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• How much does Website Development cost nowadays?

  - by Andreas Grech

  I am thinking of setting up my own freelance business but coming from a workplace that offers a particular service to huge clients, I do not know what are the current charges for websites are nowadays. I know that as technology just keeps changing and changing (most of the time, for the better...), the amount you charge for a single website is constantly differing. Like for example, I don't think static websites (with just static html pages) are that expensive today, no? (as i said, I might be mistaken since I haven't really touched on this freelance industry yet) So, freelance web-developers out there, can you give me estimates on how much you charge for your clients? Some examples of websites that I want to know an approx charge: ~10 static html pages ~10 dhtml pages (with maybe a flasy menu on the top/side) Database driven websites with a standard CMS (be it the one you developed, or an existing one) Database driven but with a custom-built cms for the particular client Using an existing template for a design Starting the design from scratch etc... I know that the normally clients don't really care about the technologies used to construct their websites, but do you charge differently according to which technology you use to build the website with?; as in, is the technology a factor when setting the price? ...being ASP.Net, PHP, Ruby On Rails etc... Also, how do you go on about charging your clients for your services? What are the major factors that you consider when setting a price tag for a website to a client ? And better yet, how do you even find prospective clients? <= [or should I leave this question for a different post?] Btw, in your post, also mention some numbers (in cash values, be it in USD, GBP, EUR or anything) because I want to be able to take calculate some averages from this post when some answers stack up

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• WPF : Access Application Resources when not referencing Shell from App.xaml

  - by CF_Maintainer

  I am beginner in WPF. My App.xaml looks like below app.xaml <Application x:Class="ContactManager.App" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml"> <Application.Resources> <Color x:Key="lightBlueColor">#FF145E9D</Color> <SolidColorBrush x:Key="lightBlueBrush" Color="{StaticResource lightBlueColor}" /> </Application.Resources> I do not set the startupuri since I want to a presenter first approach. I do the following in app.xaml.cs protected override void OnStartup(StartupEventArgs e) { base.OnStartup(e); var appPresenter = new ApplicationPresenter( new Shell(), new ContactRepository()); appPresenter.LaunchView(); } I have a usercontrol called "SearchBar.xaml" which references "lightBlueBrush" as a staticResource. When I try to open "Shell.xaml" in the designer it tells me : The "shell.xaml" cannot be loaded at design time because it says it could not create an instance of type "SearchBar.xaml". When I debugged the devenv.exe using another visual studio instance it tells me that it does not have access to the Brush I created in app.resources. If one is doing a Presenter first approach, how does one access resources? I had this working when the startupURI was "Shell.xaml" and the startup event was not present. Any clues/ideas/suggestions. I am just trying to understand. Everything works as expected when I run the application just not @ design time.

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• CATransaction: Layer Changes But Does Not Animate

  - by macinjosh

  I'm trying to animate part of UI in an iPad app when the user taps a button. I have this code in my action method. It works in the sense that the UI changes how I expect but it does not animate the changes. It simply immediately changes. I must be missing something: - (IBAction)someAction:(id)sender { UIViewController *aViewController = <# Get an existing UIViewController #>; UIView *viewToAnimate = aViewController.view; CALayer *layerToAnimate = viewToAnimate.layer; [CATransaction begin]; [CATransaction setAnimationDuration:1.0f]; CATransform3D rotateTransform = CATransform3DMakeRotation(0.3, 0, 0, 1); CATransform3D scaleTransform = CATransform3DMakeScale(0.10, 0.10, 0.10); CATransform3D positionTransform = CATransform3DMakeTranslation(24, 423, 0); CATransform3D combinedTransform = CATransform3DConcat(rotateTransform, scaleTransform); combinedTransform = CATransform3DConcat(combinedTransform, positionTransform); layerToAnimate.transform = combinedTransform; [CATransaction commit]; // rest of method... } I've tried simplifying the animation to just change the opacity (for example) and it still will not animate. The opacity just changes instantly. That leads me to believe something is not setup properly. Any clues would be helpful!

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• WPF binding problem

  - by xine

  I've got some bindings in UI: <Window x:Class="Tester.MainWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="MainWindow" Height="377" Width="562" xmlns:my="clr-namespace:MyApp"> <Grid> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=current.Text}" Name="Text1" /> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=current.o.Text}" Name="Text2" /> </Grid> </Window> Code: class Coordinator : INotifyPropertyChanged{ List<Myclass1> list; int currId = 0; public Myclass1 current{ return list[currId]; } public int CurrId { get { return currId; } set { currId = value; this.PropertyChanged(this,new PropertyChangedEventArgs("current")); } } class Myclass1{ public string Text{get;} public Myclass2 o{get;} } class Myclass2{ public string Text{get;} } When currId changes Tex1 in UI changes too,but Text2 doesn't. I'm assuming this happens because Text2's source isn't updated. Does anyone know how to fix it?

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• Seperate html pages for each screen in Jquery mobile

  - by vrs

  I am newbie to Jquery Mobile, so far what ever examples i searched contains only one html page for whole application, with multipe div tags where each page/screen is defined as div tag with data-role as page with some header and footers optionally. Based on user actions, we are hiding some div's(pages) and showing only expected page. Also, this multi-page template seems to be standard design, as written by some blogs. Are there any other designing ways? what I would like to have is multipe html pages, for ex one for login, one for home, one for contact etc. Other wise it is difficult to understand/code/debug issues, especially people from Java background like me.So, what I want is some kind of MVC design with JQueryMobile, like each view/screen as sepearate html associated with one js (Controller). Can we have multiple html pages in JqueryMobile app? If possible how to pass data/ maintain session between them? Any samples are most welcome. Thanks In Advance. Note: Also I don't want server side includes, may app contains 10 to 15 screens, each page will make a webservice call and fetch some data and map it to UI.

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• Maven compile plugin

  - by phanikiran

  Hi every body, in pom of a project, i have added dependency with scope compile . which is a jar file which contains some class file and jar's as well. my current java file needs internal jars of dependent jar to compile. But maven compile goal returning compilation error . :banghead: All the jar's needed to compile are in the single jar file which is added in dependency............................. Please help me! my pom: <dependency> <groupId>eagle</groupId> <artifactId>zkui</artifactId> <version>360LTS</version> <type>jar</type> <scope>compile</scope> </dependency> <build> <sourceDirectory>./src/main/java/</sourceDirectory> <outputDirectory>./target/classes/</outputDirectory> <finalName>${project.groupId}-${project.artifactId}</finalName> <plugins> <plugin> <groupId>org.apache.maven.plugins</groupId> <artifactId>maven-compiler-plugin</artifactId> <version>2.2</version> <configuration> <source>1.6</source> <target>1.6</target> </plugin> </plugins> </build> </project> error: package org.zkoss.zk.ui does not exist this package org.zkoss.zk.ui is in jar file zkex.jar which is in dependency jar eagle:zkui:360LTS jar file Please Help ME!!!! :jumpingjoy: Advance Thanks

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• Custom control doesn't fire validation

  - by Ed Woodcock

  I've written a custom ASP.net control that descends from LinkButton and overrides the Render() method. I'm using it to replace ImageButtons in the site I'm working on so we don't have to have an image for each button. This control works fine, does the required post-backs etc., however it doesn't fire the validators in its validation group. This is obviously an issue. The code for the control is (condensed) as follows: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; public class CustomButton : LinkButton { public string SpanCssClass { get; set; } protected override void Render(HtmlTextWriter writer) { if (!Visible) { return; } writer.AddAttribute(HtmlTextWriterAttribute.Name, UniqueID); writer.AddAttribute(HtmlTextWriterAttribute.Id, ClientID); writer.AddAttribute(HtmlTextWriterAttribute.Class, CssClass); string postback = string.IsNullOrEmpty(OnClientClick) ? "javascript:__doPostBack('" + UniqueID + "','');" : OnClientClick; writer.AddAttribute(HtmlTextWriterAttribute.Href, postback); writer.RenderBeginTag(HtmlTextWriterTag.A); writer.AddAttribute(HtmlTextWriterAttribute.Class, SpanCssClass); writer.RenderBeginTag(HtmlTextWriterTag.Span); writer.Write(Text); writer.RenderEndTag(); writer.RenderEndTag(); } } Does anyone know why this would not be causing the validators to fire? I was under the impression that leaving all the other methods in LinkButton un-overridden would leave all the other functionality the same!

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• qtruby, QUiLoader and respond_to?

  - by Tim Sylvester

  I'm writing a simple Qt4 application in Ruby (using qtruby) to teach myself both. Mostly it has gone well, but in trying to use Ruby's "duck typing" I've run into a snag; respond_to? doesn't seem to reflect reality. irb(main):001:0> require 'rubygems' => true irb(main):002:0> require 'Qt4' => true irb(main):003:0> require 'qtuitools' => true irb(main):004:0> Qt::Application.new(ARGV) => #<Qt::Application:0xc3c9a08 objectName="ruby"> irb(main):005:0> file = Qt::File.new("dlg.ui") { open(Qt::File::ReadOnly) } => #<Qt::File:0xc2e1748 objectName=""> irb(main):006:0> obj = Qt::UiLoader.new().load(file, nil) => #<Qt::Dialog:0xc2bf650 objectName="dlg", x=0, y=0, width=283, height=244> irb(main):007:0> obj.respond_to?('children') => false irb(main):008:0> obj.respond_to?(:children) => false irb(main):009:0> obj.children => [#<Qt::FormInternal::TranslationWatcher:0xc2a1980 objectName="">, ... As you can see, when I check to ensure that the object I get back from loading the UI file has a children accessor I get false. If call that accessor, however, I get an array rather than a NoMethodError. So, is this a bug or have I incorrectly understood respond_to?? This looks like the problem described here, but I thought I would get an expert opinion before filing a bug against the project.

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• Python: circular imports needed for type checking

  - by phild

  First of all: I do know that there are already many questions and answers to the topic of the circular imports. The answer is more or less: "Design your Module/Class structure properly and you will not need circular imports". That is true. I tried very hard to make a proper design for my current project, I in my opinion I was successful with this. But my specific problem is the following: I need a type check in a module that is already imported by the module containing the class to check against. But this throws an import error. Like so: foo.py: from bar import Bar class Foo(object): def __init__(self): self.__bar = Bar(self) bar.py: from foo import Foo class Bar(object): def __init__(self, arg_instance_of_foo): if not isinstance(arg_instance_of_foo, Foo): raise TypeError() Solution 1: If I modified it to check the type by a string comparison, it will work. But I dont really like this solution (string comparsion is rather expensive for a simple type check, and could get a problem when it comes to refactoring). bar_modified.py: from foo import Foo class Bar(object): def __init__(self, arg_instance_of_foo): if not arg_instance_of_foo.__class__.__name__ == "Foo": raise TypeError() Solution 2: I could also pack the two classes into one module. But my project has lots of different classes like the "Bar" example, and I want to seperate them into different module files. After my own 2 solutions are no option for me: Has anyone a nicer solution for this problem?

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• Android Html.fromHtml

  - by user3688154

  hi take from database a String like this: "Frog Revolution <\strong<\span<\p\r\nUn mix perfetto di design e praticità, che stimola il piacere dello sguardo.<\span<\p\r\nLa Frog è una macchina da caffè espresso a cialde destinata sia al mercato domestico che quello aziendale. <\span<\p\r\nIl suo design innovativo, la sua semplicità e la qualità delle sue componenti, la rendono un bene strumentale affidabile a cui puntare in tutta tranquillità. <\span<\p\r\nDIMENSIONI:<\strong<\span<\p\r\n\r\nLarghezza: 22 cm <\span<\li\r\nAltezza: 40 cm<\span<\li\r\nProfondità: 32 cm<\span<\li\r\nPeso: 6.5 Kg<\span<\li\r\n<\ul\r\nCARATTERISTICHE TECNICHE<\strong<\span<\p\r\n\r\nPotenza normale 650 W <\span<\li\r\nVoltaggio 230 V<\span<\li\r\nSistema di decalcificazione rapido <\span<\li\r\nAlloggio bottiglia d'acqua <\span<\li\r\n<\ul\r\nACCESSORI<\strong<\span<\p\r\n\r\nVano porta cialde e bicchieri<\span<\li\r\n<\ul" now i try to put it in a TextView with Html.fromHtml() method…but without success..Can you help me?

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• Is my objective possible using WCF (and is it the right way to do things?)

  - by David

  I'm writing some software that modifies a Windows Server's configuration (things like MS-DNS, IIS, parts of the filesystem). My design has a server process that builds an in-memory object graph of the server configuration state and a client which requests this object graph. The server would then serialize the graph, send it to the client (presumably using WCF), the server then makes changes to this graph and sends it back to the server. The server receives the graph and proceeds to make modifications to the server. However I've learned that object-graph serialisation in WCF isn't as simple as I first thought. My objects have a hierarchy and many have parametrised-constructors and immutable properties/fields. There are also numerous collections, arrays, and dictionaries. My understanding of WCF serialisation is that it requires use of either the XmlSerializer or DataContractSerializer, but DCS places restrictions on the design of my object-graph (immutable data seems right-out, it also requires parameter-less constructors). I understand XmlSerializer lets me use my own classes provided they implement ISerializable and have the de-serializer constructor. That is fine by me. I spoke to a friend of mine about this, and he advocates going for a Data Transport Object-only route, where I'd have to maintain a separate DataContract object-graph for the transport of data and re-implement my server objects on the client. Another friend of mine said that because my service only has two operations ("GetServerConfiguration" and "PutServerConfiguration") it might be worthwhile just skipping WCF entirely and implementing my own server that uses Sockets. So my questions are: Has anyone faced a similar problem before and if so, are there better approaches? Is it wise to send an entire object graph to the client for processing? Should I instead break it down so that the client requests a part of the object graph as it needs it and sends only bits that have changed (thus reducing concurrency-related risks?)? If sending the object-graph down is the right way, is WCF the right tool? And if WCF is right, what's the best way to get WCF to serialise my object graph?

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• JSF how to temporary disable validators to save draft

  - by Swiety

  I have a pretty complex form with lots of inputs and validators. For the user it takes pretty long time (even over an hour) to complete that, so they would like to be able to save the draft data, even if it violates rules like mandatory fields being not typed in. I believe this problem is common to many web applications, but can't find any well recognised pattern how this should be implemented. Can you please advise how to achieve that? For now I can see the following options: use of immediate=true on "Save draft" button doesn't work, as the UI data would not be stored on the bean, so I wouldn't be able to access it. Technically I could find the data in UI component tree, but traversing that doesn't seem to be a good idea. remove all the fields validation from the page and validate the data programmaticaly in the action listener defined for the form. Again, not a good idea, form is really complex, there are plenty of fields so validation implemented this way would be very messy. implement my own validators, that would be controlled by some request attribute, which would be set for standard form submission (with full validation expected) and would be unset for "save as draft" submission (when validation should be skipped). Again, not a good solution, I would need to provide my own wrappers for all validators I am using. But as you see no one is really reasonable. Is there really no simple solution to the problem?

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• JQuery object expected error when accessing page via url routing.

  - by Andy Evans

  In my global.asax I have url routing setup like below: routes.MapPageRoute("User Logon", "{Vendor}/Logon", "~/Logon.aspx"); In the logon.aspx page, I have a script that "stylizes" the logon button: <link href="jquery/css/flick/jquery-ui-1.8.1.custom.css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> <link href="images/style.css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> <script src="jquery/js/jquery-1.4.2.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="jquery/js/jquery-ui-1.8.1.custom.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $('#<%= ButtonLogon.ClientID %>').button(); }); </script> When I access the page us a url (in debug mode) http://localhost/logon.aspx?v=1 the page loads correctly and the jquery button command loads correctly. But then I access the page using the new url route, I get this error. Microsoft JScript runtime error: Object expected Anyone have an idea why this occurs? Thanks.

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• IBOutlet instances are (null) after loading from NIB

  - by Zach

  I am working on an iPhone app and am getting (null) references to IBOutlet fields in my controller. I have a UIViewController subclass that is set as the File's Owner in my XIB. I have a set of UI elements that are wired into the controller. After loading from NIB and attempting to set properties on those UI elements, I find that they are (null). To clarify, some code: ExpandSearchPageController.h: @interface ExpandSearchPageController : UIViewController { IBOutlet UITextView * completeMessageView; } -(void)checkTextField; @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet UITextView * completeMessageView; ExpandSearchPageController.m: @implementation ExpandSearchPageController @synthesize completeMessageView; -(void)checkTextField { NSLog(@"text field: %@",completeMessageView); } ExpandSearchPageController is set as the File's Owner for ExpandSearchPage.xib. ExpandSearchPage.xib's UITextView is wired to the completeMessageView. When I call ExpandSearchPageController * searchExpanderPage = [[ExpandSearchPageController alloc] initWithNibName:@"ExpandSearchPage" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; [searchExpanderPage checkTextField]; the result is "text field: (null)" Sorry if this is a total newb question, but I guess I'm still a newb at iPhone programming! Thanks in advance!

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• ASP MVC - Routing Required?

  - by evo_9

  I've been reading up on MVC2 which came in VS2010 and it sounds pretty interesting. I'm actually in the middle of a large multi-tenant application project, and have just started coding the UI. I'm considering changing to MVC as I'm not that far along at this point. I have some questions about the Routing capabilities, namely are they required to use MVC or can I more or less ignore Routing? Or do I have to setup a default routing record that will make things work like standard ASPX (as far as routing alone is concerned)? The reason why I don't want to use Routing is because I've already defined a custom URL 'rewrite' mechanism of my own (which fires on session_start). In addition, I'm using jquery and opens-standards for the entire UI, and MVC's aspx overhead-free approach seems like a better fit based on how I've already started to build the application (I am not using viewstate at all, for example). I guess my big concern is whether the routing can be ignored, of if I will have to re-implement my custom URL rewriting to work with MVC, and if that's the case, how would I do that? As a new Routing routine, or stick with the session_start (if that's even possible?). Lastly, I don't want to use anything even remotely 'intelligent/readable' for the url - for a site like StackOverflow, the readability of the URL is a positive, but the opposite is true if it's not a public website like this one. In fact, it would seem to me that the more friendly MVC routing URL (which indirectly show method names) could pose a security risk on a private, non-public website app like I'm developing. For all these reasons I would love to use the lightweight aspects of MVC but skip the Routing entirely - is this possible?

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• NHibernate. DTO -> Domain

  - by Andrew Kalashnikov

  Hello guys. I've got SOA which processing data for diff clients(asp,sl). The base of this design is domains of my business model. For transporting,showing it to clients I use DTO. For mapping domain to DTO I use AutoMapper. Now I should persist new entities from clients. I want use my DTO's at this scenario too. So i've got some questions as I'm not much familiar with this design 1) Is it a good practice build DTO on client and send it to web-service on the wire? MayBe i should pass my domains? 2) Is it possible have several DTO's to one domain (one show at grid, and one to save). For saving I need set all nonprimitive props at client. 3) DTO - to Domain. If I've got int can I use AutoMapper to generate NHibernate Proxy for this ID, or I should do i manually. Your expierence and practice are very interesting. Thanks for answer!!!

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• Why does Microsoft advise against readonly fields with mutable values?

  - by Weeble

  In the Design Guidelines for Developing Class Libraries, Microsoft say: Do not assign instances of mutable types to read-only fields. The objects created using a mutable type can be modified after they are created. For example, arrays and most collections are mutable types while Int32, Uri, and String are immutable types. For fields that hold a mutable reference type, the read-only modifier prevents the field value from being overwritten but does not protect the mutable type from modification. This simply restates the behaviour of readonly without explaining why it's bad to use readonly. The implication appears to be that many people do not understand what "readonly" does and will wrongly expect readonly fields to be deeply immutable. In effect it advises using "readonly" as code documentation indicating deep immutability - despite the fact that the compiler has no way to enforce this - and disallows its use for its normal function: to ensure that the value of the field doesn't change after the object has been constructed. I feel uneasy with this recommendation to use "readonly" to indicate something other than its normal meaning understood by the compiler. I feel that it encourages people to misunderstand the meaning of "readonly", and furthermore to expect it to mean something that the author of the code might not intend. I feel that it precludes using it in places it could be useful - e.g. to show that some relationship between two mutable objects remains unchanged for the lifetime of one of those objects. The notion of assuming that readers do not understand the meaning of "readonly" also appears to be in contradiction to other advice from Microsoft, such as FxCop's "Do not initialize unnecessarily" rule, which assumes readers of your code to be experts in the language and should know that (for example) bool fields are automatically initialised to false, and stops you from providing the redundancy that shows "yes, this has been consciously set to false; I didn't just forget to initialize it". So, first and foremost, why do Microsoft advise against use of readonly for references to mutable types? I'd also be interested to know: Do you follow this Design Guideline in all your code? What do you expect when you see "readonly" in a piece of code you didn't write?

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• Jquery dialog confirmation, confirm form post

  - by user342391

  I am trying to display jquery's dialog confirmation before submitting a form. But I can't get it to popup up only when the form is submitted this is the code: $(function remove() { $("#dialog-confirm").dialog({ resizable: false, height:200, modal: true, buttons: { 'Delete campaign': function() { return true ; $(this).dialog('close'); }, Cancel: function() { return false; $(this).dialog('close'); } } }); }); Dialog confirmation content <div id="dialog-confirm" title="Delete ?" style="display:none;"> <p><span class="ui-icon ui-icon-alert" style="float:left; margin:0 7px 20px 0;"></span>This will be permanently deleted and cannot be recovered. Are you sure?</p> </div> Form submit content <form style="display: inline;" action="remove.php" method="post"" onsubmit="return remove()">

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• Old dll.config problem !

  - by user313421

  Since 2005 as I googled it's a problem for who needs to read the configuration of an assembly from it's config file "*.dll.config" and Microsoft didn't do anything yet. Story: If you try to read a setting from a class library (plug-in) you fail. Instead the main application domain (EXE which is using the plug-in) config is read and because probably there's not such a config your plug-in will use default setting which is hard-coded when you create it's settings for first time. Any change to .dll.config wouldn't see by your plug-in and you wonder why it's there! If you want to replace it and start searching you may find something like this: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/594298/c-dll-config-file But just some ideas and one line code. A good replacement for built-in config shouldn't read from file system each time we need a config value, so we can store them in memory; Then what if user changes config file ? we need a FileSystemWatcher and we need some design like singleton ... and finally we are at the same point configuration of .NET is except our one's working. It seems MS did everything but forgot why they built the ".dll.config". Since no DLL is gonna execute by itself, they are referenced from other apps (even if used in web) and so why there's such a "*.dll.config" file ? I'm not gonna argue if it's good to have multiple config files or not. It's my design (plug-able components). Finally { After these years, is there any good practice such as a custom setting class to add in each assemly and read from it's own config file ? }

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• Transitioning from desktop app written in C++ to a web-based app

  - by Karim

  We have a mature Windows desktop application written in C++. The application's GUI sits on top of a windows DLL that does most of the work for the GUI (it's kind of the engine). It, too, is written in C++. We are considering transitioning the Windows app to be a web-based app for various reasons. What I would like to avoid is having to writing the CGI for this web-based app in C++. That is, I would rather have the power of a 4G language like Python or a .NET language for creating the web-based version of this app. So, the question is: given that I need to use a C++ DLL on the backend to do the work of the app what technology stack would you recommend for sitting between the user's browser and are C++ dll? We can assume that the web server will be Windows. Some options: Write a COM layer on top of the windows DLL which can then be access via .NET and use ASP.NET for the UI Access the export DLL interface directly from .NET and use ASP.NET for the UI. Write a custom Python library that wraps the windows DLL so that the rest of the code can be written. Write the CGI using C++ and a C++-based MVC framework like Wt Concerns: I would rather not use C++ for the web framework if it can be avoided - I think languages like Python and C# are simply more powerful and efficient in terms of development time. I'm concerned that my mixing managed and unmanaged code with one of the .NET solutions I'm asking for lots of little problems that are hard to debug (purely anecdotal evidence for that) Same is true for using a Python layer. Anything that's slightly off the beaten path like that worries me in that I don't have much evidence one way or the other if this is a viable long term solution.

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• Scrollbars in ScrollView not showing after custom child view changes size

  - by Ted Hopp

  I have a ScrollView containing a client that is a vertical LinearLayout. The client, in turn, contains custom views that change height dynamically as a background thread does some work. The problem I'm having is that the ScrollView's vertical scroll bar is not updating correctly in Android 1.5. The most common problem occurs when the initial total height of the client is less than the viewport and grows. Initially there is no scroll bar, and it does not show up when the client grows until I actually scroll the window with a touch gesture or other UI action. After that, the scroll bar shows up. However, the thumb does not update as the height continues to change from the background thread. If I scroll the view again through the UI, the thumb immediately corrects itself. My code for updating the height from the background thread is: post(mLayoutRequestor); postInvalidate(); (mLayoutRequestor is a Runnable that just calls requestLayout().) This is done after I've recorded the new height in a variable mHeight. My onMeasure() method calls setMeasuredDimension with a height computed like this: private int measureHeight(int measureSpec) { int result; int specMode = MeasureSpec.getMode(measureSpec); int specSize = MeasureSpec.getSize(measureSpec); if (specMode == MeasureSpec.EXACTLY) { result = specSize; } else { result = mHeight; if (specMode == MeasureSpec.AT_MOST && result > specSize) result = specSize; } return result; } Am I supposed to be calling something else besides requestLayout() to get the scroll bar to update correctly?

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• How to: generate UnhandledException?

  - by serhio

  I use this code to catch the WinForm application UnhandledException. [STAThread] static void Main(string[] args) { // Add the event handler for handling UI thread exceptions to the event. Application.ThreadException += new System.Threading.ThreadExceptionEventHandler(Application_ThreadException); // Set the unhandled exception mode to force all Windows Forms errors // to go through our handler. Application.SetUnhandledExceptionMode(UnhandledExceptionMode.CatchException); // Add the event handler for handling non-UI thread exceptions to the event. AppDomain.CurrentDomain.UnhandledException += new UnhandledExceptionEventHandler(CurrentDomain_UnhandledException); try { Application.Run(new MainForm()); } catch.... There I will try to restart the application. Now my problem is to simulate a exception like this. I tried before try (in main): throw new NullReferenceException("test"); VS caught it. Tried also in MainForm code with button : private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs ev) { ThreadPool.QueueUserWorkItem(new WaitCallback(TestMe), null); } protected void TestMe(object state) { string s = state.ToString(); } did not help, VS caught it, even in Release mode. How should I, finally, force the application generate UnhandleldException? Will I be able to restart the application in CurrentDomain_UnhandledException?

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• AudioRecord problems with non-HTC devices

  - by Marc

  I'm having troubles using AudioRecord. An example using some of the code derived from the splmeter project: private static final int FREQUENCY = 8000; private static final int CHANNEL = AudioFormat.CHANNEL_CONFIGURATION_MONO; private static final int ENCODING = AudioFormat.ENCODING_PCM_16BIT; private int BUFFSIZE = 50; private AudioRecord recordInstance = null; ... android.os.Process.setThreadPriority(android.os.Process.THREAD_PRIORITY_URGENT_AUDIO); recordInstance = new AudioRecord(MediaRecorder.AudioSource.MIC, FREQUENCY, CHANNEL, ENCODING, 8000); recordInstance.startRecording(); short[] tempBuffer = new short[BUFFSIZE]; int retval = 0; while (this.isRunning) { for (int i = 0; i < BUFFSIZE - 1; i++) { tempBuffer[i] = 0; } retval = recordInstance.read(tempBuffer, 0, BUFFSIZE); ... // process the data } This works on the HTC Dream and the HTC Magic perfectly without any log warnings/errors, but causes problems on the emulators and Nexus One device. On the Nexus one, it simply never returns useful data. I cannot provide any other useful information as I'm having a remote friend do the testing. On the emulators (Android 1.5, 2.1 and 2.2), I get weird errors from the AudioFlinger and Buffer overflows with the AudioRecordThread. I also get a major slowdown in UI responsiveness (even though the recording takes place in a separate thread than the UI). Is there something apparent that I'm doing incorrectly? Do I have to do anything special for the Nexus One hardware?

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• Returning objects from another thread?

  - by Mark

  Trying to follow the hints laid out here, but she doesn't mention how to handle it when your collection needs to return a value, like so: private delegate TValue DequeueHandler(); public virtual TValue Dequeue() { if (dispatcher.CheckAccess()) { --count; var pair = dict.First(); var queue = pair.Value; var val = queue.Dequeue(); if (queue.Count == 0) dict.Remove(pair.Key); OnCollectionChanged(new NotifyCollectionChangedEventArgs(NotifyCollectionChangedAction.Remove, val)); return val; } else { dispatcher.BeginInvoke(new DequeueHandler(Dequeue)); } } This obviously won't work, because dispatcher.BeginInvoke doesn't return anything. What am I supposed to do? Or maybe I could replace dequeue with two functions, Peek and Pop, where Peek doesn't really need to be on the UI thread because it doesn't modify anything, right? As a side question, these methods don't need to be "locked" either, do they? If they're all forced to run in the UI thread, then there shouldn't be any concurrency issues, right?

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• UIImageView is resizing

  - by dawatson833

  I have an issue with uiimageviews resizing at run time. On one view I have more than a dozen uiimageviews contained within a uiscrollview. The images are assigned at design time. The uiimageview's are all the same size. The mode is set to Aspect Fill for all uiimageviews. At run time the images appear correctly in the view. On a second view I have only 9 uiimageviews. These uiimageviews will display up to nine of the images selected from the first view. There are three images across and three images down. The uiimageview at design time is the same size as on the first view. The uiimageview image is assigned an image that is loaded into an array. All the uiimageviews are sized the same and they also have the mode set to Aspect Fill. The images are assigned at run time using image1.image = xxx. Where xxx is an image stored in an array. However, on this second view, the images are not all the same size. The height of the image changes dynamically. The same image displayed in a different uiimageview on the view will be different sizes. It is the height of the uiimageview that changes. In some cases the image will fill the uiimageview differently. It is like the mode changes dynamically. I've tried using different modes and nothing changes. Any ideas on what is happening?

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