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  • Can't connect to HTTPS using X509 client certificate

    - by wows
    Hi - I'm new to cryptography and I'm a bit stuck: I'm trying to connect (from my development environment) to a web service using HTTPS. The web service requires a client certificate - which I think I've installed correctly. They have supplied me with a .PFX file. In Windows 7, I double clicked the file to install it into my Current User - Personal certificate store. I then exported a X509 Base-64 encoded .cer file from the certificate entry in the store. It didn't have a private key associate with it. Then, in my app, I'm attempting to connect to the service like this: var certificate = X509Certificate.CreateFromCertFile("xyz.cer")); var serviceUrl = "https://xyz"; var request = (HttpWebRequest) WebRequest.Create(serviceUrl); request.ClientCertificates.Add(certificate); request.Method = WebRequestMethods.Http.Post; request.ContentType = "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"; I get a 502 Connection failed when I connect. Is there anything you can see wrong with this method? Our production environment seems to work with a similar configuration, but it's running Windows Server 2003. Thanks!

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  • JQuery Post-Request question - FF doesn't get the result of the referenced php page

    - by OlliD
    Dear community, I just want to have my question posted here but just from the beginning: For a personal web project I use PHP + JQuery. Now I got stuck when I try to use the ajax posting method to send data to another php-page. I planned to have some navigational elements like next + previous on the bottom of the page by saving the user input / user given data. The code looks as follows: <div id="bottom_nav"> <div id="prev" class="flt_l"><a href="?&step=<?= $pages[$step-1] ?>">next</a></div> <div id="next" class="flt_r"><a href="?&step=<?= $pages[$step+1] ?>">previous</a></div> </div> The functionality of the page works fine. Lateron, I use the following code to sent data over via POST: $("#bottom_nav a").click( function() { alert("POST-Link: Parameter=" + $("#Parameter").val()); $.ajax( { type:"post", url:"saveParameter.php", data:"Parameter=" + $("#Parameter").val(), success: function(result) { alert(result); //$("#test").text(result); } }); }); The request itself work perfectly on IE, but on FF I'm not able to get back any result. within the PHP page, there just written: <? echo $_POST['Parameter']; ?> As IE returns the correct value, FF just provide an empty message box. I assumed that the behaviour on the -Link is different. While IE seems to handle the click event after the JS-Code execution, FF will interpret it before. My question was whether you has a solution on this regarding restructuring the code itself or using another method to reach the intened behaviour. Thanks for your assistance and recommendations, Olli

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  • NSOutlineView/NSTreeController - calculate sum of column

    - by matei
    I have a NSOutlineView bound to a NSTreeController. My data items are a custom class , let's call them "Row", and suppose a Row contains a "name" and a numeric field called "number" . All these "Rows" are found in let's say a "RowContainer" which has a "rows" mutable array holding the parent (level 0) rows. Each row also has a "children" NSMutableArray member which holds it's children. I have this working, and I want to display under the outlineview a textfield with the sum of all the "number" values of the rows. I bound this textfield to a "total" property of the "RowContainer". Now the problem is how or from where to trigger the recalculation of the "total" property, since this involves a recursive walk on the tree of rows, and I always get a "Collection was mutated while being enumerated" error. I've tried making a method "recalculateTotal", and calling it from the "setNumber" method of the "Row" class , but same error occurs. If I put the recalculation logic in the "total" getter, I can't trigger it to do the math. I'm sure the solution is simple but I can't see it

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  • How can I remove an "ALMOST" Duplicate using LINQ? ( OR SQL? )

    - by Atomiton
    This should be and easy one for the LINQ gurus out there. I'm doing a complex Query using UNIONS and CONTAINSTABLE in my database to return ranked results to my application. I'm getting duplicates in my returned data. This is expected. I'm using CONTAINSTABLE and CONTAINS to get all the results I need. CONTAINSTABLE is ranked by SQL and CONTAINS (which is run only on the Keywords field ) is hard-code-ranked by me. ( Sorry if that doesn't make sense ) Anyway, because the tuples aren't identical ( their rank is different ) a duplicate is returned. I figure the best way to deal with this is use LINQ. I know I'll be using the Distinct() extension method, but do I have to implement the IEqualityComparer interface? I'm a little fuzzy on how to do this. For argument's sake, say my resultset is structured like this class: class Content { ContentID int //KEY Rank int Description String } If I have a List<Content> how would I write the Distinct() method to exclude Rank? Ideally I'd like to keep the Content's highest Rank. SO, if one Content's RAnk is 112 and the other is 76. I'd like to keep the 112 rank. Hopefully I've given enough information.

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  • Java Performance measurement

    - by portoalet
    Hi, I am doing some Java performance comparison between my classes, and wondering if there is some sort of Java Performance Framework to make writing performance measurement code easier? I.e, what I am doing now is trying to measure what effect does it have having a method as "synchronized" as in PseudoRandomUsingSynch.nextInt() compared to using an AtomicInteger as my "synchronizer". So I am trying to measure how long it takes to generate random integers using 3 threads accessing a synchronized method looping for say 10000 times. I am sure there is a much better way doing this. Can you please enlighten me? :) public static void main( String [] args ) throws InterruptedException, ExecutionException { PseudoRandomUsingSynch rand1 = new PseudoRandomUsingSynch((int)System.currentTimeMillis()); int n = 3; ExecutorService execService = Executors.newFixedThreadPool(n); long timeBefore = System.currentTimeMillis(); for(int idx=0; idx<100000; ++idx) { Future<Integer> future = execService.submit(rand1); Future<Integer> future1 = execService.submit(rand1); Future<Integer> future2 = execService.submit(rand1); int random1 = future.get(); int random2 = future1.get(); int random3 = future2.get(); } long timeAfter = System.currentTimeMillis(); long elapsed = timeAfter - timeBefore; out.println("elapsed:" + elapsed); } the class public class PseudoRandomUsingSynch implements Callable<Integer> { private int seed; public PseudoRandomUsingSynch(int s) { seed = s; } public synchronized int nextInt(int n) { byte [] s = DonsUtil.intToByteArray(seed); SecureRandom secureRandom = new SecureRandom(s); return ( secureRandom.nextInt() % n ); } @Override public Integer call() throws Exception { return nextInt((int)System.currentTimeMillis()); } } Regards

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  • Getting a variable into another class through properties or button tags with Iphone SDK?

    - by MarcZero
    Hello. I have been pounding my head against a wall trying to figure out what I think is a simple thing to do, but I have, so far, been unable to figure it out with the iPhone SDK. I have a view with 4 buttons. When I push the buttons, I have another view called and come up to take over the screen. I want to have a simple variable passed from the old view to the new view. The purpose of this is to know what button was pressed out of the four identical ones. (trying to get an int value of 1 through 4) Here is what I have tried so far: I initially tried to call the variable from the class itself. My understanding was that my new view was only sitting on top of the old view, so it should not have been released. I could not get access to the variable as the variable was said to not be declared. I then tried to create a method that would return the int value. Again, the view class was not seen and was being declared as a "first use" of it. I then attempted to follow another similar post on here that suggested to try and send the button tag number to some part of the new view. I attempted to do this by setting the new views button title but I still cannot figure out a way to code it without coming up with errors. I am just looking for what method would be the best for me to pursue. I have no problem going back and reading the books on Objective-C, but I'm just trying to figure out which way I should concentrate on. Thank you for any insight.

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  • How do I use a modalViewController Identically in Two Controllers?

    - by Theory
    I'm using the Three20 TTMessageController in my app. I've figured out how to use it, adding on a bunch of other stuff (including TTMessageControllerDelegate methods and ABPeoplePickerNavigationControllerDelegate methods). It works great for me, after a bit of a struggle to figure it out. The trouble I'm having now is a design issue: I want to use it identically in two different places, including with the same delegate methods. My current approach is that I've put all the code into a single class inheriting from NSObject, called ComposerProxy, and I'm just having the two controllers that use it use the proxy, like so: ComposerProxy *proxy = [[ComposerProxy alloc] initWithController:this]; [proxy go]; The go method constructs the TTMessageController, configures it, adds it to a UINavigationController, and presents it: [self.controller presentModalViewController: navController animated: YES]; This works great, as I have all my code nicely encapsulated in ComposerProxy and I need only the above two lines anywhere I want to use it. The downside, though, is that I can't dealloc the proxy variable without getting crashes. I can't autorelease it, either: same problem. So I'm wondering if my proxy approach is a poor one. How does one normally encapsulate a bunch of behaviors like this without requiring a lot of duplicate code in the classes that use it? Do I need to add a delegate class to my ComposerProxy and make the controller responsible for dismissing the modal view controller in a hypothetical composerDidFinish method or some such? Many TIA!

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  • Mocking an object that uses jni using EasyMock

    - by Visage
    So my class under test has code that looks braodly like this public void doSomething(int param) { Report report = new Report() ...do some calculations report.someMethod(someData) } my intention was to extract the construction of report into a protected method and override it to use a mock object that I could then test to ensure that someMethod had been called with the right data. So far so good. But Report isnt under my control, and to mkae things worse it uses JNI to load a library at runtime. If I do Report report = EasyMock.createMock(Report.class) then EasyMock attempts to use reflection to find out the class members, but this causes an attempt to load the JNI library, which fails (the JNI libraries are only available on UNIX). Im considering two things: a) Introduce a ReportWrapper interface with two implementations, one of which will delegate calls to an real Report (so basically a Proxy), and a second which will basically use a mock object. or b) instead of calling someMethod, call a protected method which will in turn call someMethod that I can override in a testing subclass. Either way it seems nasty. Any better ways?

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  • org.hibernate.NonUniqueObjectException Within GWT application using hibernate through gilead

    - by molleman
    Hello Guys, i am working on a project for college that uses GWT,Hibernate and Gilead. Basically for the moment users should be able to add friends and remove them. also a user can see if his or her friends are online or not. my trouble is that when i add a friend that is already related to another friend i get this error org.hibernate.NonUniqueObjectException: a different object with the same identifier value was already associated with the session: [com.example.client.YFUser#4] i have a service class public class TestServiceImpl extends PersistentRemoteService implements TestService { this is my service class for my gwt application. my toruble is here with my implmentation class of my serivce in this method that is called when a user presses add friend button on the client-side public void addYFUserFriend(String userName){ //this retrieves the current user YFUser user = (YFUser)getSession().getAttribute(SESSION_USER); Session session = com.example.server.HibernateUtil.getSessionFactory().getCurrentSession(); session.beginTransaction(); YFUser friend = (YFUser) session.createQuery("select u FROM YFUser u where u.username = :username").setParameter("username", userName).uniqueResult(); System.out.println("user " + friend.getUsername() + " Found"); user.getFriends().add(friend); friend.getBefriended().add(user); session.update(user); session.update(friend); session.getTransaction().commit(); } a scenerio : user1 adds user2 as a friend. this works fine. then user3 adds user2 and the exeception is thrown. any ideas why and where my logic is going wrong Ok so i have changed my code, and i have removed all the getCurrentASession() calls and replaced with openSession() call which are closed at the appropiate point, now the error i am getting is com.google.gwt.user.server.rpc.UnexpectedException: Service method 'public abstract void com.example.client.TestService.addYFUserFriend(java.lang.String)' threw an unexpected exception: org.hibernate.NonUniqueResultException: query did not return a unique result: 3

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  • MonoRail ActiveRecord - The UPDATE statement conflicted with the FOREIGN KEY SAME TABLE

    - by Justin
    Hey all, I'm new to MonoRail and ActiveRecord and have inherited an application that I need to modify. I have a Category table (Id, Name) and I'm adding a ParentId FK which references the Id in the same table so that you can have parent/child category relationships. I tried adding this to my Category model class: [Property] public int ParentId { get; set; } I also tried doing it this way: [BelongsTo("ParentId")] public Category Parent { get; set; } When I call a method to get all parent categories (they have a null ParentId), it works fine: public static Category[] GetParentCategories() { var criteria = DetachedCriteria.For<Core.Models.Category>(); return (FindAllByProperty("ParentId", null)); } However, when I call a method to get all child categories within a specific category, it errors out: public static Category[] GetChildCategories(int parentId) { var criteria = DetachedCriteria.For<Core.Models.Category>(); return (FindAllByProperty("ParentId", parentId)); } The error is: "The UPDATE statement conflicted with the FOREIGN KEY SAME TABLE constraint \"FK_Category_ParentId\". The conflict occurred in database \"UCampus\", table \"dbo.Category\", column 'Id'.\r\nThe statement has been terminated." I'm hard-coding in the parentId parameter as 1 and I'm 100% sure it exists as an id in the Category table so I don't know why it'd give this error. Also, I'm doing a select, not an update, so what is going on here?? Thanks for any input on this, Justin

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  • C# Using Enumerable Range and Except with custom class to determine missing sequence number

    - by Jon
    I have a List<MyClass> The class is like this: private class MyClass { public string Name{ get; set; } public int SequenceNumber { get; set; } } I want to work out what Sequence numbers might be missing. I can see how to do this here however because this is a class I am unsure what to do? I think I can handle the except method ok with my own IComparer but the Range method I can't figure out because it only excepts int so this doesn't compile: Enumerable.Range(0, 1000000).Except(chqList, MyEqualityComparer<MyClass>); Here is the IComparer: public class MyEqualityComparer<T> : IEqualityComparer<T> where T : MyClass { #region IEqualityComparer<T> Members public bool Equals(T x, T y) { return (x == null && y == null) || (x != null && y != null && x.SequenceNumber.Equals(y.SequenceNumber)); } /// </exception> public int GetHashCode(T obj) { if (obj == null) { throw new ArgumentNullException("obj"); } return obj.GetHashCode(); } #endregion }

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  • Multhreading in Java

    - by Vijay Selvaraj
    I'm working with core java and IBM Websphere MQ 6.0. We have a standalone module say DBcomponent that hits the database and fetches a resultset based on the runtime query. The query is passed to the application via MQ messaging medium. We have a trigger configured for the queue which invokes the DBComponent whenever a message is available in the queue. The DBComponent consumes the message, constructs the query and returns the resultset to another queue. In this overall process we use log4j to log statements on a log file for auditing. The connection is pooled to the database using Apache pool. I am trying to check whether the log messages are logged correctly using a sample program. The program places the input message to the queue and checks for the logs in the log file. Its expected for the trigger method invocation to complete before i try to check for the message in log file, but every time my program to check for log message gets executed first leading my check to failure. Even if i introduce a Thread.sleep(time) doesn't solves the case. How can i make it to keep my method execution waiting until the trigger operation completes? Any suggestion will be helpful.

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  • Which is better Java programming practice for looping up to an int value: a converted for-each loop

    - by Arvanem
    Hi folks, Given the need to loop up to an arbitrary int value, is it better programming practice to convert the value into an array and for-each the array, or just use a traditional for loop? FYI, I am calculating the number of 5 and 6 results ("hits") in multiple throws of 6-sided dice. My arbitrary int value is the dicePool which represents the number of multiple throws. As I understand it, there are two options: Convert the dicePool into an array and for-each the array: public int calcHits(int dicePool) { int[] dp = new int[dicePool]; for (Integer a : dp) { // call throwDice method } } Use a traditional for loop. public int calcHits(int dicePool) { for (int i = 0; i < dicePool; i++) { // call throwDice method } } I apologise for the poor presentation of the code above (for some reason the code button on the Ask Question page is not doing what it should). My view is that option 1 is clumsy code and involves unnecessary creation of an array, even though the for-each loop is more efficient than the traditional for loop in Option 2. Thanks in advance for any suggestions you might have.

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  • Saving NSBitmapImageRep as NSBMPFileType file. Wrong BMP headers and bitmap content

    - by niko34
    I save a NSBitmapImageRep to a BMP file (Snow Leopard). It seems ok when i open it on macos. But it makes an error on my multimedia device (which can show any BMP file from internet). I cannot figure out what is wrong, but when i look inside the file (with the cool hexfiend app on macos), 2 things wrong: the header have a wrong value for the biHeight parameter : 4294966216 (hex=C8FBFFFF) the header have a correct biWidth parameter : 1920 the first pixel in the bitmap content (after 54 bytes headers in BMP format) correspond to the upper left corner of the original image. In the original BMP file and as specified in the BMP format, it should be the down left corner pixel first. To explain the full workflow in my app, i have an NSImageView where i can drag a BMP image. This View is bind to an NSImage. After a drag & drop i have an action to save this image (with some text drawing over it) to a BMP file. Here's the code for saving the new BMP file : CGColorSpaceRefcolorSpace = CGColorSpaceCreateWithName(kCGColorSpaceGenericRGB); CGContextRefcontext = CGBitmapContextCreate(NULL, (int)1920, (int)1080, 8, 4*(int)1920, colorSpace, kCGImageAlphaNoneSkipLast); [duneScreenViewdrawBackgroundWithDuneFolder:self inContext:context inRect:NSMakeRect(0,0,1920,1080) needScale:NO]; if(folderType==DXFolderTypeMovie) { [duneScreenViewdrawSynopsisContentWithDuneFolder:self inContext:context inRect:NSMakeRect(0,0,1920,1080) withScale:1.0]; } CGImageRef backgroundImageRef = CGBitmapContextCreateImage(context); NSBitmapImageRep*bitmapBackgroundImageRef = [[NSBitmapImageRepalloc] initWithCGImage:backgroundImageRef]; NSData*data = [destinationBitmap representationUsingType:NSBMPFileType properties:nil]; [data writeToFile:[NSStringstringWithFormat:@"%@/%@", folderPath,backgroundPath] atomically: YES]; The duneScreenViewdrawSynopsisContentWithDuneFolder method uses CGContextDrawImage to draw the image. The duneScreenViewdrawSynopsis method uses CoreText to draw some text in the same context. Do you know what's wrong?

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  • Convert rank-per-candidate format to OpenSTV BLT format

    - by kibibu
    I recently gathered, using a questionnaire, a set of opinions on the importance of various software components. Figuring that some form of Condorcet voting method would be the best way to obtain an overall rank, I opted to use OpenSTV to analyze it. My data is in tabular format, space delimited, and looks more or less like: A B C D E F G # Candidates 5 2 4 3 7 6 1 # First ballot. G is ranked first, and E is ranked 7th 4 2 6 5 1 7 3 # Second ballot etc In this format, the number indicates the rank and the sequence order indicates the candidate. Each "candidate" has a rank (required) from 1 to 7, where a 1 means most important and a 7 means least important. No duplicates are allowed. This format struck me as the most natural way to represent the output, being a direct representation of the ballot format. The OpenSTV/BLT format uses a different method of representing the same info, conceptually as follows: G B D C A F E # Again, G is ranked first and E is ranked 7th E B G A D C F # etc The actual numeric file format uses the (1-based) index of the candidate, rather than the label, and so is more like: 7 2 4 3 1 6 5 # Same ballots as before. 5 2 7 1 4 3 6 # A -> 1, G -> 7 In this format, the number indicates the candidate, and the sequence order indicates the rank. The actual, real, BLT format also includes a leading weight and a following zero to indicate the end of each ballot, which I don't care too much about for this. My question is, what is the most elegant way to convert from the first format to the (numeric) second?

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  • How to output JSON from within Django and call it with jQuery from a cross domain?

    - by Emre Sevinç
    For a bookmarklet project I'm trying to get JSON data using jQuery from my server (which is naturally on a different domain) running a Django powered system. According to jQuery docs: "As of jQuery 1.2, you can load JSON data located on another domain if you specify a JSONP callback, which can be done like so: "myurl?callback=?". jQuery automatically replaces the ? with the correct method name to call, calling your specified callback." And for example I can test it successfully in my Firebug console using the following snippet: $.getJSON("http://api.flickr.com/services/feeds/photos_public.gne?tags=cat&tagmode=any& format=json&jsoncallback=?", function(data){ alert(data.title); }); It prints the returned data in an alert window, e.g. 'Recent uploads tagged cat'. However when I try the similar code with my server I don't get anything at all: $.getJSON("http://mydjango.yafz.org/randomTest?jsoncallback=?", function(data){ alert(data.title); }); There are no alert windows and the Firebug status bar says "Transferring data from mydjango.yafz.org..." and keeps on waiting. On the server side I have this: def randomTest(request): somelist = ['title', 'This is a constant result'] encoded = json.dumps(somelist) response = HttpResponse(encoded, mimetype = "application/json") return response I also tried this without any success: def randomTest(request): if request.is_ajax() == True: req = {} req ['title'] = 'This is a constant result.' response = json.dumps(req) return HttpResponse(response, mimetype = "application/json") So to cut a long story short: what is the suggested method of returning a piece of data from within a Django view and retrieve it using jQuery in a cross domain fashion? What are my mistakes above?

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  • SWFUpload Authentication

    - by durilai
    I am using SWFUpload to do file uploading in a ASP.NET MVC 1.0 website. It is working fine, but I am not able to authenticate the upload method. The HttpContext.User.Identity.Name returns an empty string. I am assuming this is because the Flash movie is making the post. I am also using the wrapper provided here: http://blog.codeville.net/2008/11/24/jquery-ajax-uploader-plugin-with-progress-bar/. The controller action below gets fired, but as mentiond above the user object is not passed. Any help is appreciated! View HTML <form enctype="multipart/form-data" method="post" action="/Media/Upload/Photo"> <input type="file" id="userPhoto_Photo" name="userPhoto_Photo" /> </form> Javascript $(function() { $("#userPhoto").makeAsyncUploader({ upload_url: '/Media/Upload', flash_url: '<%= Url.Content("~/Content/Flash/swfUpload-2.2.0.1.swf") %>', file_size_limit: '1 MB', file_types: '*.jpg; *.png; *.gif', button_action: SWFUpload.BUTTON_ACTION.SELECT_FILE, button_width: 210, button_height: 35, button_image_url: '<%= Url.Content("~/Content/Images/UploadPhoto.png") %>', button_text: '', button_cursor: SWFUpload.CURSOR.HAND, button_window_mode: SWFUpload.WINDOW_MODE.TRANSPARENT }); }); Controller Action [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Upload() { if (Request.Files.Count == 1) { //Upload work } return RedirectToAction("Index", "Profile"); }

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  • How to setup Lucene search for a B2B web app?

    - by Bill Paetzke
    Given: 5000 databases (spread out over 5 servers) 1 database per client (so you can infer there are 1000 clients) 2 to 2000 users per client (let's say avg is 100 users per client) Clients (databases) come and go every day (let's assume most remain for at least one year) Let's stay agnostic of language or sql brand, since Lucene (and Solr) have a breadth of support The Question: How would you setup Lucene search so that each client can only search within its database? How would you setup the index(es)? Would you need to add a filter to all search queries? If a client cancelled, how would you delete their (part of the) index? (this may be trivial--not sure yet) Possible Solutions: Make an index for each client (database) Pro: Search is faster (than one-index-for-all method). Indices are relative to the size of the client's data. Con: I'm not sure what this entails, nor do I know if this is beyond Lucene's scope. Have a single, gigantic index with a database_name field. Always include database_name as a filter. Pro: Not sure. Maybe good for tech support or billing dept to search all databases for info. Con: Search is slower (than index-per-client method). Flawed security if query filter removed. For Example: Joel Spolsky said in Podcast #11 that his hosted web app product, FogBugz On-Demand, uses Lucene. He has thousands of on-demand clients. And each client gets their own database. His situation is quite similar to mine. Although, he didn't elaborate on the setup (particularly indices); hence, the need for this question. One last thing: I would also accept an answer that uses Solr (the extension of Lucene). Perhaps it's better suited for this problem. Not sure.

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  • Android Multiple Handlers Design Question

    - by Soumya Simanta
    This question is related to an existing question I asked. I though I'll ask a new question instead of replying back to the other question. Cannot "comment" on my previous question because of a word limit. Marc wrote - I've more than one Handlers in an Activity." Why? If you do not want a complicated handleMessage() method, then use post() (on Handler or View) to break the logic up into individual Runnables. Multiple Handlers makes me nervous. I'm new to Android. Is having multiple handlers in a single activity a bad design ? I'm new to Android. My question is - is having multiple handlers in a single activity a bad design ? Here is the sketch of my current implementation. I've a mapActivity that creates a data thread (a UDP socket that listens for data). My first handler is responsible for sending data from the data thread to the activity. On the map I've a bunch of "dynamic" markers that are refreshed frequently. Some of these markers are video markers i.e., if the user clicks a video marker, I add a ViewView that extends a android.opengl.GLSurfaceView to my map activity and display video on this new vide. I use my second handler to send information about the marker that the user tapped on ItemizedOverlay onTap(int index) method. The user can close the video view by tapping on the video view. I use my third handler for this. I would appreciate if people can tell me what's wrong with this approach and suggest better ways to implement this. Thanks.

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  • Passing row from UIPickerView to integer CoreData attribute

    - by Gordon Fontenot
    I'm missing something here, and feeling like an idiot about it. I'm using a UIPickerView in my app, and I need to assign the row number to a 32-bit integer attribute for a Core Data object. To do this, I am using this method: -(void)pickerView:(UIPickerView *)pickerView didSelectRow:(NSInteger)row inComponent:(NSInteger)component { object.integerValue = row; } This is giving me a warning: warning: passing argument 1 of 'setIntegerValue:' makes pointer from integer without a cast What am I mixing up here? --EDIT 1-- Ok, so I can get rid of the errors by changing the method to do the following: NSNumber *number = [NSNumber numberWithInteger:row]; object.integerValue = rating; However, I still get a value of 0 for object.integerValue if I use NSLog to print it out. object.integerValue has a max value of 5, so I print out number instead, and then I'm getting a number above 62,000,000. Which doesn't seem right to me, since there are 5 rows. If I NSLog the row variable, I get a number between 0 and 5. So why do I end up with a completely different number after casting the number to NSNumber?

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  • Custom DateTime model binder in Asp.net MVC

    - by Robert Koritnik
    I would like to write my own model binder for DateTime type. First of all I'd like to write a new attribute that I can attach to my model property like: [DateTimeFormat("d.M.yyyy")] public DateTime Birth { get; set,} This is the easy part. But the binder part is a bit more difficult. I would like to add a new model binder for type DateTime. I can either implement IModelBinder interface and write my own BindModel() method inherit from DefaultModelBinder and override BindModel() method My model has a property as seen above (Birth). So when the model tries to bind request data to this property, my model binder's BindModel(controllerContext, bindingContext) gets invoked. Everything ok, but. How do I get property attributes from controller/bindingContext, to parse my date correctly? How can I get to the PropertyDesciptor of property Birth? Edit Because of separation of concerns my model class is defined in an assembly that doesn't (and shouldn't) reference System.Web.MVC assembly. Setting custom binding (similar to Scott Hanselman's example) attributes is a no-go here.

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  • Issue with javascript array object

    - by ezhil
    I have the below JSON response. I am using $.getJSON method to loads JSON data and using callback function to do some manipulation by checking whether it is array as below. { "r": [{ "IsDefault": false, "re": { "Name": "Depo" }, "Valid": "Oct8, 2013", "Clg": [{ "Name": "james", "Rate": 0.05 }, { "Name": "Jack", "Rate": 0.55 }, { "Name": "Mcd", "Rate": 0.01, }], }, { "IsDefault": false, "re": { "Name": "Depo" }, "Valid": "Oct8, 2013", "Clg": [{ "Name": "james", "Rate": 0.05 }, { "Name": "Jack", "Rate": 0.55 }, { "Name": "Mcd", "Rate": 0.01, }], }, { "IsDefault": false, "re": { "Name": "Depo" }, "Valid": "Oct8, 2013", "Clg": [{ "Name": "james", "Rate": 0.05 }, { "Name": "Jack", "Rate": 0.55 }, { "Name": "Mcd", "Rate": 0.01, }], }] } I am passing the json responses on both loadFromJson1 and loadFromJson2 function as "input" as parameter as below. var tablesResult = loadFromJson1(resultstest.r[0].Clg); loadFromJson1 = function (input) { if (_.isArray(input)) { alert("loadFromJson1: Inside array function"); var collection = new CompeCollection(); _.each(input, function (modelData) { collection.add(loadFromJson1(modelData)); }); return collection; } return new CompeModel({ compeRates: loadFromJson2(input), compName: input.Name }); }; loadFromJson2 = function (input) // here is the problem, the 'input' is not an array object so it is not going to IF condition of the isArray method. { if (_.isArray(input)) { alert("loadFromJson2: Inside array function"); //alert is not coming here though it is an array var rcollect = new rateCollection(); _.each(input, function (modelData) { rcollect.add(modelData); }); return rcollect; } }; The above code i am passing json responses for both loadFromJson1 and loadFromJson2 function as "input". isArray is getting true on only loadFromJson1 function and giving alert inside the if condition but not coming in loadFromJson2 function though i am passing the same parameter. can anyone tell me why loadFromJson2 function is not getting the alert inside if condition though i pass array object?

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  • In asp.Net, writing code in the control tag generates compile error

    - by Nour Sabouny
    Hi this is really strange !! But look at the following asp code: <div runat="server" id="MainDiv"> <%foreach (string str in new string[]{"First#", "Second#"}) { %> <div id="<%=str.Replace("#","div") %>"> </div> <%} %> </div> now if you put this code inside any web page (and don't worry about the moral of this code, I made it just to show the idea) you'll get this error : Compiler Error Message: CS1518: Expected class, delegate, enum, interface, or struct Of course the error has nothing to do with the real problem, I searched for the code that was generated by asp.net and figured out the following : private void @__RenderMainDiv(System.Web.UI.HtmlTextWriter @__w, System.Web.UI.Control parameterContainer) { @__w.Write("\r\n "); #line 20 "blabla\blabla\Default.aspx" foreach (string str in new string[] { "First#", "Second#" }) { #line default #line hidden @__w.Write("\r\n <div id=\""); #line 22 "blabla\blabla\Default.aspx" @__w.Write(str.Replace("#", "div")); #line default #line hidden @__w.Write("\">\r\n "); } This is the code that was generated from the asp page and this is the method that is meant to render our div (MainDiv), I found out that there is a missing bracket "}" that closes the method or the (for loop). now the problem has three parts: 1- first you should have a server control (in our situation is the MainDiv) and I'm not sure if it is only the div tag. 2- HTML control inside the server control and a code inside it using the double quotation mark ( for example <div id="<%=str instead of <div id='<%=str. 3-Any keyword which has block brackets e.g.:for{},while{},using{}...etc. now removing any part, will solve the problem !!! how is this happening ?? any ideas ? BTW: please help me to make the question more obvious, because I couldn't find the best words to describe the problem.

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  • problem in accessing the path involving pagination using display tag

    - by sarah
    Hi All, I am using display tag for pagiantion and display of the data in table format the code is like <display:column title="Select" style="width: 90px;"> <input type="checkbox" name="optionSelected" value="<c:out value='${userList.loginName}'/>"/> </display:column> <display:column property="loginName" sortable="false" title="UserName" paramId="loginName" style="width: 150px; text-align:center" href="./editUser.do?method=editUser"/> the pagesize is one it will display one in a page and eidt page will be dispaly on click of login name,but when i go to the second page i get an error saying /views/editUser path not found.How exactly should i define the path ? the struts-config is like <!-- action for edit user --> <action path="/editUser" name="editUserForm" type="com.actions.UserManagementAction" parameter="method" input="/EditUser.jsp" scope="request"> <forward name="success" path="/views/EditUser.jsp" /> <forward name="failure" path="/views/failure.jsp" /> </action> Pleas tell me how should i define the access path for display tag as on click of edit link the first page works but not the second edit

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  • Can a class inherit from LambdaExpression in .NET? Or is this not recommended?

    - by d.
    Consider the following code (C# 4.0): public class Foo : LambdaExpression { } This throws the following design-time error: Foo does not implement inherited abstract member System.Linq.Expressions.LambdaExpression.Accept(System.Linq.Expressions.Compiler.StackSpiller) There's absolutely no problem with public class Foo : Expression { } but, out of curiosity and for the sake of learning, I've searched in Google System.Linq.Expressions.LambdaExpression.Accept(System.Linq.Expressions.Compiler.StackSpiller) and guess what: zero results returned (when was the last time you saw that?). Needless to say, I haven't found any documentation on this method anywhere else. As I said, one can easily inherit from Expression; on the other hand LambdaExpression, while not marked as sealed (Expression<TDelegate> inherits from it), seems to be designed to prevent inheriting from it. Is this actually the case? Does anyone out there know what this method is about? EDIT (1): More info based on the first answers - If you try to implement Accept, the editor (C# 2010 Express) automatically gives you the following stub: protected override Expression Accept(System.Linq.Expressions.ExpressionVisitor visitor) { return base.Accept(visitor); } But you still get the same error. If you try to use a parameter of type StackSpiller directly, the compiler throws a different error: System.Linq.Expressions.Compiler.StackSpiller is inaccessible due to its protection level. EDIT (2): Based on other answers, inheriting from LambdaExpression is not possible so the question as to whether or not it is recommended becomes irrelevant. I wonder if, in cases like this, the error message should be Foo cannot implement inherited abstract member System.Linq.Expressions.LambdaExpression.Accept(System.Linq.Expressions.Compiler.StackSpiller) because [reasons go here]; the current error message (as some answers prove) seems to tell me that all I need to do is implement Accept (which I can't do).

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