Search Results

Search found 14531 results on 582 pages for 'proxy pass'.

Page 496/582 | < Previous Page | 492 493 494 495 496 497 498 499 500 501 502 503  | Next Page >

  • jQuery carousel clicks update <select> list's "selected" option to match clicked item's title attrib

    - by Scott B
    The code below allows me to change a preview image outside the carousel widget so that it matches the element under the mouse. For example, if the user mouses over image2's thumbnail, the script updates .selectedImage so that it displays image2's full size version. I'd like to enhance it so that the #myThumbs options listing updates its "selected" option to match the carousel image that receives a click. Mouseover changes the preview image and click changes the select list to match the same name. The items in the carousel will have the same title attribute as the items in the select list, so I would expect that I can pass that value from the carousel to the select list. $(function() { $("#carousel").jCarouselLite({ btnNext: ".next", btnPrev: ".prev", visible: 6, mouseWheel: true, speed: 700 }); $('#carousel').show(); $('#carousel ul li').hover(function(e) { var img_src = $(this).children('img').attr('src'); $('.selectedImage img').attr('src',img_src); } ,function() { $('.selectedImage img').attr('src', '<?php echo $selectedThumb; ?>');}); }); <select id="myThumbs"> <option>image1</option> <option selected="selected">image2</option> <option>image3</option> </select>

    Read the article

  • SQL Server Collation / ADO.NET DataTable.Locale with different languages

    - by Turro
    Hi all, we have WinForms app which stores data in SQL Server (2000, we are working on porting it in 2008) through ADO.NET (1.1, working on porting to 4.0). Everything works fine if I read data previsouly written in Western-European locale (E.g.: "test", "test ù"), but now we have to be able to mix Western and non-Western alphabets as well (E.g.: "test - ???" - these are just random arabic chars). On the SQL Server side, database has been set with the Latin1_General collation, the field is a nvarchar(80). If I run a SQL SELECT statement (E.g.: "SELECT * FROM MyTable WHERE field = 'test - ???'", don't mind about the "*" or the actual names) from Query Analyzer, I get no results; the same happens if I pass the Sql statement to an ADO.NET DataAdapter to fill a DataTable. My guess is that it has something to do with collation, but I don't know how to correct this: do I have to change to collation (SQL Server) to a different one? Or do I have to set the locale on the DataAdaoter/DataTable (ADO.NET)? Thanks in advance to anyone who will help

    Read the article

  • Clone existing structs with different alignment in Visual C++

    - by Crend King
    Is there a way to clone an existing struct with different member alignment in Visual C++? Here is the background: I use an 3rd-party library, which uses several structs. To fill up the structs, I pass the address of the struct instances to some functions. Unfortunately, the functions only returns unaligned buffer, so that data of some members are always wrong. /Zp is out of choice, since it breaks the other parts of the program. I know #pragma pack modifies the alignment of the following struct, but I would like to avoid copying the structs into my code, for the definitions in the library might change in the future. Sample code: test.h: struct am_aligned { BYTE data1[10]; ULONG data2; }; test.cpp: #include "test.h" // typedef alignment(1) struct am_aligned am_unaligned; int APIENTRY wWinMain(HINSTANCE hInstance, HINSTANCE hPrevInstance, LPTSTR lpCmdLine, int nCmdShow) { char buffer[20] = {}; for (int i = 0; i < sizeof(unaligned_struct); i++) { buffer[i] = i; } am_aligned instance = *(am_aligned*) buffer; return 0; } Consider am_aligned is defined in the library header file. am_unaligned is my custom declaration, and only effective in test.cpp. The commented line does not work of course. instance.data2 is 0x0f0e0d0c, while 0x0d0c0b0a is desired. Thanks for help!

    Read the article

  • Blackberry: Passing KML file to Google Maps

    - by Pria
    I want to know that can I pass KML as a string to google map application? Code snippet: //KML String String document = "<?xml version=\"1.0\" encoding=\"UTF-8\"?><kml xmlns=\"http://www.opengis.net/kml/2.2\"><Document><Folder><name>Paths</name><open>0</open><Placemark><LineString><tessellate>1</tessellate><coordinates> -112.0814237830345,36.10677870477137,0 -112.0870267752693,36.0905099328766,0</coordinates></LineString></Placemark></Folder></Document></kml>"; //Invoke Google Maps int module = CodeModuleManager.getModuleHandle("GoogleMaps"); if (module == 0) { try { throw new ApplicationManagerException("GoogleMaps isn't installed"); } catch (ApplicationManagerException e) { System.out.println(e.getMessage()); } } String[] args = {document}; //Is this possible??? ApplicationDescriptor descriptor = CodeModuleManager.getApplicationDescriptors(module)[0]; ApplicationDescriptor ad2 = new ApplicationDescriptor(descriptor, args); try { ApplicationManager.getApplicationManager().runApplication(ad2, true); } catch (ApplicationManagerException e) { System.out.println(e.getMessage()); }

    Read the article

  • Bad performance function in PHP. With large files memory blows up! How can I refactor?

    - by André
    Hi I have a function that strips out lines from files. I'm handling with large files(more than 100Mb). I have the PHP Memory with 256MB but the function that handles with the strip out of lines blows up with a 100MB CSV File. What the function must do is this: Originally I have the CSV like: Copyright (c) 2007 MaxMind LLC. All Rights Reserved. locId,country,region,city,postalCode,latitude,longitude,metroCode,areaCode 1,"O1","","","",0.0000,0.0000,, 2,"AP","","","",35.0000,105.0000,, 3,"EU","","","",47.0000,8.0000,, 4,"AD","","","",42.5000,1.5000,, 5,"AE","","","",24.0000,54.0000,, 6,"AF","","","",33.0000,65.0000,, 7,"AG","","","",17.0500,-61.8000,, 8,"AI","","","",18.2500,-63.1667,, 9,"AL","","","",41.0000,20.0000,, When I pass the CSV file to this function I got: locId,country,region,city,postalCode,latitude,longitude,metroCode,areaCode 1,"O1","","","",0.0000,0.0000,, 2,"AP","","","",35.0000,105.0000,, 3,"EU","","","",47.0000,8.0000,, 4,"AD","","","",42.5000,1.5000,, 5,"AE","","","",24.0000,54.0000,, 6,"AF","","","",33.0000,65.0000,, 7,"AG","","","",17.0500,-61.8000,, 8,"AI","","","",18.2500,-63.1667,, 9,"AL","","","",41.0000,20.0000,, It only strips out the first line, nothing more. The problem is the performance of this function with large files, it blows up the memory. The function is: public function deleteLine($line_no, $csvFileName) { // this function strips a specific line from a file // if a line is stripped, functions returns True else false // // e.g. // deleteLine(-1, xyz.csv); // strip last line // deleteLine(1, xyz.csv); // strip first line // Assigna o nome do ficheiro $filename = $csvFileName; $strip_return=FALSE; $data=file($filename); $pipe=fopen($filename,'w'); $size=count($data); if($line_no==-1) $skip=$size-1; else $skip=$line_no-1; for($line=0;$line<$size;$line++) if($line!=$skip) fputs($pipe,$data[$line]); else $strip_return=TRUE; return $strip_return; } It is possible to refactor this function to not blow up with the 256MB PHP Memory? Give me some clues. Best Regards,

    Read the article

  • Java equivalent of the VB Request.InputStream

    - by Android Addict
    I have a web service that I am re-writing from VB to a Java servlet. In the web service, I want to extract the body entity set on the client-side as such: StringEntity stringEntity = new StringEntity(xml, HTTP.UTF_8); stringEntity.setContentType("application/xml"); httppost.setEntity(stringEntity); In the VB web service, I get this data by using: Dim objReader As System.IO.StreamReader objReader = New System.IO.StreamReader(Request.InputStream) Dim strXML As String = objReader.ReadToEnd and this works great. But I am looking for the equivalent in Java. I have tried this: ServletInputStream dataStream = req.getInputStream(); byte[] data = new byte[dataStream.toString().length()]; dataStream.read(data); but all it gets me is an unintelligible string: data = [B@68514fec Please advise. Edit Per the answers, I have tried: ServletInputStream dataStream = req.getInputStream(); ByteArrayOutputStream buffer = new ByteArrayOutputStream(); int r; byte[] data = new byte[1024*1024]; while ((r = dataStream.read(data, 0, data.length)) != -1) { buffer.write(data, 0, r); } buffer.flush(); byte[] data2 = buffer.toByteArray(); System.out.println("DATA = "+Arrays.toString(data2)); whichs yields: DATA = [] and when I try: System.out.println("DATA = "+data2.toString()); I get: DATA = [B@15282c7f So what am I doing wrong? As stated earlier, the same call to my VB service gives me the xml that I pass in.

    Read the article

  • Refactoring code/consolidating functions (e.g. nested for-loop order)

    - by bmay2
    Just a little background: I'm making a program where a user inputs a skeleton text, two numbers (lower and upper limit), and a list of words. The outputs are a series of modifications on the skeleton text. Sample inputs: text = "Player # likes @." (replace # with inputted integers and @ with words in list) lower = 1 upper = 3 list = "apples, bananas, oranges" The user can choose to iterate over numbers first: Player 1 likes apples. Player 2 likes apples. Player 3 likes apples. Or words first: Player 1 likes apples. Player 1 likes bananas. Player 1 likes oranges. I chose to split these two methods of outputs by creating a different type of dictionary based on either number keys (integers inputted by the user) or word keys (from words in the inputted list) and then later iterating over the values in the dictionary. Here are the two types of dictionary creation: def numkey(dict): # {1: ['Player 1 likes apples', 'Player 1 likes...' ] } text, lower, upper, list = input_sort(dict) d = {} for num in range(lower,upper+1): l = [] for i in list: l.append(text.replace('#', str(num)).replace('@', i)) d[num] = l return d def wordkey(dict): # {'apples': ['Player 1 likes apples', 'Player 2 likes apples'..] } text, lower, upper, list = input_sort(dict) d = {} for i in list: l = [] for num in range(lower,upper+1): l.append(text.replace('#', str(num)).replace('@', i)) d[i] = l return d It's fine that I have two separate functions for creating different types of dictionaries but I see a lot of repetition between the two. Is there any way I could make one dictionary function and pass in different values to it that would change the order of the nested for loops to create the specific {key : value} pairs I'm looking for? I'm not sure how this would be done. Is there anything related to functional programming or other paradigms that might help with this? The question is a little abstract and more stylistic/design-oriented than anything.

    Read the article

  • Fast, easy, and secure method to perform DB actions with GET

    - by rob - not a robber
    Hey All, Sort of a methods/best practices question here that I am sure has been addressed, yet I can't find a solution based on the vague search terms I enter. I know starting off the question with "Fast and easy" will probably draw out a few sighs, so my apologies. Here is the deal. I have a logged in area where an ADMIN can do a whole host of POST operations to input data relating to their profile. The way I have data structured is pretty distinct and well segmented in most tables as it relates to the ID of the admin. Now, I have a table where I dump one type of data into and differentiate this data by assigning the ADMIN's unique ID to each record. In other words, all ADMINs have this one type of data writing to this table. I just differentiate by the ADMIN ID with each record. I was planning on letting the ADMIN remove these records by clicking on a link with a query string - obviously using GET. Obviously, the query structure is in the link so any logged in admin could then exploit the URL and delete a competitor's records. Is the only way to safely do this through POST or should I pass through the session info that includes password and validate it against the ADMIN ID that is requesting the delete? This is obviously much more work for me. As they said in the auto repair biz I used to work in... there are 3 ways to do a job: Fast, Good, and Cheap. You can only have two at a time. Fast and cheap will not be good. Good and cheap will not have fast turnaround. Fast and good will NOT be cheap. haha I guess that applies here... can never have Fast, Easy and Secure all at once ;) Thanks in advance...

    Read the article

  • XSLT how to merge some lists of parameters

    - by buggy1985
    Hi, I have an URL Structure like this: http://my.domain.com/generated.xml?param1=foo&param2=bar&xsl=path/to/my.xsl The generated XML will be transformed using the given XSL Stylesheet. The two other parameters are integrated too like this: <root> <params> <param name="param1">foo</param> <param name="param2">bar</param> </param> ... </root> Now I want to create with XSLT a link with a new URI that keeps the existing parameters and adds one or multiple new parameters like page=3 or sort=DESC. If the given parameter already exists, it should be replaced. I'm not sure how to do this. How to pass multiple (optional) parameters to a template. How to merge two lists of parameters. Any ideas? Thanks ;)

    Read the article

  • Setting up Inversion of Control (IoC) in ASP.NET MVC with Castle Windsor

    - by Lirik
    I'm going over Sanderson's Pro ASP.NET MVC Framework and in Chapter 4 he discusses Creating a Custom Controller Factory and it seems that the original method, AddComponentLifeStyle or AddComponentWithLifeStyle, used to register controllers is deprecated now: public class WindsorControllerFactory : DefaultControllerFactory { IWindsorContainer container; public WindsorControllerFactory() { container = new WindsorContainer(new XmlInterpreter(new ConfigResource("castle"))); // register all the controller types as transient var controllerTypes = from t in Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly().GetTypes() where typeof(IController).IsAssignableFrom(t) select t; //[Obsolete("Use Register(Component.For<I>().ImplementedBy<T>().Named(key).Lifestyle.Is(lifestyle)) instead.")] //IWindsorContainer AddComponentLifeStyle<I, T>(string key, LifestyleType lifestyle) where T : class; foreach (Type t in controllerTypes) { container.Register(Component.For<IController>().ImplementedBy<???>().Named(t.FullName).LifeStyle.Is(LifestyleType.Transient)); } } // Constructs the controller instance needed to service each request protected override IController GetControllerInstance(Type controllerType) { return (IController)container.Resolve(controllerType); } } The new suggestion is to use Register(Component.For<I>().ImplementedBy<T>().Named(key).Lifestyle.Is(lifestyle)), but I can't figure out how to present the implementing controller type in the ImplementedBy<???>() method. I tried ImplementedBy<t>() and ImplementedBy<typeof(t)>(), but I can't find the appropriate way to pass int he implementing type. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Get index of nth occurrence of char in a string

    - by StickFigs
    I'm trying to make a function that returns the index of the Nth occurrence of a given char in a string. Here is my attempt: private int IndexOfNth(string str, char c, int n) { int index = str.IndexOf(c) + 1; if (index >= 0) { string temp = str.Substring(index, str.Length - index); for (int j = 1; j < n; j++) { index = temp.IndexOf(c) + 1; if (index < 0) { return -1; } temp = temp.Substring(index, temp.Length - index); } index = index + (str.Length); } return index; } This should find the first occurrence, chop off that front part of the string, find the first occurrence from the new substring, and on and on until it gets the index of the nth occurrence. However I failed to consider how the index of the final substring is going to be offset from the original actual index in the original string. How do I make this work? Also as a side question, if I want the char to be the tab character do I pass this function '\t' or what?

    Read the article

  • How to use keyword this in a mouse wrapper in right context in Javascript?

    - by MartyIX
    Hi, I'm trying to write a simple wrapper for mouse behaviour. This is my current code: function MouseWrapper() { this.mouseDown = 0; this.OnMouseDownEvent = null; this.OnMouseUpEvent = null; document.body.onmousedown = this.OnMouseDown; document.body.onmouseup = this.OnMouseUp; } MouseWrapper.prototype.Subscribe = function (eventName, fn) { // Subscribe a function to the event if (eventName == 'MouseDown') { this.OnMouseDownEvent = fn; } else if (eventName == 'MouseUp') { this.OnMouseUpEvent = fn; } else { alert('Subscribe: Unknown event.'); } } MouseWrapper.prototype.OnMouseDown = function () { this.mouseDown = 1; // Fire event $.dump(this.OnMouseDownEvent); if (this.OnMouseDownEvent != null) { alert('test'); this.OnMouseDownEvent(); } } MouseWrapper.prototype.OnMouseUp = function () { this.mouseDown = 0; // Fire event if (this.OnMouseUpEvent != null) { this.OnMouseUpEvent(); } } From what I gathered it seems that in MouseWrapper.prototype.OnMouseUp and MouseWrapper.prototype.OnMouseDown the keyword "this" doesn't mean current instance of MouseWrapper but something else. And it makes sense that it doesn't point to my instance but how to solve the problem? I want to solve the problem properly I don't want to use something dirty. My thinking: * use a singleton pattern (mouse is only one after all) * pass somehow my instance to OnMouseDown/Up - how? Thank you for help!

    Read the article

  • How can you transform a set of numbers into mostly whole ones?

    - by Alice
    Small amount of background: I am working on a converter that bridges between a map maker (Tiled) that outputs in XML, and an engine (Angel2D) that inputs lua tables. Most of this is straight forward However, Tiled outputs in pixel offsets (integers of absolute values), while Angel2D inputs OpenGL units (floats of relative values); a conversion factor between these two is needed (for example, 32px = 1gu). Since OpenGL units are abstract, and the camera can zoom in or out if the objects are too small or big, the actual conversion factor isn't important; I could use a random number, and the user would merely have to zoom in or out. But it would be best if the conversion factor was selected such that most numbers outputted were small and whole (or fractions of small whole numbers), because that makes it easier to work with (and the whole point of the OpenGL units is that they are easy to work with). How would I find such a conversion factor reliably? My first attempt was to use the smallest number given; this resulted in no fractions below 1, but often lead to lots of decimal places where the factors didn't line up. Then I tried the mode of the sequence, which lead to the largest number of 1's possible, but often lead to very long floats for background images. My current approach gets the GCD of the whole sequence, which, when it works, works great, but can easily be thrown off course by a single bad apple. Note that while I could easily just pass the numbers I am given along, or pick some fixed factor, or use one of the conversions I specified above, I am looking for a method to reliably scale this list of integers to small, whole numbers or simple fractions, because this would most likely be unsurprising to the end user; this is not a one off conversion. The end users tend to use 1.0 as their "base" for manipulations (because it's simple and obvious), so it would make more sense for the sizes of entities to cluster around this.

    Read the article

  • How To Share Information Between Django and Javascript?

    - by Randy
    So I am pretty new to both Django and Javascript (I am using JQuery) and I am wondering if I am doing a hack or if there are more slick ways to send client-side displayed database ids to the django server-side. Here is my process: I have a dataTable (http://datatables.net) that I am displaying rows of data by using the bProcessing option to use AJAX to retrieve records from the database. The URL in my urls.py is something like: url(r'^assets/activitylog/(?P<cid>.*)$', views.getActivityTable_ajax, name="activitylog_table"), and my dataTable ajax-relavant code is something like: "sAjaxSource": "/assets/activitylog/" + getIDFromHTML(), where the javascript function getIDFromHTML() grabs <cid> that is used by the Django view is simply: function getIDFromHTML(){ // Simply return the text in the #release_id div element from the HTML return $("#release_id").html(); }; This is the part that seems "hacky" to me. I am inserting into my template code the database id that I am using in the datatables URL (with display:none in the css) just so I can pass it back to the view. Most of this is necessitated because one cannot use django template tags in the javascript code unless the code is embedded into the HTML itself, which I am not (and will not) do. The only other thing that I have found is to change the URL to get rid of the parameter passed in to: url(r'^assets/activitylog', views.getActivityTable_ajax, name="activitylog_table"), and change the view code to: def getActivityTable_ajax(request): """Returns the activity for a given pid from HTTP GET ajax reqest""" pid = int(urlparse.urlparse(request.META['HTTP_REFERER']).path.split('/')[-1]) # rest of view code here... since the id that I need is on the end of this referer url. This way I don't have to monkey around with embedding the hidden database id into the HTML and passing it back to via ajax the the table population view code. Is it okay to use HTTP_REFERER in the request object in this manner? Am I going about this in the totally wrong way? Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Combination of JFreeChart with JXLayer with JHotDraw

    - by Yan Cheng CHEOK
    Recently, I had use JXLayer, to overlay two moving yellow message boxes, on the top of JFreeChart http://yccheok.blogspot.com/2010/02/investment-flow-chart.html I was wondering, had anyone experience using JXLayer + JHotdraw, to overlay all sorts of figures (Re-sizable text box, straight line, circle...), on the top of JFreeChart. I just would like to add drawing capability, without changing the JFreeChart source code. So that, JStock's user may draw trending lines, annotation text on their favorite stock charting. The code skeleton is as follow : // this.chartPanel is JFreeChartPanel final org.jdesktop.jxlayer.JXLayer<ChartPanel> layer = new org.jdesktop.jxlayer.JXLayer<ChartPanel>(this.chartPanel); this.myUI = new MyUI<ChartPanel>(this); layer.setUI(this.myUI); public class MyUI<V extends javax.swing.JComponent> extends AbstractLayerUI<V> { @Override protected void paintLayer(Graphics2D g2, JXLayer<? extends V> layer) { // Previous, I am using my own hand-coded, to draw the yellow box // // Now, How can I make use of JHotDraw at here, to draw various type of // figures? } @Override protected void processMouseEvent(MouseEvent e, JXLayer<? extends V> layer) { // How can I make use of JHotDraw at here? } @Override protected void processMouseMotionEvent(MouseEvent e, JXLayer<? extends V> layer) { // How can I make use of JHotDraw at here? } } As you see, I already got Graphics2D g2 from paintLayer method. How is it possible that I can pass the Graphics2D object to JHotDraw, and let JHotDraw handles all the drawing. My experience in using JHotDraw are with org.jhotdraw.draw.DefaultDrawingView org.jhotdraw.draw.DefaultDrawingEditor I am able to use them to draw various figures, by clicking on the toolbar and click on drawing area. How is it possible I can use DefaultDrawingView and DefaultDrawingEditor within MyUI's paintLayer? Also, shall I let MyUI handles the mouse event, or JHotDraw? Sorry, I start getting confused.

    Read the article

  • How to redirect a URL with GET variables in routes.rb without Rails stripping out the variable first?

    - by Michael Hopkins
    I am building a website in Rails to replace an existing website. In routes.rb I am trying to redirect some of the old URLs to their new equivalents (some of the URL slugs are changing so a dynamic solution is not possible.) My routes.rb looks like this: match "/index.php?page=contact-us" => redirect("/contact-us") match "/index.php?page=about-us" => redirect("/about-us") match "/index.php?page=committees" => redirect("/teams") When I visit /index.php?page=contact-us I am not redirected to /contact-us. I have determined this is because Rails is removing the get variables and only trying to match /index.php. For example, If I pass /index.php?page=contact-us into the below routes I will be redirected to /foobar: match "/index.php?page=contact-us" => redirect("/contact-us") match "/index.php?page=about-us" => redirect("/about-us") match "/index.php?page=committees" => redirect("/teams") match "/index.php" => redirect("/foobar") How can I keep the GET variables in the string and redirect the old URLs the way I'd like? Does Rails have an intended mechanism for this?

    Read the article

  • Configuring TeamCity + NUnit unit tests so files can be loaded properly

    - by Dave
    In a nutshell, I have a solution that builds fine in the IDE, and the unit tests all run fine with the NUnit GUI (via the NUnitit VS2008 plugin). However, when I execute my TeamCity build runner, all unit tests that require file access (e.g. for running tests against specific XML files), I just get System.IO.DirectoryNotFoundExceptions. The reason for this is clear: it's looking for those supporting XML files loaded by various unit tests in the wrong folder. The way my unit tests are structured looks like this: +-- project folder +-- unit tests folder +-- test.xml +-- test.cs +-- project file.xaml +-- project file.xaml.cs All of my projects own their own UnitTests folder, which contains the .cs file and any XML files, XML Schemas, etc that are necessary to run the tests. So when I write my test.cs, I have it look for "test.xml" in the code because they are in the same folder (actually, I do something like ....\unit tests\test.xml, but that's kind of silly). As I said before, the tests run great in NUnit. But that's because the unit tests are part of the project. When running the unit tests from TeamCity, I am executing them against the assemblies that get copied to the main app's output folder. These unit test XML files should not be copied willy-nilly to the output folder just to make the tests pass. Can anyone suggest a better method of organizing my unit tests in each project (which are dependencies for the main app), such that I can execute the unit tests from NUnit and from the TeamCity build runner? The only other option I can come up with is to just put the testing XML data in code, rather than loading it from a file. I would rather not do this.

    Read the article

  • Passing in a lambda to a Where statement

    - by sonicblis
    I noticed today that if I do this: var items = context.items.Where(i => i.Property < 2); items = items.Where(i => i.Property > 4); Once I access the items var, it executes only the first line as the data call and then does the second call in memory. However, if I do this: var items = context.items.Where(i => i.Property < 2).Where(i => i.Property > 4); I get only one expression executed against the context that includes both where statements. I have a host of variables that I want to use to build the expression for the linq lambda, but their presence or absence changes the expression such that I'd have to have a rediculous number of conditionals to satisfy all cases. I thought I could just add the Where() statements as in my first example above, but that doesn't end up in a single expression that contains all of the criteria. Therefore, I'm trying to create just the lambda itself as such: //bogus syntax if (var1 == "something") var expression = Expression<Func<item, bool>>(i => i.Property == "Something); if (var2 == "somethingElse") expression = expression.Where(i => i.Property2 == "SomethingElse"); And then pass that in to the where of my context.Items to evaluate. A) is this right, and B) if so, how do you do it?

    Read the article

  • Zend Form - how do I create these custom form elements?

    - by Jeremy Hicks
    This is a very specific instance where I'm having difficulty getting Zend Form to produce the correct output and supply the correct validation. I may have to go create a composite element but thought I'd ask here first. Here is the HTML I'm trying to get Zend Form to produce. I'd like this to be able to work where if the validation doesn't pass that the error messages still show up inline with the field that produced the error. <tr> <td>Budget</td> <td> <input type="radio" name="budget" value="unlimited" /> unlimited <br /> <input type="radio" name="budget" value="limited" /> $ <input type="text" name="budget_amount" /> every <select name="budget_period"> <option value="day">day</option> <option value="week">week</option> <option value="month">month</option> <option value="year">year</option> </select> </td> </tr> <tr> <td></td> <td><input type="checkbox" name="include_weekends" value="yes" /> include weekends?</td> </tr> The user can choose either unlimited or limited for the budget value, however, if they choose limited, then they are required to enter a value for the budget amount field and choose a value from the select for the budget period field.

    Read the article

  • How to properly set relationships in Core Data when using setValue and data already exists

    - by ern
    Let's say I have two objects: Articles and Categories. For the sake of this example all relevant categories have already been added to the data store. When looping through data that holds edits for articles, there is category relationship information that needs to be saved. I was planning on using the -setValue method in the Article class in order to set the relationships like so: - (void)setValue:(id)value forUndefinedKey:(NSString *)key { if([key isEqualToString:@"categories"]){ NSLog(@"trying to set categories..."); } } The problem is that value isn't a Category, it is just a string (or array of strings) holding the title of a category. I could certainly do a lookup within this method for each category and assign it, but that seems inefficient when processing a whole bunch of articles at once. Another option is to populate an array of all possible categories and just filter, but my question is where to store that array? Should it be a class method on Article? Is there a way to pass in additional data to the -setValue method? Is there another, better option for setting the relationship I'm not thinking of? Thanks for your help.

    Read the article

  • Is there a way to validates_presence_of only one time? (to skip that validation once the user's been

    - by GoodGets
    So, I'd like for a user to see an error message if he submits a comment and the :name is blank (typical error message, don't need help with that). However, I'd then like to allow the user to skip that validation once he's been notified that "we like all comments to have a name." So, he submits the comment once, sees the notification, then can submit the form again unchanged if he really doesn't want to add a name, and the validates_presences_of :name is skipped. But, I'm not sure how to go about doing this. I thought about checking to see where the request is coming from, but after a create, errors are handed off to the "new" action, which is the same as actual "new" comments. I then thought about checking to see if flash[errors] were present, but that won't work because there are other validations a comment has to pass. Finally, I thought about trying a validates_presences_of :name, :unless = :notified but wasn't sure how to define notified. I honestly hate asking such an open ended question, but wasn't sure where to get started. So, is there a way to just check a certain validation once?

    Read the article

  • How does C#'s DateTime.Now affect query plan caching in SQL Server?

    - by Bill Paetzke
    Given: Let's say we have a stored procedure. It reports data back to a user on a webpage. The user can set a date range. If the user sets today's date as the "end date," which includes today's data, the web app passes DateTime.Now to the sql proc. Let's say that one user runs a report--5/1/2010 to now--over and over several times. On the webpage, the user sees "5/1/2010" to "5/4/2010." But the web app passes DateTime.Now to the sql proc as the end date. So, the end date in the proc will always be different, although the user is querying a similar date range. Assume the number of records in the table and number of users are large. So any performance gains matter. Hence the importance of the question. Question: Does passing DateTime.Now as a parameter to a proc prevent SQL Server from caching the query plan? If so, then is the web app missing out on huge performance gains? Possible Solution: I thought DateTime.Today.AddDays(1) would be a possible solution. It would allow the user to get the latest data and always pass the same end date to the sql proc--"5/5/2010" in this case. Please speak to this as well. Sample proc and execution (if that helps to understand): CREATE PROCEDURE GetFooData @StartDate datetime @EndDate datetime AS SELECT * FROM Foo WHERE LogDate >= @StartDate AND LogDate < @EndDate Here's a sample execution using DateTime.Now: EXEC GetFooData '2010-05-01', '2010-05-04 15:41:27' -- passed in DateTime.Now Here's a sample execution using DateTime.Today.AddDays(1) EXEC GetFooData '2010-05-01', '2010-05-05' -- passed in DateTime.Today.AddDays(1) The same data is returned for both procs, since the current time is: 2010-05-04 15:41:27.

    Read the article

  • Pros and Cons of using SqlCommand Prepare in C#?

    - by MadBoy
    When i was reading books to learn C# (might be some old Visual Studio 2005 books) I've encountered advice to always use SqlCommand.Prepare everytime I execute SQL call (whether its' a SELECT/UPDATE or INSERT on SQL SERVER 2005/2008) and I pass parameters to it. But is it really so? Should it be done every time? Or just sometimes? Does it matter whether it's one parameter being passed or five or twenty? What boost should it give if any? Would it be noticeable at all (I've been using SqlCommand.Prepare here and skipped it there and never had any problems or noticeable differences). For the sake of the question this is my usual code that I use, but this is more of a general question. public static decimal pobierzBenchmarkKolejny(string varPortfelID, DateTime data, decimal varBenchmarkPoprzedni, decimal varStopaOdniesienia) { const string preparedCommand = @"SELECT [dbo].[ufn_BenchmarkKolejny](@varPortfelID, @data, @varBenchmarkPoprzedni, @varStopaOdniesienia) AS 'Benchmark'"; using (var varConnection = Locale.sqlConnectOneTime(Locale.sqlDataConnectionDetailsDZP)) //if (varConnection != null) { using (var sqlQuery = new SqlCommand(preparedCommand, varConnection)) { sqlQuery.Prepare(); sqlQuery.Parameters.AddWithValue("@varPortfelID", varPortfelID); sqlQuery.Parameters.AddWithValue("@varStopaOdniesienia", varStopaOdniesienia); sqlQuery.Parameters.AddWithValue("@data", data); sqlQuery.Parameters.AddWithValue("@varBenchmarkPoprzedni", varBenchmarkPoprzedni); using (var sqlQueryResult = sqlQuery.ExecuteReader()) if (sqlQueryResult != null) { while (sqlQueryResult.Read()) { //sqlQueryResult["Benchmark"]; } } } }

    Read the article

  • How to detect how many time the users have click the button...

    - by Jerry
    Hello guys. Just want to know if there is a way to detect how many times a user has clicked a button by using Jquery. My main application has a button that can add input fields depend on the users. He/She can adds as many input fields as they need. When they submit the form, The add page will add the data to my database. My current idea is to create a hidden input field and set the value to zero. Every time a user clicks the button, jquery would update the attribute of the hidden input field value. Then the "add page" can detect the loop time. See the example below. I just want to know if there are better practices to do this. Thanks for the helps. main page <form method='post' action='add.php'> //omit <input type="hidden" id="add" name="add" value="0"/> <input type="button" id="addMatch" value="Add a match"/> //omit </form> jquery $(document).ready(function(){ var a =0; $("#addMatch").live('click', function(){ $('#table').append("<input name='match"+a+"Name' />") //the input field will append //as many as the user wants. a++; $('#add').attr('name', 'a'); //pass the a value to hidden input field return false; }); Add Page $a=$_POST['a']; // for($k=0;$k<$a;$k++){ //get all matchName input field $matchName=$_POST['match'.$k.'Name']; //insert the match $updateQuery=mysql_query("INSERT INTO game (team) values('$matchName')",$connection); if(!$updateQuery){ DIE('mysql Error:'+mysql_error()); }

    Read the article

  • How do I use my own debugger visualiser to edit variables runtime?

    - by C Sharper
    I'm writing my own debugger visualiser. All works great to show up to visualiser with the data. Now I add the code for more clearness: public class MyVisualiserObjectSource : VisualizerObjectSource { public override void GetData(object target, Stream outgoingData) { string data= target as string; var writer = new StreamWriter(outgoingData); writer.Write(data); writer.Flush(); } } public class MyVirtualizer : DialogDebuggerVisualizer { protected override void Show(IDialogVisualizerService windowService, IVisualizerObjectProvider objectProvider) { var streamReader = new StreamReader(objectProvider.GetData()); string data = streamReader.ReadToEnd(); using (var form = new MyVirtualizerForm(data)) { windowService.ShowDialog(form); } } } The string here is passed to the visualizer and show my own form. It works. But now I want to pass back the modified data from the form to the variable. How do I do that? Edit: I found out that I need to override the TransferData method in VisualizerObjectSource. But in the MSDN is no detail information about how I implement this correctly. Can someone help me please?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 492 493 494 495 496 497 498 499 500 501 502 503  | Next Page >