suppose I have a class that requires copy constructor to be called to make a correct copy of: struct CWeird { CWeird() { number = 47; target = &number; } CWeird(const CWeird &other) : number(other.number), target(&number) { } void output() { printf("%d %d\n", *target, number); } int *target, number; }; Now the trouble is that CArray doesn't call copy constructors on its elements when reallocating memory (only memcpy from the old memory to the new), e.g. this code CArray<CWeird> a; a.SetSize(1); a[0].output(); a.SetSize(2); a[0].output(); results in 47 47 -572662307 47 I don't get this. Why is it that std::vector can copy the same objects properly and CArray can't? What's the lesson here? Should I use only classes that don't require explicit copy constructors? Or is it a bad idea to use CArray for anything serious?

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  • Pointers into elements in a container

    - by Pillsy
    Say I have an object: struct Foo { int bar_; Foo(int bar) bar_(bar) {} }; and I have an STL container that contains Foos, perhaps a vector, and I take // Elsewhere... vector<Foo> vec; vec.push_back(Foo(4)); int *p = &(vec[0].bar_) This is a terrible idea, right? The reason is that vector is going to be storing its elements in a dynamically allocated array somewhere, and eventually, if you add enough elements, it will have to allocate another array, copy over all the elements of the original array, and delete the old array. After that happens, p points to garbage. This is why many operations on a vector will invalidate iterators. It seems like it would be reasonable to assume that an operation that would invalidate iterators from a container will also invalidate pointers to data members of container elements, and that if an operation doesn't invalidate iterators, those pointers will still be safe. However, many reasonable assumptions are false. Is this one of them?

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  • Processing a resultset to look up foriegn keys (and poulate a new table!)

    - by Gilly
    Hi, I've been handed a dataset that has some fairly basic table structures with no keys at all. eg {myRubishTable} - Area(varchar),AuthorityName(varchar),StartYear(varchar),StartMonth(varcha),EndYear(varchar),EndMonth(varchar),Amount(Money) there are other tables that use the Area and AuthorityName columns as well as a general use of Month and Years so I I figured a good first step was to pull Area and Authority into their own tables. I now want to process the data in the original table and lookup the key value to put into my new table with foreign keys which looks like this. (lookup Tables) {Area} - id (int, PK), name (varchar(50)) {AuthorityName} - id(int, PK), name(varchar(50) (TargetTable) {myBetterTable} - id (int,PK), area_id(int FK-Area),authority_name_id(int FK-AuthorityName),StartYear (varchar),StartMonth(varchar),EndYear(varchar),EndMonth(varchar),Amount(money) so row one in the old table read MYAREA, MYAUTHORITY,2009,Jan,2010,Feb,10000 and I want to populate the new table with 1,1,1,2009,Jan,2010,Feb,10000 where the first '1' is the primary key and the second two '1's are the ids in the lookup tables. Can anyone point me to the most efficient way of achieving this using just SQL? Thanks in advance Footnote:- I've achieved what I needed with some pretty simple WHERE clauses (I had left a rogue tablename in the FROM which was throwing me :o( ) but would be interested to know if this is the most efficient. ie SELECT [area].[area_id], [authority].[authority_name_id], [myRubishTable].[StartYear], [myRubishTable].[StartMonth], [myRubishTable].[EndYear], [myRubishTable].[EndMonth], [myRubishTable].[Amount] FROM [myRubishTable],[Area],[AuthorityName] WHERE [myRubishTable].[Area]=[Area].[name] AND [myRubishTable].[Authority Name]=[dim_AuthorityName].[name] TIA

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  • Problem with DB2 Over clause

    - by silent1mezzo
    I'm trying to do pagination with a very old version of DB2 and the only way I could figure out selecting a range of rows was to use the OVER command. This query provide's the correct results (the results that I want to paginate over). select MIN(REFID) as REFID, REFGROUPID from ARMS_REFERRAL where REFERRAL_ID<>'Draft' and REFERRAL_ID not like 'Demo%' group by REFGROUPID order by REFID desc Results: REFID REFGROUPID 302 242 301 241 281 221 261 201 225 142 221 161 ... ... SELECT * FROM ( SELECT row_number() OVER () AS rid, MIN(REFID) AS REFID, REFGROUPID FROM arms_referral where REFERRAL_ID<>'Draft' and REFERRAL_ID not like 'Demo%' group by REFGROUPID order by REFID desc ) AS t WHERE t.rid BETWEEN 1 and 5 Results: REFID REFGROUPID 26 12 22 11 14 8 11 7 6 4 As you can see, it does select the first five rows, but it's obviously not selecting the latest. If I add a Order By clause to the OVER() it gets closer, but still not totally correct. SELECT * FROM ( SELECT row_number() OVER (ORDER BY REFGROUPID desc) AS rid, MIN(REFID) AS REFID, REFGROUPID FROM arms_referral where REFERRAL_ID<>'Draft' and REFERRAL_ID not like 'Demo%' group by REFGROUPID order by REFID desc ) AS t WHERE t.rid BETWEEN 1 and 5 REFID REFGROUPID 302 242 301 241 281 221 261 201 221 161 It's really close but the 5th result isn't correct (actually the 6th result). How do I make this query correct so it can group by a REFGROUPID and then order by the REFID?

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