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  • Delivery of JMS message before the transaction is committed

    - by ewernli
    Hi, I have a very simple scenario involving a database and a JMS in an application server (Glassfish). The scenario is dead simple: 1. an EJB inserts a row in the database and sends a message. 2. when the message is delivered with an MDB, the row is read and updated. The problem is that sometimes the message is delivered before the insert has been committed in the database. This is actually understandable if we consider the 2 phase commit protocol: 1. prepare JMS 2. prepare database 3. commit JMS 4. ( tiny little gap where message can be delivered before insert has been committed) 5. commit database I've discussed this problem with others, but the answer was always: "Strange, it should work out of the box". My questions are then: How could it work out-of-the box? My scenario sounds fairly simple, why isn't there more people with similar troubles? Am I doing something wrong? Is there a way to solve this issue correctly? Here are a bit more details about my understanding of the problem: This timing issue exist only if the participant are treated in this order. If the 2PC treats the participants in the reverse order (database first then message broker) that should be fine. The problem was randomly happening but completely reproducible. I found no way to control the order of the participants in the distributed transactions in the JTA, JCA and JPA specifications neither in the Glassfish documentation. We could assume they will be enlisted in the distributed transaction according to the order when they are used, but with an ORM such as JPA, it's difficult to know when the data are flushed and when the database connection is really used. Any idea?

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  • Replacing/Extending Visual Studio's Generate Stub in Visual Studio 2010

    - by devoured elysium
    When we write the name of a method that doesn't exist, Visual Studio 2010 asks us if we'd like to generate a method stub with that name. What I'd like to know if is it possible to replace that same code stub generating command with one made by myself. I never did any kind of extensibility programming for Visual Studio so I have a couple of questions: How hard is it? Is it something I can learn in a couple of nights, or is it something that'll make me "lose" a lot of time? It seems to me that there isn't a lot of support for that kind of programming, as generally people are not that interested in developing solutions that extend the Visual Studio IDE. I searched on SO and it doesn't appear to have many threads about extending Visual Studio. I don't know how the generate method stub thing works in Visual Studio, but I just wanted to turn it into something a bit more flexible and useful. Has anyone dealt with these kind of things before, that can give me a pointer to where to start? I know of MS VSX site but that has a lot of resources and can be overwhelming for someone new to the subject as I am. What technology will I need to use? T4? Maybe I'll need to know a lot about the code, like Visual Studio does, so I can know other method's type arguments, names, etc. Is that what T4 is for? Thanks

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  • SharePoint 2007 and SiteMinder

    - by pborovik
    Here is a question regarding some details how SiteMinder secures access to the SharePoint 2007. I've read a bunch of materials regarding this and have some picture for SharePoint 2010 FBA claims-based + SiteMinder security (can be wrong here, of course): SiteMinder is registered as a trusted identity provider for the SharePoint; It means (to my mind) that SharePoint has no need to go into all those user directories like AD, RDBMS or whatever to create a record for user being granted access to SharePoint - instead it consumes a claims-based id supplied by SiteMinder SiteMinder checks all requests to SharePoint resources and starts login sequence via SiteMinder if does not find required headers in the request (SMSESSION, etc.) SiteMinder creates a GenericIdentity with the user login name if headers are OK, so SharePoint recognizes the user as authenticated But in the case of SharePoint 2007 with FBA + SiteMinder, I cannot find an answer for questions like: Does SharePoint need to go to all those user directories like AD to know something about users (as SiteMinder is not in charge of providing user info like claims-based ids)? So, SharePoint admin should configure SharePoint FBA to talk to these sources? Let's say I'm talking to a Web Service of SharePoint protected by SiteMinder. Shall I make a Authentication.asmx-Login call to create a authentication ticket or this schema is somehow changed by the SiteMinder? If such call is needed, do I also need a SiteMinder authentication sequence? What prevents me from rewriting request headers (say, manually in Fiddler) before posting request to the SharePoint protected by SiteMinder to override its defence? Pity, but I do not have access to deployed SiteMinder + SharePoint, so need to investigate some question blindly. Thanks.

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  • Why Java language does not offer a way to declare getters and setters of a given "field" through ann

    - by zim2001
    I actually happily design and develop JEE Applications for quite 9 years, but I realized recently that as time goes by, I feel more and more fed up of dragging all these ugly bean classes with their bunch of getters and setters. Considering a basic bean like this : public class MyBean { // needs getter AND setter private int myField1; // needs only a getter, no setter private int myField2; // needs only a setter, no getter private int myField3; /** * Get the field1 * @return the field1 */ public int getField1() { return myField1; } /** * Set the field1 * @param value the value */ public void setField1(int value) { myField1 = value; } /** * Get the field2 * @return the field2 */ public int getField2() { return myField2; } /** * Set the field3 * @param value the value */ public void setField3(int value) { myField3 = value; } } I'm dreaming of something like this : public class MyBean { @inout(public,public) private int myField1; @out(public) private int myField2; @in(public) private int myField3; } No more stupid javadoc, just tell the important thing... It would still be possible to mix annotation and written down getters or setters, to cover cases when it should do non-trivial sets and gets. In other words, annotation would auto-generate the getter / setter code piece except when a literate one is provided. Moreover, I'm also dreaming of replacing things like that : MyBean b = new MyBean(); int v = b.getField1(); b.setField3(v+1); by such : MyBean b = new MyBean(); int v = b.field1; b.field3 = v+1; In fact, writing "b.field1" on the right side of an expression would be semantically identical to write "b.getField1()", I mean as if it has been replaced by some kind of a preprocessor. It's just an idea but I'm wondering if I'm alone on that topic, and also if it has major flaws. I'm aware that this question doesn't exactly meet the SO credo (we prefer questions that can be answered, not just discussed) so I flag it community wiki...

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  • How do I grant a site's applet an AllPermission privilege?

    - by nahsra
    I'd like to specify certain applets to run with java.security.AllPermission on my computer (for debugging and security testing). However, I don't want to enable all applets that I run to have this permission. So, editing my user Java policy file (which I have ensured is the correct policy file through testing), I try to put this value: grant codeBase "http://host_where_applet_lives/-" { permission java.security.AllPermission; }; This value fails when the applet tries to do something powerful (create a new Thread, in my case). However, when I put the following value: grant { permission java.security.AllPermission; }; The applet is able to perform the powerful operation. The only difference is the lack of a codeBase attribute. An answer to a similar question asked here [1] seemed to suggest (but never show or prove) that AccessController.doPrivileged() calls may be required. To me, this sounds wrong as I don't need that call when I grant the permissions to all applets (the second example I showed). Even if this is a solution, littering the applets I run with AccessController.doPrivileged() calls is not easy or necessarily possible. To top it off, my tests show that this just doesn't work anyway. But I'm happy to hear more ideas around it. [1] http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1751412/cant-get-allpermission-configured-for-intranet-applet-can-anyone-help

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  • Job Opportunities

    - by James
    I have a few questions about my job opportunities and I appreaciate it if people could give me some feedback on what I should have in front of me. I am graduatating from a University of Wisconsin--La Crosse this December with a degree in CS and a math minor. I have a cumulative GPA of 3.84 and a major GPA of 4.0 right now (though I still have many classes in front of me). I already have a degree from the U of Minnesota (History, 3.69 GPA) and have worked in the business world for 3+ years (working for a small company in the baseball world, doing some computer programming, statistical research, operations work, technical writing, etc.) I know Java and C well, also am comfortable with Perl. I should have a good grasp of SQL by graduation. I am looking to get a nice programming job (and will be open to moving). Anyone have any advice on things I should learn etc? Also, I would like to know what everyone thinks about my chances of landing a decent job (I realize that is subjective). Also, any ideas on salary I should be looking for (say I am working a metropolitan area). Thanks.

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  • what is the exact way to use Endorsed directory in jdk1.6

    - by raticulin
    I want to upgrade my jaxws to 2.2 (jdk1.6 comes bundled with jaxws 2.1). My jdk is (I did not install public jre): java version "1.6.0_20" Java(TM) SE Runtime Environment (build 1.6.0_20-b02) Java HotSpot(TM) Client VM (build 16.3-b01, mixed mode) In jaxws' own doc they explain how to do it: One way to fix this is to copy jaxws-api.jar and jaxb-api.jar into JRE endorsed directory, which is $JAVA_HOME/lib/endorsed (or $JDK_HOME/jre/lib/endorsed) But I am not sure this is having any effect in my installation. For starters I have only defined %JAVA_HOME%. And folder $JAVA_HOME/lib/endorsed is inexistant, so I created and copied the two jars. But if I do (wsgen is a tool from jaxws) wsgen -version I still get: JAX-WS RI 2.1.6 in JDK 6 I also tried creating folder JAVA_HOME\jre\lib\endorsed (notice that in the doc they say JDK_HOME, but as I only have JAVA_HOME I used this path). Still same wsgen output. My questions are: What is the difference between JAVA_HOME and JDK_HOME in the doc page? anything significant or just two ways to refer to JAVA_HOME ? Is 'wsgen -version' a valid way to check jaxws version that is used or this always calls the exe in the original jdk, but it does not mean endorsed jars will be used? Anyone knows very detailed steps to install jaxws2.2 in a jdk.16?

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  • How do I duplicate Facebook picture tagging functionality?

    - by marcamillion
    I asked this question in another post - http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2597773/how-do-i-put-a-div-box-around-my-cursor-on-click I got a wonderful answer. See the code below: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#image-wrapper").click(function(e){ var ele = $("<div>"); ele.css({width:"50px", height:"50px", border:"1px solid green", position:"absolute", left: e.pageX - 25, top: e.pageY -25}); $("body").append(ele); }); }); </script> <div id="image-wrapper" style="border: 1px solid red; width: 300px; height: 200px;"> </div> The issue I am having is that when I implement this snippet, on every click a box appears and stays there. So if I click on the image 10 times, I get 10 boxes. How do I get the previous box to disappear once I click somewhere else (i.e. have the box move to another place on the image (just like with Facebook Picture Tagging))? Thanks.

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  • iPhone app stopped building crash reports

    - by BankStrong
    My app formerly created useful crash logs. I synced my iPhone in the past and found crash logs in library/logs/CrashReporter About a month ago, my app stopped creating crash reports. When I first discovered this problem, I assumed it was due to memory corruption (a possibility in my app). I just created a new project and added a crash to it. // Implement viewDidLoad to do additional setup after loading the view, // typically from a nib. - (void)viewDidLoad { NSMutableArray *array = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; [array removeObjectAtIndex:-1]; [super viewDidLoad]; } This app does not create a crash report either. Ideas I've started to explore: My phone is corrupted (tried restoring - somehow I brought it to the state from a few months ago) My XCode is corrupt (tried reinstalling, but current download demands Snow Leopard - and I can't upgrade to Snow Leopard online). This seems possible - I may have messed with device support around a month ago (similar to http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1224867/does-iphone-os-3-0-1-ruin-your-development-phone ) The location for crash logs has somehow moved. Suggestions?

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  • Converting plain text in SQL to hyperlink in Access

    - by manemawanna
    Hello, I've just started a new job my first since leaving University and as part of this my first task is to convert a wholly Access 2003 database to an Access front-end, SQL back-end. The Access database consists of a series of front end forms to add or review staff data, as part of this there is hyperlinks pointing to a photograph of the employee and there CV located on a shared drive. These were saved as hyperlinks within the Access DB. I have since converted the data in the Access DB to SQL and stored it in a database for me to test on, now as part of the data conversion the photo and CV locations were converted to nvarchar from hyperlink. I've done this using SSMA. My issue now is that I need to have these text links displayed and working as hyperlinks on the front end hidden behind the words "Photo" and "CV", but am unsure as to how to go about this, as in the past I've only ever used SQL and not Access. Any help or suggestions would be appreciated and if I've not been clear in any areas please feel free to ask questions and I'll try to clear anything up for you.

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  • Update existing Preference-item in a PreferenceActivity upon returning from a (sub)PreferenceScreen

    - by aioobe
    I have a PreferenceActivity with a bunch of (Sub)PreferenceScreens. Each such (Sub)PreferenceScreen represents an account and has the account-username as its title. PreferenceScreen root = mgr.createPreferenceScreen(this); for (MyAccountClass account : myAccounts) { final PreferenceScreen accScreen = mgr.createPreferenceScreen(this); accScreen.setTitle(account.getUsername()); // add Preferences to the accScreen // (for instance a "change username"-preference) ... root.add(accScreen); } As the user enters sub-PreferenceScreen, and edits the account user-name, I want the outer PreferenceScreen to update it's PreferenceScreen-title for the account in question. I've tried to add... usernamePref.setOnPreferenceChangeListener(new OnPreferenceChangeListener() { public boolean onPreferenceChange(Preference preference, Object newValue) { accScreen.setTitle(newValue.toString()); return true; } }); ...but the accScreen.setTitle does not seem to take effect on the outer PreferenceScreen. I've note that calling onContentChanged(); actually makes it work, but I realize that this is probably not the preferred way of doing it. I suspect I should call postInvalidate() on some view somewhere, but I really can't figure out on what view and when to do it. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2396153/preferencescreen-androidsummary-update may be experiening the same problem as me. Any help appreciated.

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  • WPF multitrigger referencing 2 other controls

    - by BrettRobi
    I have two CheckBoxes and a TextBox. I want to TextBox to have IsEnabled=False if both CheckBoxes have IsChecked=False. Can I do this with a MultiTrigger? I keep getting errors trying to use the Source property. I have it working with MultiDataTriggers as you can see below. But have two questions. 1) Is this my only choice? Can I do it with a MultiTrigger? <TextBox.Style> <Style TargetType="TextBox"> <Style.Triggers> <MultiDataTrigger> <MultiDataTrigger.Conditions> <Condition Binding="{Binding ElementName=uxDmm , Path=IsChecked}" Value="False" /> <Condition Binding="{Binding ElementName=uxGpm , Path=IsChecked}" Value="False" /> </MultiDataTrigger.Conditions> <Setter Property="IsEnabled" Value="False" /> </MultiDataTrigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> </TextBox.Style> 2) Can I do this outside of the tag? I'm not really sure where Triggers can be applied, most samples do it within Style or DataTemplates, but defining it within a Style is messing up my default look and feel for the TextBox.

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  • drupal ajax create node

    - by Mark
    I need to create a drupal node via ajax. I'm looking for some instructions as in: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/960343/creating-a-drupal-node-with-javascript But with more detail, and including the js steps. The JS will probably look something like this: var title = 'Demo Node Title' $('button').click(function () { $.post('demo/js', {"title" : title}, function(data) { var json = eval("(" + data + ")"); if (json['status'] == "error") { alert(json['message']); } else if (json['status'] == "success") { alert(json['message']); // Need to return the nid of the new node here. Anyone know how to do this? } }); }); The PHP (copied from the other question, but I don't understand it much, how do I set the title of the node? also as the comments says, how do I set an input filter?): <?php /** * Implementation of hook_menu(). */ function demo_menu() { $items = array(); $items['demo/js'] = array( 'title' => 'Demo page', 'page callback' => 'demo_js_page', 'access callback' => TRUE, 'type' => MENU_CALLBACK, ); return $items; } /** * Page callback that saves a node. */ function demo_js_page() { if (isset($_REQUEST['title'])) { $node = new stdClass; $node->type = 'blog'; $node->title = check_plain($_REQUEST['title']); node_save($node); drupal_set_message(t('Created node %title', array('%title' => $_REQUEST['title']))); } return t('Thanks for visiting'); } Thanks in advance.

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  • asp.Net 2005 "Could not load type"

    - by Melody Friedenthal
    Although I have seen dozens of forum questions relating to "Could not load type", none of the advice in them seemed to apply to my situation. I wrote a new web application using aspx.net VB 2005. It is tiny, with just 2 pages, 1 of which has no code-behind. It runs aok in the IDE but when I installed it on my pc (and also when installed on the production server), and tried to run it this error came up: Parser Error Description: An error occurred during the parsing of a resource required to service this request. Please review the following specific parse error details and modify your source file appropriately. Parser Error Message: Could not load type 'EMTTrainingDatabase.pageMain'. Source Error: Line 1: <%@ Page Language="vb" AutoEventWireup="false" CodeBehind="pageMain.aspx.vb" Inherits="EMTTrainingDatabase.pageMain" %> Line 2: Line 3: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> Source File: /EMTTrainingDatabase/pageMain.aspx Line: 1 -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- Version Information: Microsoft .NET Framework Version:2.0.50727.3603; ASP.NET Version:2.0.50727.3082 I checked the web site properties in IIS and the correct ASP.net version is specified: 2.0.50727. I checked the virtual path and it looks correct too: /EMTTrainingDatabase pageMain source code header looks like: <%@ Page Language="vb" AutoEventWireup="false" CodeBehind="pageMain.aspx.vb" Inherits="EMTTrainingDatabase.pageMain" %> Some posters suggest that the bin is in the wrong folder or the bin doesn't contain the rigt contents. I don't have enough knowledge to evaulate this. Can someone help? Thank you.

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  • Error Log states that I have MySQL connect error, yet script runs fine

    - by rob - not a robber
    Hello All, First, thanks for all the help I've received so far from StackOverflow. I've learned much. Once again, I'm posing a rudimentary question that I've searched on, but cannot find the exact answer to. Here or on PHP.net. It's sort of like what this guy asked, but not exactly: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/288603/mysql-throwing-query-error-yet-finishing-query-just-fine-why So, I saw my errorlog ballooning up when I checked my site directory and opened to notice that a bunch of errors have been recorded since I wrote this new Admin area. I know something is obviously awry with my scripting for the error to be thrown, but the weird thing is, the script actually runs through and pulls all the data I need without breaking. The log contains: PHP Warning: mysql_query() [function.mysql-query]: Access denied for user 'someuser'@'localhost' (using password: NO) in /home/mysite/adminconsole.php on line 15 I don't get that because that very line is where I setup my connection... the exact same way I do it everywhere else on the site with no problem. After that error, I have these thrown at the same time [09-Apr-2010 08:44:18] PHP Warning: mysql_query() [function.mysql-query]: A link to the server could not be established in /home/mysite/adminconsole.php on line 15 [09-Apr-2010 08:44:18] PHP Warning: mysql_fetch_array(): supplied argument is not a valid MySQL result resource in /home/mysite/adminconsole.php on line 16 From what I read in the other guys thread, the problem is the contents of the query maybe? Maybe my query is malformed? Thanks so much for any guidance you can provide. -Rob

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  • Break on EXC_BAD_ACCESS in XCode?

    - by jasonh
    I'm new to iPhone development and XCode in general and have no idea how to begin troubleshooting an EXC_BAD_ACCESS signal. How can I get XCode to break at the exact line that is causing the error? I can't seem to get XCode to stop on the line causing the problem, but I do see the following lines in my debug console: Sun Oct 25 15:12:14 jasonsmacbook TestProject[1289] : CGContextSetStrokeColorWithColor: invalid context Sun Oct 25 15:12:14 jasonsmacbook TestProject[1289] : CGContextSetLineWidth: invalid context Sun Oct 25 15:12:14 jasonsmacbook TestProject[1289] : CGContextAddPath: invalid context Sun Oct 25 15:12:14 jasonsmacbook TestProject[1289] : CGContextDrawPath: invalid context 2009-10-25 15:12:14.680 LanderTest[1289:207] *** -[CFArray objectAtIndex:]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x3c4e610 Now, I am attempting to draw to the context I retrieve from UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext() and pass to the object that I want to draw with. Further trial and error debugging and I found that an NSMutableArray I have a property for on my class was a zombie. I went into the init function for the class and here's the code I was using: if ((self = [super init])) { NSMutableArray *array = [NSMutableArray array]; self.terrainBlocks = array; [array release]; } return self; } I removed the [array release] line and it no longer gives me the EXC_BAD_ACCESS signal, but I'm now confused about why this works. I thought that when I used the property, it automatically retained it for me, and thus I should release it from within init so that I don't have a leak. I'm thoroughly confused about how this works and all the guides and Stackoverflow questions I've read only confuse me more about how to set properties within my init method. There seems to be no consensus as to which way is the best.

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  • diffie-hellman ssh keyxchange

    - by Chuck
    Hi, I've set out to make a primitive SSH client in C#; you might remember me from posts such as http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2872279/c-primitive-ssh-connection-lowlevel hehe. Anyway, things are great up until the time when I initiate a DH key exchange. I've compared the traffic when I establish a ssh connection (from openssh client to openssh server), to the traffic when my client connects to the same openssh server. OpenSSH client - OpenSSH server (S for server, C for client): S: SSH-2.0-OpenSSH_5.1p1 Debian-6ubuntu2\r (saying hello) C: SSH-2.0-OpenSSH_5.2\r (introducing myself) C: Key Exchange Init (0x14 = 20) S: Key Exchange Init C: Diffie-Hellman GEX Request (0x22 = 34) (with DH GEX min, number of bits and max) S: Diffie-Hellman Key Exchange Reply (with P, G, etc.) C: Diffie-Hellman GEX Init S: Diffie-Hellman GEX Reply My client - OpenSSH server: S: SSH-2.0-OpenSSH_5.1p1 Debian-6ubuntu2\r (saying hello) C: SSH-2.0-Some_Name\r (introducing myself) C: Key Exchange Init (0x14 = 20) S: Key Exchange Init C: Diffie-Hellman GEX Request (0x22 = 34) (with DH GEX min, number of bits and max) and then a bogus TCP packet as reply (probably the server connection has been terminated after/upon GEX Request. I have yet to use AES128 (which I think is the encryption chosen, but I'm not sure how to verify this...), and I'm still sending in a non-compressed format, looking to get the P, G etc. values to make the DH calculations. So where I'm stranded is: RFC 4419 page 3 http://www.ietf.org/rfc/rfc4419.txt I've send SSH_MSG_KEY_DH_GEX_REQUEST, but the server does not respond SSH_MSG_KEX_DH_GEX_GROUP. Can anyone give me a little advice on what I'm not understanding here? Does the server not understand my GEX request (due to it expecting encryption, or?)? Any help is very much appreciated, thanks :)

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  • Web Service Client in JBOSS 5.1 with JDK6

    - by dcp
    This is a continuation of the question here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2435286/jboss-does-app-have-to-be-compiled-under-same-jdk-as-jboss-is-running-under It's different enough though that it required a new question. I am trying to use jdk6 to run JBOSS 5.1, and I downloaded the JDK6 version of JBOSS 5.1. This works fine and my EAR application deploys fine. However, when I want to run a web service client with code like this: public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { System.out.println("creating the web service client..."); TestClient client = new TestClient("http://localhost:8080/tc_test_project-tc_test_project/TestBean?wsdl"); Test service = client.getTestPort(); System.out.println("calling service.retrieveAll() using the service client"); List<TestEntity> list = service.retrieveAll(); System.out.println("the number of elements in list retrieved using the client is " + list.size()); } I get the following exception: javax.xml.ws.WebServiceException: java.lang.UnsupportedOperationException: setProperty must be overridden by all subclasses of SOAPMessage at org.jboss.ws.core.jaxws.client.ClientImpl.handleRemoteException(ClientImpl.java:396) at org.jboss.ws.core.jaxws.client.ClientImpl.invoke(ClientImpl.java:302) at org.jboss.ws.core.jaxws.client.ClientProxy.invoke(ClientProxy.java:170) at org.jboss.ws.core.jaxws.client.ClientProxy.invoke(ClientProxy.java:150) Now, here's the really interesting part. If I change the JDK that my the code above is running under from JDK6 to JDK5, the exception above goes away! It's really strange. The only way I found for the code above to run under JDK6 was to take the JBOSS_HOME/lib/endorsed folder and copy it to JDK6_HOME/lib. This seems like it shouldn't be necessary, but it is. Is there any other way to make this work other than using the workaround I just described?

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  • [Repost-ish] Impossibly slow queries, Tables indexed, How can I speed it up?

    - by colorfulgrayscale
    Hi guys, I posted a little earlier on here at http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2656837/query-results-taking-too-long-on-200k-database-speed-up-tips asking about slow executing SQL queries. I was told to index the columns; I did. and its still slow (slow as in, i never see the results, both mysql and sqlite freeze up on query). Help would be greatly appreciated. Here is the SQL SELECT equipment.`unitID` AS `equipment_unitID`, equipment.`fleetCode` AS `equipment_fleetCode`, equipment.type AS equipment_type, equipment.tiremap AS equipment_tiremap, tiremap.`TireID` AS `tiremap_TireID`, tiremap.`WorkMap` AS `tiremap_WorkMap`, tiremap.`Position` AS `tiremap_Position`, tiremap.`DepthMap` AS `tiremap_DepthMap`, tiremap.timestamp AS tiremap_timestamp, workreference.`aMap` AS `workreference_aMap`, workreference.`bMap` AS `workreference_bMap`, tirework.`RO` AS `tirework_RO`, tirework.location AS tirework_location, tirework.mileage AS tirework_mileage, tirework.`mechanicCode` AS `tirework_mechanicCode`, tirework.`partNumber` AS `tirework_partNumber`, tirework.`historyID` AS `tirework_historyID`, tirework.workmap AS tirework_workmap, tirework.timestamp AS tirework_timestamp FROM equipment, tiremap, workreference, tirework WHERE equipment.tiremap = tiremap.`TireID` AND tiremap.`WorkMap` = workreference.`aMap` AND workreference.`bMap` = tirework.workmap LIMIT 5 and here is the EXPLAIN for it id select_type table type possible_keys key key_len ref rows Extra 1 SIMPLE equipment ALL tiremap 14079 1 SIMPLE tiremap ref PRIMARY,WorkMap,TireID,WorkMap_2 PRIMARY 52 tire.equipment.tiremap 3 1 SIMPLE workreference ref aMap,bMap aMap 52 tire.tiremap.WorkMap 1 1 SIMPLE tirework eq_ref NewIndex1 NewIndex1 52 tire.workreference.bMap 1

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  • Database design for sharing photos site?

    - by javaLearner.java
    I am using php and mysql. If I want to do a sharing photos website, whats the best database design for upload and display photos. This is what I have in mind: domain: |_> photos |_> user Logged in user will upload photo in [http://www.domain.com/user/upload.php] The photos are stored in filesystems, and the path-to-photos stored in database. So, in my photos folder would be like: photos/userA/subfolders+photos, photos/userB/subfolders+photos, photos/userC/subfolders+photos etc Public/others people may view his photo in: [http://www.domain.com/photos/user/?photoid=123] where 123 is the photoid, from there, I will query from database to fetch the path and display the image. My questions: Whats the best database design for photo-sharing website (like flickr)? Will there be any problems if I keep creating new folder in "photos" folder. What if hundreds of thousands users registered? Whats the best practices What size of photos should I keep? Currently I only stored thumbnail (100x100) and (max) 1600x1200 px photos. What others things I should take note when developing photos-sharing website?

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  • Translate an exception into 404 from Application_Error

    - by Dmitriy Nagirnyak
    Hi, First of all, quickly what exactly I want to achieve: translate particular exception into the HTTP 404 so the ASP.NET can handle it further. I am handling exceptions in the ASP.NET (MVC2) this way: protected void Application_Error(object sender, EventArgs e) { var err = Server.GetLastError(); if (err == null) return; err = err.GetBaseException(); var noObject = err as ObjectNotFoundException; if (noObject != null) HandleObjectNotFound(); var handled = noObject != null; if (!handled) Logger.Fatal("Unhandled exception has occured in application.", err); } private void HandleObjectNotFound() { Server.ClearError(); Response.Clear(); // new HttpExcepton(404, "Not Found"); // Throw or not to throw? Response.StatusCode = 404; Response.StatusDescription = "Not Found"; Response.StatusDescription = "Not Found"; Response.Write("The whole HTML body explaining whata 404 is??"); } The problem is that I cannot configure default customErrors to work with it. When it is on then it never redirects to the page specified in customErrors: <error statusCode="404" redirect="404.html"/>. I also tried to raise new HttpExcepton(404, "Not Found") from the handler but then the response code is 200 which I don't understand why. So the questions are: What is the proper way of translating AnException into HTTP 404 response? How does customErrors section work when handling exceptions in Application_Error? Why throwing HttpException(404) renders (blank) page with success (200) status? Thanks, Dmitriy.

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  • Creating nodes porgramatically in Drupal 6

    - by John
    Hey, I have been searching for how to create nodes in Drupal 6. I found some entries here on stackoverflow, but the questions seemed to either be for older versions or the solutions did not work for me. Ok, so here is my current process for trying to create $node = new stdClass(); $node->title = "test title"; $node->body = "test body"; $node->type= "story"; $node->created = time(); $node->changed = $node->created; $node->status = 1; $node->promote = 1; $node->sticky = 0; $node->format = 1; $node->uid = 1; node_save( $node ); When I execute this code, the node is created, but when I got the administration page, it throws the following errors: warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in C:\wamp\www\steelylib\includes\menu.inc on line 258. warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in C:\wamp\www\steelylib\includes\menu.inc on line 258. user warning: Duplicate entry '36' for key 1 query: INSERT INTO node_comment_statistics (nid, last_comment_timestamp, last_comment_name, last_comment_uid, comment_count) VALUES (36, 1269980590, NULL, 1, 0) in C:\wamp\www\steelylib\sites\all\modules\nodecomment\nodecomment.module on line 409. warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in C:\wamp\www\steelylib\includes\menu.inc on line 258. warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in C:\wamp\www\steelylib\includes\menu.inc on line 258. I've looked at different tutorials, and all seem to follow the same process. I'm not sure what I am doing wrong. I am using Drupal 6.15. When I roll back the database (to right before I made the changes) the errors are gone. Any help is appreciated!

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  • Bash Templating: How to build configuration files from templates with Bash?

    - by FractalizeR
    Hello. I'm writting a script to automate creating configuration files for Apache and PHP for my own webserver. I don't want to use any GUIs like CPanel or ISPConfig. I have some templates of Apache and PHP configuration files. Bash script needs to read templates, make variable substitution and output parsed templates into some folder. What is the best way to do that? I can think of several ways. Which one is the best or may be there are some better ways to do that? I want to do that in pure Bash (it's easy in PHP for example) 1)http://stackoverflow.com/questions/415677/how-to-repace-variables-in-a-nix-text-file template.txt: the number is ${i} the word is ${word} script.sh: #!/bin/sh #set variables i=1 word="dog" #read in template one line at the time, and replace variables #(more natural (and efficient) way, thanks to Jonathan Leffler) while read line do eval echo "$line" done < "./template.txt" BTW, how do I redirect output to external file here? Do I need to escape something if variables contain, say, quotes? 2) Using cat & sed for replacing each variable with it's value: Given template.txt: The number is ${i} The word is ${word} Command: cat template.txt | sed -e "s/\${i}/1/" | sed -e "s/\${word}/dog/" Seems bad to me because of the need to escape many different symbols and with many variables the line will be tooooo long. Can you think of some other elegant and safe solution?

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  • php regex word boundary matching in utf-8

    - by dontomaso
    Hi, I have the following php code in a utf-8 php file: var_dump(setlocale(LC_CTYPE, 'de_DE.utf8', 'German_Germany.utf-8', 'de_DE', 'german')); var_dump(mb_internal_encoding()); var_dump(mb_internal_encoding('utf-8')); var_dump(mb_internal_encoding()); var_dump(mb_regex_encoding()); var_dump(mb_regex_encoding('utf-8')); var_dump(mb_regex_encoding()); var_dump(preg_replace('/\bweiß\b/iu', 'weiss', 'weißbier')); I would like the last regex to replace only full words and not parts of words. On my windows computer, it returns: string 'German_Germany.1252' (length=19) string 'ISO-8859-1' (length=10) boolean true string 'UTF-8' (length=5) string 'EUC-JP' (length=6) boolean true string 'UTF-8' (length=5) string 'weißbier' (length=9) On the webserver (linux), I get: string(10) "de_DE.utf8" string(10) "ISO-8859-1" bool(true) string(5) "UTF-8" string(10) "ISO-8859-1" bool(true) string(5) "UTF-8" string(9) "weissbier" Thus, the regex works as I expected on windows but not on linux. So the main question is, how should I write my regex to only match at word boundaries? A secondary questions is how I can let windows know that I want to use utf-8 in my php application.

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  • How do I create Twitter style URL's for my app - Using existing application or app redesign - Ruby o

    - by bgadoci
    I have developed a blog application of sorts that I am trying to allow other users to take advantage of (for free and mostly for family). I wondering if the authentication I have set up will allow for such a thing. Here is the scenario. Currently the application allows for users to sign up for an account and when they do so they can create blog posts and organize those posts via tags. The application displays no data publicly (another words, you have to login to see anything). To gain access you have to create an account and even after you do, you cannot see anyone else's information as the applications filters using the current_user method and displays in the /posts/index.html.erb page. This would be great if a user only wanted to blog and share it with themselves, not really what I am looking for. My question has two parts (hopefully I won't make anyone mad by not putting these into two questions) Is it possible for a particular users data to live at www.myapplication.com/user without moving everything to the /user/show.html.erb file? Is it possible to make some of that information (living at the URL) public but still require login for create and destroy actions. Essentially, exactly like twitter. I am just curious if I can get from where I am (using the current_user methods across controllers to display in /posts/index.html.erb) to where I want to be. My fear is that I have to redesign the app such that the user data lives in the /user/show.html.erb page. Thoughts?

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