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  • Passing in a lambda to a Where statement

    - by sonicblis
    I noticed today that if I do this: var items = context.items.Where(i => i.Property < 2); items = items.Where(i => i.Property > 4); Once I access the items var, it executes only the first line as the data call and then does the second call in memory. However, if I do this: var items = context.items.Where(i => i.Property < 2).Where(i => i.Property > 4); I get only one expression executed against the context that includes both where statements. I have a host of variables that I want to use to build the expression for the linq lambda, but their presence or absence changes the expression such that I'd have to have a rediculous number of conditionals to satisfy all cases. I thought I could just add the Where() statements as in my first example above, but that doesn't end up in a single expression that contains all of the criteria. Therefore, I'm trying to create just the lambda itself as such: //bogus syntax if (var1 == "something") var expression = Expression<Func<item, bool>>(i => i.Property == "Something); if (var2 == "somethingElse") expression = expression.Where(i => i.Property2 == "SomethingElse"); And then pass that in to the where of my context.Items to evaluate. A) is this right, and B) if so, how do you do it?

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  • Java equivalent of the VB Request.InputStream

    - by Android Addict
    I have a web service that I am re-writing from VB to a Java servlet. In the web service, I want to extract the body entity set on the client-side as such: StringEntity stringEntity = new StringEntity(xml, HTTP.UTF_8); stringEntity.setContentType("application/xml"); httppost.setEntity(stringEntity); In the VB web service, I get this data by using: Dim objReader As System.IO.StreamReader objReader = New System.IO.StreamReader(Request.InputStream) Dim strXML As String = objReader.ReadToEnd and this works great. But I am looking for the equivalent in Java. I have tried this: ServletInputStream dataStream = req.getInputStream(); byte[] data = new byte[dataStream.toString().length()]; dataStream.read(data); but all it gets me is an unintelligible string: data = [B@68514fec Please advise. Edit Per the answers, I have tried: ServletInputStream dataStream = req.getInputStream(); ByteArrayOutputStream buffer = new ByteArrayOutputStream(); int r; byte[] data = new byte[1024*1024]; while ((r = dataStream.read(data, 0, data.length)) != -1) { buffer.write(data, 0, r); } buffer.flush(); byte[] data2 = buffer.toByteArray(); System.out.println("DATA = "+Arrays.toString(data2)); whichs yields: DATA = [] and when I try: System.out.println("DATA = "+data2.toString()); I get: DATA = [B@15282c7f So what am I doing wrong? As stated earlier, the same call to my VB service gives me the xml that I pass in.

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  • How to use google maps API with multiple markers on the same map

    - by Maen
    So, i have the following script to use the google maps API, its all fine, but i need to create a map that has more than one Marker (the balloon shaped icon pointing to something) and i need each of those markers to point on a different area of the map (i.e. different coordinates), how can i do it? <script type="text/javascript"> function load() { var map = new GMap2(document.getElementById("map")); var marker = new GMarker(new GLatLng(<%=coordinates%>)); var html="<img src='simplemap_logo.jpg' width='20' height='20'/> " + "<%=maptitle%><br/>" + "<%=text%>"; map.setCenter(new GLatLng(<%=coordinates%>), <%=zoom%>) map.setMapType(G_HYBRID_MAP); map.addOverlay(marker); map.addControl(new GLargeMapControl()); map.addControl(new GScaleControl()); map.addControl(new GMapTypeControl()); marker.openInfoWindowHtml(html); } //]]> </script> One more question, if i pass the Script text as a variable, lets say something like: <script type="text/javascript"> <%=ScriptText%> </script> and my <%=ScriptText% will be a string which i will build and assign its value to a Friend or Public variable called ScriptText, will it still run and work properly? (i am doing this to make my script dynamic and different based on how i build it as a STRING, due to my illiteracy in javascripting ;P)

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  • How To Share Information Between Django and Javascript?

    - by Randy
    So I am pretty new to both Django and Javascript (I am using JQuery) and I am wondering if I am doing a hack or if there are more slick ways to send client-side displayed database ids to the django server-side. Here is my process: I have a dataTable (http://datatables.net) that I am displaying rows of data by using the bProcessing option to use AJAX to retrieve records from the database. The URL in my urls.py is something like: url(r'^assets/activitylog/(?P<cid>.*)$', views.getActivityTable_ajax, name="activitylog_table"), and my dataTable ajax-relavant code is something like: "sAjaxSource": "/assets/activitylog/" + getIDFromHTML(), where the javascript function getIDFromHTML() grabs <cid> that is used by the Django view is simply: function getIDFromHTML(){ // Simply return the text in the #release_id div element from the HTML return $("#release_id").html(); }; This is the part that seems "hacky" to me. I am inserting into my template code the database id that I am using in the datatables URL (with display:none in the css) just so I can pass it back to the view. Most of this is necessitated because one cannot use django template tags in the javascript code unless the code is embedded into the HTML itself, which I am not (and will not) do. The only other thing that I have found is to change the URL to get rid of the parameter passed in to: url(r'^assets/activitylog', views.getActivityTable_ajax, name="activitylog_table"), and change the view code to: def getActivityTable_ajax(request): """Returns the activity for a given pid from HTTP GET ajax reqest""" pid = int(urlparse.urlparse(request.META['HTTP_REFERER']).path.split('/')[-1]) # rest of view code here... since the id that I need is on the end of this referer url. This way I don't have to monkey around with embedding the hidden database id into the HTML and passing it back to via ajax the the table population view code. Is it okay to use HTTP_REFERER in the request object in this manner? Am I going about this in the totally wrong way? Thanks in advance!

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  • Generating a field setter and getter with ASM

    - by ng
    I would like to avoid reflection in an open source project I am developing. Here I have classes like the following. public class PurchaseOrder { @Property private Customer customer; @Property private String name; } I scan for the @Property annotation to determine what I can set and get from the PurchaseOrder reflectively. There are many such classes all using java.lang.reflect.Field.get() and java.lang.reflect.Field.set(). Ideally I would like to generate for each property an invoker like the following. public interface PropertyAccessor<S, V> { public void set(S source, V value); public V get(S source); } Now when I scan the class I can create a static inner class of PurchaseOrder like so. static class customer_Field implements PropertyAccessor<PurchaseOrder, Customer> { public void set(PurchaseOrder order, Customer customer) { order.customer = customer; } public Customer get(PurchaseOrder order) { return order.customer; } } With these I totally avoid the cost of reflection. I can now set and get from my instances with native performance. Can anyone tell me how I would do this. A code example would be great. I have searched the net for a good example but can find nothing like this. The ASM examples are pretty poor also. The key here is that I have an interface that I can pass around. So I can have various implementations, perhaps one with Java Reflection as a default, one with ASM, and maybe one with Javassist? Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Get index of nth occurrence of char in a string

    - by StickFigs
    I'm trying to make a function that returns the index of the Nth occurrence of a given char in a string. Here is my attempt: private int IndexOfNth(string str, char c, int n) { int index = str.IndexOf(c) + 1; if (index >= 0) { string temp = str.Substring(index, str.Length - index); for (int j = 1; j < n; j++) { index = temp.IndexOf(c) + 1; if (index < 0) { return -1; } temp = temp.Substring(index, temp.Length - index); } index = index + (str.Length); } return index; } This should find the first occurrence, chop off that front part of the string, find the first occurrence from the new substring, and on and on until it gets the index of the nth occurrence. However I failed to consider how the index of the final substring is going to be offset from the original actual index in the original string. How do I make this work? Also as a side question, if I want the char to be the tab character do I pass this function '\t' or what?

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  • Passing variables to a Custom Zend Form Element

    - by user322003
    Hi, I'm trying to create a custom form element which extends Zend_Form_Element_Text with a validator (so I don't have to keep setting up the validator when I use certain elements). Anyway, I'm having trouble passing $maxChars variable to it when I instantiate it in my Main form. I've provided my shortened code below This is my custom element below class My_Form_Custom_Element extends Zend_Form_Element_Text { public $maxChars public function init() { $this->addValidator('StringLength', true, array(0, $this->maxChars)) } public function setProperties($maxChars) { $this->maxChars= $maxChars; } } This is where I instantiate my custom form element. class My_Form_Abc extends Zend_Form { public function __construct($options = null) { parent::__construct($options); $this->setName('abc'); $customElement = new My_Form_Custom_Element('myCustomElement'); $customElement->setProperties(100); //**<----This is where i set the $maxChars** $submit = new Zend_Form_Element_Submit('submit'); $submit -> setAttrib('id', 'submitbutton'); $this->addElements(array($customElement ,$submit)); } } When I try to pass '100' using $customElement-setProperties(100) in my Form, it doesnt get passed properly to my StringLength validator. I assume it's because the validator is getting called in Init? How can I fix this?

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  • C# delegate or Func for 'all methods'?

    - by Michel
    Hi, i've read something about Func's and delegates and that they can help you to pass a method as a parameter. Now i have a cachingservice, and it has this declaration: public static void AddToCache<T>(T model, double millisecs, string cacheId) where T : class public static T GetFromCache<T>(string cacheId) where T : class So in a place where i want to cache some data, i check if it exists in the cache (with GetFromCache) and if not, get the data from somewhere, and the add it to the cache (with AddToCache) Now i want to extend the AddToCache method with a parameter, which is the class+method to call to get the data Then the declaration would be like this public static void AddToCache<T>(T model, double millisecs, string cacheId, Func/Delegate methode) where T : class Then this method could check wether the cache has data or not, and if not, get the data itself via the method it got provided. Then in the calling code i could say: AddToCache<Person>(p, 10000, "Person", new PersonService().GetPersonById(1)); AddToCache<Advert>(a, 100000, "Advert", new AdvertService().GetAdverts(3)); What i want to achieve is that the 'if cache is empty get data and add to cache' logic is placed on only one place. I hope this makes sense :) Oh, by the way, the question is: is this possible?

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  • jQuery carousel clicks update <select> list's "selected" option to match clicked item's title attrib

    - by Scott B
    The code below allows me to change a preview image outside the carousel widget so that it matches the element under the mouse. For example, if the user mouses over image2's thumbnail, the script updates .selectedImage so that it displays image2's full size version. I'd like to enhance it so that the #myThumbs options listing updates its "selected" option to match the carousel image that receives a click. Mouseover changes the preview image and click changes the select list to match the same name. The items in the carousel will have the same title attribute as the items in the select list, so I would expect that I can pass that value from the carousel to the select list. $(function() { $("#carousel").jCarouselLite({ btnNext: ".next", btnPrev: ".prev", visible: 6, mouseWheel: true, speed: 700 }); $('#carousel').show(); $('#carousel ul li').hover(function(e) { var img_src = $(this).children('img').attr('src'); $('.selectedImage img').attr('src',img_src); } ,function() { $('.selectedImage img').attr('src', '<?php echo $selectedThumb; ?>');}); }); <select id="myThumbs"> <option>image1</option> <option selected="selected">image2</option> <option>image3</option> </select>

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  • How do I run a VBScript in 32-bit mode on a 64-bit machine?

    - by Peter
    I have a text file that ends with .vbs that I have written the following in: Set Conn = CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") Conn.Provider = "Microsoft.ACE.OLEDB.12.0" Conn.Properties("Data Source") = "C:\dummy.accdb" Conn.Properties("Jet OLEDB:Database Password") = "pass" Conn.Open Conn.Close Set Conn = Nothing When I execute this on a Windows 32-bit machine it runs and ends without any notion (expected). When I execute this on a Windows 64-bit machine it gets the error "Provider cannot be found. It may not be properly installed.". But it is installed. I think the root of the problem is that the provider is a 32-bit provider, as far as I know it doesn't exist as 64-bit. If I run the VBScript through IIS on my 64-bit machine (as a ASP file) I can select that it should run in 32-bit mode. It can then find the provider. How can I make it find the provider on Windows 64-bit? Can I tell CScript (which executes the .vbs text file) to run in 32-bit mode somehow?

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  • The Implications of Modern Day Software Development Abstractions

    - by Andreas Grech
    I am currently doing a dissertation about the implications or dangers that today's software development practices or teachings may have on the long term effects of programming. Just to make it clear: I am not attacking the use abstractions in programming. Every programmer knows that abstractions are the bases for modularity. What I want to investigate with this dissertation are the positive and negative effects abstractions can have in software development. As regards the positive, I am sure that I can find many sources that can confirm this. But what about the negative effects of abstractions? Do you have any stories to share that talk about when certain abstractions failed on you? The main concern is that many programmers today are programming against abstractions without having the faintest idea of what the abstraction is doing under-the-covers. This may very well lead to bugs and bad design. So, in you're opinion, how important is it that programmers actually know what is going below the abstractions? Taking a simple example from Joel's Back to Basics, C's strcat: void strcat( char* dest, char* src ) { while (*dest) dest++; while (*dest++ = *src++); } The above function hosts the issue that if you are doing string concatenation, the function is always starting from the beginning of the dest pointer to find the null terminator character, whereas if you write the function as follows, you will return a pointer to where the concatenated string is, which in turn allows you to pass this new pointer to the concatenation function as the *dest parameter: char* mystrcat( char* dest, char* src ) { while (*dest) dest++; while (*dest++ = *src++); return --dest; } Now this is obviously a very simple as regards abstractions, but it is the same concept I shall be investigating. Finally, what do you think about the issue that schools are preferring to teach Java instead of C and Lisp ? Can you please give your opinions and your says as regards this subject? Thank you for your time and I appreciate every comment.

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  • Advice on whether to use native C++ DLL or not: PINVOKE & Marshaling ?

    - by Bob
    What's the best way to do this....? I have some Native C++ code that uses a lot of Win32 calls together with byte buffers (allocated using HeapAlloc). I'd like to extend the code and make a C# GUI...and maybe later use a basic Win32 GUI (for use where there is no .Net and limited MFC support). (A) I could just re-write the code in C# and use multiple PINVOKEs....but even with the PINVOKES in a separate class, the code looks messy with all the marshaling. I'm also re-writing a lot of code. (B) I could create a native C++ DLL and use PINVOKE to marshal in the native data structures. I'm assuming I can include the native C++ DLL/LIB in a project using C#? (C) Create a mixed mode DLL (Native C++ class plus managed ref class). I'm assuming that this would make it easier to use the managed ref class in C#......but is this the case? Will the managed class handle all the marshaling? Can I use this mixed mode DLL on a platform with no .Net (i.e. still access the native C++ unmanaged component) or do I limit myself to .Net only platforms. One thing that bothers me about each of these options is all the marshalling. Is it better to create a managed data structure (array, string etc.) and pass that to the native C++ class, or, the other way around? Any ideas on what would be considered best practice...?

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  • Generic callbacks

    - by bobobobo
    Extends So, I'm trying to learn template metaprogramming better and I figure this is a good exercise for it. I'm trying to write code that can callback a function with any number of arguments I like passed to it. // First function to call int add( int x, int y ) ; // Second function to call double square( double x ) ; // Third func to call void go() ; The callback creation code should look like: // Write a callback object that // will be executed after 42ms for "add" Callback<int, int, int> c1 ; c1.func = add ; c1.args.push_back( 2 ); // these are the 2 args c1.args.push_back( 5 ); // to pass to the "add" function // when it is called Callback<double, double> c2 ; c2.func = square ; c2.args.push_back( 52.2 ) ; What I'm thinking is, using template metaprogramming I want to be able to declare callbacks like, write a struct like this (please keep in mind this is VERY PSEUDOcode) <TEMPLATING ACTION <<ANY NUMBER OF TYPES GO HERE>> > struct Callback { double execTime ; // when to execute TYPE1 (*func)( TYPE2 a, TYPE3 b ) ; void* argList ; // a stored list of arguments // to plug in when it is time to call __func__ } ; So for when called with Callback<int, int, int> c1 ; You would automatically get constructed for you by < HARDCORE TEMPLATING ACTION > a struct like struct Callback { double execTime ; // when to execute int (*func)( int a, int b ) ; void* argList ; // this would still be void*, // but I somehow need to remember // the types of the args.. } ; Any pointers in the right direction to get started on writing this?

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  • Problem in printing array of char pointer passing from Python

    - by Yan Cheng CHEOK
    My following C code works quite well, till my Python code trying to pass an array of char pointer to it. The output I obtain is The file_name is python-file Another 3 string is not being printed out. Anything I had missed out? C Code #include <iostream> #include "c_interface.h" int foo(const char* file_name, const char** names) { std::cout << "The file_name is " << file_name << std::endl; while (*names) { std::cout << "The name is " << *names << std::endl; names++; } return 0; } /* int main() { const char *c[] = {"123gh", "456443432", "789", 0}; foo("hello", c); getchar(); } */ Python Code #!c:/Python27/python.exe -u from ctypes import * name0 = "NAME0" name1 = "NAME1" name2 = "NAME2" names = ((c_char_p * 1024) * 4)() names[0].value = name0 names[1].value = name1 names[2].value = name2 names[3].value = 0 libc = CDLL("foo.dll") libc.foo("python-file", names)

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  • Zend Form - how do I create these custom form elements?

    - by Jeremy Hicks
    This is a very specific instance where I'm having difficulty getting Zend Form to produce the correct output and supply the correct validation. I may have to go create a composite element but thought I'd ask here first. Here is the HTML I'm trying to get Zend Form to produce. I'd like this to be able to work where if the validation doesn't pass that the error messages still show up inline with the field that produced the error. <tr> <td>Budget</td> <td> <input type="radio" name="budget" value="unlimited" /> unlimited <br /> <input type="radio" name="budget" value="limited" /> $ <input type="text" name="budget_amount" /> every <select name="budget_period"> <option value="day">day</option> <option value="week">week</option> <option value="month">month</option> <option value="year">year</option> </select> </td> </tr> <tr> <td></td> <td><input type="checkbox" name="include_weekends" value="yes" /> include weekends?</td> </tr> The user can choose either unlimited or limited for the budget value, however, if they choose limited, then they are required to enter a value for the budget amount field and choose a value from the select for the budget period field.

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  • How to properly set relationships in Core Data when using setValue and data already exists

    - by ern
    Let's say I have two objects: Articles and Categories. For the sake of this example all relevant categories have already been added to the data store. When looping through data that holds edits for articles, there is category relationship information that needs to be saved. I was planning on using the -setValue method in the Article class in order to set the relationships like so: - (void)setValue:(id)value forUndefinedKey:(NSString *)key { if([key isEqualToString:@"categories"]){ NSLog(@"trying to set categories..."); } } The problem is that value isn't a Category, it is just a string (or array of strings) holding the title of a category. I could certainly do a lookup within this method for each category and assign it, but that seems inefficient when processing a whole bunch of articles at once. Another option is to populate an array of all possible categories and just filter, but my question is where to store that array? Should it be a class method on Article? Is there a way to pass in additional data to the -setValue method? Is there another, better option for setting the relationship I'm not thinking of? Thanks for your help.

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  • How to redirect a URL with GET variables in routes.rb without Rails stripping out the variable first?

    - by Michael Hopkins
    I am building a website in Rails to replace an existing website. In routes.rb I am trying to redirect some of the old URLs to their new equivalents (some of the URL slugs are changing so a dynamic solution is not possible.) My routes.rb looks like this: match "/index.php?page=contact-us" => redirect("/contact-us") match "/index.php?page=about-us" => redirect("/about-us") match "/index.php?page=committees" => redirect("/teams") When I visit /index.php?page=contact-us I am not redirected to /contact-us. I have determined this is because Rails is removing the get variables and only trying to match /index.php. For example, If I pass /index.php?page=contact-us into the below routes I will be redirected to /foobar: match "/index.php?page=contact-us" => redirect("/contact-us") match "/index.php?page=about-us" => redirect("/about-us") match "/index.php?page=committees" => redirect("/teams") match "/index.php" => redirect("/foobar") How can I keep the GET variables in the string and redirect the old URLs the way I'd like? Does Rails have an intended mechanism for this?

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  • Is there a supplementary guide/answer key for ruby koans?

    - by corroded
    I have recently tried sharpening my rails skills with this tool: http://github.com/edgecase/ruby_koans but I am having trouble passing some tests. Also I am not sure if I'm doing some things correctly since the objective is just to pass the test, there are a lot of ways in passing it and I may be doing something that isn't up to standards. Is there a way to confirm if I'm doing things right? a specific example: in about_nil, def test_nil_is_an_object assert_equal __, nil.is_a?(Object), "Unlike NULL in other languages" end so is it telling me to check if that second clause is equal to an object(so i can say nil is an object) or just put assert_equal true, nil.is_a?(Object) because the statement is true? and the next test: def test_you_dont_get_null_pointer_errors_when_calling_methods_on_nil # What happens when you call a method that doesn't exist. The # following begin/rescue/end code block captures the exception and # make some assertions about it. begin nil.some_method_nil_doesnt_know_about rescue Exception => ex # What exception has been caught? assert_equal __, ex.class # What message was attached to the exception? # (HINT: replace __ with part of the error message.) assert_match(/__/, ex.message) end end Im guessing I should put a "No method error" string in the assert_match, but what about the assert_equal?

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  • How can i use a commandlinetool (ie. sox) via subprocess.Popen with mod_wsgi?

    - by marue
    I have a custom django filefield that makes use of sox, a commandline audiotool. This works pretty well as long as i use the django development server. But as soon as i switch to the production server, using apache2 and mod_wsgi, mod_wsgi catches every output to stdout. This makes it impossible to use the commandline tool to evaluate the file, for example use it to check if the uploaded file really is an audio file like this: filetype=subprocess.Popen([sox,'--i','-t','%s'%self.path], shell=False,\ stdout=subprocess.PIPE, stderr=subprocess.PIPE) (filetype,error)=filetype.communicate() if error: raise EnvironmentError((1,'AudioFile error while determining audioformat: %s'%error)) Is there a way to workaround for this? edit the error i get is "missing filename". I am using mod_wsgi 2.5, standard with ubuntu 8.04. edit2 What exactly happens, when i call subprocess.Popen from within django in mod_wsgi? Shouldn't subprocess stdin/stdout be independent from django stdin/stdout? In that case mod_wsgi should not affect programms called via subprocess... I'm really confused right now, because the file i am trying to access is a temporary file, created via a filenamevariable that i pass to the file creation and the subprocess command. That file is being written to /tmp, where the rights are 777, so it can't be a rights issue. And the error message is not "file does not exist", but "missing filename", which suggests i am not passing a filename as parameter to the commandlinetool.

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  • How does C#'s DateTime.Now affect query plan caching in SQL Server?

    - by Bill Paetzke
    Given: Let's say we have a stored procedure. It reports data back to a user on a webpage. The user can set a date range. If the user sets today's date as the "end date," which includes today's data, the web app passes DateTime.Now to the sql proc. Let's say that one user runs a report--5/1/2010 to now--over and over several times. On the webpage, the user sees "5/1/2010" to "5/4/2010." But the web app passes DateTime.Now to the sql proc as the end date. So, the end date in the proc will always be different, although the user is querying a similar date range. Assume the number of records in the table and number of users are large. So any performance gains matter. Hence the importance of the question. Question: Does passing DateTime.Now as a parameter to a proc prevent SQL Server from caching the query plan? If so, then is the web app missing out on huge performance gains? Possible Solution: I thought DateTime.Today.AddDays(1) would be a possible solution. It would allow the user to get the latest data and always pass the same end date to the sql proc--"5/5/2010" in this case. Please speak to this as well. Sample proc and execution (if that helps to understand): CREATE PROCEDURE GetFooData @StartDate datetime @EndDate datetime AS SELECT * FROM Foo WHERE LogDate >= @StartDate AND LogDate < @EndDate Here's a sample execution using DateTime.Now: EXEC GetFooData '2010-05-01', '2010-05-04 15:41:27' -- passed in DateTime.Now Here's a sample execution using DateTime.Today.AddDays(1) EXEC GetFooData '2010-05-01', '2010-05-05' -- passed in DateTime.Today.AddDays(1) The same data is returned for both procs, since the current time is: 2010-05-04 15:41:27.

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  • How do I use my own debugger visualiser to edit variables runtime?

    - by C Sharper
    I'm writing my own debugger visualiser. All works great to show up to visualiser with the data. Now I add the code for more clearness: public class MyVisualiserObjectSource : VisualizerObjectSource { public override void GetData(object target, Stream outgoingData) { string data= target as string; var writer = new StreamWriter(outgoingData); writer.Write(data); writer.Flush(); } } public class MyVirtualizer : DialogDebuggerVisualizer { protected override void Show(IDialogVisualizerService windowService, IVisualizerObjectProvider objectProvider) { var streamReader = new StreamReader(objectProvider.GetData()); string data = streamReader.ReadToEnd(); using (var form = new MyVirtualizerForm(data)) { windowService.ShowDialog(form); } } } The string here is passed to the visualizer and show my own form. It works. But now I want to pass back the modified data from the form to the variable. How do I do that? Edit: I found out that I need to override the TransferData method in VisualizerObjectSource. But in the MSDN is no detail information about how I implement this correctly. Can someone help me please?

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  • How to detect how many time the users have click the button...

    - by Jerry
    Hello guys. Just want to know if there is a way to detect how many times a user has clicked a button by using Jquery. My main application has a button that can add input fields depend on the users. He/She can adds as many input fields as they need. When they submit the form, The add page will add the data to my database. My current idea is to create a hidden input field and set the value to zero. Every time a user clicks the button, jquery would update the attribute of the hidden input field value. Then the "add page" can detect the loop time. See the example below. I just want to know if there are better practices to do this. Thanks for the helps. main page <form method='post' action='add.php'> //omit <input type="hidden" id="add" name="add" value="0"/> <input type="button" id="addMatch" value="Add a match"/> //omit </form> jquery $(document).ready(function(){ var a =0; $("#addMatch").live('click', function(){ $('#table').append("<input name='match"+a+"Name' />") //the input field will append //as many as the user wants. a++; $('#add').attr('name', 'a'); //pass the a value to hidden input field return false; }); Add Page $a=$_POST['a']; // for($k=0;$k<$a;$k++){ //get all matchName input field $matchName=$_POST['match'.$k.'Name']; //insert the match $updateQuery=mysql_query("INSERT INTO game (team) values('$matchName')",$connection); if(!$updateQuery){ DIE('mysql Error:'+mysql_error()); }

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  • Fast, easy, and secure method to perform DB actions with GET

    - by rob - not a robber
    Hey All, Sort of a methods/best practices question here that I am sure has been addressed, yet I can't find a solution based on the vague search terms I enter. I know starting off the question with "Fast and easy" will probably draw out a few sighs, so my apologies. Here is the deal. I have a logged in area where an ADMIN can do a whole host of POST operations to input data relating to their profile. The way I have data structured is pretty distinct and well segmented in most tables as it relates to the ID of the admin. Now, I have a table where I dump one type of data into and differentiate this data by assigning the ADMIN's unique ID to each record. In other words, all ADMINs have this one type of data writing to this table. I just differentiate by the ADMIN ID with each record. I was planning on letting the ADMIN remove these records by clicking on a link with a query string - obviously using GET. Obviously, the query structure is in the link so any logged in admin could then exploit the URL and delete a competitor's records. Is the only way to safely do this through POST or should I pass through the session info that includes password and validate it against the ADMIN ID that is requesting the delete? This is obviously much more work for me. As they said in the auto repair biz I used to work in... there are 3 ways to do a job: Fast, Good, and Cheap. You can only have two at a time. Fast and cheap will not be good. Good and cheap will not have fast turnaround. Fast and good will NOT be cheap. haha I guess that applies here... can never have Fast, Easy and Secure all at once ;) Thanks in advance...

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  • SQL Server Collation / ADO.NET DataTable.Locale with different languages

    - by Turro
    Hi all, we have WinForms app which stores data in SQL Server (2000, we are working on porting it in 2008) through ADO.NET (1.1, working on porting to 4.0). Everything works fine if I read data previsouly written in Western-European locale (E.g.: "test", "test ù"), but now we have to be able to mix Western and non-Western alphabets as well (E.g.: "test - ???" - these are just random arabic chars). On the SQL Server side, database has been set with the Latin1_General collation, the field is a nvarchar(80). If I run a SQL SELECT statement (E.g.: "SELECT * FROM MyTable WHERE field = 'test - ???'", don't mind about the "*" or the actual names) from Query Analyzer, I get no results; the same happens if I pass the Sql statement to an ADO.NET DataAdapter to fill a DataTable. My guess is that it has something to do with collation, but I don't know how to correct this: do I have to change to collation (SQL Server) to a different one? Or do I have to set the locale on the DataAdaoter/DataTable (ADO.NET)? Thanks in advance to anyone who will help

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  • Pros and Cons of using SqlCommand Prepare in C#?

    - by MadBoy
    When i was reading books to learn C# (might be some old Visual Studio 2005 books) I've encountered advice to always use SqlCommand.Prepare everytime I execute SQL call (whether its' a SELECT/UPDATE or INSERT on SQL SERVER 2005/2008) and I pass parameters to it. But is it really so? Should it be done every time? Or just sometimes? Does it matter whether it's one parameter being passed or five or twenty? What boost should it give if any? Would it be noticeable at all (I've been using SqlCommand.Prepare here and skipped it there and never had any problems or noticeable differences). For the sake of the question this is my usual code that I use, but this is more of a general question. public static decimal pobierzBenchmarkKolejny(string varPortfelID, DateTime data, decimal varBenchmarkPoprzedni, decimal varStopaOdniesienia) { const string preparedCommand = @"SELECT [dbo].[ufn_BenchmarkKolejny](@varPortfelID, @data, @varBenchmarkPoprzedni, @varStopaOdniesienia) AS 'Benchmark'"; using (var varConnection = Locale.sqlConnectOneTime(Locale.sqlDataConnectionDetailsDZP)) //if (varConnection != null) { using (var sqlQuery = new SqlCommand(preparedCommand, varConnection)) { sqlQuery.Prepare(); sqlQuery.Parameters.AddWithValue("@varPortfelID", varPortfelID); sqlQuery.Parameters.AddWithValue("@varStopaOdniesienia", varStopaOdniesienia); sqlQuery.Parameters.AddWithValue("@data", data); sqlQuery.Parameters.AddWithValue("@varBenchmarkPoprzedni", varBenchmarkPoprzedni); using (var sqlQueryResult = sqlQuery.ExecuteReader()) if (sqlQueryResult != null) { while (sqlQueryResult.Read()) { //sqlQueryResult["Benchmark"]; } } } }

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