Search Results

Search found 31989 results on 1280 pages for 'get method'.

Page 454/1280 | < Previous Page | 450 451 452 453 454 455 456 457 458 459 460 461  | Next Page >

  • connecting to MySQL using JDBC in eclipse

    - by Noona
    Hello, So I want to create a JDBC connection to MySQL server that is installed on my pc, here are the steps, I installed MySQL with the username and password "root", downloaded mysql-connector-java and from theere I coped the JAR "mysql-connector-java-5.1.12-bin" to "C:\Sun\SDK\jdk\jre\lib\ext", I then added it as an external JAR in my project in eclipse, now in my class I have this code: public void initialiseDatabase() { try { // Load the Driver class. Class.forName("com.mysql.jdbc.Driver"); //Create the connection using the static getConnection method databaseConnection = DriverManager.getConnection (databaseUrl+databaseName, dbUserName, dbPassword); sqlStatement = databaseConnection.createStatement(); } catch (SQLException e) {e.printStackTrace();} catch (Exception e) {e.printStackTrace();} } (this is going to be psuedocode cause I am reading from a properties file and don't want the one helping me reading through long lines of code from main to figure out all the variables), where databaseUrl = "127.0.0.1" dbUserName = "root" dbPassword = "root" databaseName = "MySQL" //this one I am not sure of, do I need to create it or is it set inherenrly? now the MySQL server is up and running, but when I call the method initialiseDatabase the following exception is thrown: "java.sql.SQLException: No suitable driver found for rootroot at java.sql.DriverManager.getConnection(Unknown Source) at java.sql.DriverManager.getConnection(Unknown Source) at Proxy$JDBCConnection.initialiseDatabase(Proxy.java:721)" when line 721 is: sqlStatement = databaseConnection.createStatement(); Where have I gone wrong? thanks

    Read the article

  • I need to get form data from multiple forms on one page using $_POST

    - by CDeanMartin
    My project is a menu that displays daily specials at a cafe. The Pointy Haired Boss(PHB) needs to add/remove items from the menu on a daily basis, so I stored all dishes with MySQL, and created a page which will load all menu items as buttons. When clicked, the button will UPDATE the item, turning it on or off. I need form data to detect which button was pressed, so my query knows which $menuItem to UPDATE. That is the purpose of the hidden fields. <html><head></head> <body> <html><head></head> <body> <?php include("getElement.php"); $keys = array_keys($_POST); echo $keys[0]; echo $keys[1]; //if(isset($_POST["menuItem"])){ //toggleItem($_POST["menuItem"]); //echo print_r(array_keys($_POST));} ?> <form name="b" action="scratchpad.php" method="post" > <input type="hidden" name="b" value="Cajun Gumbo"/> <input type="submit" style="color:blue" value="Cajun Gumbo" /> </form> <form name="a" action="scratchpad.php" method="post" > <input type="hidden" name="a" value="Guacomole Burger"/> <input type="submit" style="color:blue" value="Guacomole Burger" /> </form> </body> </html> Can I get $_POST to identify which button was pressed?

    Read the article

  • ClassNotFoundException com.mysql.jdbc.Driver

    - by Dusk
    This question might have asked here number of times . After doing some google search for the above error and doing some update, I can't understand why I'm still getting that error. I've already put my driver-- mysql-connector-java-5.1.5-bin in the classpath: Java_Home\jre\lib\ Java_Home\jre\lib\ext\ Java_Home\lib and the code which I'm using to connect to mysql database is: try{ Class.forName("com.mysql.jdbc.Driver"); Connection con=DriverManager.getConnection("jdbc:mysql://localhost:3306/mail","root",""); Statement stmt = con.createStatement(); ResultSet rs = stmt.executeQuery("select message_body from deadletter"); String dbtime; while (rs.next()) { dbtime = rs.getString(1); System.out.println(dbtime); } con.close(); } catch (SQLException e) { System.out.println("Connection Failed! Check output console"); e.printStackTrace(); } } and the complete stacktrace of the above exception is: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: com.mysql.jdbc:Driver at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(URLClassLoader.java:200) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(URLClassLoader.java:307) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:307) at sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Launcher.java:301) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:252) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClassInternal(ClassLoader.java:320) at java.lang.Class.forName0(Native Method) at java.lang.Class.forName(Class.java:169) at mail.main(mail.java:114) Now, what's wrong I'm doing here?

    Read the article

  • Network Authentication when running exe from WMI

    - by Andy
    Hi, I have a C# exe that needs to be run using WMI and access a network share. However, when I access the share I get an UnauthorizedAccessException. If I run the exe directly the share is accessible. I am using the same user account in both cases. There are two parts to my application, a GUI client that runs on a local PC and a backend process that runs on a remote PC. When the client needs to connect to the backend it first launches the remote process using WMI (code reproduced below). The remote process does a number of things including accessing a network share using Directory.GetDirectories() and reports back to the client. When the remote process is launched automatically by the client using WMI, it cannot access the network share. However, if I connect to the remote machine using Remote Desktop and manually launch the backend process, access to the network share succeeds. The user specifed in the WMI call and the user logged in for the Remote Desktop session are the same, so the permissions should be the same, shouldn't they? I see in the MSDN entry for Directory.Exists() it states "The Exists method does not perform network authentication. If you query an existing network share without being pre-authenticated, the Exists method will return false." I assume this is related? How can I ensure the user is authenticated correctly in a WMI session? ConnectionOptions opts = new ConnectionOptions(); opts.Username = username; opts.Password = password; ManagementPath path = new ManagementPath(string.Format("\\\\{0}\\root\\cimv2:Win32_Process", remoteHost)); ManagementScope scope = new ManagementScope(path, opts); scope.Connect(); ObjectGetOptions getOpts = new ObjectGetOptions(); using (ManagementClass mngClass = new ManagementClass(scope, path, getOpts)) { ManagementBaseObject inParams = mngClass.GetMethodParameters("Create"); inParams["CommandLine"] = commandLine; ManagementBaseObject outParams = mngClass.InvokeMethod("Create", inParams, null); }

    Read the article

  • WebRequest using SSL

    - by pm_2
    I have the following code to retrieve a file using FTP (which works fine). FtpWebRequest request = (FtpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create(svrPath); request.KeepAlive = true; request.UsePassive = true; request.UseBinary = true; request.Method = WebRequestMethods.Ftp.DownloadFile; request.Credentials = new NetworkCredential(uname, passw); using (FtpWebResponse response = (FtpWebResponse)request.GetResponse()) using (Stream responseStream = response.GetResponseStream()) using (StreamReader reader = new StreamReader(responseStream)) using (StreamWriter destination = new StreamWriter(destinationFile)) { destination.Write(reader.ReadToEnd()); destination.Flush(); } However, when I try to do this using SSL, I am unable to access the file, as follows: FtpWebRequest request = (FtpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create(svrPath); request.KeepAlive = true; request.UsePassive = true; request.UseBinary = true; // The following line causes the download to fail request.EnableSsl = true; request.Method = WebRequestMethods.Ftp.DownloadFile; request.Credentials = new NetworkCredential(uname, passw); using (FtpWebResponse response = (FtpWebResponse)request.GetResponse()) using (Stream responseStream = response.GetResponseStream()) using (StreamReader reader = new StreamReader(responseStream)) using (StreamWriter destination = new StreamWriter(destinationFile)) { destination.Write(reader.ReadToEnd()); destination.Flush(); } Can anyone tell me why the latter would not work?

    Read the article

  • Editing a .class file directly, playing around with opcodes

    - by echox
    Hi, today I just tried to play a little bit around with the opcodes in compiled java class file. After inserting iinc 1,1 the java virtual machine responds with: Exception in thread "main" java.lang.ClassFormatError: Truncated class file at java.lang.ClassLoader.defineClass1(Native Method) at java.lang.ClassLoader.defineClassCond(ClassLoader.java:632) at java.lang.ClassLoader.defineClass(ClassLoader.java:616) at java.security.SecureClassLoader.defineClass(SecureClassLoader.java:141) at java.net.URLClassLoader.defineClass(URLClassLoader.java:283) at java.net.URLClassLoader.access$000(URLClassLoader.java:58) at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(URLClassLoader.java:197) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(URLClassLoader.java:190) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:307) at sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Launcher.java:301) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:248) Could not find the main class: Test. Program will exit. This is my example source code: public class Test { public static void main(String[] args) { int i = 5; i++; i++; i++; System.out.println("Number: " + i + "\n"); } } The opcode for an increment is 0x84 + 2 bytes for operands. There's only one section in the resulting class file, which contains 0x84: [..] 8401 0184 0101 8401 01[..] So I would translate this as: iinc 1,1 iinc 1,1 iinc 1,1 corresponding to my i++; i++; i++; I then tried to append just 840101 to increment the variable once more, but that didn't work and resulted in the ClassFormatError. Is there anything like a checksum for the class file? I looked up the format of a classfile in http://java.sun.com/docs/books/jvms/second_edition/html/ClassFile.doc.html but could not find anything which points out to some kind of bytes_of_classfile or something. I also don't understand why the error is "Truncated Class File", because I did append something :-) I know its not a good idea to edit class files directly, but I'm just interested on the VM internals here.

    Read the article

  • What does the JS function 'postMessage()' do when called on an html object tag?

    - by Stephano
    I was recently searching for a way to call the print function on a PDF I was displaying in adobe air. I solved this problem with a little help from this fellow, and by calling postMessage on my PDF like so: //this is the HTML I use to view my PDF <object id="PDFObj" data="test.pdf" type="application/pdf"/> ... //this actionscript lives in my air app var pdfObj:Object = htmlLoader.window.document.getElementById("PDFObj"); pdfObj.postMessage([message]); I've tried this in JavaScript as well, just to be sure it wasn't adobe sneaking in and helping me out... var obj = document.getElementById("PDFObj"); obj.postMessage([message]); Works well in JavaScript and in ActionScript. I looked up what the MDC had to say about postMessage, but all I found was window.postMessage. Now, the code works like a charm, and postMessage magically sends my message to my PDF's embedded JavaScript. However, I'm still not sure how I'm doing this. I found adobe talking about this method, but not really explaining it: HTML-PDF communication basics JavaScript in an HTML page can send a message to JavaScript in PDF content by calling the postMessage() method of the DOM object representing the PDF content. Any ideas how this is accomplished?

    Read the article

  • BinaryWriterWith7BitEncoding & BinaryReaderWith7BitEncoding

    - by Tim
    Mr. Ayende wrote in his latest blog post about an implementation of a queue. In the post he's using two magical files: BinaryWriterWith7BitEncoding & BinaryReaderWith7BitEncoding BinaryWriterWith7BitEncoding can write both int and long? using the following method signatures: void WriteBitEncodedNullableInt64(long? value) & void Write7BitEncodedInt(int value) and BinaryReaderWith7BitEncoding can read the values written using the following method signatures: long? ReadBitEncodedNullableInt64() and int Read7BitEncodedInt() So far I've only managed to find a way to read the 7BitEncodedInt: protected int Read7BitEncodedInt() { int value = 0; int byteval; int shift = 0; while(((byteval = ReadByte()) & 0x80) != 0) { value |= ((byteval & 0x7F) << shift); shift += 7; } return (value | (byteval << shift)); } I'm not too good with byte shifting - does anybody know how to read and write the 7BitEncoded long? and write the int ?

    Read the article

  • .NET MVC custom routing with empty parameters

    - by user135498
    Hi All, I have a .net mvc with the following routes: routes.Add(new Route( "Lookups/{searchtype}/{inputtype}/{firstname}/{middlename}/{lastname}/{city}/{state}/{address}", new RouteValueDictionary( new { controller = "Lookups", action = "Search", firstname = (string)null, middlename = (string)null, lastname = (string)null, city = (string)null, state = (string)null, address = (string)null, SearchType = SearchType.PeopleSearch, InputType = InputType.Name }), new MvcRouteHandler()) ); routes.Add(new Route( "Lookups/{searchtype}/{inputtype}", new RouteValueDictionary( new { controller = "Lookups", action = "Search", firstname = "", middlename = "", lastname = "", city = "", state = "", address = "" }), new MvcRouteHandler()) ); routes.Add(new Route( "Lookups/{searchtype}/{inputtype}", new RouteValueDictionary( new { controller = "Lookups", action = "Search", firstname = "", middlename = "", lastname = "", city = "", state = "", address = "", SearchType = SearchType.PeopleSearch, InputType = InputType.Name }), new MvcRouteHandler()) ); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Account", action = "LogOn", id = "" } // Parameter defaults ); The following request works fine: http://localhost:2608/Lookups/PeopleSearch/Name/john/w/smith/seattle/wa/123 main This request does not work: http://localhost:2608/Lookups/PeopleSearch/Name/john//smith//wa/ Not all requests will have all paramters and I would like empty parameters to be passed to the method as empty string or null. Where am I going wrong? The method: public ActionResult Search(string firstname, string middlename, string lastname, string city, string state, string address, SearchType searchtype, InputType inputtype) { SearchRequest r = new SearchRequest { Firstname = firstname, Middlename = middlename, Lastname = lastname, City = city, State = state, Address = address, SearchType = searchtype, InputType = inputtype }; return View(r); }

    Read the article

  • .Net Remoting: Serialize Object and implementation

    - by flogo
    Hi, In my scenario there is a client-side assembly that contains a class (Task). This class implements an interface (ITask) that is known on the server. I'm trying to send a Task object from client to server without copying the assembly of the client manually to the server. If I just serialize the task object, the server obviously complains about the missing assembly. I then tried to serialze typeof(Task).Assembly but could not derserialize it on the server. Next I tried to File.ReadAllBytes(typeof(Task).Assembly.Location) and saved it to a temporary file on the server, which threw an exception on Assembly.LoadFrom(@".\temporary.dll"); Why am I doing this? Java RMI has a neat feature to request the implementation of an object that is received through remoting but is stil "unkown" (this JVM doesn't have the *.class file). This can be used for a compute server that just knows the interface of a "task" containing a run() method and downloads the implementation of this method on demand. This way the server doesn't have to be changed for new tasks. I'm trying to achieve something like this in .Net.

    Read the article

  • Rhinomocks DynamicMock question

    - by epitka
    My dynamic mock behaves as Parial mock, meaning it executes the actual code when called. Here are the ways I tried it var mockProposal = _mockRepository.DynamicMock<BidProposal>(); SetupResult.For(mockProposal.CreateMarketingPlan(null, null, null)).IgnoreArguments().Repeat.Once().Return( copyPlan); //Expect.Call(mockProposal.CreateMarketingPlan(null, null, null)).IgnoreArguments().Repeat.Once().Return( // copyPlan); // mockProposal.Expect(x => x.CreateMarketingPlan(null, null, null)).IgnoreArguments().Return(copyPlan).Repeat.Once(); Instead of just returning what I expect it runs the code in the method CreateMarketingPlan Here is the error: System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at Policy.Entities.MarketingPlan.SetMarketingPlanName(MarketingPlanDescription description) in MarketingPlan.cs: line 76 at Policy.Entities.MarketingPlan.set_MarketingPlanDescription(MarketingPlanDescription value) in MarketingPlan.cs: line 91 at Policy.Entities.MarketingPlan.Create(PPOBenefits ppoBenefits, MarketingPlanDescription marketingPlanDescription, MarketingPlanType marketingPlanType) in MarketingPlan.cs: line 23 at Policy.Entities.BidProposal.CreateMarketingPlan(PPOBenefits ppoBenefits, MarketingPlanDescription marketingPlanDescription, MarketingPlanType marketingPlanType) in BidProposal.cs: line 449 at Tests.Policy.Services.MarketingPlanCopyServiceTests.can_copy_MarketingPlan_with_all_options() in MarketingPlanCopyServiceTests.cs: line 32 Update: I figured out what it was. Method was not "virtual" so it could not be mocked because non-virtual methods cannot be proxied.

    Read the article

  • Disposing underlying object from finalizer in an immutable object

    - by Juan Luis Soldi
    I'm trying to wrap around Awesomium and make it look to the rest of my code as close as possible to NET's WebBrowser since this is for an existing application that already uses the WebBrowser. In this library, there is a class called JSObject which represents a javascript object. You can get one of this, for instance, by calling the ExecuteJavascriptWithResult method of the WebView class. If you'd call it like myWebView.ExecuteJavascriptWithResult("document", string.Empty).ToObject(), then you'd get a JSObject that represents the document. I'm writing an immutable class (it's only field is a readonly JSObject object) called JSObjectWrap that wraps around JSObject which I want to use as base class for other classes that would emulate .NET classes such as HtmlElement and HtmlDocument. Now, these classes don't implement Dispose, but JSObject does. What I first thought was to call the underlying JSObject's Dispose method in my JSObjectWrap's finalizer (instead of having JSObjectWrap implement Dispose) so that the rest of my code can stay the way it is (instead of having to add using's everywhere and make sure every JSObjectWrap is being properly disposed). But I just realized if more than two JSObjectWrap's have the same underlying JSObject and one of them gets finalized this will mess up the other JSObjectWrap. So now I'm thinking maybe I should keep a static Dictionary of JSObjects and keep count of how many of each of them are being referenced by a JSObjectWrap but this sounds messy and I think could cause major performance issues. Since this sounds to me like a common pattern I wonder if anyone else has a better idea.

    Read the article

  • RSA_sign and RSACryptoProvider.VerifySignature

    - by Miky D
    I'm trying to get up to speed on how to get some code that uses OpenSSL for cryptography, to play nice with another program that I'm writing in C#, using the Microsoft cryptography providers available in .NET. More to the point, I'm trying to have the C# program verify an RSA message signature generated by the OpenSSL code. The code that generates the signature looks something like this: // Code in C, using the OpenSSL RSA implementation char msgToSign[] = "Hello World"; // the message to be signed char signature[RSA_size(rsa)]; // buffer that will hold signature int slen = 0; // will contain signature size // rsa is an OpenSSL RSA context, that's loaded with the public/private key pair memset(signature, 0, sizeof(signature)); RSA_sign(NID_sha1 , (unsigned char*)msgToSign , strlen(msgToSign) , signature , &slen , rsa); // now signature contains the message signature // and can be verified using the RSA_verify counterpart // .. I would like to verify the signature in C# In C#, I would do the following: import the other side's public key into an RSACryptoServiceProvider object receive the message and it's signature try to verify the signature I've got the first two parts working (I've verified that the public key is loading properly because I managed to send an RSA encrypted text from the C# code to the OpenSSL code in C and successfully have it decrypted) In order to verify the signature in C#, I've tried using the: VerifySignature method of the RSACryptoServiceProvider but that didn't work. And digging around the internet I was only able to find some vague information pointing out that .NET uses a different method for generating the signature than OpenSSL does. So, does anybody know how to accomplish this?

    Read the article

  • Cannot use await in Portable Class Library for Win 8 and Win Phone 8

    - by Harry Len
    I'm attempting to create a Portable Class Library in Visual Studio 2012 to be used for a Windows 8 Store app and a Windows Phone 8 app. I'm getting the following error: 'await' requires that the type 'Windows.Foundation.IAsyncOperation' have a suitable GetAwaiter method. Are you missing a using directive for 'System'? At this line of code: StorageFolder guidesInstallFolder = await Package.Current.InstalledLocation.GetFolderAsync(guidesFolder); My Portable Class Library is targeted at .NET Framework 4.5, Windows Phone 8 and .NET for Windows Store apps. I don't get this error for this line of code in a pure Windows Phone 8 project, and I don't get it in a Windows Store app either so I don't understand why it won't work in my PCL. The GetAwaiter is an extension method in the class WindowsRuntimeSystemExtensions which is in System.Runtime.WindowsRuntime.dll. Using the Object Browser I can see this dll is available in the .NET for Windows Store apps component set and in the Windows Phone 8 component set but not in the .NET Portable Subset. I just don't understand why it wouldn't be in the Portable Subset if it's available in both my targeted platforms.

    Read the article

  • How to create a list of data clickable? asp.net

    - by Roger Filipe
    Hello, I am learning asp.net but I'm finding some problems. My doubt is how to make a list of titles of news contained in a database. And in this list, each of the titles when clicked is redirected to a page where you will be able to view the news in full (Title, Body, Author ..). What I got: - A database containing a table with the news, every news is associated with an identification code (ex: "ID"). - A page where you will make the listing. (Ex: site / listofnews.aspx) - I have a page that uses the method "querystring" to know what is the primarykey the news. (Ex: site/shownews.aspx?ID=12345, where "12345" is the primarykey of the news. Once it knows what is the primarykey of the news in the database, it loads each of the fields of the page (news.aspx) with the news, this part is working ok. - The data is retrieve using the Linq, so I receive a List of "News", the class "News" as ID, Title, Body, Author.. My doubt is how to make the listing clickable. In php I used this method (make a list of html links, in each link the href field is changed so that the tag "id" coincides with the news): //database used is oracle, $stmt is the query, you don´t need to understand how it works. oci_define_by_name($stmt, "ID", $id); oci_define_by_name($stmt, "TITLE", $title); if (!oci_execute($stmt, OCI_DEFAULT)) { $err = oci_error($stmt); trigger_error('Query failed: ' . $err['message'], E_USER_ERROR); } echo '<br />'; while (oci_fetch($stmt)) {<------While there is data from the database , create links $link = '<a href="site/shownews.php?ID='.$id.'" >'.$title.'</a>';<----the shownews.php?ID= $id, creates the link according with the ID echo $link<---Prints the link echo '<br />'; } How do i make the same with asp.net?

    Read the article

  • Entity Framework - refresh objects from database

    - by Nebo
    I'm having trouble with refreshing objects in my database. I have an two PC's and two applications. On the first PC, there's an application which communicates with my database and adds some data to Measurements table. On my other PC, there's an application which retrives the latest Measurement under a timer, so it should retrive measurements added by the application on my first PC too. The problem is it doesn't. On my application start, it caches all the data from database and never get new data added. I use Refresh() method which works well when I change any of the cached data, but it doesn't refresh newly added data. Here is my method which should update the data: public static Entities myEntities = new Entities(); public static Measurement GetLastMeasurement(int conditionId) { myEntities.Refresh(RefreshMode.StoreWins, myEntities.Measurements); return (from measurement in myEntities.Measurements where measurement.ConditionId == conditionId select measurement).OrderByDescending(cd => cd.Timestamp).First(); } P.S. Applications have different connection strings in app.config (different accounts for the same DB).

    Read the article

  • here is my code in Jquery and Asp.net Unable to get a correct ANS as I am getting from jquery?

    - by ricky roy
    unable to get the correct Ans as i am getting from the Jquery I am using jquery.countdown.js here is my code [WebMethod] public static String GetTime() { DateTime dt = new DateTime(); dt = Convert.ToDateTime("April 9, 2010 22:38:10"); return dt.ToString("dddd, dd MMMM yyyy HH:mm:ss"); } html file <script type="text/javascript" src="Scripts/jquery-1.3.2.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="Scripts/jquery.countdown.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { var shortly = new Date('April 9, 2010 22:38:10'); var newTime = new Date('April 9, 2010 22:38:10'); //for loop divid /// $('#defaultCountdown').countdown({ until: shortly, onExpiry: liftOff, onTick: watchCountdown, serverSync: serverTime }); $('#div1').countdown({ until: newTime }); }); function serverTime() { var time = null; $.ajax({ type: "POST", //Page Name (in which the method should be called) and method name url: "Default.aspx/GetTime", // If you want to pass parameter or data to server side function you can try line contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", data: "{}", async: false, //else If you don't want to pass any value to server side function leave the data to blank line below //data: "{}", success: function(msg) { //Got the response from server and render to the client time = new Date(msg.d); alert(time); }, error: function(msg) { time = new Date(); alert('1'); } }); return time; } function watchCountdown() { } function liftOff() { } </script>

    Read the article

  • Best practice PHP Form Action

    - by Rob
    Hi there i've built a new script (from scratch not a CMS) and i've done alot of work on reducing memory usage and the time it takes for the page to be displayed (caching HTML etc) There's one thing that i'm not sure about though. Take a simple example of an article with a comments section. If the comment form posts to another page that then redirects back to the article page I won't have the problem of people clicking refresh and resending the information. However if I do it that way, I have to load up my script twice use twice as much memory and it takes twice as long whilst i'm still only displaying the page once. Here's an example from my load log. The first load of the article is from the cache, the second rebuilds the page after the comment is posted. Example 1 0 queries using 650856 bytes of memory in 0.018667 - domain.com/article/1/my_article.html 9 queries using 1325723 bytes of memory in 0.075825 - domain.com/article/1/my_article/newcomment.html 0 queries using 650856 bytes of memory in 0.029449 - domain.com/article/1/my_article.html Example 2 0 queries using 650856 bytes of memory in 0.023526 - domain.com/article/1/my_article.html 9 queries using 1659096 bytes of memory in 0.060032 - domain.com/article/1/my_article.html Obviously the time fluctuates so you can't really compare that. But as you can see with the first method I use more memory and it takes longer to load. BUT the first method avoides the refresh problem. Does anyone have any suggestions for the best approach or for alternative ways to avoid the extra load (admittadely minimal but i'd still like to avoid it) whilst also avoiding the refresh problem?

    Read the article

  • Performance of map overlay in conjunction with ItemizedOverlay is very poor

    - by oviroa
    I am trying to display one png (drawable) on a map in about 300 points. I am retrieving the coordinates from a Sqlite table, dumping them in a cursor. When I try to display them by parsing through the cursor, it takes for ever for the images to be drawn, about .5 second per image. I find that to be suspiciously slow, so some insight on how I can increase performance would help. Here is the snippet of my code that does the rendering: while (!mFlavorsCursor.isAfterLast()) { Log.d("cursor",""+(i++)); point = new GeoPoint( (int)(mFlavorsCursor.getFloat(mFlavorsCursor.getColumnIndex(DataBaseHelper.KEY_LATITUDE))*1000000), (int)(mFlavorsCursor.getFloat(mFlavorsCursor.getColumnIndex(DataBaseHelper.KEY_LONGITUDE))*1000000)); overlayitem = new OverlayItem(point, "", ""); itemizedoverlay.addOverlay(overlayitem); itemizedoverlay.doPopulate(); mFlavorsCursor.moveToNext(); } mapOverlays.add(itemizedoverlay); I tried to isolate all the steps and it looks like the slow one is this: itemizedoverlay.doPopulate(); This is a public method in my class that extends ItemizedOverlay that runs the private populate() method.

    Read the article

  • Reloading the model of a TTTableViewController

    - by user341338
    My problem is that I have a Register Controller and a Login Controller. The Login Screen displays a Login Screen or a Logout Screen depending if a user is logged in. Now when a user registers, does not close the app, and then goes to the Login Screen it will still display a Login Screen, although there is a logged in user already. This is because the Screen is created when the application loads and does not change afterwards. I tried doing this: - (id)init { if (self = [super init]) { [self invalidateModel]; [self reload]; but that did not work, since it is only called on the first init. then i tried: - (void)viewDidLoad { [self invalidateModel]; [self reload]; } But that method had the same problem. Then I found this method: - (TTNavigationMode)navigationModeForURL:(NSString*)URL; with the following options: typedef enum { TTNavigationModeNone, TTNavigationModeCreate, // a new view controller is created each time TTNavigationModeShare, // a new view controller is created, cached and re-used TTNavigationModeModal, // a new view controller is created and presented modally TTNavigationModeExternal, // an external app will be opened } TTNavigationMode; It seems like TTNavigationModeCreate would be the right thing to use, but I have no clue how to use it. Any help? Thnx.

    Read the article

  • How do I detect if both left and right buttons are pushed?

    - by Greg McGuffey
    I would like have three mouse actions over a control: left, right and BOTH. I've got the left and right and am currently using the middle button for the third, but am curious how I could use the left and right buttons being pressed together, for those situations where the user has a mouse without a middle button. This would be handled in the OnMouseDown method of a custom control. UPDATE After reviewing the suggested answers, I need to clarify that what I was attempting to do was to take action on the mouse click in the MouseDown event (actually OnMouseDown method of a control). Because it appears that .NET will always raise two MouseDown events when both the left and right buttons on the mouse are clicked (one for each button), I'm guessing the only way to do this would be either do some low level windows message management or to implement some sort of delayed execution of an action after MouseDown. In the end, it is just way simpler to use the middle mouse button. Now, if the action took place on MouseUp, then Gary's or nos's suggestions would work well. Any further insights on this problem would be appreciated. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • In JSF - What is the correct way to do this? Two dropdown lists with dependency.

    - by Ben
    Hi, I'm making two dropdown lists in JSF which are dependent. Specifically, one list has all the languages and the second list contains values that are displayed in the currently selected language. I've implemented this by having the second list use information from a Hash and rebuilding that Hash in the setter of the currently selected language. JSF Code Bit: <rich:dropDownMenu value="#{bean.currentlySelectedLanguage}" id="languageSelector"> ... (binding to languages hash) ... <rich:dropDownMenu value="#{bean.currentlySelectedScript}" id="ScriptPullDown"> ... (binding to scripts hash) ... Backing Bean Code Bit: setCurrentlySelectedLanguage(String lang){ this.currentlySelectedLanguage = lang; rebuildScriptNames(lang); } I'm wondering if that's a good way of doing this or if theres a better method that I am not aware of. Thank you! EDIT - Adding info.. I used a a4j:support that with event="onchange" and ReRender="ScriptPullDown" to rerender the script pull down. I could probably add an action expression to run a method when the value changes. But is there a benefit to doing this over using code in the setter function?

    Read the article

  • change prototype script to jquery one

    - by steve
    I have this form submit code: Event.observe(window, 'load', init, false); function init() { Event.observe('addressForm', 'submit', storeAddress); } function storeAddress(e) { $('response').innerHTML = 'Adding email address...'; var pars = 'address=' + escape($F('address')); var myAjax = new Ajax.Updater('response', 'ajaxServer.php', {method: 'get', parameters: pars}); Event.stop(e); } How can I change it to work with jQuery? Here is the html form: <form id="addressForm" action="index.php" method="get"> <b>Email:</b> <input type="text" name="address" id="address" size="25"><br> <input name="Submit" value="Submit" type="submit" /> <p id="response"><?php echo(storeAddress()); ?></p> </form> and this is php code at start of document: <?php require_once("inc/storeAddress.php"); ?>

    Read the article

  • Getting coordinates when clicking anywhere on a MapView

    - by DixieFlatline
    I just cant get this working. I tried using the code below with onTouchEventand and it doesn't work. If i return true at the end of the method, i get the toast with the coordinates but can't move a map, and if i return false, i can move a map but cant display a toast after the user clicks on a map. If i get it right, the other onTap method is used only for clicking on a overlays. Has anybody figured this thiing out? public boolean onTouchEvent(MotionEvent arg0, MapView arg1) { //super.onTouchEvent(arg0); int akcija = arg0.getAction(); if(akcija == MotionEvent.ACTION_UP){ if(!premik) { Projection proj = mapView.getProjection(); GeoPoint loc = proj.fromPixels((int)arg0.getX(), (int)arg0.getY()); String sirina=Double.toString(loc.getLongitudeE6()/1000000); String dolzina=Double.toString(loc.getLatitudeE6()/1000000); Toast toast = Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), "Širina: "+sirina+" Dolzina: "+dolzina, Toast.LENGTH_LONG); toast.show(); } } else if (akcija == MotionEvent.ACTION_DOWN){ premik= false; } else if (akcija== MotionEvent.ACTION_MOVE){ premik = true; } return false; //return super.onTouchEvent(arg0); }

    Read the article

  • java annotations - problem with calling a locator class from a Vaadin Project

    - by George
    Hello, I'm not sure how to explain this without writing several pages so I hope the actual code is more expressive. I've made a jar containing multiple annotation declaration similar to the following: @Target(ElementType.PACKAGE) @Retention(RetentionPolicy.RUNTIME) public @interface MarkedPackage { } then I have made a test jar containing several classes in several packages and marked just one package with the above annotation (with package-info.java) like below: @myPackage.MarkedPackage package package.test.jar; this jar had in its build path the jar containing the annotations. then I made a static class that has a method (LoadPlugins) that retrieves a list with all the jars of a directory. Then it searches through the jars for the 'package-info' class and checks if that classes package contains the MarkedPackage annotation. by calling this: if (checkPackageAnnotation(thisClass.getPackage())) where thisClass is the package-info class retrieved via a classloader. and: public static boolean checkPackageAnnotation(AnnotatedElement elem) { System.out.println(elem.getAnnotations().length); if (elem == null || !elem.isAnnotationPresent(MarkedPackage.class)) return false; return true; } the elem.getAnnotatios().length is there for debug purposes. And the problem appears when I call the method from the static class: if I call it from a main function: public class MyMain { public static void main(String[] args){ PluginUtils.LoadPlugins(); } } everything works perfectly it displays '1' from that System.out.println(elem.getAnnotations().length); But if I call it from a button from my Vaadin project: header.addComponent(new Button("CallThat", new Button.ClickListener() { public void buttonClick(ClickEvent event) { PluginUtils.LoadPlugins(); } })); It displays '0' from that System.out.println(elem.getAnnotations().length); Also I should mention that I created the main inside my Vaadin project so it would have the exact same build path and resources. Is there a problem with web applications and that "@Retention(RetentionPolicy.RUNTIME)" ? hope I was clear enough... Hope someone has a solution for me... If you need more information - let me know. Thank you.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 450 451 452 453 454 455 456 457 458 459 460 461  | Next Page >