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  • For div to extend full height

    - by Shamil
    Hello, is there a method I can use for a div to extend to full height? I've got a sticky footer in it as well. Here's the web page: http://www.radonsystems.net. The middle bit I'm talking about is the white div, midcontent which has CSS values: .midcontent{ width:85%; margin:0 auto; padding:10px 20px; padding-top:0; background-color:#FFF; overflow:hidden; min-height:100%; max-width:968px; height:100%; } So yes, obviously height:100% didn't work. Additionally, ALL parent containers have height set. Here's the general structure <body> <div id="wrap"> <div id="main"> <div class="headout"> <div class="headimg"></div> </div> <div class="midcontainer"></div> </div> </div> <div id="footer"> <div class="footer"></div> </div>

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  • get_by_id method on Model classes in Google App Engine Datastore

    - by tarn
    I'm unable to workout how you can get objects from the Google App Engine Datastore using get_by_id. Here is the model from google.appengine.ext import db class Address(db.Model): description = db.StringProperty(multiline=True) latitude = db.FloatProperty() longitdue = db.FloatProperty() date = db.DateTimeProperty(auto_now_add=True) I can create them, put them, and retrieve them with gql. address = Address() address.description = self.request.get('name') address.latitude = float(self.request.get('latitude')) address.longitude = float(self.request.get('longitude')) address.put() A saved address has values for >> address.key() aglndWVzdGJvb2tyDQsSB0FkZHJlc3MYDQw >> address.key().id() 14 I can find them using the key from google.appengine.ext import db address = db.get('aglndWVzdGJvb2tyDQsSB0FkZHJlc3MYDQw') But can't find them by id >> from google.appengine.ext import db >> address = db.Model.get_by_id(14) The address is None, when I try >> Address.get_by_id(14) AttributeError: type object 'Address' has no attribute 'get_by_id' How can I find by id? EDIT: It turns out I'm an idiot and was trying find an Address Model in a function called Address. Thanks for your answers, I've marked Brandon as the correct answer as he got in first and demonstrated it should all work.

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  • how to put header authentication into a form using php?

    - by SkyWookie
    Hey guys, for the page I am doing needs a login authentication using Twitter (using tweetphp API). For test purposes I used this code below to do a successful login: if (!isset($_SERVER['PHP_AUTH_USER'])){ header('WWW-Authenticate: Basic realm="Enter your Twitter username and password:"'); header('HTTP/1.0 401 Unauthorized'); echo 'Please enter your Twitter username and password to view your followers.'; exit(); } $username = $_SERVER['PHP_AUTH_USER']; $password = $_SERVER['PHP_AUTH_PW']; The problem now is, I want to integrate it into a form, so far I have the following: <form action="logincheck.php" method="post" class="niceform" > <fieldset> <legend>Twitter Login:</legend> <dl> <dt><label for="email">Twitter Username:</label></dt> <dd><input type="text" name="username" id="username" size="32" maxlength="128" /></dd> </dl> <dl> <dt><label for="password">Password:</label></dt> <dd><input type="password" name="password" id="password" size="32" maxlength="32" /></dd> </dl> </fieldset> <fieldset class="action"> <input type="submit" name="submit" id="submit" value="Submit" /> I am sending it to logincheck.php, this is where I think I get stuck. I am not sure how to compare the form data with Twitter's login data. I was trying a similar if statement as I used in the first code (box that pops up before page loads), but I couldn't wrap my head around it. Thanks again guys!

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  • how to get this value on method post using asp.net mvc

    - by kumar
    I have a lable in the view <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl<CDC.ITT.Info.StudentBE>" %> <label for="FollowupDate"> Follow-up: <span><input type="text" id="exc-flwup" name="fdate" /></span> </label> $("input[id^='exc-flwup']").datepicker({ duration: '', showTime: true, constrainInput: true, stepMinutes: 30, stepHours: 1, altTimeField: '', time24h: true, minDate: 0 }); when I click on the input field I am getting popupcalender to select the date. My method post is <% using (Html.BeginForm("Update", "home", FormMethod.Post, new { @id = "exc-"})) { %> <%= Html.ValidationSummary(true)%> then Followupdate user is goign to select the perticular date he wants.. when this method post to the method.. public ActionResult Update(StudentBE e) { return View(); } this e should have the date value but I am not able to see the date selected there.. is there anything wrong I am doing here? thanks

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  • AddEvenLister fires off immediately after being attached

    - by Diego
    I want to know how to correctly add an Event Listener like onClick to a dynamic div. Here’s my snippet: var $menu = new Array(2); createDiv('yes'); function createDiv(title) { var $class = 'menuLink'; var $title = 'title'; for(var i=0; i<$menu.length;i++) { $title = 'title'; var newdiv = document.createElement('div'); newdiv.setAttribute('class', $class); newdiv.setAttribute('id', 'item'+i); newdiv.addEventListener('onclick', clickHandle(newdiv.id),false); if (title) { newdiv.innerHTML = $title; } else { newdiv.innerHTML = "No Title"; } document.getElementById('menu').appendChild(newdiv); showMenu(); } } function clickHandle(e) { if(e == 'item0') { alert('Link is' + ' ' + e); }else{ alert('Another Link'); } } Here's my problem, the snippet works fine, It creates my divs, adds id's values and all, but the event fires off as soon as the event is attached, so while the for loop is creating the divs the alert window says: Link is item0, and immediately after this it says: Another Link. Am I misunderstanding this? (I used this method zillions of times in AS3 with the expected result, just attached a function waiting for a click). What I want is that my Divs wait for the user to click on them, not to fire off immediately after of being attached. Thanks for any hint on this one. Greetings. Ps. IE doesn't support addEventListener, but I want to resolve this before cross to the IE sea of madness, but I will appreciate the IE approach as well. - I tried "onclick" and just 'click' into the addEventListener line, both with the same result described above.

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  • richfaces suggestionBox passing additional values to backing bean

    - by Martlark
    When using the rich faces suggestionBox how can you pass more than one id or value from the page with the text input to the suggestionBox backing bean. ie: to show a list of suggested cities within a selected state? Here is my autoComplete method. public List< Suburb > autocomplete(Object suggest) { String pref = (String) suggest; ArrayList< Suburb > result = new ArrayList< Suburb >(); Iterator< Suburb > iterator = getSuburbs().iterator(); while( iterator.hasNext() ) { Suburb elem = ((Suburb) iterator.next()); if( (elem.getName() != null && elem.getName().toLowerCase().indexOf( pref.toLowerCase() ) == 0) || "".equals( pref ) ) { result.add( elem ); } } return result; } As you can see there is one value passed from the page, Object suggest, which is the text of the h:inputText (in the faceLets m:textFormRow ) <m:textFormRow id="suburb" label="#{msgs.suburbPrompt}" property="#{bean[dto].addressDTO.suburb}" required="true" maxlength="100" size="30" /> <rich:suggestionbox height="200" width="200" usingSuggestObjects="true" suggestionAction="#{suburbsMBean.autocomplete}" var="suburb" for="suburb" fetchValue="#{suburb.name}" id="suggestion"> <h:column> <h:outputText value="#{suburb.name}" /> </h:column> </rich:suggestionbox> Earlier in the page you can select a state which I'd like to use to pare down the list of suburbs that the suggestion box displays.

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  • Passing Values to Controllers

    - by Dru
    I'm trying to allow users to 'favorite' links (that is, create a new Favorite record with their user_id and the link_id) This is what I have so far.. When I click favorite (as a user), the new record is assigned to the user_id but the link_id field is nil. How can I pass the link_id into my FavoritesController? My View Code Added Link Model Code class FavoritesController < ApplicationController def create @user = User.find(session[:user_id]) @favorite = @user.favorites.create :link_id => params[:id] redirect_to :back end end The Favorite model belongs to :user and :link Note: I've also tried this but when I click 'favorite', there's an error "Couldn't find Link without an ID." Update <%= link_to "Favorite", :controller => :favorites, :action => :create, :link_id => link.id %> with class FavoritesController < ApplicationController def create @user = User.find(session[:user_id]) @favorite = @user.favorites.create :link_id => :params[:link_id] redirect_to :back end end Returns "can't convert Symbol into Integer" app/controllers/favorites_controller.rb:4:in [] app/controllers/favorites_controller.rb:4:in create I've tried forcing it into an Integer several ways with .to_i

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  • Self referencing update SQL statement for Informix

    - by CheeseConQueso
    Need some Informix SQL... Courses get a regular grade, but their associated labs get a grade of 'LAB'. I need to update the table so that the lab grade matches the course grade. Also, if there is no corresponding course for a lab, it means the course was canceled. In that case, I want to place a flag value of 'X' for its grade. Example data before update: id yr sess crs_no hrs grd 725 2009 FA COLL101 3.000000000000 C 725 2009 FA ENGL021 3.000000000000 FI 725 2009 FA ENGL021L 1.000000000000 LAB 725 2009 FA ENGL031 3.000000000000 FNI 725 2009 FA ENGL031L 1.000000000000 LAB 725 2009 FA MATH010 3.000000000000 FNI 725 2010 SP AOTE101 3.000000000000 C 725 2010 SP ENGL021L 1.000000000000 LAB 725 2010 SP ENGL031 3.000000000000 FI 725 2010 SP ENGL031L 1.000000000000 LAB 725 2010 SP MATH010 3.000000000000 FNI 726 2010 SP SPAN101 3.000000000000 FN Example data after update: id yr sess crs_no hrs grd 725 2009 FA COLL101 3.000000000000 C 725 2009 FA ENGL021 3.000000000000 FI 725 2009 FA ENGL021L 1.000000000000 FI 725 2009 FA ENGL031 3.000000000000 FNI 725 2009 FA ENGL031L 1.000000000000 FNI 725 2009 FA MATH010 3.000000000000 FNI 725 2010 SP AOTE101 3.000000000000 C 725 2010 SP ENGL021L 1.000000000000 X 725 2010 SP ENGL031 3.000000000000 FI 725 2010 SP ENGL031L 1.000000000000 FI 725 2010 SP MATH010 3.000000000000 FNI 726 2010 SP SPAN101 3.000000000000 FN I worked out a solution for this, but it required a lot of on-the-fly composite foreign keys built from concatenating the id, yr, sess, and substring'd crs_no. My solution is not only overkill, but it has gaps in it and it takes too long to process. I know there is an easier way to do this, but I've gone so far down one road that I am having trouble thinking of a different approach.

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  • URL development and mod_rewrite

    - by iRector
    My site is made-up of the main page, and multiple sub-directories, all under the same domain. My URLS are currently like .................| Ideal clean version: mysite.com mysite.com/?content=content1 ......................| mysite.com/content1/ mysite.com/?content=content2&page=4 ........| mysite.com/content2/4/ mysite.com/?content=content3 ......................| mysite.com/content3/ mysite.com/?content=content4 ......................| mysite.com/content4/ mysite.com/?content=article&id=34 ............| mysite.com/article/34/ Then the sub-directories are essentially the same: mysite.com/subdir, mysite.com/subdir2, mysite.com/subdir3, etc mysite.com/subdir/?content=content1 ...................| mysite.com/subdir/content1/ mysite.com/subdir/?content=content2&page=4 .....| mysite.com/subdir/content2/4/ mysite.com/subdir/?content=content3 ...................| mysite.com/subdir/content3/ mysite.com/subdir/?content=content4 ...................| mysite.com/subdir/content4/ mysite.com/subdir/?content=article&id=34 .........| mysite.com/subdir/article/34/ I've used mod_rewrite briefly, but I'm not sure how to approach these multiple variables. Also, how would I differentiate between the actually subfolders, and the content variable. As so to prevent 'subdir' or 'subdir2' from being plugged in as the content variable for the root site. I've played around with plenty of code snippets, but I've wiped my .htaccess slate clean, and approach you all in an attempt to help me repopulate it. Your input would thoroughly be appreciated. Note: The only time the page query string will be needed is when 'content' == 'content2' ?content=content2&page=4 **Same rule is shared by the article/id relationship, all other 'content' values are expected to be dynamic.

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  • Hibernate does not allow an embedded object with an int field to be null?

    - by Jason Novak
    Hibernate does not allow me to persist an object that contains an null embedded object with an integer field. For example, if I have a class called Thing that looks like this @Entity public class Thing { @Id public String id; public Part part; } where Part is an embeddable class that looks like this @Embeddable public class Part { public String a; public int b; } then trying to persist a Thing object with a null Part causes Hibernate to throw an Exception. In particular, this code Thing th = new Thing(); th.id = "thing.1"; th.part = null; session.saveOrUpdate(th); causes Hibernate to throw this Exception org.hibernate.PropertyValueException: not-null property references a null or transient value: com.ace.moab.api.jobs.Thing.part My guess is that this is happening because Part is an embedded class and so Part.a and Part.b are simply columns in the Thing database table. Since the Thing.part is null Hibernate wants to set the Part.a and Part.b column values to null for the row for thing.1. However, Part.b is an integer and Hibernate will not allow integer columns in the database to be null. This is what causes the Exception, right? So I am looking for workarounds for this problem. I noticed making Part.b an Integer instead of an int seems to work, but for reasons I won't bore you with this is not a good option for us. Thanks!

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  • I have created a PHP script and I am lacking to extract the primary key, I have given flow below, pl

    - by Parth
    I am using MySQL DB, working for Joomla, My requirement is tracking the activity like insert/update/delete on any table and store it in another audit table using triggers, i.e. I am doing Auditing. DB's table structure: Few tables dont have any PK nor auto increment key Flow of my script is : I fetch out all table from DB. I check whether the table have any trigger or not. If yes then it moves to check nfor next table and so on. If it does'nt find any trigger then it creates the triggers for the table, such that, -it first checks if the table has any primary key or not(for inserting in Tracking audit table for every change made) if it has the primary key then it uses it further in creation of trigger. if it doesnt find any PK then it proceeds further in creating the trigger without inserting any id in audit table Now here, My problem is I need the PK every time so that I can record the id of any particular table in which the insert/update/delete is performed, so that further i can use this audit track table to replicate in production DB.. Now as I haave mentioned earlier that I am not available with PK/auto-incremented in some table, then what should I do get the particular id in which change is done? please guide me...GEEKS!!!

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  • is there a better way to write this frankenstein LINQ query that searches for values in a child tabl

    - by MRV
    I have a table of Users and a one to many UserSkills table. I need to be able to search for users based on skills. This query takes a list of desired skills and searches for users who have those skills. I want to sort the users based on the number of desired skills they posses. So if a users only has 1 of 3 desired skills he will be further down the list than the user who has 3 of 3 desired skills. I start with my comma separated list of skill IDs that are being searched for: List<short> searchedSkillsRaw = skills.Value.Split(',').Select(i => short.Parse(i)).ToList(); I then filter out only the types of users that are searchable: List<User> users = (from u in db.Users where u.Verified == true && u.Level > 0 && u.Type == 1 && (u.UserDetail.City == city.SelectedValue || u.UserDetail.City == null) select u).ToList(); and then comes the crazy part: var fUsers = from u in users select new { u.Id, u.FirstName, u.LastName, u.UserName, UserPhone = u.UserDetail.Phone, UserSkills = (from uskills in u.UserSkills join skillsJoin in configSkills on uskills.SkillId equals skillsJoin.ValueIdInt into tempSkills from skillsJoin in tempSkills.DefaultIfEmpty() where uskills.UserId == u.Id select new { SkillId = uskills.SkillId, SkillName = skillsJoin.Name, SkillNameFound = searchedSkillsRaw.Contains(uskills.SkillId) }), UserSkillsFound = (from uskills in u.UserSkills where uskills.UserId == u.Id && searchedSkillsRaw.Contains(uskills.SkillId) select uskills.UserId).Count() } into userResults where userResults.UserSkillsFound > 0 orderby userResults.UserSkillsFound descending select userResults; and this works! But it seems super bloated and inefficient to me. Especially the secondary part that counts the number of skills found. Thanks for any advice you can give. --r

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  • jquery show / hide div on click even in a slideshow?

    - by KnockKnockWhosThere
    Is it possible to combine a slideshow and show / hide div functionality? My html structure is below, and basically, I'm trying to get the tabs a links to open up the div with the corresponding class if a user clicks on it. If a user doesn't click on it, it should still just cycle through each image. So, if the images are rotating, and I click on <a class="t2"> then would open. The thing is, it's unknown how many divs / tabs there will be, but they'll always be named t{n}. <div id="tab-content"> <div class="t1">content</div> <div class="t2">lorem ipsum</div> <div class="t3">knock knock</div> </div> <div id="nav"> <div id="tabs"> <ul> <li class="t1"><a class="t1" href="#">tab 1</a></li> <li class="t2"><a class="t2" href="#">tab 2</a></li> <li class="t3"><a class="t3" href="#">tab 3</a></li> </ul> </div> </div>

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  • Why is FBJS dropping my 'onclick' attribute from this input element?

    - by Chris Barnhill
    When I include an 'onClick' attribute in setInnerXTHML() like this: var innerHtml = '<span>Build Track: Select a city where track building should begin'+ '<div id="action-end">'+ '<form>'+ '<input type="button" value="End Track Building" id="next-phase" onClick="moveTrainAuto();" />'+ '</form>'+ '</div></span>'; actionPrompt.setInnerXHTML(innerHtml); var btn = document.getElementById('next-phase'); btn.addEventListener('click', 'moveTrainAuto'); The 'onClick' gets dropped. I know this from inspecting the element with Firebug. This is what it reveals: <input id="app148184604666_next-phase" type="button" value="End Track Building"/> Here is the function called for onClick: function moveTrainAuto(evt) { debugger; ajax = new Ajax(); ajax.responseType = Ajax.JSON; ajax.ondone = function(data) { debugger; if(data.code == 'UNLOAD_CARGO') { unloadCargo(); } else if (data.code == 'MOVE_TRAIN_AUTO') { moveTrainAuto(); } else if (data.code == 'TURN_END') { turnEnd(); } else { /* handle error */ } } ajax.post(baseURL + '/turn/move-trains-auto'); } As you can see, I've tried both 'onClick' and 'addEventListener'. Neither works. Any ideas?

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  • JQuery Post caused permission denied warning in IE 6 and IE 7

    - by kwokwai
    Hi all, I am using firefox 3 and IE 6, 7 to test if a simple php web page using JQuery Post to pass some data to and from another server web page. $(document).ready(function(){ $("#data\\[User\\]\\[name\\]").click(function(){ var usr=$("#data\\[User\\]\\[name\\]").val(); if(usr.length >= 4){ $("#username").append('<span id="loaderimg" name="loaderimg"><img align="absmiddle" src="loader.gif"/> Checking data availability,&nbsp;please wait.</span>'); var url = "http://mysite.com/site1/toavail/"+usr; $.post( url, function(data) {alert(data);}); }); }); //--> </script> <table border=0 width="100%"> <tr> <td>Username</td> <td> <div id="username"> <input type="text" name="data[User][name]" id="data[User][name]"> </div> </td> </tr> </table> In Firefox 3, the alert box showed empty message. In IE 6 and IE 7, I got an error message saying "Permssion denied"

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  • Location of Embedly (JQuery-Preview) Results

    - by user749798
    Embedly/Jquery-Preview has been fantastic. However, I'm trying to change the location of the preview result, and having trouble. Right now, the result appears right below the input field...but I'd rather have it in a separate part of the page. Is there a way to do this? I've tried changing the location of the selector and loading divs, but that hasn't helped. It seems to ignore those divs and put it right below the submit button. Below is my code: <form accept-charset="UTF-8" action="private" class="new_comment" data-remote="true" id="new_comment" method="post"> <input class="photo_comm" id="comment_comment" name="comment[comment]" placeholder="add a comment or link..." size="30" type="text" /><span type="text" id="counter">1000</span> <input class="btn btn-primary btn-mini" data-disable-with="Submitting..." name="commit" type="submit" value="Post" /> </form> <!-- Placeholder that tells Preview where to put the loading icon--> <div class="loading"> <img src='http://embedly.github.com/jquery-preview/images/loading-rectangle.gif'> </div> <!-- Placeholder that tells Preview where to put the selector--> <div class="selector"></div> $('#comment_comment').preview({ key:'60f1dcdf3258476794784148a6eb65e7', // Sign up for a key: http://embed.ly/pricing selector : {type:'rich'}, preview : { submit : function(e, data){ e.preventDefault(); $.ajax({ dataType: 'script', url: this.form.attr('action'), type: 'POST', data: data }); }, }, autoplay : 0, maxwidth : 400, display : {display : 'rich'} });

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  • ASP.NET MVC - Wrong redirecting, how to debug?

    - by Xorty
    I am stuck with redirecting problem in ASP.NET MVC project. I have mapped tables via LINQtoSQL and each has unique ID as primary key. I am implementing functionallity of 'CREATE'. Basically, after new value is added into SQL table (which means I pressed Save button), I want to be redirected to Details of this freshly added item. Here's little code how I am doing it : [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post), Authorize] public ActionResult Create(Item item) { .... return RedirectToAction("Details", new { id = item.ItemID }); Trouble is, I am never redirected to Details view (I have Details.aspx view for items). When I check CallHierarchy in Visual Studio (2010 pro) the hierarchy is indeed little strange, like this : RedirectToAction(string,object) Calls To 'RedirectToAction' Create Calls To Create (no results) Calls From Create (methods of created instance. From there I'll get back to 'RedirectToAction' and to 'Calls to Create' and 'Calls From Create' etc. etc. - loop Edit Calls From 'RedirectToAction' Not supported I am looking for some tools or more specifically 'know how' (since VS probably has some tools) to debug this kind of situations. PS: rooting is default :"{controller}/{action}/{id}", Thanks

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  • how to assign the html value to the php variable without post or get method

    - by Meena
    hi , in my program i had a php value $test = 2 using this value i done some operation for example: in my page i had a 2 block A and B and one select box. If the test value is A it enable the div A, if the value is B it hide div A and also i am able to show and hide the div using the select box onchange event. please check my sample code given below $test = $_GET["id"]; <select name="hideme" id="hideme" onchange="enableme();"> <option value="A">Show</option> <option value="B">Hide</option> </select> if($test == 'A') { <div id="div1" name="div1"> xxxxxxxxxxxxx </div> } Js Function : function enableme() { if(document.getElementByID('hideme').value == "A") { document.getElementById.style.display ="block"; } else { document.getElementById.style.display ="none"; } } my issue is at fist time using the $test($_get) value it show the correct div but the on change event is not working because of , if condition. If i remove the if condition then it show div A even if the value of the $test is B. how could i handle both. Please Help me

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  • Dismiss a custom dialog?

    - by YaW
    Hi, I'm trying to make a custom dialog to show a view in this dialog. This is the Builder code: //Getting the layout LayoutInflater inflater = (LayoutInflater) getSystemService(LAYOUT_INFLATER_SERVICE); View layout = inflater.inflate(R.layout.custom_dialog_simple, (ViewGroup) findViewById(R.id.rlDialogSimple)); //Change Text and on click TextView tvDialogSimple = (TextView) layout.findViewById(R.id.tvDialogSimple); tvDialogSimple.setText(R.string.avisoComprobar); Button btDialogSimple = (Button) layout.findViewById(R.id.btDialogSimple); btDialogSimple.setOnClickListener(new OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View v) { //Do some stuff //Here i want to close the dialog } }); AlertDialog.Builder builder = new AlertDialog.Builder(AcPanelEditor.this); builder.setView(layout); AlertDialog alert = builder.create(); alert.show(); So, i want to dismiss the dialog in the onClick of btDialogSimple. How i can do it? I don't know how to call the dismiss method from inside a onclicklistener. My buttons have a custom layout, so i don't want to make a builder.setPositiveButton. Any ideas?

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  • Not loading associations without proxies in NHibernate

    - by Alice
    I don't like the idea of proxy and lazy loading. I don't need that. I want pure POCO. And I want to control loading associations explicitly when I need. Here is entity public class Post { public long Id { get; set; } public long OwnerId { get; set; } public string Content { get; set; } public User Owner { get; set; } } and mapping <class name="Post"> <id name="Id" /> <property name="OwnerId" /> <property name="Content" /> <many-to-one name="Owner" column="OwnerId" /> </class> However if I specify lazy="false" in the mapping, Owner is always eagerly fetched. I can't remove many-to-one mapping because that also disables explicit loading or a query like from x in session.Query<Comment>() where x.Owner.Title == "hello" select x; I specified lazy="true" and set use_proxy_validator property to false. But that also eager loads Owner. Is there any way to load only Post entity?

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  • How to provide an inline model field with a queryset choices without losing field value for inline r

    - by Judith Boonstra
    The code displayed below is providing the choices I need for the app field, and the choices I need for the attr field when using Admin. I am having a problem with the attr field on the inline form for already saved records. The attr selected for these saved does show in small print above the field, but not within the field itself. # MODELS: Class Vocab(models.Model): entity = models.Charfield, max_length = 40, unique = True) Class App(models.Model): name = models.ForeignKey(Vocab, related_name = 'vocab_appname', unique = True) app = SelfForeignKey('self, verbose_name = 'parent', blank = True, null = True) attr = models.ManyToManyField(Vocab, related_name = 'vocab_appattr', through ='AppAttr' def parqs(self): a method that provides a queryset consisting of available apps from vocab, excluding self and any apps within the current app's dependent line. def attrqs(self): a method that provides a queryset consisting of available attr from vocab excluding those already selected by current app, 2) those already selected by any apps within the current app's parent line, and 3) those selected by any apps within the current app's dependent line. Class AppAttr(models.Model): app = models.ForeignKey(App) attr = models.ForeignKey(Vocab) # FORMS: from models import AppAttr def appattr_form_callback(instance, field, *args, **kwargs) if field.name = 'attr': if instance: return field.formfield(queryset = instance.attrqs(), *kwargs) return field.formfield(*kwargs) # ADMIN: necessary imports class AppAttrInline(admin.TabularInline): model = AppAttr def get_formset(self, request, obj = None, **kwargs): kwargs['formfield_callback'] = curry(appattr_form_callback, obj) return super(AppAttrInline, self).get_formset(request, obj, **kwargs) class AppForm(forms.ModelForm): class Meta: model = App def __init__(self, *args, **kwargs): super(AppForm, self).__init__(*args, **kwargs) if self.instance.id is None: working = App.objects.all() else: thisrec = App.objects.get(id = self.instance.id) working = thisrec.parqs() self.fields['par'].queryset = working class AppAdmin(admin.ModelAdmin): form = AppForm inlines = [AppAttrInline,] fieldsets = .......... necessary register statements

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  • ASP.NET MVC Form repopulation

    - by ListenToRick
    I have a controller with two actions: [AcceptVerbs("GET")] public ActionResult Add() { PrepareViewDataForAddAction(); return View(); } [AcceptVerbs("POST")] public ActionResult Add([GigBinderAttribute]Gig gig, FormCollection formCollection) { if (ViewData.ModelState.IsValid) { GigManager.Save(gig); return RedirectToAction("Index", gig.ID); } PrepareViewDataForAddAction(); return View(gig); } As you can see, when the form posts its data, the Add action uses a GigBinder (An implemenation of IModelBinder) In this binder I have: if (int.TryParse(bindingContext.HttpContext.Request.Form["StartDate.Hour"], out hour)) { gig.StartDate.Hour = hour; } else { bindingContext.ModelState.AddModelError("Doors", "You need to tell us when the doors open"); } The form contains a text box with id "StartDate.Hour". As you can see above, the GigBinder tests to see that the user has typed in an integer into the textbox with id "StartDate.Hour". If not, a model error is added to the modelstate using AddModelError. Since the gigs property gigs.StartDate.Hour is strongly typed, I cannot set its value to, for example, "TEST" if the user has typed this into the forms textbox. Hence, I cant set the value of gigs.StartDate.Hour since the user has entered a string rather than an integer. Since the Add Action returns the view and passes the model (return View(gig);) if the modelstate is invalid, when the form is re-displayed with validation mssages, the value "TEST" is not displayed in the textbox. Instead, it will be the default value of gig.StartDate.Hour. How do I get round this problem? I really stuck!

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  • jQuery arrays - newbie needs a kick start

    - by Jonny Wood
    I've only really started using this site and alredy I am very impressed by the community here! This is my third question in less than three days. Hopefully I'll be able to start answering questions soon instead of just asking them! I'm fairly new to jQuery and can't find a decent tutorial on Arrays. I'd like to be able to create an array that targets several ID's on my page and performs the same effect for each. For example I have tabs set up with the following: $('.tabs div.tab').hide(); $('.tabs div:first').show(); $('.tabs ul li:first a').addClass('current'); $('.tabs ul li a').click(function(){ $('.tabs ul li a').removeClass('current'); $(this).addClass('current'); var currentTab = $(this).attr('href'); $('.tabs div.tab').hide(); $(currentTab).show(); return false; }); I've used the class .tag to target the tabs as there are several sets on the same page, but I've heard jQuery works much faster when targetting ID's How would I add an array to the above code to target 4 different ID's? I've looked at var myArray = new Array('#id1', 'id2', 'id3', 'id4'); And also var myValues = [ '#id1', 'id2', 'id3', 'id4' ]; Which is correct and how do I then use the array in the code for my tabs...?

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  • JAX-RS --- How to return JSON and HTTP Status code together?

    - by masato-san
    I'm writing REST web app (Netbean6.9, JAX-RS, Toplink-essential) and trying to return JSON and Http status code. I have code ready and working just to return JSON when HTTP GET Method is called from client. Code snippet @Path("get/id") @GET @Produces("application/json") public M_?? getMachineToUpdate(@PathParam("id") String id) { //some code to return JSON . . return myJson But I also want to return HTTP status code (500, 200, 204 etc) along with returning JSON. I tried using HttpServletResponse object, response.sendError("error message", 500); But this made browser to think it's real 500 so output web page was regular Http 500 error page. What I want to is just to return status code so that my Javascript on client side can handle some logic depending on what HTTP status code is returned. (maybe just to display the error code and message on html page.) Is it possible to do so? or should HTTP status code not be used for such thing?

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  • Why does this asp.net mvc unit test fail?

    - by Brian McCord
    I have this unit test: [TestMethod] public void Delete_Post_Passes_With_State_4() { //Arrange ViewResult result = stateController.Delete( 4 ) as ViewResult; var model = (State)result.ViewData.Model; //Act RedirectToRouteResult redirectResult = stateController.Delete( model ) as RedirectToRouteResult; var newresult = stateController.Delete( 4 ) as ViewResult; var newmodel = (State)newresult.ViewData.Model; //Assert Assert.AreEqual( redirectResult.RouteValues["action"], "Index" ); Assert.IsNull( newmodel ); } Here are the two controller actions that handle deleting: // // GET: /State/Delete/5 public ActionResult Delete(int id) { var x = _stateService.GetById( id ); return View(x); } // // POST: /State/Delete/5 [HttpPost] public ActionResult Delete(State model) { try { if( model == null ) { return View( model ); } _stateService.Delete( model ); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } catch { return View( model ); } } What I can't figure out is why this test fails. I have verified that the record actually gets deleted from the list. If I set a break point in the Delete method on the line: var x = _stateService.GetById( id ); The GetById does indeed return a null just as it should, but when it gets back to the newresult variable in the test, the ViewData.Model is the deleted model. What am I doing wrong?

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