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  • Nested Transaction issues within custom Windows Service

    - by pdwetz
    I have a custom Windows Service I recently upgraded to use TransactionScope for nested transactions. It worked fine locally on my old dev machine (XP sp3) and on a test server (Server 2003). However, it fails on my new Windows 7 machine as well as on 2008 Server. It was targeting 2.0 framework; I tried targeting 3.5 instead, but it still fails. The strange part is really in how it fails; no exception is thrown. The service itself merely times out. I added tracing code, and it fails when opening the connection for Database lookup #2 below. I also enabled tracing for System.Transactions; it literally cuts out partway while writing the block for the failed connection. We ran a SQL trace, but only the first lookup shows up. I put in code traces, and it gets to the trace the line before the second lookup, but nothing after. I've had the same experience hitting two different SQL servers (both are SQL 2005 running on Server 2003). The connection string is utilizing a SQL account (not Windows integration). All connections are against the same database in this case, but given the nature of the code it is being escalated to MSDTC. Here's the basic code structure: TransactionOptions options = new TransactionOptions(); options.IsolationLevel = System.Transactions.IsolationLevel.ReadCommitted; using (TransactionScope scope = new TransactionScope(TransactionScopeOption.RequiresNew, options)) { // Database lookup #1 TransactionOptions options = new TransactionOptions(); options.IsolationLevel = Transaction.Current != null ? Transaction.Current.IsolationLevel : System.Transactions.IsolationLevel.ReadCommitted; using (TransactionScope scope = new TransactionScope(TransactionScopeOption.Required, options)) { // Database lookup #2; fails on connection.Open() // Database save (never reached) scope.Complete();<br/> } scope.Complete();<br/> } My local firewall is disabled. The service normally runs using Network Service, but I also tried my user account (same results). The short of it is that I use the same general technique widely in my web applications and haven't had any issues. I pulled out the code and ran it fine within a local Windows Form application. If anyone has any additional debugging ideas (or, even better, solutions) I'd love to hear them.

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  • Copy all childNodes to an other element. In javascript native way.

    - by kroko
    Hello I have to change "unknown" contents of XML. The structure and content itself is valid. Original <blabla foo="bar"> <aa>asas</aa> <ff> <cc> <dd /> </cc> </ff> <gg attr2="2"> </gg> ... ... </blabla> becomes <blabla foo="bar"> <magic> <aa>asas</aa> <ff> <cc> <dd /> </cc> </ff> <gg attr2="2"> </gg> ... ... </magic> </blabla> thus, adding a child straight under document root node (document.documentElement) and "pushing" the "original" children under that. Here it has to be done in plain javascript (ecmascript). The idea now is to // Get the root node RootNode = mymagicdoc.documentElement; // Create new magic element (that will contain contents of original root node) var magicContainer = mymagicdoc.createElement("magic"); // Copy all root node children (and their sub tree - deep copy) to magic node /* ????? here RootNodeClone = RootNode.cloneNode(true); RootNodeClone.childNodes...... */ // Remove all children from root node while(RootNode.hasChildNodes()) RootNode.removeChild(RootNode.firstChild); // Now when root node is empty add the magicContainer // node in it that contains all the children of original root node RootNode.appendChild(magicContainer); How to do that /* */ step? Or maybe someone has a much better solution in general for achieving the desirable result? Thank you in advance!

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  • Microsoft Word Document Controls not accepting carriage returns

    - by Scott
    So, I have a Microsoft Word 2007 Document with several Plain Text Format (I have tried Rich Text Format as well) controls which accept input via XML. For carriage returns, I had the string being passed through XML containing "\r\n" when I wanted a carriage return, but the word document ignored that and just kept wrapping things on the same line. I also tried replacing the \r\n with System.Environment.NewLine in my C# mapper, but that just put in \r\n anyway, which still didn't work. Note also that on the control itself I have set it to "Allow Carriage Returns (Multiple Paragrpahs)" in the control properties. This is the XML for the listMapper <Field id="32" name="32" fieldType="SimpleText"> <DataSelector path="/Data/DB/DebtProduct"> <InputField fieldType="" path="/Data/DB/Client/strClientFirm" link="" type=""/> <InputField fieldType="" path="strClientRefDebt" link="" type=""/> </DataSelector> <DataMapper formatString="{0} Account Number: {1}" name="SimpleListMapper" type=""> <MapperData> </MapperData> </DataMapper> </Field> Note that this is the listMapper C# where I actually map the list (notice where I try and append the system.environment.newline) namespace DocEngine.Core.DataMappers { public class CSimpleListMapper:CBaseDataMapper { public override void Fill(DocEngine.Core.Interfaces.Document.IControl control, CDataSelector dataSelector) { if (control != null && dataSelector != null) { ISimpleTextControl textControl = (ISimpleTextControl)control; IContent content = textControl.CreateContent(); CInputFieldCollection fileds = dataSelector.Read(Context); StringBuilder builder = new StringBuilder(); if (fileds != null) { foreach (List<string> lst in fileds) { if (CanMap(lst) == false) continue; if (builder.Length > 0 && lst[0].Length > 0) builder.Append(Environment.NewLine); if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(FormatString)) builder.Append(lst[0]); else builder.Append(string.Format(FormatString, lst.ToArray())); } content.Value = builder.ToString(); textControl.Content = content; applyRules(control, null); } } } } } Does anybody have any clue at all how I can get MS Word 2007 (docx) to quit ignoring my newline characters??

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  • Modular GWT design concerns

    - by GlGuru
    Hi, I have a couple of questions regarding a modular GWT based application framework. I have some ideas about them but being new to the field of web development I feel they are far from ideal. I'd appreciate a few comments and suggestions in this regard. Here are my questions: I am developing a framework which will allow third parties to embed GWT applications into our website and do some communication with them using simple iFrame postMessage. All these third party modules are going to use our SDK which is also GWT based. The problem arises that even though all the modules will be using the same codebase there is going to be a massive overheard in the amount of duplicate Javascript code (i.e. our common SDK code base which is quite large) being downloaded on the client's machine. This is highly redundant and problematic, not only due to the sheer size of duplicate code but, also due to the fact that subsequent updates of the SDK would require the modules to be recompiled which is going to create a DLL hell kind of scenario in the long run. What is the best way of doing this kind of thing? Is there a way where I can have some static GWT code (i.e. the SDK) and the dynamic GWT module refers to it (even if lies on a different domain) and it all work happily? The other part of the problem lies in providing robust scripting front end to the SDK. At first it appears to be trivial since Javascript itself is a scripting language. However, I do not know how to load and call a piece of pure Javascript code at runtime? I am willing to put restrictions on the target Javascript (i.e. having a function main and unique namespace or something). Furthermore the Javascript will come as a string from a database and not as a full URL. If its doable in Javascript how does one get this right in GWT i.e. forcing the compiler to emit a certain function in the generated Javascript? This I believe can be lesser of a problem by having a stub Javascript with all the right requirements which just loads up a GWT generated Javascript. Is any of this possible at all? I generally hate to be this verbose but I hope to find a quick solution to the problem as its holding up my progress. I'd highly appreciate any comments, suggestions and experiences.

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  • Best practices for displaying large number of images as thumbnails in c#

    - by andySF
    I got to a point where it's very difficult to get answers by debugging and tracing object, so i need some help. What I'm trying to do: A history form for my screen capture pet project. The history must list all images as thumbnails (ex: picasa). What I've done: I created a HistoryItem:UserControl. This history item has a few buttons, a check box, a label and a picture box. The buttons are for delete/edit/copy image. The check box is used for selecting one or more images and the label is for some info text. The picture box is getting the image from a public property that is a path and a method creates a proportional thumbnail to display it when the control has been loaded. This user control has two public events. One for deleting the image and one for bubbling the events for mouse enter and mouse leave trough all controls. For this I use EventBroadcastProvider. The bubbling is useful because wherever I move the mouse over the control, the buttons appear. The dispose method has been extended and I manually remove the events. All images are loaded by looping a xml file that contains the path of all images. For each image in this XML I create a new HitoryItem that is added (after a little coding to sort and limit the amount of images loaded) to a flow layout panel. The problem: When I lunch the history form, and the flow layout panel is populated with my HistoryItem custom control, my memory usage increases drastically.From 14Mb to around 100MB with 100 images loaded. By closing the history form and disposing whatever I could dispose and even trying to call GC.Collect() the memory increase remain. I search for any object that could not be disposed properly like an image or event but wherever I used them they are disposed. The problem seams to be from multiple sources. One is that the events for bubbling are not disposing properly, and the other is from the picture box itself. All of this i could see by commenting all the code to a limited version when only the custom control without any image processing and even events is loaded. Without the events the memory consumption is reduced by axiomatically 20%. So my real question is if this logic, flow layout panels and custom controls with picture boxes, is the best solution for displaying large amounts of images as thumbnails. Thank you!

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  • Is this a legitimate implementation of a 'remember me' function for my web app?

    - by user246114
    Hi, I'm trying to add a "remember me" feature to my web app to let a user stay logged in between browser restarts. I think I got the bulk of it. I'm using google app engine for the backend which lets me use java servlets. Here is some pseudo-code to demo: public class MyServlet { public void handleRequest() { if (getThreadLocalRequest().getSession().getAttribute("user") != null) { // User already has session running for them. } else { // No session, but check if they chose 'remember me' during // their initial login, if so we can have them 'auto log in' // now. Cookie[] cookies = getThreadLocalRequest().getCookies(); if (cookies.find("rememberMePlz").exists()) { // The value of this cookie is the cookie id, which is a // unique string that is in no way based upon the user's // name/email/id, and is hard to randomly generate. String cookieid = cookies.find("rememberMePlz").value(); // Get the user object associated with this cookie id from // the data store, would probably be a two-step process like: // // select * from cookies where cookieid = 'cookieid'; // select * from users where userid = 'userid fetched from above select'; User user = DataStore.getUserByCookieId(cookieid); if (user != null) { // Start session for them. getThreadLocalRequest().getSession() .setAttribute("user", user); } else { // Either couldn't find a matching cookie with the // supplied id, or maybe we expired the cookie on // our side or blocked it. } } } } } // On first login, if user wanted us to remember them, we'd generate // an instance of this object for them in the data store. We send the // cookieid value down to the client and they persist it on their side // in the "rememberMePlz" cookie. public class CookieLong { private String mCookieId; private String mUserId; private long mExpirationDate; } Alright, this all makes sense. The only frightening thing is what happens if someone finds out the value of the cookie? A malicious individual could set that cookie in their browser and access my site, and essentially be logged in as the user associated with it! On the same note, I guess this is why the cookie ids must be difficult to randomly generate, because a malicious user doesn't have to steal someone's cookie - they could just randomly assign cookie values and start logging in as whichever user happens to be associated with that cookie, if any, right? Scary stuff, I feel like I should at least include the username in the client cookie such that when it presents itself to the server, I won't auto-login unless the username+cookieid match in the DataStore. Any comments would be great, I'm new to this and trying to figure out a best practice. I'm not writing a site which contains any sensitive personal information, but I'd like to minimize any potential for abuse all the same, Thanks

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  • Scalable Database Tagging Schema

    - by Longpoke
    EDIT: To people building tagging systems. Don't read this. It is not what you are looking for. I asked this when I wasn't aware that RDBMS all have their own optimization methods, just use a simple many to many scheme. I have a posting system that has millions of posts. Each post can have an infinite number of tags associated with it. Users can create tags which have notes, date created, owner, etc. A tag is almost like a post itself, because people can post notes about the tag. Each tag association has an owner and date, so we can see who added the tag and when. My question is how can I implement this? It has to be fast searching posts by tag, or tags by post. Also, users can add tags to posts by typing the name into a field, kind of like the google search bar, it has to fill in the rest of the tag name for you. I have 3 solutions at the moment, but not sure which is the best, or if there is a better way. Note that I'm not showing the layout of notes since it will be trivial once I get a proper solution for tags. Method 1. Linked list tagId in post points to a linked list in tag_assoc, the application must traverse the list until flink=0 post: id, content, ownerId, date, tagId, notesId tag_assoc: id, tagId, ownerId, flink tag: id, name, notesId Method 2. Denormalization tags is simply a VARCHAR or TEXT field containing a tab delimited array of tagId:ownerId. It cannot be a fixed size. post: id, content, ownerId, date, tags, notesId tag: id, name, notesId Method 3. Toxi (from: http://www.pui.ch/phred/archives/2005/04/tags-database-schemas.html, also same thing here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/20856/how-do-you-recommend-implementing-tags-or-tagging) post: id, content, ownerId, date, notesId tag_assoc: ownerId, tagId, postId tag: id, name, notesId Method 3 raises the question, how fast will it be to iterate through every single row in tag_assoc? Methods 1 and 2 should be fast for returning tags by post, but for posts by tag, another lookup table must be made. The last thing I have to worry about is optimizing searching tags by name, I have not worked that out yet. I made an ASCII diagram here: http://pastebin.com/f1c4e0e53

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  • Windows Question: RunOnce/Second Boot Issues [closed]

    - by Greg
    Moved to Super User: Windows Question: RunOnce/Second Boot Issues I am attempting to create a Windows XP SP3 image that will run my application on Second Boot. Here is the intended workflow. 1) Run Image Prep Utility (I wrote) on windows to add my runonce entries and clean a few things up. 2) Reboot to ghost, make image file. 3) Package into my ISO and distribute. 4) System will be imaged by user. 5) On first boot, I have about 5 things that run, one of which includes a driver updater (I wrote) for my own specific devices. 6) One of the entries inside of HKCU/../runonce is a reg file, which adds another key to HKLM/../runonce. This is how second boot is acquired. 7) As a result of the driver updater, user is prompted to reboot. 8) My application is then launched from HKLM/../runonce on second boot. This workflow works perfectly, except for a select few legacy systems that contain devices that cause the add hardware wizard to pop up. When the add hardware wizard pops up is when I begin to see problems. It's important to note, that if I manually inspect the registry after the add hardware wizard pops up, it appears as I would expect, with all the first boot scripts having run, and it's sitting in a state I would correctly expect it to be in for a second boot scenario. The problem comes when I click next on the add hardware wizard, it seems to re-run the single entry I've added, and re-executes the runonce scripts. (only one script now as it's already executed and cleared out the initial entries). This causes my application to open as if it were a second boot, only when next is clicked on the add hardware wizard. If I click cancel, and reboot, then it also works as expected. I don't care as much about other solutions, because I could design a system that doesn't fully rely on Microsoft's registry. I simply can't find any information as to WHY this is happening. I believe this is some type of Microsoft issue that's presenting itself as a result of an overstretched image that's expected to support too many legacy platforms, but any help that can be provided would be appreciated. Thanks,

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  • Jboss logging issue - pl check this

    - by balaji
    I’m Working as deployer and server administrator. We use Jboss 4.0x AS to deploy our applications. The issue I'm facing is, Whenever we redeploy/restart the server, server.log is getting created but after sometime the logging goes off. Yes it is not at all updating the server.log file. Due to this, we could not trace the other critical issues we have. Actually we have two separate nodes and we do deploy/restarting the server separately on two nodes. We are facing the issue in both of our test and production environment. I could not trace out where exactly the issue is. Could you please help me in resolving the issue? If we have any other issues, we can check the log files. If log itself is not getting updated/logged, how can we move further in analyzing the issues without the recent/updated logs? Below are the logs found in the stdout.log: 18:55:50,303 INFO [Server] Core system initialized 18:55:52,296 INFO [WebService] Using RMI server codebase: http://kl121tez.is.klmcorp.net:8083/ 18:55:52,313 INFO [Log4jService$URLWatchTimerTask] Configuring from URL: resource:log4j.xml 18:55:52,860 ERROR [STDERR] LOG0026E The Log Manager cannot create the object AmasRBPFTraceLogger without a class name. 18:55:52,860 ERROR [STDERR] LOG0026E The Log Manager cannot create the object AmasRBPFMessageLogger without a class name. 18:55:54,273 ERROR [STDERR] LOG0026E The Log Manager cannot create the object AmasCacheTraceLogger without a class name. 18:55:54,274 ERROR [STDERR] LOG0026E The Log Manager cannot create the object AmasCacheMessageLogger without a class name. 18:55:54,334 ERROR [STDERR] LOG0026E The Log Manager cannot create the object JACCTraceLogger without a class name. 18:55:54,334 ERROR [STDERR] LOG0026E The Log Manager cannot create the object JACCMessageLogger without a class name. 18:55:56,059 INFO [ServiceEndpointManager] WebServices: jbossws-1.0.3.SP1 (date=200609291417) 18:55:56,635 INFO [Embedded] Catalina naming disabled 18:55:56,671 INFO [ClusterRuleSetFactory] Unable to find a cluster rule set in the classpath. Will load the default rule set. 18:55:56,672 INFO [ClusterRuleSetFactory] Unable to find a cluster rule set in the classpath. Will load the default rule set. 18:55:56,843 INFO [Http11BaseProtocol] Initializing Coyote HTTP/1.1 on http-0.0.0.0-8180 18:55:56,844 INFO [Catalina] Initialization processed in 172 ms 18:55:56,844 INFO [StandardService] Starting service jboss.web Please help..

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  • How to Work Around Limitations in Generic Type Constraints in C#?

    - by Jose
    Okay I'm looking for some input, I'm pretty sure this is not currently supported in .NET 3.5 but here goes. I want to require a generic type passed into my class to have a constructor like this: new(IDictionary<string,object>) so the class would look like this public MyClass<T> where T : new(IDictionary<string,object>) { T CreateObject(IDictionary<string,object> values) { return new T(values); } } But the compiler doesn't support this, it doesn't really know what I'm asking. Some of you might ask, why do you want to do this? Well I'm working on a pet project of an ORM so I get values from the DB and then create the object and load the values. I thought it would be cleaner to allow the object just create itself with the values I give it. As far as I can tell I have two options: 1) Use reflection(which I'm trying to avoid) to grab the PropertyInfo[] array and then use that to load the values. 2) require T to support an interface like so: public interface ILoadValues { void LoadValues(IDictionary values); } and then do this public MyClass<T> where T:new(),ILoadValues { T CreateObject(IDictionary<string,object> values) { T obj = new T(); obj.LoadValues(values); return obj; } } The problem I have with the interface I guess is philosophical, I don't really want to expose a public method for people to load the values. Using the constructor the idea was that if I had an object like this namespace DataSource.Data { public class User { protected internal User(IDictionary<string,object> values) { //Initialize } } } As long as the MyClass<T> was in the same assembly the constructor would be available. I personally think that the Type constraint in my opinion should ask (Do I have access to this constructor? I do, great!) Anyways any input is welcome.

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  • iPhone: Create a single UIView from multiple clicks

    - by Cuzog
    I'm making a partial overlay modal in my app with the code from “Semi-Modal (Transparent) Dialogs on the iPhone” at ramin.firoozye.com. In doing so, the button that calls the modal is still visible and clickable. I will hide this button when the modal spawns, but I want to be sure if the user clicks very quickly twice, a new modal doesn't come up for each click. What is the best way to check that the modal doesn't already exist when calling it from the button click? You can download the test project here. For those that don't have xcode, the relevant functions are below: I call forth the modal on button click with this: - (IBAction)displayModal:(id)sender { ModalViewController *modalController = [[ModalViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"ModalViewController" bundle:nil]; modalController.view.frame = CGRectOffset(modalController.view.frame, 0, 230); [self showModal:modalController.view]; } Then use this function to animate the custom modal over the current view: - (void)showModal:(UIView*) modalView { UIWindow* mainWindow = (((TestAppDelegate*) [UIApplication sharedApplication].delegate).window); CGPoint middleCenter = modalView.center; CGSize offSize = [UIScreen mainScreen].bounds.size; CGPoint offScreenCenter = CGPointMake(offSize.width / 2.0, offSize.height * 1.5); modalView.center = offScreenCenter; // we start off-screen [mainWindow addSubview:modalView]; // Show it with a transition effect [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.4]; // animation duration in seconds modalView.center = middleCenter; [UIView commitAnimations]; } Then I dismiss the modal on button click with this: - (IBAction)dismissModal:(id)sender { [self hideModal:self.view]; } And then use these functions to animate the modal offscreen and clean itself up: - (void)hideModal:(UIView*) modalView { CGSize offSize = [UIScreen mainScreen].bounds.size; CGPoint offScreenCenter = CGPointMake(offSize.width / 2.0, offSize.height * 1.5); [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:modalView]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.7]; [UIView setAnimationDelegate:self]; [UIView setAnimationDidStopSelector:@selector(hideModalEnded:finished:context:)]; modalView.center = offScreenCenter; [UIView commitAnimations]; } - (void)hideModalEnded:(NSString *)animationID finished:(NSNumber *)finished context:(void *)context { UIView* modalView = (UIView *)context; [modalView removeFromSuperview]; [self release]; } Any help is greatly appreciated!

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  • How to salvage SQL server 2008 query from KILLED/ROLLBACK state without waiting half a day?

    - by littlegreen
    I have a stored procedure that inserts batches of millions of rows, emerging from a certain query, into an SQL database. It has one parameter selecting the batch; when this parameter is omitted, it will gather a list of batches and recursively call itself, in order to iterate over batches. In (pseudo-)code, it looks something like this: CREATE PROCEDURE spProcedure AS BEGIN IF @code = 0 BEGIN ... WHILE @@Fetch_Status=0 BEGIN EXEC spProcedure @code FETCH NEXT ... INTO @code END END ELSE BEGIN -- Disable indexes ... INSERT INTO table SELECT (...) -- Enable indexes ... Now it can happen that this procedure is slow, for whatever reason: it can't get a lock, one of the indexes it uses is misdefined or disabled. In that case, I want to be able kill the procedure, truncate and recreate the resulting table, and try again. However, when I try and kill the procedure, the process frequently oozes into a KILLED/ROLLBACK state from which there seems to be no return. From Google I have learned to do an sp_lock, find the spid, and then kill it with KILL <spid>. But when I try to kill it, it tells me SPID 75: transaction rollback in progress. Estimated rollback completion: 0%. Estimated time remaining: 554 seconds. I did find a forum message hinting that another spid should be killed before the other one can start a rollback. But that didn't work for me either, plus I do not understand, why that would be the case... could it be because I am recursively calling my own stored procedure? (But it should be having the same spid, right?) In any case, my process is just sitting there, being dead, not responding to kills, and locking the table. This is very frustrating, as I want to go on developing my queries, not waiting hours on my server sitting dead while pretending to be finishing a supposed rollback. Is there some way in which I can tell the server not to store any rollback information for my query? Or not to allow any other queries to interfere with the rollback, so that it will not take so long? Or how to rewrite my query in a better way, or how kill the process successfully without restarting the server?

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  • How can I create a Base64-Encoded string from an GDI+ Image in C++?

    - by Schnapple
    I asked a question recently, How can I create an Image in GDI+ from a Base64-Encoded string in C++?, which got a response that led me to the answer. Now I need to do the opposite - I have an Image in GDI+ whose image data I need to turn into a Base64-Encoded string. Due to its nature, it's not straightforward. The crux of the issue is that an Image in GDI+ can save out its data to either a file or an IStream*. I don't want to save to a file, so I need to use the resulting stream. Problem is, this is where my knowledge breaks down. This first part is what I figured out in the other question // Initialize GDI+. GdiplusStartupInput gdiplusStartupInput; ULONG_PTR gdiplusToken; GdiplusStartup(&gdiplusToken, &gdiplusStartupInput, NULL); // I have this decode function from elsewhere std::string decodedImage = base64_decode(Base64EncodedImage); // Allocate the space for the stream DWORD imageSize = decodedImage.length(); HGLOBAL hMem = ::GlobalAlloc(GMEM_MOVEABLE, imageSize); LPVOID pImage = ::GlobalLock(hMem); memcpy(pImage, decodedImage.c_str(), imageSize); // Create the stream IStream* pStream = NULL; ::CreateStreamOnHGlobal(hMem, FALSE, &pStream); // Create the image from the stream Image image(pStream); // Cleanup pStream->Release(); GlobalUnlock(hMem); GlobalFree(hMem); (Base64 code) And now I'm going to perform an operation on the resulting image, in this case rotating it, and now I want the Base64-equivalent string when I'm done. // Perform operation (rotate) image.RotateFlip(Gdiplus::Rotate180FlipNone); IStream* oStream = NULL; CLSID tiffClsid; GetEncoderClsid(L"image/tiff", &tiffClsid); // Function defined elsewhere image.Save(oStream, &tiffClsid); // And here's where I'm stumped. (GetEncoderClsid) So what I wind up with at the end is an IStream* object. But here's where both my knowledge and Google break down for me. IStream shouldn't be an object itself, it's an interface for other types of streams. I'd go down the road from getting string-Image in reverse, but I don't know how to determine the size of the stream, which appears to be key to that route. How can I go from an IStream* to a string (which I will then Base64-Encode)? Or is there a much better way to go from a GDI+ Image to a string?

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  • How to measure a canvas that has auto height and width

    - by Wymmeroo
    Hi Folks, I'm a beginner in silverlight so i hope i can get an answer that brings me some more light in the measure process of silverlight. I found an interessting flap out control from silverlight slide control and now I try to use it in my project. So that the slide out is working proper, I have to place the user control on a canvas. The user control then uses for itself the height of its content. I just wanna change that behavior so that the height is set to the available space from the parent canvas. You see the uxBorder where the height is set. How can I measure the actual height and set it to the border? I tried it with Height={Binding ElementName=notificationCanvas, Path=ActualHeight} but this dependency property has no callback, so the actualHeight is never set. What I want to achieve is a usercontrol like the tweetboard per example on Jesse Liberty's blog Sorry for my English writing, I hope you understand my question. <Canvas x:Name="notificationCanvas" Background="Red"> <SlideEffectEx:SimpleSlideControl GripWidth="20" GripTitle="Task" GripHeight="100"> <Border x:Name="uxBorder" BorderThickness="2" CornerRadius="5" BorderBrush="DarkGray" Background="DarkGray" Padding="5" Width="300" Height="700" > <StackPanel> <TextBlock Text="Tasks"></TextBlock> <Button x:Name="btn1" Margin="5" Content="{Binding ElementName=MainBorder, Path=Height}"></Button> <Button x:Name="btn2" Margin="5" Content="Second Button"></Button> <Button x:Name="btn3" Margin="5" Content="Third Button"></Button> <Button x:Name="btn1_Copy" Margin="5" Content="First Button"/> <Button x:Name="btn1_Copy1" Margin="5" Content="First Button"/> <Button x:Name="btn1_Copy2" Margin="5" Content="First Button"/> <Button x:Name="btn1_Copy3" Margin="5" Content="First Button"/> <Button x:Name="btn1_Copy4" Margin="5" Content="First Button"/> <Button x:Name="btn1_Copy5" Margin="5" Content="First Button"/> <Button x:Name="btn1_Copy6" Margin="5" Content="First Button"/> </StackPanel> </Border> </SlideEffectEx:SimpleSlideControl>

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  • Stored procedure performance randomly plummets; trivial ALTER fixes it. Why?

    - by gWiz
    I have a couple of stored procedures on SQL Server 2005 that I've noticed will suddenly take a significantly long time to complete when invoked from my ASP.NET MVC app running in an IIS6 web farm of four servers. Normal, expected completion time is less than a second; unexpected anomalous completion time is 25-45 seconds. The problem doesn't seem to ever correct itself. However, if I ALTER the stored procedure (even if I don't change anything in the procedure, except to perhaps add a space to the script created by SSMS Modify command), the completion time reverts to expected completion time. IIS and SQL Server are running on separate boxes, both running Windows Server 2003 R2 Enterprise Edition. SQL Server is Standard Edition. All machines have dual Xeon E5450 3GHz CPUs and 4GB RAM. SQL Server is accessed using its TCP/IP protocol over gigabit ethernet (not sure what physical medium). The problem is present from all web servers in the web farm. When I invoke the procedure from a query window in SSMS on my development machine, the procedure completes in normal time. This is strange because I was under the impression that SSMS used the same SqlClient driver as in .NET. When I point my development instance of the web app to the production database, I again get the anomalous long completion time. If my SqlCommand Timeout is too short, I get System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Timeout expired. The timeout period elapsed prior to completion of the operation or the server is not responding. Question: Why would performing ALTER on the stored procedure, without actually changing anything in it, restore the completion time to less than a second, as expected? Edit: To clarify, when the procedure is running slow for the app, it simultaneously runs fine in SSMS with the same parameters. The only difference I can discern is login credentials (next time I notice the behavior, I'll be checking from SSMS with the same creds). The ultimate goal is to get the procs to sustainably run with expected speed without requiring occasional intervention. Resolution: I wanted to to update this question in case others are experiencing this issue. Following the leads of the answers below, I was able to consistently reproduce this behavior. In order to test, I utilize sp_recompile and pass it one of the susceptible sprocs. I then initiate a website request from my browser that will invoke the sproc with atypical parameters. Lastly, I initiate a website request to a page that invokes the sproc with typical parameters, and observe that the request does not complete because of a SQL timeout on the sproc invocation. To resolve this on SQL Server 2005, I've added OPTIMIZE FOR hints to my SELECT. The sprocs that were vulnerable all have the "all-in-one" pattern described in this article. This pattern is certainly not ideal but was a necessary trade-off given the timeframe for the project.

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  • can we include maven pmd plugin execution within build goal ?

    - by RN
    Guys, I wanted generate the pmd report while building the project so I have added plugin to build section of my pom.xml but still it don't execute until I explicitly call mvn clean install pmd:pmd. I want to execute it with mvn clean install itself. is it possible ? my pom entries are as under: <build> <plugins> <plugin> <artifactId>maven-pmd-plugin</artifactId> <version>2.4</version> <configuration> <skip>false</skip> <targetJdk>${compile.source}</targetJdk> <rulesets> <ruleset>./current.pmd.rules.xml</ruleset> </rulesets> <excludes> <exclude>com/cm/**/*.java</exclude> <exclude>com/sm/**/*.java</exclude> </excludes> <linkXref>true</linkXref> <failOnViolation>true</failOnViolation> <executions> <execution> <goals> <goal>check</goal> <goal>cpd-check</goal> </goals> </execution> </executions> </configuration> </plugin> <plugin> <groupId>org.apache.maven.plugins</groupId> <artifactId>maven-jxr-plugin</artifactId> </plugin> <plugin> <artifactId>maven-project-info-reports-plugin</artifactId> <version>2.0.1</version> </plugin> </plugins> </build> Thanks in advance.

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  • overwrite existing entity via bulkloader.Loader

    - by Ray Yun
    I was going to CSV based export/import for large data with app engine. My idea was just simple. First column of CSV would be key of entity. If it's not empty, that row means existing entity and should overwrite old one. Else, that row is new entity and should create new one. I could export key of entity by adding key property. class FrontExporter(bulkloader.Exporter): def __init__(self): bulkloader.Exporter.__init__(self, 'Front', [ ('__key__', str, None), ('name', str, None), ]) But when I was trying to upload CSV, it had failed because bulkloader.Loader.generate_key() was just for "key_name" not "key" itself. That means all exported entities in CSV should have unique 'key_name' if I want to modify-and-reupload them. class FrontLoader(bulkloader.Loader): def __init__(self): bulkloader.Loader.__init__(self, 'Front', [ ('_UNUSED', lambda x: None), ('name', lambda x: x.decode('utf-8')), ]) def generate_key(self,i,values): # first column is key keystr = values[0] if len(keystr)==0: return None return keystr I also tried to load key directly without using generate_key(), but both failed. class FrontLoader(bulkloader.Loader): def __init__(self): bulkloader.Loader.__init__(self, 'Front', [ ('Key', db.Key), # not working. just create new one. ('__key__', db.Key), # same... So, how can I overwrite existing entity which has no 'key_name'? It would be horrible if I should give unique name to all entities..... From the first answer, I could handle this problem. :) def create_entity(self, values, key_name=None, parent=None): # if key_name is None: # print 'key_name is None' # else: # print 'key_name=<',key_name,'> : length=',len(key_name) Validate(values, (list, tuple)) assert len(values) == len(self._Loader__properties), ( 'Expected %d columns, found %d.' % (len(self._Loader__properties), len(values))) model_class = GetImplementationClass(self.kind) properties = { 'key_name': key_name, 'parent': parent, } for (name, converter), val in zip(self._Loader__properties, values): if converter is bool and val.lower() in ('0', 'false', 'no'): val = False properties[name] = converter(val) if key_name is None: entity = model_class(**properties) #print 'create new one' else: entity = model_class.get(key_name) for key, value in properties.items(): setattr(entity, key, value) #print 'overwrite old one' entities = self.handle_entity(entity) if entities: if not isinstance(entities, (list, tuple)): entities = [entities] for entity in entities: if not isinstance(entity, db.Model): raise TypeError('Expected a db.Model, received %s (a %s).' % (entity, entity.__class__)) return entities def generate_key(self,i,values): # first column is key if values[0] is None or values[0] in ('',' ','-','.'): return None return values[0]

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  • Keep div:hover open when changing nested select box

    - by JMC Creative
    This is an IE-only problem. .toolTip becomes visible when it's parent element is :hovered over. Inside of .toolTip is a select box. When the user opens the select box to make a selection, the parent element is being "un-hovered", if you will. To put it another way, when I try to select something from the dropdown, the whole thing hides itself again. I'm sure it has something to do with the way IE interprets the stylesheet, but I don't know what or where. Here is some relevant code (edited for clarity): #toolBar .toolTip { position: absolute; display:none; background: #fff; line-height: 1em; font-size: .8em; min-width: 300px; bottom: 47px; left: -5px; padding: 0 ; } #toolBar div:hover .toolTip { display:block; } and <div id="toolBar"> <div class="socialIcon"> <a href=""><img src="/im/social/nytimes.png" alt="NY Times Bestsellers" /></a> <span class="toolTip"> <h1>NY Times Bestsellers Lists</h1> <div id="nyTimesBestsellers"> <?php include('/ny-times-bestseller-feed.php') ?> </div> <p><img src="/im/social/nytimes.png" alt="NY Times Bestseller Lists" /> Change List <select id="nyTimesChangeCurrentList" name="nyTimesChangeCurrentList"> <option value="hardcover-fiction">Hardcover Fiction</option> <option value="hardcover-nonfiction">Hardcover Nonfiction</option> <option value="hardcover-advice">Hardcover Advice</option> </select> </p> </span> </div> </div>

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  • How do I do distributed UML development (à la FOSS)?

    - by James A. Rosen
    I have a UML project (built in IBM's Rational System Architect/Modeler, so stored in their XML format) that has grown quite large. Additionally, it now contains several pieces that other groups would like to re-use. I come from a software development (especially FOSS) background, and am trying to understand how to use that as an analogy here. The problem I am grappling with is similar to the Fragile Base Class problem. Let me start with how it works in an object-oriented (say, Java or Ruby) FOSS ecosystem: Group 1 publishes some "core" package, say "net/smtp version 1.0" Group 2 includes Group 1's net/smtp 1.0 package in the vendor library of their software project At some point, Group 1 creates a new 2.0 branch of net/smtp that breaks backwards compatibility (say, it removes an old class or method, or moves a class from one package to another). They tell users of the 1.0 version that it will be deprecated in one year. Group 2, when they have the time, updates to net/smtp 2.0. When they drop in the new package, their compiler (or test suite, for Ruby) tells them about the incompatibility. They do have to make some manual changes, but all of the changes are in the code, in plain text, a medium with which they are quite familiar. Plus, they can often use their IDE's (or text editor's) "global-search-and-replace" function once they figure out what the fixes are. When we try to apply this model to UML in RSA, we run into some problems. RSA supports some fairly powerful refactorings, but they seem to only work if you have write access to all of the pieces. If I rename a class in one package, RSA can rename the references, but only at the same time. It's very difficult to look at the underlying source (the XML) and figure out what's broken. To fix such a problem in the RSA editor itself means tons of clicking on things -- there is no good equivalent of "global-search-and-replace," at least not after an incomplete refactor. They real sticking point seems to be that RSA assumes that you want to do all your editing using their GUI, but that makes certain operations prohibitively difficult. Does anyone have examples of open-source UML projects that have overcome this problem? What strategies do they use for communicating changes?

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  • Cloning a selector + all its children in jQuery?

    - by HipHop-opatamus
    I'm having trouble getting the following JQuery script to function properly - its functionality is as follows: 1) Hide the content below each headline 2) Upon clicking a headline, substitute the "#first-post" with the headline + the hidden content below the headline. I can only seem to get the script to clone the headline itself to #first-post, not the headline + the content beneath it. Any idea why? <HTML> <HEAD> <script src="http://code.jquery.com/jquery-latest.js"></script> </HEAD> <script> $(document).ready( function(){ $('.title').siblings().hide(); $('.title').click( function() { $('#first-post').replaceWith($(this).closest(".comment").clone().attr('id','first-post')); $('html, body').animate({scrollTop:0}, 'fast'); return false; }); }); </script> <BODY> <div id="first-post"> <div class="content"><p>This is a test discussion topic</p> </div> </div> <div class="comment"> <h2 class="title"><a href="#1">1st Post</a></h2> <div class="content"> <p>this is 1st reply to the original post</p> </div> <div class="test">1st post second line</div> </div> <div class="comment"> <h2 class="title"><a href="#2">2nd Post</a></h2> <div class="content"> <p>this is 2nd reply to the original post</p> </div> <div class="test">2nd post second line</div> </div> </div> <div class="comment"> <h2 class="title"><a href="#3">3rd Post</a></h2> <div class="content"> <p>this is 3rd reply to the original post</p> </div> <div class="test">3rd post second line</div> </div> </div> </BODY> </HTML>

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  • Design patterns and interview question

    - by user160758
    When I was learning to code, I read up on the design patterns like a good boy. Long after this, I started to actually understand them. Design discussions such as those on this site constantly try to make the rules more and more general, which is good. But there is a line, over which it becomes over-analysis starts to feed off itself and as such I think begins to obfuscate the original point - for example the "What's Alternative to Singleton" post and the links contained therein. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1300655/whats-alternative-to-singleton I say this having been asked in both interviews I’ve had over the last 2 weeks what a singleton is and what criticisms I have of it. I have used it a few times for items such as user data (simple key-value eg. last file opened by this user) and logging (very common i'm sure). I've never ever used it just to have what is essentially global application data, as this is clearly stupid. In the first interview, I reply that I have no criticisms of it. He seemed disappointed by this but as the job wasn’t really for me, I forgot about it. In the next one, I was asked again and, as I wanted this job, I thought about it on the spot and made some objections, similar to those contained in the post linked to above (I suggested use of a factory or dependency injection instead). He seemed happy with this. But my problem is that I have used the singleton without ever using it in this kind of stupid way, which I had to describe on the spot. Using it for global data and the like isn’t something I did then realised was stupid, or read was stupid so didn’t do, it was just something I knew was stupid from the start. Essentially I’m supposed to be able to think of ways of how to misuse a pattern in the interview? Which class of programmers can best answer this question? The best ones? The medium ones? I'm not sure.... And these were both bright guys. I read more than enough to get better at my job but had never actually bothered to seek out criticisms of the most simple of the design patterns like this one. Do people think such questions are valid and that I ought to know the objections off by heart? Or that it is reasonable to be able to work out what other people who are missing the point would do on the fly? Or do you think I’m at least partially right that the question is too unsubtle and that the questions ought to be better thought out in order to make sure only good candidates can answer. PS. Please don’t think I’m saying that I’m just so clever that I know everything automatically - I’ve learnt the hard way like everyone else. But avoiding global data is hardly revolutionary.

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  • HTML-like GUI Framework in Java

    - by wintermute
    I was recently brought onto a project where we are developing a lot GUI elements for BlackBerry devices. The standard RIM APIs are pretty basic, almost never do what is required and are difficult or impossible to extend, so we end up re-implementing chunks of it. Currently the code we have isn't super organized and factored so there are lots of little tricks that get implemented over and over again. I had a thought about how to aid development efforts on this platform and wanted to see if the community could tell me if I'm still sane or if I've gone totally nuts. By far, the biggest organizational problem I've run into is making sure that each screen is laid out properly with proper padding and such. The current approach is to manually keep track of padding like so: protected void sublayout(int width, int height) { final int padding = 5; int y = padding; int x = padding; layoutChild(_someChild, width - padding * 2, height / 3 - padding * 2); setPositionChild(_someChild, x, y); y += _someChild.getHeight() + padding; // Calculate where to start drawing next. /* ... snipped ... */ } As you can see, positioning elements on a screen is a nightmare due to the tedium. I have investigated other GUI frameworks but, for a variety of reasons, it is difficult to find one that suites our purposes. One potential solution that came to me is to create a GUI framework who's API resembles HTML/CSS. This would allow for things like padding, margins, borders and colours to be handled through a sort of CSS API while the content would be organized using the HTML part of the API. It might look something like this: public class OptionsScreen extends Document { public OptionsScreen() { // You would set the style (like CSS style) through the constructor. Div content = new Div(new Style(new Padding(5), Color.BLACK)); // Then build up a tree of elements which can each have their own style's. // Each element knows how to draw itself, but it doesn't have to worry about // manually handling things like padding. // content.addChild(new P("This is a paragraph", new Style(new Padding(), Color.RED))); Ul list = new Ul(); list.addChild(new Li("item 1")); list.addChild(new Li("item 2")); content.addChild(list); addChild(content); } } I can imagine this making it easier to customize the UI of our app (which is very important) with different fonts, colours and layouts. Does this idea belong on The Daily WTF or do you think there is some promise?

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  • Working with friends. Poor career choice?

    - by a_person
    Hi all, Hope you can help me solve somewhat of a moral dilemma. Some time ago, after just a few years of living in U.S. and having to take any job I could get my hands on a friend of mine submitted recommended me for an open position at the company that he was working for. I could have not been happier. I do not have a degree of any sort, however, by being passionate about CS and with constant drive for self education I've became a somewhat of a strong generalist. Every place I worked for recognized me for that quality and used me on various projects where set of technology in hand had no overlap with set of knowledge of the team members. Rapidly I've advanced to Sr. Programmer position and the trend of me following a friend from one place to another have started and continued on for a few years. My friend's goal always been to become an IT Director, mine is to become the best programmer I can be. To my knowledge I've accommodated his goals as much as I could by taking a back seat, and letting him take the lead. Fast forward to today. He's a manager, and I am on his team. I am unhappy and I in considerable amount of suffering. I am not being utilized to my potential, it's almost exact opposite, I am being micromanaged to an unhealthy extent, my decisions, and suggestions are constantly met with negative connotation. Last week I had to hear about how my friend is a better programmer than I am. My ego was ecstatic about this one /s. In addition to that working in the field of BI have exhausted itself for most parts. The only pleasure of my work is being derived from making everything as dynamic and parameter driven as possible. This is the only area where a friend of mine does not feel competent enough to actually micromanage. Because of my situation I feel a fair amount of guilt and ever growing resentment. I need your advice, maybe you've dealt with this expression of ego before, needs of self vs the needs of your friend. Is working with a friend a poor choice? Thank you for reading in.

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  • Mercurial local repository backup

    - by Ricket
    I'm a big fan of backing things up. I keep my important school essays and such in a folder of my Dropbox. I make sure that all of my photos are duplicated to an external drive. I have a home server where I keep important files mirrored across two drives inside the server (like a software RAID 1). So for my code, I have always used Subversion to back it up. I keep the trunk folder with a stable copy of my application, but then I create a branch named with my username, and inside there is my working copy. I make very few changes between commits to that branch, with the understanding that the code in there is my backup. Now I'm looking into Mercurial, and I must admit I haven't truly used it yet so I may have this all wrong. But it seems to me that you have a server-side repository, and then you clone it to a working directory in the form of a local repository. Then as you work on something, you make commits to that local repository, and when things are in a state to be shared with others, you hg push to the parent repository on the server. Between pushes of stable, tested, bug-free code, where is the backup? After doing some thinking, I've come to the conclusion that it is not meant for backup purposes and it assumes you've handled that on your own. I guess I need to keep my Mercurial local repositories in my dropbox or some other backed-up location, since my in-progress code is not pushed to the server. Is this pretty much it, or have I missed something? If you use Mercurial, how do you backup your local repositories? If you had turned on your computer this morning and your hard drive went up in flames (or, more likely, the read head went bad, or the OS corrupted itself, ...), what would be lost? If you spent the past week developing a module, writing test cases for it, documenting and commenting it, and then a virus wipes your local repository away, isn't that the only copy? So then on the flip side, do you create a remote repository for every local repository and push to it all the time? How do you find a balance? How do you ensure your code is backed up? Where is the line between using Mercurial as backup, and using a local filesystem backup utility to keep your local repositories safe?

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  • Fixed strptime exception with thread lock, but slows down the program

    - by eWizardII
    I have the following code, which when is running inside of a thread (the full code is here - https://github.com/eWizardII/homobabel/blob/master/lovebird.py) for null in range(0,1): while True: try: with open('C:/Twitter/tweets/user_0_' + str(self.id) + '.json', mode='w') as f: f.write('[') threadLock.acquire() for i, seed in enumerate(Cursor(api.user_timeline,screen_name=self.ip).items(200)): if i>0: f.write(", ") f.write("%s" % (json.dumps(dict(sc=seed.author.statuses_count)))) j = j + 1 threadLock.release() f.write("]") except tweepy.TweepError, e: with open('C:/Twitter/tweets/user_0_' + str(self.id) + '.json', mode='a') as f: f.write("]") print "ERROR on " + str(self.ip) + " Reason: ", e with open('C:/Twitter/errors_0.txt', mode='a') as a_file: new_ii = "ERROR on " + str(self.ip) + " Reason: " + str(e) + "\n" a_file.write(new_ii) break Now without the thread lock I generate the following error: Exception in thread Thread-117: Traceback (most recent call last): File "C:\Python27\lib\threading.py", line 530, in __bootstrap_inner self.run() File "C:/Twitter/homobabel/lovebird.py", line 62, in run for i, seed in enumerate(Cursor(api.user_timeline,screen_name=self.ip).items(200)): File "build\bdist.win-amd64\egg\tweepy\cursor.py", line 110, in next self.current_page = self.page_iterator.next() File "build\bdist.win-amd64\egg\tweepy\cursor.py", line 85, in next items = self.method(page=self.current_page, *self.args, **self.kargs) File "build\bdist.win-amd64\egg\tweepy\binder.py", line 196, in _call return method.execute() File "build\bdist.win-amd64\egg\tweepy\binder.py", line 182, in execute result = self.api.parser.parse(self, resp.read()) File "build\bdist.win-amd64\egg\tweepy\parsers.py", line 75, in parse result = model.parse_list(method.api, json) File "build\bdist.win-amd64\egg\tweepy\models.py", line 38, in parse_list results.append(cls.parse(api, obj)) File "build\bdist.win-amd64\egg\tweepy\models.py", line 49, in parse user = User.parse(api, v) File "build\bdist.win-amd64\egg\tweepy\models.py", line 86, in parse setattr(user, k, parse_datetime(v)) File "build\bdist.win-amd64\egg\tweepy\utils.py", line 17, in parse_datetime date = datetime(*(time.strptime(string, '%a %b %d %H:%M:%S +0000 %Y')[0:6])) File "C:\Python27\lib\_strptime.py", line 454, in _strptime_time return _strptime(data_string, format)[0] File "C:\Python27\lib\_strptime.py", line 300, in _strptime _TimeRE_cache = TimeRE() File "C:\Python27\lib\_strptime.py", line 188, in __init__ self.locale_time = LocaleTime() File "C:\Python27\lib\_strptime.py", line 77, in __init__ raise ValueError("locale changed during initialization") ValueError: locale changed during initialization The problem is with thread lock on, each thread runs itself serially basically, and it takes way to long for each loop to run for there to be any advantage to having a thread anymore. So if there isn't a way to get rid of the thread lock, is there a way to have it run the for loop inside of the try statement faster?

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