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  • Best way to test for a variable's existence in PHP; isset() is clearly broken

    - by chazomaticus
    From the isset() docs: isset() will return FALSE if testing a variable that has been set to NULL. Basically, isset() doesn't check for whether the variable is set at all, but whether it's set to anything but NULL. Given that, what's the best way to actually check for the existence of a variable? I tried something like: if(isset($v) || @is_null($v)) (the @ is necessary to avoid the warning when $v is not set) but is_null() has a similar problem to isset(): it returns TRUE on unset variables! It also appears that: @($v === NULL) works exactly like @is_null($v), so that's out, too. How are we supposed to reliably check for the existence of a variable in PHP? Edit: there is clearly a difference in PHP between variables that are not set, and variables that are set to NULL: <?php $a = array('b' => NULL); var_dump($a); PHP shows that $a['b'] exists, and has a NULL value. If you add: var_dump(isset($a['b'])); var_dump(isset($a['c'])); you can see the ambiguity I'm talking about with the isset() function. Here's the output of all three of these var_dump()s: array(1) { ["b"]=> NULL } bool(false) bool(false) Further edit: two things. One, a use case. An array being turned into the data of an SQL UPDATE statement, where the array's keys are the table's columns, and the array's values are the values to be applied to each column. Any of the table's columns can hold a NULL value, signified by passing a NULL value in the array. You need a way to differentiate between an array key not existing, and an array's value being set to NULL; that's the difference between not updating the column's value and updating the column's value to NULL. Second, Zoredache's answer, array_key_exists() works correctly, for my above use case and for any global variables: <?php $a = NULL; var_dump(array_key_exists('a', $GLOBALS)); var_dump(array_key_exists('b', $GLOBALS)); outputs: bool(true) bool(false) Since that properly handles just about everywhere I can see there being any ambiguity between variables that don't exist and variables that are set to NULL, I'm calling array_key_exists() the official easiest way in PHP to truly check for the existence of a variable. (Only other case I can think of is for class properties, for which there's property_exists(), which, according to its docs, works similarly to array_key_exists() in that it properly distinguishes between not being set and being set to NULL.)

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  • Expand and overlap image over a grid of other images

    - by soren121
    I've been fighting with jQuery all night and getting quite frustrated here, so forgive me if the answer was staring me in the face. I have a grid of 15 images contained within a <div>, and when I click on one of them, I want it to expand to three times its original size of 150x105 and overlap the rest. I've got the expanding down, but the overlapping isn't quite working. My current HTML: <div id="image-grid"> <img src="images/after-pictures/1.jpg" class="igc1" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/2.jpg" class="igc2" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/3.jpg" class="igc3" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/4.jpg" class="igc4" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/5.jpg" class="igc5" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/6.jpg" class="igc1" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/7.jpg" class="igc2" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/8.jpg" class="igc3" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/9.jpg" class="igc4" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/10.jpg" class="igc5" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/11.jpg" class="igc1" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/12.jpg" class="igc2" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/13.jpg" class="igc3" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/14.jpg" class="igc4" /> <img src="images/after-pictures/15.jpg" class="igc5" /> </div> The igc* class denotes the column the image is in. CSS: #image-grid { border: 1px solid #aaa; width: 745px; padding: 5px 2px 2px 5px; } #image-grid img { width: 150px; height: 105px; margin: -2px; } jQuery: $('#image-grid img').click(function() { $(this).animate({ width: '450px', height: '315px', zIndex: '10' }, 200); });

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  • Why does Scala apply thunks automatically, sometimes?

    - by Anonymouse
    At just after 2:40 in ShadowofCatron's Scala Tutorial 3 video, it's pointed out that the parentheses following the name of a thunk are optional. "Buh?" said my functional programming brain, since the value of a function and the value it evaluates to when applied are completely different things. So I wrote the following to try this out. My thought process is described in the comments. object Main { var counter: Int = 10 def f(): Int = { counter = counter + 1; counter } def runThunk(t: () => Int): Int = { t() } def main(args: Array[String]): Unit = { val a = f() // I expect this to mean "apply f to no args" println(a) // and apparently it does val b = f // I expect this to mean "the value f", a function value println(b) // but it's the value it evaluates to when applied to no args println(b) // and the evaluation happens immediately, not in the call runThunk(b) // This is an error: it's not println doing something funny runThunk(f) // Not an error: seems to be val doing something funny } }   To be clear about the problem, this Scheme program (and the console dump which follows) shows what I expected the Scala program to do. (define counter (list 10)) (define f (lambda () (set-car! counter (+ (car counter) 1)) (car counter))) (define runThunk (lambda (t) (t))) (define main (lambda args (let ((a (f)) (b f)) (display a) (newline) (display b) (newline) (display b) (newline) (runThunk b) (runThunk f)))) > (main) 11 #<procedure:f> #<procedure:f> 13   After coming to this site to ask about this, I came across this answer which told me how to fix the above Scala program: val b = f _ // Hey Scala, I mean f, not f() But the underscore 'hint' is only needed sometimes. When I call runThunk(f), no hint is required. But when I 'alias' f to b with a val then apply it, it doesn't work: the evaluation happens in the val; and even lazy val works this way, so it's not the point of evaluation causing this behaviour.   That all leaves me with the question: Why does Scala sometimes automatically apply thunks when evaluating them? Is it, as I suspect, type inference? And if so, shouldn't a type system stay out of the language's semantics? Is this a good idea? Do Scala programmers apply thunks rather than refer to their values so much more often that making the parens optional is better overall? Examples written using Scala 2.8.0RC3, DrScheme 4.0.1 in R5RS.

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  • Java app makes screen display unresponsive after 10 minutes of user idle time

    - by Ross
    I've written a Java app that allows users to script mouse/keyboard input (JMacro, link not important, only for the curious). I personally use the application to automate character actions in an online game overnight while I sleep. Unfortunately, I keep coming back to the computer in the morning to find it unresponsive. Upon further testing, I'm finding that my application causes the computer to become unresponsive after about 10 minutes of user idle time (even if the application itself it simulating user activity). I can't seem to pin-point the issue, so I'm hoping somebody else might have a suggestion of where to look or what might be causing the issue. The relevant symptoms and characteristics: Unresponsiveness occurs after user is idle for 10 minutes User can still move the mouse pointer around the screen Everything but the mouse appears frozen... mouse clicks have no effect and no applications update their displays, including the Windows 7 desktop I left the task manager up along the with the app overnight so I could see the last task manager image before the screen freezes... the Java app is at normal CPU/Memory usage and total CPU usage is only ~1% After moving the mouse (in other words, the user comes back from being idle), the screen image starts updating again within 30 minutes (this is very hit and miss... sometimes 10 minutes, sometimes no results after two hours) User can CTRL-ALT-DEL to get to Windows 7's CTRL-ALT-DEL screen (after a 30 second pause). User is still able to move mouse pointer, but clicking any of the button options causes the screen to appear to freeze again On some very rare occasions, the system never freezes, and I come back to it in the morning with full responsiveness The Java app automatically stops input scripting in the middle of the night, so Windows 7 detects "real" idleness and turns the monitors into Standby mode... which they successfully come out of upon manually moving the mouse in the morning when I wake up, even though the desktop display still appears frozen Given the symptoms and characteristics of the issue, it's as if the Java app is causing the desktop display of the logged in user to stop updating, including any running applications. Programming concepts and Java packages used: Multi-threading Standard out and err are rerouted to a javax.swing.JTextArea The application uses a Swing GUI awt.Robot (very heavily used) awt.PointerInfo awt.MouseInfo System Specs: Windows 7 Professional Java 1.6.0 u17 In conclusion, I should stress that I'm not looking for any specific solutions, as I'm not asking a very specific question. I'm just wondering if anybody has run into a similar problem when using the Java libraries that I'm using. I would also gladly appreciate any suggestions for things to try to attempt to further pinpoint what is causing my problem. Thanks! Ross PS, I'll post an update/answer if I manage to stumble across anything else while I continue to debug this.

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  • How to "enable" HTML5 elements in IE that were inserted by AJAX call?

    - by Gidon
    IE does not work good with unknown elements (ie. HTML5 elements), one cannot style them , or access most of their props. Their are numerous work arounds for this for example: http://remysharp.com/2009/01/07/html5-enabling-script/ The problem is that this works great for static HTML that was available on page load, but when one creates HTML5 elements afterward (for example AJAX call containing them, or simply creating with JS), it will mark these newly added elements them as HTMLUnknownElement as supposed to HTMLGenericElement (in IE debugger). Does anybody know a work around for that, so that newly added elements will be recognized/enabled by IE? Here is a test page: <html><head><title>TIME TEST</title> <!--[if IE]> <script src="http://html5shiv.googlecode.com/svn/trunk/html5.js"></script> <![endif]--> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> </head> <body> <time>some time</time> <hr> <script type="text/javascript"> $("time").text("WORKS GREAT"); $("body").append("<time>NEW ELEMENT</time>"); //simulates AJAX callback insertion $("time").text("UPDATE"); </script> </body> </html> In IE you will see the: UPDATE , and NEW ELEMENT. In any other modern browser you will see UPDATE, and UPDATE Solution Using the answer provided I came up with the following piece of javascript to HTML5 enable a whole bunch of elements returned by my ajax call: (function ($) { jQuery.fn.html5Enable = function () { if ($.browser.msie) { $("abbr, article, aside, audio, canvas, details, figcaption, figure, footer, header, hgroup, mark, menu, meter, nav, output, progress, section, summary, time, video", this).replaceWith(function () { if (this.tagName == undefined) return ""; var el = $(document.createElement(this.tagName)); for (var i = 0; i < this.attributes.length; i++) el.attr(this.attributes[i].nodeName, this.attributes[i].nodeValue); el.html(this.innerHtml); return el; }); } return this; }; })(jQuery); Now this can be called whenever you want to append something: var el = $(AJAX_RESULT_OR_HTML_STRING); el.html5Enable(); $("SOMECONTAINER").append(el); See http://code.google.com/p/html5shiv/issues/detail?id=4 for an explanation about what this plugin doesn't do.

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  • Python/Biomolecular Physics- Trying to code a simple stochastic simulation of a system exhibiting co

    - by user359597
    *edited 6/17/10 I'm trying to understand how to improve my code (make it more pythonic). Also, I'm interested in writing more intuitive 'conditionals' that would describe scenarios that are commonplace in biochemistry. The conditional criteria in the below program is explained in Answer #2, but I am not satisfied with it- it is correct, but isn't obvious and isn't easy to implement for more complicated conditional scenarios. Ideas welcome. Comments/criticisms welcome. First posting experience @ stackoverflow- please comment on etiquette if needed. The code generates a list of values that are the solution to the following exercise: "In a programming language of your choice, implement Gillespie’s First Reaction Algorithm to study the temporal behaviour of the reaction A---B in which the transition from A to B can only take place if another compound, C, is present, and where C dynamically interconverts with D, as modelled in the Petri-net below. Assume that there are 100 molecules of A, 1 of C, and no B or D present at the start of the reaction. Set kAB to 0.1 s-1 and both kCD and kDC to 1.0 s-1. Simulate the behaviour of the system over 100 s." def sim(): # Set the rate constants for all transitions kAB = 0.1 kCD = 1.0 kDC = 1.0 # Set up the initial state A = 100 B = 0 C = 1 D = 0 # Set the start and end times t = 0.0 tEnd = 100.0 print "Time\t", "Transition\t", "A\t", "B\t", "C\t", "D" # Compute the first interval transition, interval = transitionData(A, B, C, D, kAB, kCD, kDC) # Loop until the end time is exceded or no transition can fire any more while t <= tEnd and transition >= 0: print t, '\t', transition, '\t', A, '\t', B, '\t', C, '\t', D t += interval if transition == 0: A -= 1 B += 1 if transition == 1: C -= 1 D += 1 if transition == 2: C += 1 D -= 1 transition, interval = transitionData(A, B, C, D, kAB, kCD, kDC) def transitionData(A, B, C, D, kAB, kCD, kDC): """ Returns nTransition, the number of the firing transition (0: A->B, 1: C->D, 2: D->C), and interval, the interval between the time of the previous transition and that of the current one. """ RAB = kAB * A * C RCD = kCD * C RDC = kDC * D dt = [-1.0, -1.0, -1.0] if RAB > 0.0: dt[0] = -math.log(1.0 - random.random())/RAB if RCD > 0.0: dt[1] = -math.log(1.0 - random.random())/RCD if RDC > 0.0: dt[2] = -math.log(1.0 - random.random())/RDC interval = 1e36 transition = -1 for n in range(len(dt)): if dt[n] > 0.0 and dt[n] < interval: interval = dt[n] transition = n return transition, interval if __name__ == '__main__': sim()

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  • How to fine tune FluentNHibernate's auto mapper?

    - by Venemo
    Okay, so yesterday I managed to get the latest trunk builds of NHibernate and FluentNHibernate to work with my latest little project. (I'm working on a bug tracking application.) I created a nice data access layer using the Repository pattern. I decided that my entities are nothing special, and also that with the current maturity of ORMs, I don't want to hand-craft the database. So, I chose to use FluentNHibernate's auto mapping feature with NHibernate's "hbm2ddl.auto" property set to "create". It really works like a charm. I put the NHibernate configuration in my app domain's config file, set it up, and started playing with it. (For the time being, I created some unit tests only.) It created all tables in the database, and everything I need for it. It even mapped my many-to-many relationships correctly. However, there are a few small glitches: All of the columns created in the DB allow null. I understand that it can't predict which properties should allow null and which shouldn't, but at least I'd like to tell it that it should allow null only for those types for which null makes sense in .NET (eg. non-nullable value types shouldn't allow null). All of the nvarchar and varbinary columns it created, have a default length of 255. I would prefer to have them on max instead of that. Is there a way to tell the auto mapper about the two simple rules above? If the answer is no, will it work correctly if I modify the tables it created? (So, if I set some columns not to allow null, and change the allowed length for some other, will it correctly work with them?) EDIT: I managed to achieve the above by using Fluent NHibernate's convention API. Thanks to everyone who helped! However, there is one more thing: after checking out the convention API, I really would like my IDs to be calld "ID", not "Id", but it seems to me that the PrimaryKey.Name.Is(x => "ID") is not working at all. If I add it to the conventions collection and rewrite my entities' properties to "ID" instead of "Id", it throws an exception that there is no primary key mapped. Any thoughts on this?

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  • How can I create a Base64-Encoded string from an GDI+ Image in C++?

    - by Schnapple
    I asked a question recently, How can I create an Image in GDI+ from a Base64-Encoded string in C++?, which got a response that led me to the answer. Now I need to do the opposite - I have an Image in GDI+ whose image data I need to turn into a Base64-Encoded string. Due to its nature, it's not straightforward. The crux of the issue is that an Image in GDI+ can save out its data to either a file or an IStream*. I don't want to save to a file, so I need to use the resulting stream. Problem is, this is where my knowledge breaks down. This first part is what I figured out in the other question // Initialize GDI+. GdiplusStartupInput gdiplusStartupInput; ULONG_PTR gdiplusToken; GdiplusStartup(&gdiplusToken, &gdiplusStartupInput, NULL); // I have this decode function from elsewhere std::string decodedImage = base64_decode(Base64EncodedImage); // Allocate the space for the stream DWORD imageSize = decodedImage.length(); HGLOBAL hMem = ::GlobalAlloc(GMEM_MOVEABLE, imageSize); LPVOID pImage = ::GlobalLock(hMem); memcpy(pImage, decodedImage.c_str(), imageSize); // Create the stream IStream* pStream = NULL; ::CreateStreamOnHGlobal(hMem, FALSE, &pStream); // Create the image from the stream Image image(pStream); // Cleanup pStream->Release(); GlobalUnlock(hMem); GlobalFree(hMem); (Base64 code) And now I'm going to perform an operation on the resulting image, in this case rotating it, and now I want the Base64-equivalent string when I'm done. // Perform operation (rotate) image.RotateFlip(Gdiplus::Rotate180FlipNone); IStream* oStream = NULL; CLSID tiffClsid; GetEncoderClsid(L"image/tiff", &tiffClsid); // Function defined elsewhere image.Save(oStream, &tiffClsid); // And here's where I'm stumped. (GetEncoderClsid) So what I wind up with at the end is an IStream* object. But here's where both my knowledge and Google break down for me. IStream shouldn't be an object itself, it's an interface for other types of streams. I'd go down the road from getting string-Image in reverse, but I don't know how to determine the size of the stream, which appears to be key to that route. How can I go from an IStream* to a string (which I will then Base64-Encode)? Or is there a much better way to go from a GDI+ Image to a string?

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  • How to obtain a pointer out of a C++ vtable?

    - by Josh Haberman
    Say you have a C++ class like: class Foo { public: virtual ~Foo() {} virtual DoSomething() = 0; }; The C++ compiler translates a call into a vtable lookup: Foo* foo; // Translated by C++ to: // foo->vtable->DoSomething(foo); foo->DoSomething(); Suppose I was writing a JIT compiler and I wanted to obtain the address of the DoSomething() function for a particular instance of class Foo, so I can generate code that jumps to it directly instead of doing a table lookup and an indirect branch. My questions are: Is there any standard C++ way to do this (I'm almost sure the answer is no, but wanted to ask for the sake of completeness). Is there any remotely compiler-independent way of doing this, like a library someone has implemented that provides an API for accessing a vtable? I'm open to completely hacks, if they will work. For example, if I created my own derived class and could determine the address of its DoSomething method, I could assume that the vtable is the first (hidden) member of Foo and search through its vtable until I find my pointer value. However, I don't know a way of getting this address: if I write &DerivedFoo::DoSomething I get a pointer-to-member, which is something totally different. Maybe I could turn the pointer-to-member into the vtable offset. When I compile the following: class Foo { public: virtual ~Foo() {} virtual void DoSomething() = 0; }; void foo(Foo *f, void (Foo::*member)()) { (f->*member)(); } On GCC/x86-64, I get this assembly output: Disassembly of section .text: 0000000000000000 <_Z3fooP3FooMS_FvvE>: 0: 40 f6 c6 01 test sil,0x1 4: 48 89 74 24 e8 mov QWORD PTR [rsp-0x18],rsi 9: 48 89 54 24 f0 mov QWORD PTR [rsp-0x10],rdx e: 74 10 je 20 <_Z3fooP3FooMS_FvvE+0x20> 10: 48 01 d7 add rdi,rdx 13: 48 8b 07 mov rax,QWORD PTR [rdi] 16: 48 8b 74 30 ff mov rsi,QWORD PTR [rax+rsi*1-0x1] 1b: ff e6 jmp rsi 1d: 0f 1f 00 nop DWORD PTR [rax] 20: 48 01 d7 add rdi,rdx 23: ff e6 jmp rsi I don't fully understand what's going on here, but if I could reverse-engineer this or use an ABI spec I could generate a fragment like the above for each separate platform, as a way of obtaining a pointer out of a vtable.

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  • In a PHP project, how do you organize and access your helper objects?

    - by Pekka
    How do you organize and manage your helper objects like the database engine, user notification, error handling and so on in a PHP based, object oriented project? Say I have a large PHP CMS. The CMS is organized in various classes. A few examples: the database object user management an API to create/modify/delete items a messaging object to display messages to the end user a context handler that takes you to the right page a navigation bar class that shows buttons a logging object possibly, custom error handling etc. I am dealing with the eternal question, how to best make these objects accessible to each part of the system that needs it. my first apporach, many years ago was to have a $application global that contained initialized instances of these classes. global $application; $application->messageHandler->addMessage("Item successfully inserted"); I then changed over to the Singleton pattern and a factory function: $mh =&factory("messageHandler"); $mh->addMessage("Item successfully inserted"); but I'm not happy with that either. Unit tests and encapsulation become more and more important to me, and in my understanding the logic behind globals/singletons destroys the basic idea of OOP. Then there is of course the possibility of giving each object a number of pointers to the helper objects it needs, probably the very cleanest, resource-saving and testing-friendly way but I have doubts about the maintainability of this in the long run. Most PHP frameworks I have looked into use either the singleton pattern, or functions that access the initialized objects. Both fine approaches, but as I said I'm happy with neither. I would like to broaden my horizon on what is possible here and what others have done. I am looking for examples, additional ideas and pointers towards resources that discuss this from a long-term, real-world perspective. Also, I'm interested to hear about specialized, niche or plain weird approaches to the issue. Bounty I am following the popular vote in awarding the bounty, the answer which is probably also going to give me the most. Thank you for all your answers!

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  • How to select all parent objects into DataContext using single LINQ query ?

    - by too
    I am looking for an answer to a specific problem of fetching whole LINQ object hierarchy using single SELECT. At first I was trying to fill as much LINQ objects as possible using LoadOptions, but AFAIK this method allows only single table to be linked in one query using LoadWith. So I have invented a solution to forcibly set all parent objects of entity which of list is to be fetched, although there is a problem of multiple SELECTS going to database - a single query results in two SELECTS with the same parameters in the same LINQ context. For this question I have simplified this query to popular invoice example: public static class Extensions { public static IEnumerable<T> ForEach<T>(this IEnumerable<T> collection, Action<T> func) { foreach(var c in collection) { func(c); } return collection; } } public IEnumerable<Entry> GetResults(AppDataContext context, int CustomerId) { return ( from entry in context.Entries join invoice in context.Invoices on entry.EntryInvoiceId equals invoice.InvoiceId join period in context.Periods on invoice.InvoicePeriodId equals period.PeriodId // LEFT OUTER JOIN, store is not mandatory join store in context.Stores on entry.EntryStoreId equals store.StoreId into condStore from store in condStore.DefaultIfEmpty() where (invoice.InvoiceCustomerId = CustomerId) orderby entry.EntryPrice descending select new { Entry = entry, Invoice = invoice, Period = period, Store = store } ).ForEach(x => { x.Entry.Invoice = Invoice; x.Invoice.Period = Period; x.Entry.Store = Store; } ).Select(x => x.Entry); } When calling this function and traversing through result set, for example: var entries = GetResults(this.Context); int withoutStore = 0; foreach(var k in entries) { if(k.EntryStoreId == null) withoutStore++; } the resulting query to database looks like (single result is fetched): SELECT [t0].[EntryId], [t0].[EntryInvoiceId], [t0].[EntryStoreId], [t0].[EntryProductId], [t0].[EntryQuantity], [t0].[EntryPrice], [t1].[InvoiceId], [t1].[InvoiceCustomerId], [t1].[InvoiceDate], [t1].[InvoicePeriodId], [t2].[PeriodId], [t2].[PeriodName], [t2].[PeriodDateFrom], [t4].[StoreId], [t4].[StoreName] FROM [Entry] AS [t0] INNER JOIN [Invoice] AS [t1] ON [t0].[EntryInvoiceId] = [t1].[InvoiceId] INNER JOIN [Period] AS [t2] ON [t2].[PeriodId] = [t1].[InvoicePeriodId] LEFT OUTER JOIN ( SELECT 1 AS [test], [t3].[StoreId], [t3].[StoreName] FROM [Store] AS [t3] ) AS [t4] ON [t4].[StoreId] = ([t0].[EntryStoreId]) WHERE (([t1].[InvoiceCustomerId]) = @p0) ORDER BY [t0].[InvoicePrice] DESC -- @p0: Input Int (Size = 0; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [186] -- Context: SqlProvider(Sql2008) Model: AttributedMetaModel Build: 3.5.30729.1 SELECT [t0].[EntryId], [t0].[EntryInvoiceId], [t0].[EntryStoreId], [t0].[EntryProductId], [t0].[EntryQuantity], [t0].[EntryPrice], [t1].[InvoiceId], [t1].[InvoiceCustomerId], [t1].[InvoiceDate], [t1].[InvoicePeriodId], [t2].[PeriodId], [t2].[PeriodName], [t2].[PeriodDateFrom], [t4].[StoreId], [t4].[StoreName] FROM [Entry] AS [t0] INNER JOIN [Invoice] AS [t1] ON [t0].[EntryInvoiceId] = [t1].[InvoiceId] INNER JOIN [Period] AS [t2] ON [t2].[PeriodId] = [t1].[InvoicePeriodId] LEFT OUTER JOIN ( SELECT 1 AS [test], [t3].[StoreId], [t3].[StoreName] FROM [Store] AS [t3] ) AS [t4] ON [t4].[StoreId] = ([t0].[EntryStoreId]) WHERE (([t1].[InvoiceCustomerId]) = @p0) ORDER BY [t0].[InvoicePrice] DESC -- @p0: Input Int (Size = 0; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [186] -- Context: SqlProvider(Sql2008) Model: AttributedMetaModel Build: 3.5.30729.1 The question is why there are two queries and how can I fetch LINQ objects without such hacks?

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  • how to develop a program to minimize errors in human transcription of hand written surveys

    - by Alex. S.
    I need to develop custom software to do surveys. Questions may be of multiple choice, or free text in a very few cases. I was asked to design a subsystem to check if there is any error in the manual data entry for the multiple choices part. We're trying to speed up the user data entry process and to minimize human input differences between digital forms and the original questionnaires. The surveys are filled with handwritten marks and text by human interviewers, so it's possible to find hard to read marks, or also the user could accidentally select a different value in some question, and we would like to avoid that. The software must include some automatic control to detect possible typing differences. Each answer of the multiple choice questions has the same probability of being selected. This question has two parts: The GUI. The most simple thing I have in mind is to implement the most usable design of the questions display: use of large and readable fonts and space generously the choices. Is there something else? For faster input, I would like to use drop down lists (favoring keyboard over mouse). Given the questions are grouped in sections, I would like to show the answers selected for the questions of that section, but this could slow down the process. Any other ideas? The error checking subsystem. What else can I do to minimize or to check human typos in the multiple choice questions? Is this a solvable problem? is there some statistical methodology to check values that were entered by the users are the same from the hand filled forms? For example, let's suppose the survey has 5 questions, and each has 4 options. Let's say I have n survey forms filled in paper by interviewers, and they're ready to be entered in the software, then how to minimize the accidental differences that can have the manual transcription of the n surveys, without having to double check everything in the 5 questions of the n surveys? My first suggestion is that at the end of the processing of all the hand filled forms, the software could choose some forms randomly to make a double check of the responses in a few instances, but on what criteria can I make this selection? This validation would be enough to cover everything in a significant way? The actual survey is nation level and it has 56 pages with over 200 questions in total, so it will be a lot of hand written pages by many people, and the intention is to reduce the likelihood of errors and to optimize speed in the data entry process. The surveys must filled in paper first, given the complications of taking laptops or handhelds with the interviewers.

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  • Is it possible to swap lines of xml code in soap

    - by John
    I wish to send a request like <v:Envelope xmlns:i="xxx"> <v:Header /> <v:Body> <sendTwoWaySmsMessage xmlns="xxx" id="o0" c:root="1"> <connectionId i:type="d:string">connectionId</connectionId> <twoWaySmsMessage> <message i:type="d:string">love it. It seems to work</message> <mobiles i:type="d:string">345</mobiles> <messageId i:type="d:string">123</messageId> </twoWaySmsMessage> </sendTwoWaySmsMessage> </v:Body> </v:Envelope> what i get is <v:Envelope xmlns:i="xxx"> <v:Header /> <v:Body> <sendTwoWaySmsMessage xmlns="xxx" id="o0" c:root="1"> <twoWaySmsMessage> <message i:type="d:string">love it. It seems to work</message> <mobiles i:type="d:string">345</mobiles> <messageId i:type="d:string">123</messageId> </twoWaySmsMessage> <connectionId i:type="d:string">connectionId</connectionId> </sendTwoWaySmsMessage> </v:Body> </v:Envelope> code is SoapObject request = new SoapObject(WSDL_TARGET_NAMESPACE, url); SoapObject message = new SoapObject("", "twoWaySmsMessage"); request.addProperty("connectionId", did); message.addProperty("message", "love it. It seems to work"); message.addProperty("mobiles", "435"); message.addProperty("messageId", "123"); request.addSoapObject(message); request.setProperty(0, "connectionId"); when i use SoapUI with the second with the "connectionId" swaped it seem to work can anyone help. of have ideas. I have looked at just about every ksoap question out there and cant seem to find an answer?

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  • Changing backgroundcolor in listview (expandable listview)

    - by Stofke
    I'm trying to dynamically change a backgroundcolor in a part of a listview, I have on example that works fine in a listview when I try to replicate it in another part with an expandable listview it fails This piece of code works and displays a different color if a student is online or not ... map.put(KEY_FIRSTNAME, temp.firstName); map.put(KEY_NAME, temp.name); map.put(KEY_EMAIL, temp.email); map.put(KEY_ISONLINE, temp.isOnLine); // change image if student is online or not Log.d("demo", "is on line= " + temp.isOnLine); if (temp.isOnLine.equalsIgnoreCase("1")) { map.put(KEY_IMAGE_ISONLINE, R.color.greenColor); } else { map.put(KEY_IMAGE_ISONLINE, R.color.greyColor); } listItem.add(map); } myListView = (ListView) findViewById(R.id.listViewTabLeerlingen); SimpleAdapter adapter = new SimpleAdapter(StudentTab.this, listItem, R.layout.list_item_student, new String[] { KEY_FIRSTNAME, KEY_NAME, KEY_IMAGE_ISONLINE }, new int[] { R.id.firstNameTextView, R.id.lastNameTextView, R.id.logo }); myListView.setAdapter(adapter); the xml that goes along with it <ImageView android:id="@+id/logo" android:layout_width="85dp" android:layout_height="match_parent" android:background="@color/greenColor" android:contentDescription="Image if student is online or not" android:src="@drawable/transparent_pixel" /> The above works fine however the following code (just part of the code) ... ArrayList<Map<String, Object>> children = new ArrayList<Map<String, Object>>(); for (int i = 0; i < _data.length(); i++) { try { JSONArray tmp = _data.getJSONArray(i); HashMap<String, Object> map = new HashMap<String, Object>(); // change image if student is online or not if (tmp.getString(3).equalsIgnoreCase("0")) { map.put(KEY_POINTS,R.color.redColor); }else{ map.put(KEY_POINTS,R.color.greenColor); } map.put(KEY_QUESTIONTEXT, tmp.getString(1)); map.put(KEY_ANSWER, tmp.getString(2)); children.add(map); } catch (JSONException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } childData.add(children); ... ... ArrayList<ArrayList<Map<String, Object>>> childData) { SimpleExpandableListAdapter listAdapter = new SimpleExpandableListAdapter( this, groupData, R.layout.list_item_results_students, new String[] { KEY_FIRSTNAME, KEY_NAME, KEY_ISJUIST }, new int[] { R.id.firstnameResults, R.id.nameResults, R.id.resultsTextView }, childData, R.layout.list_item_results_results, new String[] { KEY_QUESTIONTEXT, KEY_ANSWER, KEY_POINTS }, new int[] { R.id.questionTextView, R.id.answerTextTextView, R.id.score }); ExpandableListView myListView = (ExpandableListView) findViewById(R.id.listViewTabResultaten); myListView.setAdapter(listAdapter); with xml: <ImageView android:id="@+id/score" android:layout_width="16dp" android:layout_height="match_parent" android:background="@color/greenColor" android:contentDescription="Image if student has correct answer" android:src="@drawable/transparent_pixel" /> I will get this error: 06-09 10:35:21.490: E/AndroidRuntime(4406): java.lang.ClassCastException: android.widget.ImageView cannot be cast to android.widget.TextView

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  • VBA Excel - Workbook_SheetChange

    - by user2947014
    Hopefully this question hasn't already been asked, I tried searching for an answer and couldn't find anything. This is probably a simple question, but I am writing my first macro in excel and am having a problem that I can't find out a solution to. I wrote a couple of macros that basically sum up columns dynamically (so that the number of rows can change and the formula moves down automatically) based on a value in another column of the same row, and I call those macros from the event Workbook_SheetChange. The problem I'm having is, I change a cell's value from my macro to display the result of the sum, and this then calls Workbook_SheetChange again, which I do not want. Right now it works, but I can trace it and see that Workbook_SheetChange is being called multiple times. This is preventing me from adding other cell changes to the macros, because then it results in an infinite loop. I want the macros to run every time a change is made to the sheet, but I don't see any way around allowing the macros to change a cell's value, so I don't know what to do. I will paste my code below, in case it is helpful. Private Sub Workbook_SheetChange(ByVal Sh As Object, ByVal Target As Range) Dim Row As Long Dim Col As Long Row = Target.Row Col = Target.Column If Col <> 7 Then Range("G" & Row).Select Selection.Formula = "=IF(F" & Row & "=""Win"",E" & Row & ",IF(F" & Row & "=""Loss"",-D" & Row & ",0))" Target.Select End If Call SumRiskColumn End Sub Private Sub Workbook_SheetCalculate(ByVal Sh As Object) Call SumOutcomeColumn End Sub Sub SumOutcomeColumn() Dim N As Long N = Cells(Rows.Count, "A").End(xlUp).Row Cells(N + 1, "G").Formula = "=SUM(G2:G" & N & ")" End Sub Sub SumRiskColumn() Dim N As Long N = Cells(Rows.Count, "A").End(xlUp).Row Dim CurrTotalRisk As Long CurrTotalRisk = 0 For i = 2 To N If IsEmpty(ActiveSheet.Cells(i, 6)) And Not IsEmpty(ActiveSheet.Cells(i, 1)) And Not IsEmpty(ActiveSheet.Cells(i, 2)) And Not IsEmpty(ActiveSheet.Cells(i, 3)) Then CurrTotalRisk = CurrTotalRisk + ActiveSheet.Cells(i, 4).Value End If Next i Cells(N + 1, "D").Value = CurrTotalRisk End Sub Thank you for any help you can give me! I really appreciate it.

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  • Selenium: How to use stored value in a javascript comparison

    - by dstrube
    I've searched around for the answer to this and found lots of much more complicated questions, but none that gave me insight enough to figure this one out. What I'm doing: 1- open a page with a number that will probably be large 2- get the X Path to where that number is and store it to a variable 3- do a javascript to compare the above stored variable to see if it is bigger than 10, if so, set a new varaible to true; else false (because that is the default value) 4- verify the variable in #3 is true Sounds simple enough, no? Where it goes wrong: At step 3, comparing the variable from step #2 to 10 isn't allowed, at least not the way I'm writing it. Why? Details: <tr> <td>open</td> <td>http://www.google.com/search?hl=en&q=selenium+verifyEval</td> <td></td> </tr> <tr> <td>store</td> <td>/html/body/div[5]/div/p/b[3]</td> <td>resultCount</td> </tr> <tr> <td>storeEval</td> <td>var isMoreThan10 = new Boolean(); isMoreThan10 = (resultCount &gt; 10);</td> <td>isMoreThan10</td> </tr> <tr> <td>verifyExpression</td> <td>${isMoreThan10}</td> <td>true</td> </tr> I just thought of one possible workaround: Exapnd the javascript code to get the value there & assign it to a variable there so I'll be more likely to be able to use that variable in the javascript. Not sure exactly how that would be done- anyone wanna help with that? But surely there is be a better way, isn't there? I must be able to assign a value to a variable in Selenium, then in the next line use that variable in a javascript, right?

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  • Mocking methods that call other methods Still hit database.Can I avoid it?

    - by devnet247
    Hi, It has been decided to write some unit tests using moq etc..It's lots of legacy code c# (this is beyond my control so cannot answer the whys of this) Now how do you cope with a scenario when you dont want to hit the database but you indirectly still hit the database? This is something I put together it's not the real code but gives you an idea. How would you deal with this sort of scenario? Basically calling a method on a mocked interface still makes a dal call as inside that method there are other methods not part of that interface?Hope it's clear [TestFixture] public class Can_Test_this_legacy_code { [Test] public void Should_be_able_to_mock_login() { var mock = new Mock<ILoginDal>(); User user; var userName = "Jo"; var password = "password"; mock.Setup(x => x.login(It.IsAny<string>(), It.IsAny<string>(),out user)); var bizLogin = new BizLogin(mock.Object); bizLogin.Login(userName, password, out user); } } public class BizLogin { private readonly ILoginDal _login; public BizLogin(ILoginDal login) { _login = login; } public void Login(string userName, string password, out User user) { //Even if I dont want to this will call the DAL!!!!! var bizPermission = new BizPermission(); var permissionList = bizPermission.GetPermissions(userName); //Method I am actually testing _login.login(userName,password,out user); } } public class BizPermission { public List<Permission>GetPermissions(string userName) { var dal=new PermissionDal(); var permissionlist= dal.GetPermissions(userName); return permissionlist; } } public class PermissionDal { public List<Permission> GetPermissions(string userName) { //I SHOULD NOT BE GETTING HERE!!!!!! return new List<Permission>(); } } public interface ILoginDal { void login(string userName, string password,out User user); } public interface IOtherStuffDal { List<Permission> GetPermissions(); } public class Permission { public int Id { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } Any suggestions? Am I missing the obvious? Is this Untestable code? Very very grateful for any suggestions.

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  • How can I implement ASP.NET MVC without using Visual Studio?

    - by Cheeso
    I have seen ASP.NET MVC Without Visual Studio, which asks, Is it possible to produce a website based on ASP.NET MVC, without using Visual Studio? And the accepted answer is, yes. Ok, next question: how? Here's an analogy. If I want to create an ASP.NET Webforms page, I load up my favorite text editor, create a file named Something.aspx. Then I insert into that file, some boilerplate: <%@ Page Language="C#" Debug="true" Trace="false" Src="Sourcefile.cs" Inherits="My.Namespace.ContentsPage" %> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="en" lang="en"> <head> <title>Title goes here </title> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="css/style.css"></link> <style type="text/css"> #elementid { font-size: 9pt; color: Navy; ... more css ... } </style> <script type="text/javascript" language='javascript'> // insert javascript here. </script> </head> <body> <asp:Literal Id='Holder' runat='server'/> <br/> <div id='msgs'></div> </body> </html> Then I also create the Sourcefile.cs file: namespace My.Namespace { using System; using System.Web; using System.Xml; // etc... public class ContentsPage : System.Web.UI.Page { protected System.Web.UI.WebControls.Literal Holder; void Page_Load(Object sender, EventArgs e) { // page load logic here } } } And that is a working ASPNET page, created in a text editor. Drop it into an IIS virtual directory, and it's working. What do I have to do, to make a basic, hello, World ASPNET MVC app, in a text editor? (without Visual Studio)

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  • overwrite existing entity via bulkloader.Loader

    - by Ray Yun
    I was going to CSV based export/import for large data with app engine. My idea was just simple. First column of CSV would be key of entity. If it's not empty, that row means existing entity and should overwrite old one. Else, that row is new entity and should create new one. I could export key of entity by adding key property. class FrontExporter(bulkloader.Exporter): def __init__(self): bulkloader.Exporter.__init__(self, 'Front', [ ('__key__', str, None), ('name', str, None), ]) But when I was trying to upload CSV, it had failed because bulkloader.Loader.generate_key() was just for "key_name" not "key" itself. That means all exported entities in CSV should have unique 'key_name' if I want to modify-and-reupload them. class FrontLoader(bulkloader.Loader): def __init__(self): bulkloader.Loader.__init__(self, 'Front', [ ('_UNUSED', lambda x: None), ('name', lambda x: x.decode('utf-8')), ]) def generate_key(self,i,values): # first column is key keystr = values[0] if len(keystr)==0: return None return keystr I also tried to load key directly without using generate_key(), but both failed. class FrontLoader(bulkloader.Loader): def __init__(self): bulkloader.Loader.__init__(self, 'Front', [ ('Key', db.Key), # not working. just create new one. ('__key__', db.Key), # same... So, how can I overwrite existing entity which has no 'key_name'? It would be horrible if I should give unique name to all entities..... From the first answer, I could handle this problem. :) def create_entity(self, values, key_name=None, parent=None): # if key_name is None: # print 'key_name is None' # else: # print 'key_name=<',key_name,'> : length=',len(key_name) Validate(values, (list, tuple)) assert len(values) == len(self._Loader__properties), ( 'Expected %d columns, found %d.' % (len(self._Loader__properties), len(values))) model_class = GetImplementationClass(self.kind) properties = { 'key_name': key_name, 'parent': parent, } for (name, converter), val in zip(self._Loader__properties, values): if converter is bool and val.lower() in ('0', 'false', 'no'): val = False properties[name] = converter(val) if key_name is None: entity = model_class(**properties) #print 'create new one' else: entity = model_class.get(key_name) for key, value in properties.items(): setattr(entity, key, value) #print 'overwrite old one' entities = self.handle_entity(entity) if entities: if not isinstance(entities, (list, tuple)): entities = [entities] for entity in entities: if not isinstance(entity, db.Model): raise TypeError('Expected a db.Model, received %s (a %s).' % (entity, entity.__class__)) return entities def generate_key(self,i,values): # first column is key if values[0] is None or values[0] in ('',' ','-','.'): return None return values[0]

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  • how to refactor user-permission system?

    - by John
    Sorry for lengthy question. I can't tell if this should be a programming question or a project management question. Any advice will help. I inherited a reasonably large web project (1 year old) from a solo freelancer who architected it then abandoned it. The project was a mess, but I cleaned up what I could, and now the system is more maintainable. I need suggestions on how to extend the user-permission system. As it is now, the database has a t_user table with the column t_user.membership_type. Currently, there are 4 membership types with the following properties: 3 of the membership types are almost functionally the same, except for the different monthly fees each must pay 1 of the membership type is a "fake-user" type which has limited access ( different business logic also applies) With regards to the fake-user type, if you look in the system's business logic files, you will see a lot of hard-coded IF statements that do something like if (fake-user) { // do something } else { // a paid member of type 1,2 or 3 // proceed normally } My client asked me to add 3 more membership types to the system, each of them with unique features to be implemented this month, and substantive "to-be-determined" features next month. My first reaction is that I need to refactor the user-permission system. But it concerns me that I don't have enough information on the "to-be-determined" membership type features for next month. Refactoring the user-permission system will take a substantive amount of time. I don't want to refactor something and throw it out the following month. I get substantive feature requests on a monthly basis that come out of the blue. There is no project road map. I've asked my client to provide me with a roadmap of what they intend to do with the new membership types, but their answer is along the lines of "We just want to do [feature here] this month. We'll think of something new next month." So questions that come to mind are: 1) Is it dangerous for me to refactor the user permission system not knowing what membership type features exist beyond a month from now? 2) Should I refactor the user permission system regardless? Or just continue adding IF statements as needed in all my controller files? Or can you recommend a different approach to user permission systems? Maybe role-based ? 3) Should this project have a road map? For a 1 year old project like mine, how far into the future should this roadmap project? 4) Any general advice on the best way to add 3 new membership types?

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  • Javascript scope problem with object and setTimeout

    - by Shabbyrobe
    I'm trying to make a jQuery plugin that executes a method on a timer. I'd like it to work on multiple elements on a page independently. I've reached a point where the timer executes for each element, but the method called in the setTimeout seems to only know about the last instance of the plugin. I know I'm doing something fundamentally stupid here, but I'm danged if I know what. I know stuff like this has been asked 8 million times on here before, but I've not managed to find an answer that relates to my specific problem. Here's a script that demonstrates the structure of what I'm doing. <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="assets/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> var crap = 0; (function($) { jQuery.fn.pants = function(options) { var trousers = { id: null, current: 0, waitTimeMs: 1000, begin: function() { var d = new Date(); this.id = crap++; console.log(this.id); // do a bunch of stuff window.setTimeout(function(self) {return function() {self.next();}}(this), this.waitTimeMs); }, next: function() { this.current ++; console.log(this.id); window.setTimeout(function(self) {return function() {self.next();}}(this), this.waitTimeMs); }, }; options = options || {}; $.extend(trousers, options); this.each(function(index, element) { trousers.begin(); }); return this; }; } )(jQuery); jQuery(document).ready(function() { jQuery("div.wahey").pants(); }); </script> </head> <body> <div class="wahey"></div> <div class="wahey"></div> </body> </html> The output I get is this: 0 1 1 1 1 1 The output I expect to get is this: 0 1 0 1 0 1

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  • Help with manipulating child/parent elements with jQuery

    - by Mohammad
    Currently I have this JQuery script var img = $(this); img.wrap('<div class="photo"></div>'); img.parent().append("<p>" + img.attr("alt") + "</p>"); which successfully turns the following: <img src="photo.jpg" alt="caption"> into this <div class="photo"> <img src="photos.jpg" alt="caption"/> <p>caption</p> </div> All is well unless the image has a link as a parent; <a href="#"><img since I want it to be correct html (I'm fussy) improving the resulting outcome bellow would be satisfactory <a href="#"> <div class="photo"> <img src="photos.jpg" alt="caption"/> <p>caption</p> </div> </a> to this: <div class="photo"> <a href="#"> <img src="photos.jpg" alt="caption"/> </a> <p><a href="#">caption</a></p> </div> </a> This is my jQuery script so far (which doesn't work bc I'm a noob) aha if(img.parent('a')){ var targetLink = img.parent('a').attr('href').val(); img.parent('a').wrap('<div class="photo"></div>'); img.parent('div').append('<p><a href="'+targetLink+'">' + img.attr("alt") + '</p></a>'); }else{ img.wrap('<div class="photo"></div>'); img.parent().append("<p>" + img.attr("alt") + "</p>"); }; Any advice, or help will be greatly appreciated : ) Thank You! Update *Answer* (works but looks sloppy) I'm editing it atm; if(img.parent('a').length){ var targetLink = img.parent().attr('href'); img.parent().wrap('<div class="photo"></div>'); var divTarget = img.parent('a').parent('div'); divTarget.append('<p><a href="'+targetLink+'">' + img.attr("alt") + '</p></a>'); }else{ img.wrap('<div class="photo"></div>'); img.parent().append("<p>" + img.attr("alt") + "</p>"); };

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  • .NET and C# Exceptions. What is it reasonable to catch.

    - by djna
    Disclaimer, I'm from a Java background. I don't do much C#. There's a great deal of transfer between the two worlds, but of course there are differences and one is in the way Exceptions tend to be thought about. I recently answered a C# question suggesting that under some circstances it's reasonable to do this: try { some work } catch (Exeption e) { commonExceptionHandler(); } (The reasons why are immaterial). I got a response that I don't quite understand: until .NET 4.0, it's very bad to catch Exception. It means you catch various low-level fatal errors and so disguise bugs. It also means that in the event of some kind of corruption that triggers such an exception, any open finally blocks on the stack will be executed, so even if the callExceptionReporter fuunction tries to log and quit, it may not even get to that point (the finally blocks may throw again, or cause more corruption, or delete something important from the disk or database). May I'm more confused than I realise, but I don't agree with some of that. Please would other folks comment. I understand that there are many low level Exceptions we don't want to swallow. My commonExceptionHandler() function could reasonably rethrow those. This seems consistent with this answer to a related question. Which does say "Depending on your context it can be acceptable to use catch(...), providing the exception is re-thrown." So I conclude using catch (Exception ) is not always evil, silently swallowing certain exceptions is. The phrase "Until .NET 4 it is very bad to Catch Exception" What changes in .NET 4? IS this a reference to AggregateException, which may give us some new things to do with exceptions we catch, but I don't think changes the fundamental "don't swallow" rule. The next phrase really bothers be. Can this be right? It also means that in the event of some kind of corruption that triggers such an exception, any open finally blocks on the stack will be executed (the finally blocks may throw again, or cause more corruption, or delete something important from the disk or database) My understanding is that if some low level code had lowLevelMethod() { try { lowestLevelMethod(); } finally { some really important stuff } } and in my code I call lowLevel(); try { lowLevel() } catch (Exception e) { exception handling and maybe rethrowing } Whether or not I catch Exception this has no effect whatever on the excution of the finally block. By the time we leave lowLevelMethod() the finally has already run. If the finally is going to do any of the bad things, such as corrupt my disk, then it will do so. My catching the Exception made no difference. If It reaches my Exception block I need to do the right thing, but I can't be the cause of dmis-executing finallys

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  • appendTo() inside $.each in jquery seems to cause flicker....

    - by Pandiya Chendur
    appendTo() causes flicker when it is inside $.each.... $.each(jsob.Table, function(i, employee) { $('<div class="resultsdiv"><br /><span class="resultName">' + employee.Emp_Name + '</span><span class="resultfields" style="padding-left:100px;">Category&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.Desig_Name + '</span><br /><br /><span id="SalaryBasis" class="resultfields">Salary Basis&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.SalaryBasis + '</span><span class="resultfields" style="padding-left:25px;">Salary&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.FixedSalary + '</span><span style="font-size:110%;font-weight:bolder;padding-left:25px;">Address&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.Address + '</span></div>').appendTo('#ResultsDiv'); }); Right now i am appending every new div to #ResultsDiv inside$.each is it good/bad to do so... If it is bad What can be done to make my divs appendTo() after the loop so that i it wont flicker.... EDIT:(based on answer) var divs = ''; $.each(jsob.Table, function(i, employee) { divs += '<div class="resultsdiv"><br /><span class="resultName">' + employee.Emp_Name + '</span><span class="resultfields" style="padding-left:100px;">Category&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.Desig_Name + '</span><br /><br /><span id="SalaryBasis" class="resultfields">Salary Basis&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.SalaryBasis + '</span><span class="resultfields" style="padding-left:25px;">Salary&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.FixedSalary + '</span><span style="font-size:110%;font-weight:bolder;padding-left:25px;">Address&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.Address + '</span></div>'; }); $("#ResultsDiv").append(divs); But that too doesn't stop the flicker...

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  • Which network protocol to use for lightweight notification of remote apps?

    - by Chris Thornton
    I have this situation.... Client-initiated SOAP 1.1 communication between one server and let's say, tens of thousands of clients. Clients are external, coming in through our firewall, authenticated by certificate, https, etc.. They can be anywhere, and usually have their own firewalls, NAT routers, etc... They're truely external, not just remote corporate offices. They could be in a corporate/campus network, DSL/Cable, even Dialup. Client uses Delphi (2005 + SOAP fixes from 2007), and the server is C#, but from an architecture/design standpoint, that shouldn't matter. Currently, clients push new data to the server and pull new data from the server on 15-minute polling loop. The server currently does not push data - the client hits the "messagecount" method, to see if there is new data to pull. If 0, it sleeps for another 15 min and checks again. We're trying to get that down to 7 seconds. If this were an internal app, with one or just a few dozen clients, we'd write a cilent "listener" soap service, and would push data to it. But since they're external, sit behind their own firewalls, and sometimes private networks behind NAT routers, this is not practical. So we're left with polling on a much quicker loop. 10K clients, each checking their messagecount every 10 seconds, is going to be 1000/sec messages that will mostly just waste bandwidth, server, firewall, and authenticator resources. So I'm trying to design something better than what would amount to a self-inflicted DoS attack. I don't think it's practical to have the server send soap messages to the client (push) as this would require too much configuration at the client end. But I think there are alternatives that I don't know about. Such as: 1) Is there a way for the client to make a request for GetMessageCount() via Soap 1.1, and get the response, and then perhaps, "stay on the line" for perhaps 5-10 minutes to get additional responses in case new data arrives? i.e the server says "0", then a minute later in response to some SQL trigger (the server is C# on Sql Server, btw), knows that this client is still "on the line" and sends the updated message count of "5"? 2) Is there some other protocol that we could use to "ping" the client, using information gathered from their last GetMessageCount() request? 3) I don't even know. I guess I'm looking for some magic protocol where the client can send a GetMessageCount() request, which would include info for "oh by the way, in case the answer changes in the next hour, ping me at this address...". Also, I'm assuming that any of these "keep the line open" schemes would seriously impact the server sizing, as it would need to keep many thousands of connections open, simultaneously. That would likely impact the firewalls too, I think. Is there anything out there like that? Or am I pretty much stuck with polling? TIA, Chris

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