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  • How to do this Python / MySQL manipulation (match) more efficiently?

    - by NJTechie
    Following is my data : Company Table : ID Company Address City State Zip Phone 1 ABC 123 Oak St Philly PA 17542 7329878901 2 CDE 111 Joe St Newark NJ 08654 3 GHI 211 Foe St Brick NJ 07740 7321178901 4 JAK 777 Wall Ocean NJ 07764 7322278901 5 KLE 87 Ilk St Plains NY 07654 7376578901 6 AB 1 W.House SField PA 87656 7329878901 Branch Office Table : ID Address City State Zip Phone 1 323 Alk St Philly PA 17542 7329832221 1 171 Joe St Newark NJ 08654 3 287 Foe St Brick NJ 07740 7321178901 3 700 Wall Ocean NJ 07764 7322278901 1 89 Blk St Surrey NY 07154 7376222901 File to be Matched (In MySQL): ID Company Address City State Zip Phone 1 ABC 123 Oak St Philly PA 17542 7329878901 2 AB 171 Joe St Newark NJ 08654 3 GHI 211 Foe St Brick NJ 07740 7321178901 4 JAK 777 Wall Ocean NJ 07764 7322278901 5 K 87 Ilk St Plains NY 07654 7376578901 Resulting File : ID Company Address City State Zip Phone appendedID 1 ABC 123 Oak St Philly PA 17542 7329878901 [Original record, field always empty] 1 ABC 171 Joe St Newark NJ 08654 1 [Company Table] 1 ABC 323 Alk St Philly PA 17542 7329832221 1 [Branch Office Table] 1 AB 1 W.House SField PA 87656 7329878901 6 [Partial firm and State, Zip match] 2 CDE 111 Joe St Newark NJ 08654 3 GHI 211 Foe St Brick NJ 07740 7321178901 3 GHI 700 Wall Ocean NJ 07764 7322278901 3 3 GHI 287 Foe St Brick NJ 07740 7321178901 3 4 JAK 777 Wall Ocean NJ 07764 7322278901 5 KLE 87 Ilk St Surrey NY 07654 7376578901 5 KLE 89 Blk St Surrey NY 07154 7376222901 5 Requirement : 1) I have to match each firm on the 'File to be Matched' to that of Company and Branch Office tables (MySQL). 2) If there are multiple exact/partial matches, then the ID from Company, Branch Office table is inserted as a new row in the resulting file. 3) Not all the firms will be matched perfectly, in that case I have to match on partial Company names (like 5/8th of the company name) and any of the address fields and insert them in the resulting file. Please help me out in the most efficient solution for this problem.

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  • Can I add a condition to CakePHP's update statement?

    - by Don Kirkby
    Since there doesn't seem to be any support for optimistic locking in CakePHP, I'm taking a stab at building a behaviour that implements it. After a little research into behaviours, I think I could run a query in the beforeSave event to check that the version field hasn't changed. However, I'd rather implement the check by changing the update statement's WHERE clause from WHERE id = ? to WHERE id = ? and version = ? This way I don't have to worry about other requests changing the database record between the time I read the version and the time I execute the update. It also means I can do one database call instead of two. I can see that the DboSource.update() method supports conditions, but Model.save() never passes any conditions to it. It seems like I have a couple of options: Do the check in beforeSave() and live with the fact that it's not bulletproof. Hack my local copy of CakePHP to check for a conditions key in the options array of Model.save() and pass it along to the DboSource.update() method. Right now, I'm leaning in favour of the second option, but that means I can't share my behaviour with other users unless they apply my hack to their framework. Have I missed an easier option?

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  • C# reference collection for storing reference types

    - by ivo s
    I like to implement a collection (something like List<T>) which would hold all my objects that I have created in the entire life span of my application as if its an array of pointers in C++. The idea is that when my process starts I can use a central factory to create all objects and then periodically validate/invalidate their state. Basically I want to make sure that my process only deals with valid instances and I don't re-fetch information I already fetched from the database. So all my objects will basically be in one place - my collection. A cool thing I can do with this is avoid database calls to get data from the database if I already got it (even if I updated it after retrieval its still up-to-date if of course some other process didn't update it but that a different concern). I don't want to be calling new Customer("James Thomas"); again if I initted James Thomas already sometime in the past. Currently I will end up with multiple copies of the same object across the appdomain - some out of sync other in sync and even though I deal with this using timestamp field on the MSSQL server I'd like to keep only one copy per customer in my appdomain (if possible process would be better). I can't use regular collections like List or ArrayList for example because I cannot pass parameters by their real local reference to the their existing Add() methods where I'm creating them using ref so that's not to good I think. So how can this be implemented/can it be implemented at all ? A 'linked list' type of class with all methods working with ref & out params is what I'm thinking now but it may get ugly pretty quickly. Is there another way to implement such collection like RefList<T>.Add(ref T obj)? So bottom line is: I don't want re-create an object if I've already created it before during the entire application life unless I decide to re-create it explicitly (maybe its out-of-date or something so I have to fetch it again from the db). Is there alternatives maybe ?

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  • Firebug error causing code to fail in Sitecore when using IE8 to view the Content Editor

    - by iamdudley
    Hi, I have a Sitecore 6 CMS with a custom data provider to create child items on the fly based on items added to a field in the parent item. This was working okay (about a week ago was the last time I was working on this project), but now I am getting errors in the web client which are originating in the FirebugLite html and JS files. Basically, I click on a content item, the FirebugLite js fails, and then my code in my custom data provider fails to run. I would have thought any FirebugLite scripts would be disabled or ignored when running under IE8 (isn't FirebugLite a Firefox addin?) When I remove the FirebugLite folder from ..\sitecore\shell\Controls\Lib\ my code runs fine and I don't get the clientside errors. I'm not really sure what my question is. I guess it is should FirebugLite affect IE8? What am I missing out on if I remove FirebugLite from the Sitecore directory tree? I'm running WindowsXP SP3, VS2008. The errors I get are the following: Webpage error details User Agent: Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 8.0; Windows NT 5.1; Trident/4.0; .NET CLR 1.1.4322; .NET CLR 2.0.50727; .NET CLR 3.0.4506.2152; .NET CLR 3.5.30729) Timestamp: Fri, 14 May 2010 06:42:04 UTC Message: Invalid argument. Line: 301 Char: 9 Code: 0 URI: http://xxxxxxx.com.au/sitecore/shell/controls/lib/FirebugLite/firebug.js Message: Object doesn't support this property or method Line: 21 Char: 1 Code: 0 URI: http://xxxxxxxx.com.au/sitecore/shell/controls/lib/FirebugLite/firebug.html Message: Invalid argument. Line: 301 Char: 9 Code: 0 URI: http://xxxxxxxx.com.au/sitecore/shell/controls/lib/FirebugLite/firebug.js Message: Object doesn't support this property or method Line: 21 Char: 1 Code: 0 URI: http://xxxxxxxx.com.au/sitecore/shell/controls/lib/FirebugLite/firebug.html Cheers, James.

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  • ASP.NET MVC: Returning a view with querystring intact

    - by ajbeaven
    I'm creating a messaging web app in ASP.NET and are having some problems when displaying an error message to the user if they go to send a message and there is something wrong. A user can look through profiles of people and then click, 'send a message'. The following action is called (url is /message/create?to=username) and shows them a page where they can enter their message and send it: public ActionResult Create(string to) { ViewData["recipientUsername"] = to; return View(); } On the page that is displayed, the username is entered in to a hidden input field. When the user clicks 'send': [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Create(FormCollection collection, string message) { try { //do message stuff that errors out } catch { ModelState.AddModelErrors(message.GetRuleViolations()); //adding errors to modelstate } return View(); } So now the error message is displayed to the user fine, however the url is changed in that it no longer has the querystring (/message/create). Again, this would be fine except that when the user clicks the refresh button, the page errors out as the Create action no longer has the 'to' parameter. So I'm guessing that I need to maintain my querystring somehow. Is there any way to do this or do I need to use a different method altogether?

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  • KERN-EXEC 3 when navigating within a text box (Symbian OS Browser Control)

    - by Andrew Flanagan
    I've had nothing but grief using Symbian's browser control on S60 3rd edition FP1. We currently display pages and many things are working smoothly. However, when inputting text into an HTML text field, the user will get a KERN-EXEC 3 if they move left at the beginning of the text input area (which should "wrap" it to the end) or if they move right at the end of the text input area (which should "wrap" it to the beginning). I can't seem to trap the input in OfferKeyEventL. I get the key event, I return EKeyWasConsumed and the cursor still moves. TKeyResponse CMyAppContainer::OfferKeyEventL(const TKeyEvent& aKeyEvent, TEventCode aType) { if (iBrCtlInterface) // My browser control { TBrCtlDefs::TBrCtlElementType type = iBrCtlInterface->FocusedElementType(); if (type == TBrCtlDefs::EElementActivatedInputBox || type == TBrCtlDefs::EElementInputBox) { if (aKeyEvent.iScanCode == EStdKeyLeftArrow || aKeyEvent.iScanCode == EStdKeyRightArrow) { return EKeyWasConsumed; } } } } I would be okay with completely disabling arrow key navigation but can't seem to do this. Any ideas? Am I going about this the wrong way? Has anyone here even worked with the Browser Control library (browserengine.lib) on S60 3.1?

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  • Redirecting from an update action to the referrer of the edit

    - by Mark Westling
    My Rails 2.3 application has a User model and the usual controller actions. The edit form can be reached two ways: when a user edits his own profile from the home page, or when an admin user edits someone else's profile from users collection. What I'd like to do is have the update action redirect back to the referred of the edit action, not the update action. If I do a simple redirect_to(:back) within update, it goes back to the edit form -- not good. One solution is to forget entirely about referrers and redirect based on the current_user and the updated user: if they're the same, go back to the home page, else go to the users collection page. This will break if I ever add a third path to the edit form. It's doubtful I'll ever do this but I'd prefer a solution that's not so brittle. Another solution is to store the referrer of edit form in a hidden field and then redirect to this value from inside the update action. This doesn't feel quite right, though I can't explain why. Are there any better approaches? Or, should I stop worrying and go with one of the two I've mentioned?

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  • Why does this data YYYY-MM-DD regex fail in Java?

    - by ProfessionalAmateur
    Hello StackOverFlow, My first question and Im excited... I've lurked since go-live and love the site, however I apologize for any newbie errors, formatting, etc... I'm attempting to validate the format of a string field that contains a date in Java. We will receive the date in a string, I will validate its format before parsing it into a real Date object. The format being passed in is in the YYYY-MM-DD format. However I'm stuck on one of my tests, if I pass in "1999-12-33" the test will fail (as it should with a day number 33) with this incomplete pattern: ((19|20)\\d{2})-([1-9]|0[1-9]|1[0-2])-([12][0-9]|3[01]) However as soon as I add the characters in bold below it passes the test (but should not) ((19|20)\\d{2})-([1-9]|0[1-9]|1[0-2])-(0[1-9]|[1-9]|[12][0-9]|3[01]) *additional note, I know I can change the 0[1-9]|[1-9] into 0?[1-9] but I wanted to break everything down to its most simple format to try and find why this isn't working. Here is the scrap test I've put together to run through all the different date scenarios: import java.util.regex.Matcher; import java.util.regex.Pattern; public class scrapTest { public scrapTest() { } public static void main(String[] args) { scrapTest a = new scrapTest(); boolean flag = a.verfiyDateFormat("1999-12-33"); } private boolean verfiyDateFormat(String dateStr){ Pattern datePattern = Pattern.compile("((19|20)\\d{2})-([1-9]|0[1-9]|1[0-2])-(0[1-9]|[1-9]|[12][0-9]|3[01])"); Matcher dateMatcher = datePattern.matcher(dateStr); if(!dateMatcher.find()){ System.out.println("Invalid date format!!! -> " + dateStr); return false; } System.out.println("Valid date format."); return true; } } Ive been programming for ~10 years but extremely new to Java, so please feel free to explain anything as elementary as you see fit.

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  • mysql subselect alternative

    - by Arnold
    Hi, Lets say I am analyzing how high school sports records affect school attendance. So I have a table in which each row corresponds to a high school basketball game. Each game has an away team id and a home team id (FK to another "team table") and a home score and an away score and a date. I am writing a query that matches attendance with this seasons basketball games. My sample output will be (#_students_missed_class, day_of_game, home_team, away_team, home_team_wins_this_season, away_team_wins_this_season) I now want to add how each team did the previous season to my analysis. Well, I have their previous season stored in the game table but i should be able to accomplish that with a subselect. So in my main select statement I add the subselect: SELECT COUNT(*) FROM game_table WHERE game_table.date BETWEEN 'start of previous season' AND 'end of previous season' AND ( (game_table.home_team = team_table.id AND game_table.home_score > game_table.away_score) OR (game_table.away_team = team_table.id AND game_table.away_score > game_table.home_score)) In this case team-table.id refers to the id of the home_team so I now have all their wins calculated from the previous year. This method of calculation is neither time nor resource intensive. The Explain SQL shows that I have ALL in the Type field and I am not using a Key and the query times out. I'm not sure how I can accomplish a more efficient query with a subselect. It seems proposterously inefficient to have to write 4 of these queries (for home wins, home losses, away wins, away losses). I am sure this could be more lucid. I'll absolutely add color tomorrow if anyone has questions

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  • What is the best database structure for this scenario?

    - by Ricketts
    I have a database that is holding real estate MLS (Multiple Listing Service) data. Currently, I have a single table that holds all the listing attributes (price, address, sqft, etc.). There are several different property types (residential, commercial, rental, income, land, etc.) and each property type share a majority of the attributes, but there are a few that are unique to that property type. My question is the shared attributes are in excess of 250 fields and this seems like too many fields to have in a single table. My thought is I could break them out into an EAV (Entity-Attribute-Value) format, but I've read many bad things about that and it would make running queries a real pain as any of the 250 fields could be searched on. If I were to go that route, I'd literally have to pull all the data out of the EAV table, grouped by listing id, merge it on the application side, then run my query against the in memory object collection. This also does not seem very efficient. I am looking for some ideas or recommendations on which way to proceed. Perhaps the 250+ field table is the only way to proceed. Just as a note, I'm using SQL Server 2012, .NET 4.5 w/ Entity Framework 5, C# and data is passed to asp.net web application via WCF service. Thanks in advance.

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  • Trying to insert a row using stored procedured with a parameter binded to an expression.

    - by Arvind Singh
    Environment: asp.net 3.5 (C# and VB) , Ms-sql server 2005 express Tables Table:tableUser ID (primary key) username Table:userSchedule ID (primary key) thecreator (foreign key = tableUser.ID) other fields I have created a procedure that accepts a parameter username and gets the userid and inserts a row in Table:userSchedule Problem: Using stored procedure with datalist control to only fetch data from the database by passing the current username using statement below works fine protected void SqlDataSourceGetUserID_Selecting(object sender, SqlDataSourceSelectingEventArgs e) { e.Command.Parameters["@CurrentUserName"].Value = Context.User.Identity.Name; } But while inserting using DetailsView it shows error Procedure or function OASNewSchedule has too many arguments specified. I did use protected void SqlDataSourceCreateNewSchedule_Selecting(object sender, SqlDataSourceSelectingEventArgs e) { e.Command.Parameters["@CreatedBy"].Value = Context.User.Identity.Name; } DetailsView properties: autogen fields: off, default mode: insert, it shows all the fields that may not be expected by the procedure like ID (primary key) not required in procedure and CreatedBy (user id ) field . So I tried removing the 2 fields from detailsview and shows error Cannot insert the value NULL into column 'CreatedBy', table 'D:\OAS\OAS\APP_DATA\ASPNETDB.MDF.dbo.OASTest'; column does not allow nulls. INSERT fails. The statement has been terminated. For some reason parameters value is not being set. Can anybody bother to understand this and help?

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  • Should a setter return immediately if assigned the same value?

    - by Andrei Rinea
    In classes that implement INotifyPropertyChanged I often see this pattern : public string FirstName { get { return _customer.FirstName; } set { if (value == _customer.FirstName) return; _customer.FirstName = value; base.OnPropertyChanged("FirstName"); } } Precisely the lines if (value == _customer.FirstName) return; are bothering me. I've often did this but I am not that sure it's needed nor good. After all if a caller assigns the very same value I don't want to reassign the field and, especially, notify my subscribers that the property has changed when, semantically it didn't. Except saving some CPU/RAM/etc by freeing the UI from updating something that will probably look the same on the screen/whatever_medium what do we obtain? Could some people force a refresh by reassigning the same value on a property (NOT THAT THIS WOULD BE A GOOD PRACTICE HOWEVER)? 1. Should we do it or shouldn't we? 2. Why?

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  • Laggy interface with NSSearchField hooked up to an NSArrayController via bindings

    - by Simone Manganelli
    So I've got an NSSearchField hooked up directly to an NSArrayController via bindings, attached to the filterPredicate, so that without any code, the user can just type in the NSSearchField and filter the list of objects in the NSArrayController presented to him in the interface (an NSCollectionView, to be specific). The NSSearchField is hooked up to provide live searching, so that the NSCollectionView is filtered instantly as the user types, not after waiting for a short period for the user to stop typing. However, the problem is that this makes the interface really laggy. Typing is delayed significantly, by 0.5-1 seconds, and it seems like the NSCollectionView is trying to animate each and every rearrangement of items for each portion of the search string that the user enters. What I'd like is for the searching to be live, but the typing in the search field to be fluid, and the results to filter as fast as possible. Is there a way to do this via bindings, or will I need to put in some custom code that triggers the filterPredicate on a separate thread? (Note that I've got a custom sorting algorithm set up on the NSArrayController, and removing it seems to help a bit with the laggyness, but not completely.)

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  • asp.net: saving js file with c# commands...

    - by ile
    <head runat="server"> <title><asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="TitleContent" runat="server" /></title> <link href="../../Content/css/layout.css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> <script type="text/javascript" src="/Areas/CMS/Content/js/jquery-1.3.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="/Areas/CMS/Content/js/jquery.jeditable.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="/Areas/CMS/Content/js/jeditable.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $(".naslov_vijesti").editable('<%=Url.Action("UpdateSettings","Article") %>', { submit: 'ok', submitdata: {field: "Title"}, cancel: 'cancel', cssclass: 'editable', width: '99%', placeholder: 'emtpy', indicator: "<img src='../../Content/img/indicator.gif'/>" }); }); </script> </head> This is head tag of site.master file. I would like to remove this multiline part from head and place it in jeditable.js file, which is now empty. If I do copy/paste, then <% %> part won't be executed. In PHP I would save js file as jeditable.js.php and server would compile code that is in <?php ?> tag. Any ideas how to solve this problem? Thanks in advance, Ile

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  • Doctrine Default Primary Key Problem (Again)

    - by 01010011
    Hi, Should I change all of my uniquely-named MySQL database primary keys to 'id' to avoid getting errors related to Doctrine's default primary key set in the plugin 'doctrine_pi.php'? To further elaborate, I am getting the following reoccurring error, this time after trying to login to my login page: SQLSTATE[42S22]: Column not found: 1054 Unknown column 'u.book_id' in 'field list'' in... I suspect the problem resides at a MySQL table used for my login, of which has a primary key called id Marc B originally solved an identical problem for me in this post http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2702229/doctrine-codeigniter-mysql-crud-errors when I had the same problem with a different table within the same database. Following his suggestion, I changed the default primary key located at system/application/plugins/doctrine_pi.php from 'id' to 'book_id': <?php // system/application/plugins/doctrine_pi.php ... // set the default primary key to be named 'id', integer, 4 bytes Doctrine_Manager::getInstance()->setAttribute( Doctrine::ATTR_DEFAULT_IDENTIFIER_OPTIONS, array('name' => 'book_id', 'type' => 'integer', 'length' => 4)); and that solved my previous problem. However, my login page stopped working. So what is the safe thing to do? Change all of my primary keys to 'id' (will that solve the problem without causing some other problem I am not aware of). Or should I add some lines of code in doctrine_pi.php?

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  • [php] Cookies only changing value every two page refreshes?

    - by Gazillion
    Hello, I'm trying to implement some pixel tracking where I will save certain values in a cookie to then forward users to another page. If users purchase a product after being forwarded to the online store by us the store adds an image tag in the page with our php script included. With the values set in the cookie we would like to track conversions. I understand this tracking technique has some limitations (like if a user has cookies turned off or if they do not load images but that's the direction my client wanted to go in). The problem I'm having is that the cookie's behaviour is extremely... random. I've been trying to track their values (with a var_dump so I don't have to wait for a page reload to view the cookie's value) but it seems the value for one field only gets refreshed every two page reloads. setcookie("tracking[cn]", $cn, time()+3600*24*7,'/','mydomain.com'); setcookie("tracking[t]", $t, time()+3600*24*7,'/','mydomain.com'); setcookie("tracking[kid]", $kid, time()+3600*24*7,'/','mydomain.com'); redirectTo($redirect_url); the values of cn, t are fine but for some reason kid is always wrong (having taken the value of the previous kid) Any help would be extremely appreciated I've been at this all evening! :)

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  • 'Stack level too deep' error in engine-like plugin with globalize

    - by nutsmuggler
    Hello folks. I have built an engine-like plugin thanks to the new features of Rails 2.3. It's a 'Product' module for a CMS, extrapolated from a previously existing (and working) model/controller. The plugin relies on easy_fckeditor and on globalize (description and title field are localised), and I suspect that globalized could be the culprit here... Everything works fine, except for the update action. I get the following error message: (posting just the first lines, all the message is about attribute_methods) stack level too deep /Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.2/lib/active_record/attribute_methods.rb:64:in `generated_methods?' /Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.2/lib/active_record/attribute_methods.rb:241:in `method_missing' /Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.2/lib/active_record/attribute_methods.rb:249:in `method_missing' For referenze, the full error stack is here: http://pastie.org/596546 I've tried to debug eliminating all the input fields, one by one, but I keep getting the error. fckeditor doesn't seem the culprit (error even without fckeditor) This is the action: def update params[:product][:term_ids] ||= [] @product = Product.find(params[:id]) respond_to do |format| if @product.update_attributes(params[:product]) flash[:notice] = t(:Product_was_successfully_updated) format.html { redirect_to products_path } format.xml { head :ok } else format.html { render :action => "edit" } format.xml { render :xml => @product.errors, :status => :unprocessable_entity } end end end As you see it's quite straightforward. Of course I am not hoping someone to solve this question straightaway, I'd just like to have a head up, a suggestion about where to look to solve this issue. Thanks in advance, Davide

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  • Client Web Browser Behavior When Handling 301 Redirect

    - by Jon Swanson
    The RFC seems to suggest that the client should permanently cache the response: http://www.w3.org/Protocols/rfc2616/rfc2616-sec10.html 10.3.2 301 Moved Permanently The requested resource has been assigned a new permanent URI and any future references to this resource SHOULD use one of the returned URIs. Clients with link editing capabilities ought to automatically re-link references to the Request-URI to one or more of the new references returned by the server, where possible. This response is cacheable unless indicated otherwise. The new permanent URI SHOULD be given by the Location field in the response. Unless the request method was HEAD, the entity of the response SHOULD contain a short hypertext note with a hyperlink to the new URI(s). If the 301 status code is received in response to a request other than GET or HEAD, the user agent MUST NOT automatically redirect the request unless it can be confirmed by the user, since this might change the conditions under which the request was issued. Note: When automatically redirecting a POST request after receiving a 301 status code, some existing HTTP/1.0 user agents will erroneously change it into a GET request. I'm having a hard time finding concrete browser documentation for any major browser that states how they handle these. I've started digging through the source code of firefox, but quickly got lost. Is the following scenario true for which (if any) browsers, and is there definitive documentation for either Firefox or IE that states as much?: First Time Around: 1.1: User enters link to site A, or clicks on a link directed at Site A 1.2: Browser interprets link at Site A, first time, no cache. Sends GET to Site A. 1.2: Site A responds with 301 Redirect to Site B 1.3: Browser sends GET to Site B. Any Subsequent Times Around: 2.2: User clicks on a link directed at Site A 2.2: Browser sees that, due to a past 301 redirect, Site A should now be Site B. 2.3: Without initiating any request whatsoever at Site A, browser initiates GET at Site B.

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  • Ruby open_id_authentication with Google OpenID

    - by Patrick Daryll Glandien
    I am in my first steps of implementing OpenID in my Rails app. open_id_authentication appeared to be a fairly easy-to-use plugin, which is why I decided to use it. Logging in with my Google account seems to work perfectly, however I do not get the sreg/AX fields that I require. My code is currently as follows: class SessionsController < ApplicationController def new; end def create open_id_authentication end protected def open_id_authentication authenticate_with_open_id(params[:openid_identifier], :required => ["http://axschema.org/contact/email"]) do |result, identity_url, registration| if result.successful? p registration.data @current_user = User.find_by_identity_url(identity_url) if @current_user successful_login else failed_login "Sorry, no user by that identity URL exists (#{identity_url})" end else failed_login result.message end end end private def successful_login session[:user_id] = @current_user.id redirect_to(root_url) end def failed_login(message) flash[:error] = message redirect_to(new_session_url) end end I have already read various discussions about Google OpenID and all only say that you need to require the AX schema instead of the sreg field email, but even when I am doing so (as you can see in the code above), registration.data will remain empty ({}). How do I effectively require the email from most OpenID providers with open_id_authentication?

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  • How does an NSTextField know that it's value has changed?

    - by Brian Postow
    I have a textfield that can either be edited by hand, or set through another control. (It's a page number, so you can jump to page 16 by typing in 16, or you can page up and down with the next/prev buttons) I have the value of the text field bound to an int page variable. It seems to work correctly, when you type a page number in, it jumps, when you page up and down, the page number in the text box changes appropriately. However, at some level, when I page up and down, the text box doesn't seem to know that it's value has changed, because if I type 1 it doesn't do anything. It doesn't call the bound set-method or anything. It looks like the textfield is thinking "I'm already 1, so I don't need to do anything." Even though it was 5 because I hit next 4 times. If I type an number other than 1, it goes there. If I THEN type 1, it goes to page 1, because now it thinks it's on that other page. The problem seems to be that I'm changing the value of the textfield programatically, but some part isn't getting the message. Does this seem like a reasonable explanation? And either way, any ideas on what's causing it? thanks

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  • Why are my Flex resource bundles not being loaded?

    - by Chris R
    I have an Actionscript module in the flex source folder filterModules, which is one of two additional source folders in my project (the main source folder is reports, but I'm not dealing with anything in there right now). Here's the MXML content that references the resources. ... This array is assigned to the dataProvider field of a ComboBox. It's not bound using the bindings, presumably for reasons that made sense to the original developer, and it'd be nontrivial to change the class to make that happen. I additionally have a resource property file in a folder resources/en_US and I have the source folder resources/{locale} in the project source settings. My additional compiler options are -locale en_US. The resource property file is resources/en_US/labels.properties (All paths are relative to the flash builder project root) and contains (amongst other things) these keys: metric.q3 = Overall Satisfaction metric.q5 = Personnel metric.q9a = Issue Resolution metric.q42 = Visit Duration Sat metric.q34 = Visit Duration I have written some FlexUnit tests that run in my local Flash Player that exercise these resources -- they check that every label is represented in the metrics array, for example, so I know that the resource file is loaded when run locally. However, when I copy the module .swf file over to my server, the combo box to which the array is assigned is empty. I copy the .swf like so, if it matters: rsync -rlDv --inplace -T /tmp ~/projects/flex_reports/bin-debug/rankingFilter.swf HOSTNAME:WEBROOT/flashPath/ Why is this? I am not able to debug the remote module because our surrounding site sets up a lot of context and makes some database calls to determine which module to load. I'm hoping to get some pointers on why resource bundles might not show up. I'd understand it if the array was present with wrong labels, but the array is instead completely empty, which is pretty odd.

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  • Discussion - Allowing / blocking user access to pages (Client Side Only!) - Javascript / Jquery

    - by Ozaki
    TLDR Using plain HTML / Javascript (Client Side) I want to prevent viewing of certain pages. The user will have to type a username and password and depending on that they get access to different pages. Answers can NOT include server side whatsoever It does not matter if they can break it easily. There is no sensitive information etc. Also the target audience will not have access to internet OR probably know what a cookie is... At some point the user will have to type username / password.(I can define the cookie here) Currently I thought of using cookies to set a cookie for each page to say "true" / "false" but that would get messy with so many cookies. Or setting an array within a cookie for each page? I have div field "#Content" which as it looks encompasses all of my content on the page so blocking out content will be as simple as replacing it with ("sorry you don't have access") etc. For Example: $.cookie("Access","page1, page2, page3"{ expires: 1 }); I am looking for anyway to do this does not have to be with cookies. Would be nice to get a discussion of different ways this can be done. So the question is: What do YOU think would be a good way to go about doing this with client side validation?

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  • What would you write in a consitution (law book) for a programmers' country?

    - by Developer Art
    After we have got our great place to talk about professional matters and sozialize online - on SO, I believe the next logical step would be to found our own country! I invite you all to participate and bring together your available resources. We will buy an island, better even a group of island so that we could establish states like .NET territories, Java land, Linux republic etc. We will build a society of programmers (girls - we need you too). To the organizational side, we're going to need some constitution or a law book. I suggest we write it together. I make it a wiki as it should be a cooperative effort. I'll open the work. Section 1. Programmers' rights. Every citizen has a right to an Internet connection 24/7. Every citizen can freely choose the field of interest Section 2. Programmers' obligations. Every citizen must embrace the changing nature of the profession and constanly educate himself Section 3. Law enforcement. Code duplication when can be avoided is punished by limiting the bandwith speed to 64Kbit for a period of one week. Using ugly hacks instead of refactoring code is punished by cutting the Internet connection for a period of one month. Usage of technologies older than 5/10 years is punished by restricting the web access to the sites last updated 5/10 years ago for a period of one month. Please feel free to modify and extend the list. We'll need to have it ready before we proceed formally with the country foundation. A purchase fund will be established shortly. Everyone is invited to participate.

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  • UTF8 charset, diacritical elements, conversion problems - and Zend Framework form escaping

    - by imanc
    Hey, I am writing a webapp in ZF and am having serious issues with UTF8. It's using multi lingual content through Zend Form and it seems that ZF heavily escapes all of these characters and basically just won't show a field if there's diacritical elements 'é' and if I use the HTML entity equivalent e.g. é it gets escaped so that the user will see 'é'. Zend Form allows for having non escaped data, but trying to use this is confusing, and it seems it'd need to be used all over the place. So, I have been told that if the page and the text is in UTF8, no conversion to htmlentities is required. Is this true? And if the last question is true, then how do I convert the source text to UTF8? I am comfortable setting up apache so that it sends a default UTF8 charset heading, and also adding the charset meta tag to the html, but doing this I am still getting messed up encoding. I have also tried opening the translation csv file in TextWrangler on OSX as UTF8, but it has done nothing. Thanks! L

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  • Parsing Strings ( .crt files )

    - by user1661521
    Base Knowledge : I have a .crt file ( certification authoritie file ) and he is composed of many fields but in one line that resumes this question i have this : Certificate: ...(alot of stuff before)... Subject: C=US, ST=Maryland, L=Pasadena, O=Brent Baccala, OU=FreeSoft, CN=www.freesoft.org/[email protected] Subject Public Key Info: ...(alot of stuff after) and i need to parse the file to populate a .csv file and i have that done the problem that i need help is, i need to get the field: CN=www.fresoft.org but when i get this kind of CN=...(Value instead of the ...) with alot of slashes i get a error in the parsing like the raw string is: CN=foo/bar/the/hell/emailAddress=blablabla and i need only: foo/bar/the/hell and for a moment i got that in the correct column but when i dont have the emailAddress something just fail in my parsing and i then get in my CN .csv column the information wrong instead of |CN| foo/bar/the/hell i get: |CN| OU=FreeSoft, foo/bar/the/hell. I have this code doing the CN parsing: #!/bin/bash subject_line=$(echo $cert | grep -o "Subject:.*Subject Public Key Info") cn=$(echo $subject_line | grep -o "CN=.*" ) if [ $(echo $cn | grep -c ".*email.*") -gt 0 ]; then end_cn=$(echo $cn | grep -b -o emailAddress) end_cn_idx=$(echo $end_cn | grep -o .*:) final_end_cn=${end_cn_idx:0:-1} common_name=${cn:3:$final_end_cn-4} echo $common_name else end_cn=$(echo $cn | grep -b -o "Subject Public Key Info") end_cn_idx=$(echo $end_cn | grep -o .*:) final_end_cn=${end_cn_idx:0:-1} common_name=${cn:3:$final_end_cn-5} echo $common_name fi

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