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• ClickOnce permissions

  - by stephenfalken

  We recently updated our main website. This included creating a new directory to hold the new site; then, some of the existing subdirectories needed to be copied over. Some of the virtual directories below the main site are clickonce publishing locations. These have been 100% successful publishing locations for 3 years now. We would update the application in Visual Studio and then publish... painless. Very long story short, since we've copied the directories to the new main site location on disk, all of our clickonce sites except one will no longer publish. They all fail with an error saying "you are not authorized to perform the current operation". This is immeidately after we set permissions to Full Control for my domain user group. I've checked everything I know how to check as far as permissions go and made the non-working ones' permissions match the one that does work, but no joy. We had problems on Friday and I fixed the one site that does work, but I can't remember how I fixed it; all I remember is that it took a long time screwing with it to make it work. Could there be some arcane setting in IIS that has been omitted? Is there a simple list of things to check anywhere on the Net? ClickOnce information is scattered among 50,000 URLs and I haven't been able to figure it out again. Thanks

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• WPF Usercontrol interaction with parent view / viewmodel

  - by obaylis

  Hi I have a mainView window which has its dataContext set to it's own viewModel. On that viewModel is a DateTime property which in turn is bound to a datepicker on my main view using 2 way binding. <toolkit:DatePicker DateSelected="{Binding mainDateTimeProperty, Mode=TwoWay}" /> This is all fine so far. On the change of my datetime property I create a list which is then bound to a datagrid elsewhere on the mainview. This all works fine. My question is to do with a usercontrol I want to add to the main view. I want this usercontrol to be self contained so have created it with it's own viewmodel but it does also need access to mainDateTimeProperty I thought that best way to go would be to create a dependencyProperty on the usercontrol and when I create my control in the main view I bind the dp to the datetime as follows. <uc:MyNewUserControl DateProperty="{Binding mainDateTimeProperty}" /> Trouble is how do I have the usercontrol maintain datacontext with it's viewmodel and yet still have the dependency property bound to a property on the main view model? Hope this is clear. Can post some more code if necessary. Looking for a best practice approach if possible. Thanks very much for any advice.

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• Need help modifying C++ application to accept continuous piped input in Linux

  - by GreeenGuru

  The goal is to mine packet headers for URLs visited using tcpdump. So far, I can save a packet header to a file using: tcpdump "dst port 80 and tcp[13] & 0x08 = 8" -A -s 300 | tee -a ./Desktop/packets.txt And I've written a program to parse through the header and extract the URL when given the following command: cat ~/Desktop/packets.txt | ./packet-parser.exe But what I want to be able to do is pipe tcpdump directly into my program, which will then log the data: tcpdump "dst port 80 and tcp[13] & 0x08 = 8" -A -s 300 | ./packet-parser.exe Here is the script as it is. The question is: how do I need to change it to support continuous input from tcpdump? #include <boost/regex.hpp> #include <fstream> #include <cstdio> // Needed to define ios::app #include <string> #include <iostream> int main() { // Make sure to open the file in append mode std::ofstream file_out("/var/local/GreeenLogger/url.log", std::ios::app); if (not file_out) std::perror("/var/local/GreeenLogger/url.log"); else { std::string text; // Get multiple lines of input -- raw std::getline(std::cin, text, '\0'); const boost::regex pattern("GET (\\S+) HTTP.*?[\\r\\n]+Host: (\\S+)"); boost::smatch match_object; bool match = boost::regex_search(text, match_object, pattern); if(match) { std::string output; output = match_object[2] + match_object[1]; file_out << output << '\n'; std::cout << output << std::endl; } file_out.close(); } } Thank you ahead of time for the help!

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• basic javascript question on geolocation and googlemaps

  - by ade

  hello all, Im hoping that somebody can help me out on what i feel is an easy answer but I just cant get it to work out. Im trying to trap the geolocation lat and long and place it into the google maps api so far i have var myOptions = { zoom:7, trips:1, mapTypeId: google.maps.MapTypeId.ROADMAP } var map = new google.maps.Map(document.getElementById("map"), myOptions); directionsDisplay.setMap(map); var request = { origin: 'newyork' destination: 'deleware', travelMode: google.maps.DirectionsTravelMode.DRIVING }; this works fine for what i want. how ever I want to be able to change Origin to the users lat long using the following script from google.maps.api. their code is: if(navigator.geolocation) { navigator.geolocation.getCurrentPosition(function(position) { initialLocation = new google.maps.LatLng(position.coords.latitude,position.coords.longitude); var placeMarker = new google.maps.Marker({ position: initialLocation, map: map, }); map.setCenter(initialLocation); }, function() { handleNoGeolocation(browserSupportFlag); }); } else { // Browser doesn't support Geolocation handleNoGeolocation(); } function handleNoGeolocation() { initialLocation = newyork; map.setCenter(initialLocation); } I want to pull out the navigator.geolocation.getCurrentPosition(function(position) { initialLocation = new google.maps.LatLng(position.coords.latitude,position.coords.longitude); and allocate it two 2 varibles, myLat and myLong. I then want to be able to change my orignal script from var request = { origin: 'newyork' destination: 'deleware', travelMode: google.maps.DirectionsTravelMode.DRIVING }; to var request = { origin: myLat,myLong destination: 'deleware', travelMode: google.maps.DirectionsTravelMode.DRIVING }; Does this make sense..? Im currently having a pig with it and as im not a JS developer its what i think should be a simple bit of coding that im losing the battle with.. any thoughts..?

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• How can I inject an object into an WCF IErrorHandler implementation with Castle Windsor?

  - by Michael Johnson

  I'm developing a set of services using WCF. The application is doing dependency injection with Castle Windsor. I've added an IErrorHandler implementation that is added to services via an attribute. Everything is working thus far. The IErrorHandler object (of a class called FaultHandler is being applied properly and invoked. Now I'm adding logging. Castle Windsor is set up to inject the logger object (an instance of IOurLogger). This is working. But when I try to add it to FaultHandler my logger is null. The code for FaultHandler looks something like this: class FaultHandler : IErrorHandler { public IOurLogger logger { get; set; } public bool HandleError(Exception error) { logger.Write("Exception type {0}. Message: {1}", error.GetType(), error.Message); // Let WCF handle things its way. We only want to log. return false; } public void ProvideFault(Exception error, MessageVersion version, Message fault) { } } This throws it's own exception, since logger is null when HandleError() is called. The logger is being successfully injected into the service itself and is usable there, but for some reason I can't use it in FaultHandler. Update: Here is the relevant part of the Windsor configuration file (edited to protect the innocent): <configuration> <components> <component id="Logger" service="Our.Namespace.IOurLogger, Our.Namespace" type="Our.Namespace.OurLogger, Our.Namespace" /> </components> </configuration>

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• Help Converting T-SQL Query to LINQ Query

  - by campbelt

  I am new to LINQ, and so am struggle over some queries that I'm sure are pretty simple. In any case, I have been hiting my head against this for a while, but I'm stumped. Can anyone here help me convert this T-SQL query into a LINQ query? Once I see how it is done, I'm sure I'll have some question about the syntax: SELECT BlogTitle FROM Blogs b JOIN BlogComments bc ON b.BlogID = bc.BlogID WHERE b.Deleted = 0 AND b.Draft = 0 AND b.[Default] = 0 AND bc.Deleted = 0 GROUP BY BlogTitle ORDER BY MAX([bc].[Timestamp]) DESC Just to show that I have tried to solve this on my own, here is what I've come up with so far, though it doesn't compile, let alone work ... var iqueryable = from blog in db.Blogs join blogComment in db.BlogComments on blog.BlogID equals blogComment.BlogID where blog.Deleted == false && blog.Draft == false && blog.Default == false && blogComment.Deleted == false group blogComment by blog.BlogID into blogGroup orderby blogGroup.Max(blogComment => blogComment.Timestamp) select blogGroup;

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• MEF = may experience frustration?

  - by Dave

  Well, it's not THAT bad yet. :) But I do have questions after Reed has pointed me at MEF as a potential alternative to IoC (and so far it does look pretty good). Consider the following model: As you can see, I have an App, and this app uses Plugins (whoops, missed that association!). Both the App and Plugins require usage of an object of type CandySettings, which is found in yet another assembly. I first tried to use the ComposeParts method in MEF, but the only way I could get this to work was to do something like this in the plugin code. var container = new CompositionContainer(); container.ComposeParts(this, new CandySettings()); But this doesn't make any sense, because why would I want to create the instance of CandySettings in the plugin? It should be in the App. But if I put it in the App code, then the Plugin doesn't magically figure out how to get at ICandySettings, even though I am using [Import] in the plugin, and [Export] in CandySettings. The way I did it was to use MEF's DirectoryCatalog, because this allows the plugin, when constructed, to scan all of the assemblies in the current folder and automagically import everything that is marked with the [Import] attribute. So it looks like this, and potentially in every plugin: var catalog = new DirectoryCatalog( "."); var container = new CompositionContainer( catalog); container.ComposeParts( this); This totally works great, but I can't help but think that this is not how MEF was intended to be used?

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• GPGPU programming with OpenGL ES 2.0

  - by Albus Dumbledore

  I am trying to do some image processing on the GPU, e.g. median, blur, brightness, etc. The general idea is to do something like this framework from GPU Gems 1. I am able to write the GLSL fragment shader for processing the pixels as I've been trying out different things in an effect designer app. I am not sure however how I should do the other part of the task. That is, I'd like to be working on the image in image coords and then outputting the result to a texture. I am aware of the gl_FragCoords variable. As far as I understand it it goes like that: I need to set up a view (an orthographic one maybe?) and a quad in such a way so that the pixel shader would be applied once to each pixel in the image and so that it would be rendering to a texture or something. But how can I achieve that considering there's depth that may make things somewhat awkward to me... I'd be very grateful if anyone could help me with this rather simple task as I am really frustrated with myself. UPDATE It seems I'll have to use an FBO, getting one like this: glBindFramebuffer(...)

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• UIImagePickerController image editing not working

  - by Greg Reichow

  I am having a problem with implementing UIImagePickerController. When the controller loads, it displays modally, and allows the user to select the image. Good so far. Yet, then when it moves to the editing phase, it often displays somewhat corrupted view (the image cropping box is halfway off the top of the screen) and their is no image. It does not crash, but all UI interaction is blocked. The strange part is that this only happens when I compile with Release settings. Under debug compile settings, the image editing works fine! I have tried checking for memory warnings during this time, but none are showing up. Here is the code calling the image picker controller for reference. When I use the camera (the first method), it always works fine. It is just when selecting images from the Library (called from the second method below) does it fail as described above. And again, only on release build, and with various different types of images. - (IBAction) showCameraController:(id)sender { self.imagePicker =[[UIImagePickerController alloc] init]; self.imagePicker.sourceType=UIImagePickerControllerSourceTypeCamera; self.imagePicker.delegate=self; self.imagePicker.allowsEditing=YES; [self presentModalViewController:self.imagePicker animated:YES]; } - (IBAction) showPictureAlbumController:(id)sender { self.imagePicker =[[UIImagePickerController alloc] init]; self.imagePicker.sourceType=UIImagePickerControllerSourceTypePhotoLibrary; self.imagePicker.delegate=self; self.imagePicker.allowsEditing=YES; [self presentModalViewController:self.imagePicker animated:YES]; } The delegate methods are properly implemented, yet, during the problem I am describing, the controller is not yet calling those methods. It is failing when displaying the editing screen before the user is able to select cancel or save. It is just locking up with no crash. Please help!

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• dynamic layout change during runtime

  - by Nils

  Hello, for an application I need to place some objects at the exact position that I want to have them and therefore I need to use AbsoluteLayout this time. I want to add buttons dynamically exactly like in the following XML - but during runtime. <AbsoluteLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent"> <Button android:id="@+id/backbutton" android:text="TEST123" android:layout_x="120px" android:layout_y="120px" android:layout_width="100px" android:layout_height="100px" /> </AbsoluteLayout> How can I archive this? I tried it with the following code to add a button, but I haven't found a function so far to set layout_x and layout_y. How can I do this? Thanks. AbsoluteLayout al = new AbsoluteLayout(this); Button t = new Button(this); t.setHeight(300); t.setWidth(300); t.setText("TEST123"); // x y ??? setContentView(al);

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• setAnimationRepeatAutoreverses not behaved as I expected

  - by danielkwan

  I am starting to learn to use UIView animation. So I wrote the following lines: [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:NULL]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:2.0]; [UIView setAnimationRepeatCount:2]; [UIView setAnimationRepeatAutoreverses:YES]; CGPoint position = greenView.center; position.y = position.y + 100.0f; position.x = position.x + 100.0f; greenView.center = position; [UIView commitAnimations]; In this case, the UIView (a green box) moved back and fore 2 times. So far so good, BUT I found out that after the moving twice, the green box ended up jumped to the "new position" (position.x + 100.0f, position.y + 100.0f) instead of going back to the original position (position.x, position.y). That makes the animation look pretty odd (like after the box swing back to the original position caused by setAnimationRepeatAutoreverses, it jumps back to the new position in the last microsecond!) What is the best way to make the green box NOT jump to the new position at the very last minute?

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• g++ C++0x enum class Compiler Warnings

  - by Travis G

  I've been refactoring my horrible mess of C++ type-safe psuedo-enums to the new C++0x type-safe enums because they're way more readable. Anyway, I use them in exported classes, so I explicitly mark them to be exported: enum class __attribute__((visibility("default"))) MyEnum : unsigned int { One = 1, Two = 2 }; Compiling this with g++ yields the following warning: type attributes ignored after type is already defined This seems very strange, since, as far as I know, that warning is meant to prevent actual mistakes like: class __attribute__((visibility("default"))) MyClass { }; class __attribute__((visibility("hidden"))) MyClass; Of course, I'm clearly not doing that, since I have only marked the visibility attributes at the definition of the enum class and I'm not re-defining or declaring it anywhere else (I can duplicate this error with a single file). Ultimately, I can't make this bit of code actually cause a problem, save for the fact that, if I change a value and re-compile the consumer without re-compiling the shared library, the consumer passes the new values and the shared library has no idea what to do with them (although I wouldn't expect that to work in the first place). Am I being way too pedantic? Can this be safely ignored? I suspect so, but at the same time, having this error prevents me from compiling with Werror, which makes me uncomfortable. I would really like to see this problem go away.

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• How can I implement NHibernate session per request without a dependency on NHibernate?

  - by Ben

  I've raised this question before but am still struggling to find an example that I can get my head around (please don't just tell me to look at the S#arp Architecture project without at least some directions). So far I have achieved near persistance ignorance in my web project. My repository classes (in my data project) take an ISession in the constructor: public class ProductRepository : IProductRepository { private ISession _session; public ProductRepository(ISession session) { _session = session; } In my global.asax I expose the current session and am creating and disposing session on beginrequest and endrequest (this is where I have the dependency on NHibernate): public static ISessionFactory SessionFactory = CreateSessionFactory(); private static ISessionFactory CreateSessionFactory() { return new Configuration() .Configure() .BuildSessionFactory(); } protected MvcApplication() { BeginRequest += delegate { CurrentSessionContext.Bind(SessionFactory.OpenSession()); }; EndRequest += delegate { CurrentSessionContext.Unbind(SessionFactory).Dispose(); }; } And finally my StructureMap registry: public AppRegistry() { For<ISession>().TheDefault .Is.ConstructedBy(x => MvcApplication.SessionFactory.GetCurrentSession()); For<IProductRepository>().Use<ProductRepository>(); } It would seem I need my own generic implementations of ISession and ISessionFactory that I can use in my web project and inject into my repositories? I'm a little stuck so any help would be appreciated. Thanks, Ben

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• How do I encapsulate form/post/validation[/redirect] in ViewUserControl in ASP.Net MVC 2

  - by paul

  What I am trying to achieve: encapsulate a Login (or any) Form to be reused across site post to self when Login/validation fails, show original page with Validation Summary (some might argue to just post to Login Page and show Validation Summary there; if what I'm trying to achieve isn't possible, I will just go that route) when Login succeeds, redirect to /App/Home/Index also, want to: stick to PRG principles avoid ajax keep Login Form (UserController.Login()) as encapsulated as possible; avoid having to implement HomeController.Login() since the Login Form might appear elsewhere All but the redirect works. My approach thus far has been: Home/Index includes Login Form: <%Html.RenderAction("Login","User");%> User/Login ViewUserControl<UserLoginViewModel> includes: <%=Html.ValidationSummary("") % using(Html.BeginForm()){} includes hidden form field "userlogin"="1" public class UserController : BaseController { ... [AcceptPostWhenFieldExists(FieldName = "userlogin")] public ActionResult Login(UserLoginViewModel model, FormCollection form){ if (ModelState.IsValid) { if(checkUserCredentials()) { setUserCredentials() return this.RedirectToAction<Areas.App.Controllers.HomeController>(x = x.Index()); } else { return View(); } } ... } Works great when: ModelState or User Credentials fail -- return View() does yield to Home/Index and displays appropriate validation summary. (I have a Register Form on the same page, using the same structure. Each form's validation summary only shows when that form is submitted.) Fails when: ModelState and User Credentials valid -- RedirectToAction<>() gives following error: "Child actions are not allowed to perform redirect actions." It seems like in the Classic ASP days, this would've been solved with Response.Buffer=True. Is there an equivalent setting or workaround now? Btw, running: ASP.Net 4, MVC 2, VS 2010, Dev/Debugging Web Server I hope all of that makes sense. So, what are my options? Or where am I going wrong in my approach? tia!

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• Need help with buffer overrun.

  - by Morinar

  I've got a buffer overrun I absolutely can't see to figure out (in C). First of all, it only happens maybe 10% of the time or so. The data that it is pulling from the DB each time doesn't seem to be all that much different between executions... at least not different enough for me to find any discernible pattern as to when it happens. The exact message from Visual Studio is this: A buffer overrun has occurred in hub.exe which has corrupted the program's internal state. Press Break to debug the program or Continue to terminate the program. For more details please see Help topic 'How to debug Buffer Overrun Issues'. If I debug, I find that it is broken in __report_gsfailure() which I'm pretty sure is from the /GS flag on the compiler and also signifies that this is an overrun on the stack rather than the heap. I can also see the function it threw this on as it was leaving, but I can't see anything in there that would cause this behavior, the function has also existed for a long time (10+ years, albeit with some minor modifications) and as far as I know, this has never happened. I'd post the code of the function, but it's decently long and references a lot of proprietary functions/variables/etc. I'm basically just looking for either some idea of what I should be looking for that I haven't or perhaps some tools that may help. Unfortunately, nearly every tool I've found only helps with debugging overruns on the heap, and unless I'm mistaken, this is on the stack. Thanks in advance.

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• php: how to return an HTTP 500 code on any error, no matter what

  - by Jake

  Hi guys. I'm writing an authentication script in PHP, to be called as an API, that needs to return 200 only in the case that it approves the request, and 403 (Forbidden) or 500 otherwise. The problem I'm running into is that php returns 200 in the case of error conditions, outputting the error as html instead. How can I make absolutely sure that php will return an HTTP 500 code unless I explicitly return the HTTP 200 or HTTP 403 myself? In other words, I want to turn any and all warning or error conditions into 500s, no exceptions, so that the default case is rejecting the authentication request, and the exception is approving it with a 200 code. I've fiddled with set_error_handler() and error_reporting(), but so far no luck. For example, if the code outputs something before I send the HTTP response code, PHP naturally reports that you can't modify header information after outputting anything. However, this is reported by PHP as a 200 response code with html explaining the problem. I need even this kind of thing to be turned into a 500 code. Is this possible in PHP? Or do I need to do this at a higher level like using mod_rewrite somehow? If that's the case, any idea how I'd set that up? Thanks for any help. Jake

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• Please suggest me the ( Interaction model of view model) MVVM design in the simple scenario discusse

  - by Jack

  Data Layer I have an Order class as an entity. This Order entity is my model object. Order can be different types, let it be A B C D Also Order class may have common properties like Name, Time of creation, etc. Also based on the order type there are different fields that are not common. View Layer The view contains the following Main Menu ListView The Main Menu contains the drop down menu button which is used to create the order based on the type selected from the drop down. The drop down contains the Order types ( A ,B , C and D). There are different user control based on the order type. Like for example if user chooses to create an order of type A then different view with different inputs field is popped up. Hence, there are four user control for each order type. If user selects A option from the drop down then Order of type A is created and vica versa. Now below is the List View that contains the List of orders so far created by the user. To Edit any particular order user may double click the list view row. Based on the order type clicked by the user in the listview, the view of that order type opens in edit mode. For example if user selects an order type A from the list view then view for order type A open in edit mode. Please suggest me interaction model for view model's in the scenario discussed above. Please excume me if the query is very basic, since I am new new to MVVM and WPF ,

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• Using PHP Gettext Extension vs PHP Arrays in Multilingual Websites?

  - by janoChen

  So far the only 2 good things that I've seen about using gettext instead of arrays is that I don't have to create the "greeting" "sub-array" (or whatever its called). And I don't have to create a folder for the "default language". Are there other pros and cos of using gettext and php arrays for multilingual websites? USING GETTEXT: spanish/messages.po: #: test.php:3 msgid "Hello World!" msgstr "Hola Mundo" index.php: <?php echo _("Hello World!"); ?> index.php?lang=spanish: <?php echo _("Hello World!"); ?> turns to Hola Mundo USING PHP ARRAYS: lang.en.php <?php $lang = array( "greeting" => "Hello World", ); ?> lang.es.php <?php $lang = array( "greeting" => "Hola Mundo", ); ?> index.php: <?php echo $lang['greeting']; ?> greeting turns to Hello World index.php?lang=spanish <?php echo $lang['greeting']; ?> greeting turns to Hola Mundo (I first started with gettext, but it wasn't supported in my shared free hosting Zymic. I didn't want to use Zend_translate, I found it too complicated to my simple task, so I finally ended up using php define, but later on someone told me I should use arrays)

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• Wix create non advertised shortcut for all users / per machine

  - by mcdon

  In WIX, how do you create a non advertised shortcut in the allusers profile? So far I've only been able to accomplish this with advertised shortcuts. I prefer advertised shortcuts because you can go to the shortcut's properties and use "find target". In the tutorials I've seen use a registry value for the keypath of a shortcut. The problem is they use HKCU as the root. When HKCU is used, and another user uninstalls the program (since it's installed for all users) the registry key is left behind. When I use HKMU as the root I get an ICE57 error, but the key is removed when another user uninstalls the program. I seem to be pushed towards using HKCU though HKMU seems to behave correctly (per-user vs all-users). When I try to create the non advertised shortcut I get various ICE error such as ICE38, ICE43, or ICE 57. Most articles I've seen recommend "just ignore the ice errors". There must be a way to create the non advertised shortcuts, without creating ICE errors. Please post sample code for a working example.

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• ASP.NET MVC, Url Routing: Maximum Path (URL) Length

  - by Martin Aatmaa

  The Scenario I have an application where we took the good old query string URL structure: ?x=1&y=2&z=3&a=4&b=5&c=6 and changed it into a path structure: /x/1/y/2/z/3/a/4/b/5/c/6 We're using ASP.NET MVC and (naturally) ASP.NET routing. The Problem The problem is that our parameters are dynamic, and there is (theoretically) no limit to the amount of parameters that we need to accommodate for. This is all fine until we got hit by the following train: HTTP Error 400.0 - Bad Request ASP.NET detected invalid characters in the URL. IIS would throw this error when our URL got past a certain length. The Nitty Gritty Here's what we found out: This is not an IIS problem IIS does have a max path length limit, but the above error is not this. Learn dot iis dot net How to Use Request Filtering Section "Filter Based on Request Limits" If the path was too long for IIS, it would throw a 404.14, not a 400.0. Besides, the IIS max path (and query) length are configurable: <requestLimits maxAllowedContentLength="30000000" maxUrl="260" maxQueryString="25" /> This is an ASP.NET Problem After some poking around: IIS Forums Thread: ASP.NET 2.0 maximum URL length? http://forums.iis.net/t/1105360.aspx it turns out that this is an ASP.NET (well, .NET really) problem. The shit of the matter is that, as far as I can tell, ASP.NET cannot handle paths longer than 260 characters. The nail in the coffin in that this is confirmed by Phil the Haack himself: Stack Overflow ASP.NET url MAX_PATH limit Question ID 265251 The Question So what's the question? The question is, how big of a limitation is this? For my app, it's a deal killer. For most apps, it's probably a non-issue. What about disclosure? No where where ASP.NET Routing is mentioned have I ever heard a peep about this limitation. The fact that ASP.NET MVC uses ASP.NET routing makes the impact of this even bigger. What do you think?

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• How to produce an HTTP 403-equivalent WCF Message from an IErrorHandler?

  - by Andras Zoltan

  I want to write an IErrorHandler implementation that will handle AuthenticationException instances (a proprietary type), and then in the implementation of ProvideFault provide a traditional Http Response with a status code of 403 as the fault message. So far I have my first best guess wired into a service, but WCF appears to be ignoring the output message completely, even though the error handler is being called. At the moment, the code looks like this: public class AuthWeb403ErrorHandler : IErrorHandler { #region IErrorHandler Members public bool HandleError(Exception error) { return error is AuthenticationException; } public void ProvideFault(Exception error, MessageVersion version, ref Message fault) { //first attempt - just a stab in the dark, really HttpResponseMessageProperty property = new HttpResponseMessageProperty(); property.SuppressEntityBody = true; property.StatusCode = System.Net.HttpStatusCode.Forbidden; property.StatusDescription = "Forbidden"; var m = Message.CreateMessage(version, null); m.Properties[HttpResponseMessageProperty.Name] = property; fault = m; } #endregion } With this in place, I just get the standard WCF html 'The server encountered an error processing the request. See server logs for more details.' - which is what would happen if there was no IErrorHandler. Is this a feature of the behaviours added by WebServiceHost? Or is it because the message I'm building is simply wrong!? I can verify that the event log is indeed not receiving anything. My current test environment is a WebGet method (both XML and Json) hosted in a service that is created with the WebServiceHostFactory, and Asp.Net compatibility switched off. The service method simply throws the exception in question.

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• What is the most important thing you weren't taught in school?

  - by Alexandre Brisebois

  What is the most important thing you weren't taught in school? What topics are missing from the CS/IS education? Posted so far How to sell an idea Principles: Often, good enough is better than perfect. Making mistakes is actually a Good Thing™ -- as long as they're new mistakes. If a user can break your code they will. In the Real World™ they're all open-book exams Self confidence is way more important in getting ahead than intelligence. Always prefer simplicity over complexity. The best code is the code that you don't write. You never know when you'll meet someone again ... or where. It's always worthwhile to treat people with respect and kindness. Be aware of what you don't know and don't be afraid to ask questions when you need to Missing knowledge: How to communicate effectively. Lack of source control Lack of Softskills experience How to productize code How to write secure code How to formulate problems How to self-measurement. To evaluate ones true competences and market worth. How to debug code How important is backup How to read code on a large scale (being able to adapt and build upon existing projects) Good Regular expressions comprehension How to teach others effectively TDD/Unit testing Critical thinking How to integrate different skills and languages in a single project

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• OpenGL-ES: Change (multiply) color when using color arrays?

  - by arberg

  Following the ideas in OpenGL ES iPhone - drawing anti aliased lines, I am trying to draw stroked anti-aliased lines and I am successful so far. After line is draw by the finger, I wish to fade the path, that is I need to change the opacity (color) of the entire path. I have computed a large array of vertex positions, vertex colors, texture coordinates, and indices and then I give these to opengl but I would like reduce the opacity of all the drawn triangles without having to change each of the color coordinates. Normally I would use glColor4f(r,g,b,a) before calling drawElements, but it has no effect due to the color array. I am working on Android, but I believe it shouldn't make the big difference, as long as it is OpenGL-ES 1.1 (or 1.0). I have the following code : gl.glEnable(GL10.GL_BLEND); gl.glBlendFunc(GL10.GL_ONE, GL10.GL_ONE_MINUS_SRC_ALPHA); gl.glEnableClientState(GL10.GL_COLOR_ARRAY); gl.glShadeModel(GL10.GL_SMOOTH); gl.glEnableClientState(GL10.GL_VERTEX_ARRAY); gl.glEnableClientState(GL10.GL_TEXTURE_COORD_ARRAY); gl.glEnable(GL10.GL_TEXTURE_2D); // Should set rgb to greyish, and alpha to half-transparent, the greyish is // just there to make the question more general its the alpha i'm interested in gl.glColor4f(.75f, .75f, .75f, 0.5f); gl.glVertexPointer(mVertexSize, GL10.GL_FLOAT, 0, mVertexBuffer); gl.glColorPointer(4, GL10.GL_FLOAT, 0, mColorBuffer); gl.glTexCoordPointer(2, GL10.GL_FLOAT, 0, mTexCoordBuffer); gl.glDrawElements(GL10.GL_TRIANGLES, indexCount, GL10.GL_UNSIGNED_SHORT, mIndexBuffer.position(startIndex)); If I disable the color array gl.glEnableClientState(GL10.GL_COLOR_ARRAY);, then the glColor4f works, if I enable the color array it does nothing. Is there any way in OpenGl-ES to change the coloring without changing all the color coordinates? I think that in OpenGl one might use a fragment shader, but it seems OpenGL does not have a fragment shader (not that I know how to use one).

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• Problem with WCF Streaming

  - by H4mm3rHead

  Hi, I was looking at this thread: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1935040/how-to-handle-large-file-uploads-via-wcf I need to have a web service hosted at my provider where i need to upload and download files to. We are talking videos from 1Mb to 100Mb hence the streaming approach. I cant get it to work, i declared an Interface: [ServiceContract] public interface IFileTransferService { [OperationContract] void UploadFile(Stream stream); } and all is fine, i implement it like this: public string FileName = "test"; public void UploadFile(Stream stream) { try { FileStream outStream = File.Open(FileName, FileMode.Create, FileAccess.Write); const int bufferLength = 4096; byte[] buffer = new byte[bufferLength]; int count = 0; while((count = stream.Read(buffer, 0, bufferLength)) > 0) { //progress outStream.Write(buffer, 0, count); } outStream.Close(); stream.Close(); //saved } catch(Exception ex) { throw new Exception("error: "+ex.Message); } } Still no problem, its published to my webserver out on the interweb. So far so good. Now i make a reference to it and will pass it a FileStream, but the argument is now a byte[] - why is that and how do i get it the proper way for streaming? Edit My binding look like this: <bindings> <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="StreamingFileTransferServicesBinding" transferMode="StreamedRequest" maxBufferSize="65536" maxReceivedMessageSize="204003200" /> </basicHttpBinding> </bindings> I can consume it without problems, and get no errors - other than my input parameter has changed from a stream to a byte[]

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• Will IOC solve our problems?

  - by user127954

  Just trying to implement unit testing into a brownfield type system. Be aware i'm relatively new into the unit testing world. Its going to be a gradual migration of course because there are just so many areas of pain. The current problem i'm trying to solve is we followed a lot of bad practices from our VB6 days and in the conversion of our app to .Net. We have LOT AN LOTS of shared/static functions which call other shared functions and those call others and so on. Sometimes depedencies are passed in as parameters and sometimes they are just newed up within the calling function. I've already instructed our developers to stop creating shared functions and instead create instance members and only use those instance members off of interfaces but that doesn't alleviate the current situation. So you must recursively pass in each and every dependency at the top layer for each function in your code path and method signatures are turning into a mess. I'm hoping this is something that IOC will fix. Currently we are using NUnit/Moq and i'm starting to investigate StructureMap. So far i understand that you pretty much tell StructureMap for x interface i want to default to the concrete class y: ObjectFactory.Initialize(x=>{x.ForRequestType<IInterface>().TheDefaultIsConcreteType<MyClass>()}); Then to runtime: var mytype = ObjectFactory.GetInstance<IInterface>(); the IOC container will initialize the correct type for you. Not sure yet how to swap a fake in for the concrete type but hopefully thats simple. Again will IOC solve the problems i was talking about above? Is there a specific IOC framework that will do it better than StructureMap or can they all handle this situation. Any help would be much appreciated.

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