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  • Use XML Layout to contain a simple drawing

    - by user329999
    I would like to create a simple drawing (lines, circles, squares, etc...) but I'm having difficulty figuring out the best way to do this. The drawing would need to be scaled to fit the display since the size is indirectly specified by the user (like in a CAD application). Also, I don't want to take up the entire display, leaving room for some controls (buttons, etc). I would pass the data to describe the drawing. Here's how I imagine it would work. I create an XML layout that contains something that holds the drawing (ImageView, BitmapDrawable, ShapeDrawable, ...??? not sure exactly what). Then in my Activity I would load the main XML and obtain the resource for the control that holds the drawing. I would then draw to a bitmap. Once the bitmap was completed I would load it into the control that is to hold the drawing. Somewhere along this path it would be scaled to fill the entire area allocated for the drawing in the XML layout. I don't know if my approach is the way to do this or what classes to use. I read the http://developer.android.com/guide/topics/graphics/2d-graphics.html documentation, but it's not helping me with an example. The examples I do find leave me with hints, but nothing concrete enough to do what I want, especially when it comes to scaling, using XML and/or having other controls. Also, there seems to be no good documentation on the design of the 2D drawing system in a more conceptual manner, so it makes what I read difficult to put into any useful context. Any hints on what classes would be useful and/or a good example any other reading materials? Thanks

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  • Is it possible to wrap an asynchronous event and its callback in a function that returns a boolean?

    - by Rob Flaherty
    I'm trying to write a simple test that creates an image element, checks the image attributes, and then returns true/false. The problem is that using the onload event makes the test asynchronous. On it own this isn't a problem (using a callback as I've done in the code below is easy), but what I can't figure out is how to encapsulate this into a single function that returns a boolean. I've tried various combinations of closures, recursion, and self-executing functions but have had no luck. So my question: am I being dense and overlooking something simple, or is this in fact not possible, because, no matter what, I'm still trying to wrap an asynchronous function in synchronous expectations? Here's the code: var supportsImage = function(callback) { var img = new Image(); img.onload = function() { //Check attributes and pass true or false to callback callback(true); }; img.src = 'data:image/gif;base64,R0lGODlhAQABAAD/ACwAAAAAAQABAAACADs='; }; supportsImage(function(status){ console.log(status); }); To be clear, what I want is to be able to wrap this in something such that it can be used like: if (supportsImage) { //Do some crazy stuff } Thanks! (Btw, I know there are a ton of SO questions regarding confusion about synchronous vs. asynchronous. Apologies if this can be reduced to something previously answered.)

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  • Java equivalent of the VB Request.InputStream

    - by Android Addict
    I have a web service that I am re-writing from VB to a Java servlet. In the web service, I want to extract the body entity set on the client-side as such: StringEntity stringEntity = new StringEntity(xml, HTTP.UTF_8); stringEntity.setContentType("application/xml"); httppost.setEntity(stringEntity); In the VB web service, I get this data by using: Dim objReader As System.IO.StreamReader objReader = New System.IO.StreamReader(Request.InputStream) Dim strXML As String = objReader.ReadToEnd and this works great. But I am looking for the equivalent in Java. I have tried this: ServletInputStream dataStream = req.getInputStream(); byte[] data = new byte[dataStream.toString().length()]; dataStream.read(data); but all it gets me is an unintelligible string: data = [B@68514fec Please advise. Edit Per the answers, I have tried: ServletInputStream dataStream = req.getInputStream(); ByteArrayOutputStream buffer = new ByteArrayOutputStream(); int r; byte[] data = new byte[1024*1024]; while ((r = dataStream.read(data, 0, data.length)) != -1) { buffer.write(data, 0, r); } buffer.flush(); byte[] data2 = buffer.toByteArray(); System.out.println("DATA = "+Arrays.toString(data2)); whichs yields: DATA = [] and when I try: System.out.println("DATA = "+data2.toString()); I get: DATA = [B@15282c7f So what am I doing wrong? As stated earlier, the same call to my VB service gives me the xml that I pass in.

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  • Windows FTP batch sript to read & dl from external user list

    - by Will Sims
    i have several old, unused batches that i'm redoing.. I have a batch file for an old network arch from several years ago.. the main thing I'd like it to do now is read a list of files.. I'll explain the setup.. Server updates a complete list [CurrentMediaStores.txt] 2x a day. The laptops can set settings to DL this list through their start.bat which also runs addins and updates I aply to my pc's, to give my batches and myself a break from slavish folder assignments and add a lil more dynamics and less adminin the bats now call on a list the user makes by simply copying a line from the CMS.txt file and pasting it into their [Grab_List.txt] My problem is though I have the branch :: off right now and the code that detects if LAN is connected or not to switch to an ftp connection. I'd like for the ftp batch to call/ use the Grab_List also. but I just can't/ don't know how to pass and do the for loop with a ftp session to loop through x amount of files in the users req list.. Anyhelp would be greatly appreciated

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  • Java SWT: wrapping syncExec and asyncExec to clean up code

    - by jonescb
    I have a Java Application using SWT as the toolkit, and I'm getting tired of all the ugly boiler plate code it takes to update a GUI element. Just to set a disabled button to be enabled I have to go through something like this: shell.getDisplay().asyncExec(new Runnable() { public void run() { buttonOk.setEnabled(true); } }); I prefer keeping my source code as flat as I possibly can, but I need a whopping 3 indentation levels just to do something simple. Is there some way I can wrap it? I would like a class like: public class UIUpdater { public static void updateUI(Shell shell, *function_ptr*) { shell.getDisplay().asyncExec(new Runnable() { public void run() { //Execute function_ptr } }); } } And can be used like so: UIUpdater.updateUI(shell, buttonOk.setEnabled(true)); Something like this would be great for hiding that horrible mess SWT seems to think is necessary to do anything. As I understand it, Java cannot do functions pointers. But Java 7 will have something called Closures which should be what I want. But in the meantime is there anything at all I can do to pass a function pointer or callback to another function to be executed? As an aside, I'm starting to think it'd be worth the effort to redo this application in Swing, and I don't have to put up with this ugly crap and non-cross-platformyness of SWT.

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  • How to convert model into url properly in asp.net MVC?

    - by 4eburek
    From the SEO standpoint it is nice to see urls in format which explains what is located on a page Let's have a look on such situation (it is just example) We need to display page about some user and decided to have such url template for that page: /user/{UserId}/{UserCountry}/{UserLogin}. And create for this purpose such model public class UserUrlInfo{ public int UserId{get;set;} public string UserCountry{get;set;} public string UserLogin{get;set;} } I want to create controller method where I pass UserUrlInfo object but not all required fields. Classic controller method for url template shown above is following public ActionResult Index(int UserId, string UserCountry, string UserLogin){ return View(); } and we need to call it like that Html.ActionLink<UserController>(x=>Index(user.UserId, user.UserCountry, user.UserLogin), "See user page") I want to create such controller method public ActionResult Index(UserUrlInfo userInfo){ return View(); } and call it like that: Html.ActionLink<UserController>(x=>Index(user), "See user page") Actually I works when we add one more route and point it to the same controller method, so routing will be: /user/{userInfo} /user/{UserId}/{UserCountry}/{UserLogin} In this situation routing engine gets string method of our model (need to override it) and it works ALMOST always. But sometimes it fails and show url like /page/?userInfo=/US/John So my workaround does not always work properly. Does anybody know how to work with urls in such way?

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  • Ruby Design Problem for SQL Bulk Inserter

    - by crunchyt
    This is a Ruby design problem. How can I make a reusable flat file parser that can perform different data scrubbing operations per call, return the emitted results from each scrubbing operation to the caller and perform bulk SQL insertions? Now, before anyone gets narky/concerned, I have written this code already in a very unDRY fashion. Which is why I am asking any Ruby rockstars our there for some assitance. Basically, everytime I want to perform this logic, I create two nested loops, with custom processing in between, buffer each processed line to an array, and output to the DB as a bulk insert when the buffer size limit is reached. Although I have written lots of helpers, the main pattern is being copy pasted everytime. Not very DRY! Here is a Ruby/Pseudo code example of what I am repeating. lines_from_file.each do |line| line.match(/some regex/).each do |sub_str| # Process substring into useful format # EG1: Simple gsub() call # EG2: Custom function call to do complex scrubbing # and matching, emitting results to array # EG3: Loop to match opening/closing/nested brackets # or other delimiters and emit results to array end # Add processed lines to a buffer as SQL insert statement @buffer << PREPARED INSERT STATEMENT # Flush buffer when "buffer size limit reached" or "end of file" if sql_buffer_full || last_line_reached @dbc.insert(SQL INSERTS FROM BUFFER) @buffer = nil end end I am familiar with Proc/Lambda functions. However, because I want to pass two separate procs to the one function, I am not sure how to proceed. I have some idea about how to solve this, but I would really like to see what the real Rubyists suggest? Over to you. Thanks in advance :D

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  • How to make a request from an android app that can enter a Spring Security secured webservice method

    - by johnrock
    I have a Spring Security (form based authentication) web app running CXF JAX-RS webservices and I am trying to connect to this webservice from an Android app that can be authenticated on a per user basis. Currently, when I add an @Secured annotation to my webservice method all requests to this method are denied. I have tried to pass in credentials of a valid user/password (that currently exists in the Spring Security based web app and can log in to the web app successfully) from the android call but the request still fails to enter this method when the @Secured annotation is present. The SecurityContext parameter returns null when calling getUserPrincipal(). How can I make a request from an android app that can enter a Spring Security secured webservice method? Here is the code I am working with at the moment: Android call: httpclient.getCredentialsProvider().setCredentials( //new AuthScope("192.168.1.101", 80), new AuthScope(null, -1), new UsernamePasswordCredentials("joeuser", "mypassword")); String userAgent = "Android/" + getVersion(); HttpGet httpget = new HttpGet(MY_URI); httpget.setHeader("User-Agent", userAgent); httpget.setHeader("Content-Type", "application/xml"); HttpResponse response; try { response = httpclient.execute(httpget); HttpEntity entity = response.getEntity(); ... parse xml Webservice Method: @GET @Path("/payload") @Produces("application/XML") @Secured({"ROLE_USER","ROLE_ADMIN","ROLE_GUEST"}) public Response makePayload(@Context Request request, @Context SecurityContext securityContext){ Payload payload = new Payload(); payload.setUsersOnline(new Long(200)); if (payload == null) { return Response.noContent().build(); } else{ return Response.ok().entity(payload).build(); } }

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  • How can i use a commandlinetool (ie. sox) via subprocess.Popen with mod_wsgi?

    - by marue
    I have a custom django filefield that makes use of sox, a commandline audiotool. This works pretty well as long as i use the django development server. But as soon as i switch to the production server, using apache2 and mod_wsgi, mod_wsgi catches every output to stdout. This makes it impossible to use the commandline tool to evaluate the file, for example use it to check if the uploaded file really is an audio file like this: filetype=subprocess.Popen([sox,'--i','-t','%s'%self.path], shell=False,\ stdout=subprocess.PIPE, stderr=subprocess.PIPE) (filetype,error)=filetype.communicate() if error: raise EnvironmentError((1,'AudioFile error while determining audioformat: %s'%error)) Is there a way to workaround for this? edit the error i get is "missing filename". I am using mod_wsgi 2.5, standard with ubuntu 8.04. edit2 What exactly happens, when i call subprocess.Popen from within django in mod_wsgi? Shouldn't subprocess stdin/stdout be independent from django stdin/stdout? In that case mod_wsgi should not affect programms called via subprocess... I'm really confused right now, because the file i am trying to access is a temporary file, created via a filenamevariable that i pass to the file creation and the subprocess command. That file is being written to /tmp, where the rights are 777, so it can't be a rights issue. And the error message is not "file does not exist", but "missing filename", which suggests i am not passing a filename as parameter to the commandlinetool.

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  • c# delegate and abstract class

    - by BeraCim
    Hi all: I currently have 2 concrete methods in 2 abstract classes. One class contains the current method, while the other contains the legacy method. E.g. // Class #1 public abstract class ClassCurrent<T> : BaseClass<T> where T : BaseNode, new() { public List<T> GetAllRootNodes(int i) { //some code } } // Class #2 public abstract class MyClassLegacy<T> : BaseClass<T> where T : BaseNode, new() { public List<T> GetAllLeafNodes(int j) { //some code } } I want the corresponding method to run in their relative scenarios in the app. I'm planning to write a delegate to handle this. The idea is that I can just call the delegate and write logic in it to handle which method to call depending on which class/project it is called from (at least thats what I think delegates are for and how they are used). However, I have some questions on that topic (after some googling): 1) Is it possible to have a delegate that knows the 2 (or more) methods that reside in different classes? 2) Is it possible to make a delegate that spawns off abstract classes (like from the above code)? (My guess is a no, since delegates create concrete implementation of the passed-in classes) 3) I tried to write a delegate for the above code. But I'm being technically challenged: public delegate List GetAllNodesDelegate(int k); GetAllNodesDelegate del = new GetAllNodesDelegate(ClassCurrent.GetAllRootNodes); I got the following error: An object reference is required for the non-static field, method, property ClassCurrent<BaseNode>.GetAllRootNodes(int) I might have misunderstood something... but if I have to manually declare a delegate at the calling class, AND to pass in the function manually as above, then I'm starting to question whether delegate is a good way to handle my problem. Thanks.

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  • Blackberry: Passing KML file to Google Maps

    - by Pria
    I want to know that can I pass KML as a string to google map application? Code snippet: //KML String String document = "<?xml version=\"1.0\" encoding=\"UTF-8\"?><kml xmlns=\"http://www.opengis.net/kml/2.2\"><Document><Folder><name>Paths</name><open>0</open><Placemark><LineString><tessellate>1</tessellate><coordinates> -112.0814237830345,36.10677870477137,0 -112.0870267752693,36.0905099328766,0</coordinates></LineString></Placemark></Folder></Document></kml>"; //Invoke Google Maps int module = CodeModuleManager.getModuleHandle("GoogleMaps"); if (module == 0) { try { throw new ApplicationManagerException("GoogleMaps isn't installed"); } catch (ApplicationManagerException e) { System.out.println(e.getMessage()); } } String[] args = {document}; //Is this possible??? ApplicationDescriptor descriptor = CodeModuleManager.getApplicationDescriptors(module)[0]; ApplicationDescriptor ad2 = new ApplicationDescriptor(descriptor, args); try { ApplicationManager.getApplicationManager().runApplication(ad2, true); } catch (ApplicationManagerException e) { System.out.println(e.getMessage()); }

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  • Are there pitfalls to using static class/event as an application message bus

    - by Doug Clutter
    I have a static generic class that helps me move events around with very little overhead: public static class MessageBus<T> where T : EventArgs { public static event EventHandler<T> MessageReceived; public static void SendMessage(object sender, T message) { if (MessageReceived != null) MessageReceived(sender, message); } } To create a system-wide message bus, I simply need to define an EventArgs class to pass around any arbitrary bits of information: class MyEventArgs : EventArgs { public string Message { get; set; } } Anywhere I'm interested in this event, I just wire up a handler: MessageBus<MyEventArgs>.MessageReceived += (s,e) => DoSomething(); Likewise, triggering the event is just as easy: MessageBus<MyEventArgs>.SendMessage(this, new MyEventArgs() {Message="hi mom"}); Using MessageBus and a custom EventArgs class lets me have an application wide message sink for a specific type of message. This comes in handy when you have several forms that, for example, display customer information and maybe a couple forms that update that information. None of the forms know about each other and none of them need to be wired to a static "super class". I have a couple questions: fxCop complains about using static methods with generics, but this is exactly what I'm after here. I want there to be exactly one MessageBus for each type of message handled. Using a static with a generic saves me from writing all the code that would maintain the list of MessageBus objects. Are the listening objects being kept "alive" via the MessageReceived event? For instance, perhaps I have this code in a Form.Load event: MessageBus<CustomerChangedEventArgs>.MessageReceived += (s,e) => DoReload(); When the Form is Closed, is the Form being retained in memory because MessageReceived has a reference to its DoReload method? Should I be removing the reference when the form closes: MessageBus<CustomerChangedEventArgs>.MessageReceived -= (s,e) => DoReload();

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  • Why can't I get the value of this text input?

    - by Spilot
    It seems simple enough, but nothing I try is working. I have a jquery ui datepicker, I use val() to get the value of that input on button click(), then log it. The click event is working. I can log a string I write myself, but when I pass console.log() the variable that stores the datepicker value...nothing. I've tried using html() and text() instead of val(), still nothing //JS $(function(){ $("button").button(); $("#date").datepicker(); var date = $("#date").val(); $("button").click(function(){ // this logs console.log("event working"); // but this logs nothing console.log(date); });//close click });//closes function //HTML <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <script src="http://www.parsecdn.com/js/parse-1.2.8.min.js"></script> <script src="//ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.10.1/jquery.min.js"></script> <script src="http://code.jquery.com/ui/1.10.3/jquery-ui.js"></script> <link rel="stylesheet" href="http://myDomain/bn/lbStyle.css"/> <script src="http://myDomain/index.js"></script> <title> Welcome to The Bringer Network </title> </head> <body> <form id="dialog"> <p>Date <input type="text" id="date"/></p> <button>Submit</button> </form> </body> </html>

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  • NHibernate complex order query

    - by manu08
    Here's my simplified domain public class Notification { public Guid ID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public IEnumerable<Location> Locations { get; set; } } public class Location { public Guid Id { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public decimal Longitude { get; set; } public decimal Latitude { get; set; } } Notifications and Locations have a many-to-many relationship (defined in table LocationsOnNotification). What I'd like to do is query for the nearest 10 Notifications from a given longitude and latitude. I've been trying to use ICriteria, but I'm not sure how to specify the ordering correctly: return Session.CreateCriteria<Notification>() .SetFirstResult(firstIndex) .SetMaxResults(maxResults) .AddOrder(Order.Asc( WHAT GOES HERE! )) .List<Notification>(); What I've been thinking of so far is adding a formula property to the Location mapping; something like this: <property name='Distance' formula='lots of geometry'/> But I'm not sure if that can take in parameters (since I'd need to pass in the user's location to calculate the distance), plus I'm not sure how to specify it in the Order.Asc clause given that it's a property on a many-to-many association class. Any ideas? Or perhaps I should take a different approach altogether. Thanks in advance!

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  • Trouble with Unions in C program.

    - by Jordan S
    I am working on a C program that uses a Union. The union definition is in FILE_A header file and looks like this... // FILE_A.h**************************************************** xdata union { long position; char bytes[4]; }CurrentPosition; If I set the value of CurrentPosition.position in FILE_A.c and then call a function in FILE_B.c that uses the union, the data in the union is back to Zero. This is demonstrated below. // FILE_A.c**************************************************** int main.c(void) { CurrentPosition.position = 12345; SomeFunctionInFileB(); } // FILE_B.c**************************************************** void SomeFunctionInFileB(void) { // After the following lines execute I see all zeros in the flash memory. WriteByteToFlash(CurrentPosition.bytes[0]; WriteByteToFlash(CurrentPosition.bytes[1]; WriteByteToFlash(CurrentPosition.bytes[2]; WriteByteToFlash(CurrentPosition.bytes[3]; } Now, If I pass a long to SomeFunctionInFileB(long temp) and then store it into CurrentPosition.bytes within that function, and finally call WriteBytesToFlash(CurrentPosition.bytes[n]... it works just fine. It appears as though the CurrentPosition Union is not global. So I tried changing the union definition in the header file to include the extern keyword like this... extern xdata union { long position; char bytes[4]; }CurrentPosition; and then putting this in the source (.c) file... xdata union { long position; char bytes[4]; }CurrentPosition; but this causes a compile error that says: C:\SiLabs\Optec Programs\AgosRot\MotionControl.c:76: error 91: extern definition for 'CurrentPosition' mismatches with declaration. C:\SiLabs\Optec Programs\AgosRot\/MotionControl.h:48: error 177: previously defined here So what am I doing wrong? How do I make the union global?

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  • How to retrieve the Description property from SettingsProperty?

    - by BadNinja
    For each item in my application's settings, I've added text to its Description Property which I want to retrieve at runtime. I'm sure I'm missing some basic logical nuance here, but everything I've tried has failed. Clearly, my understanding of what value needs to be passed to the Attributes property of the SettingsProperty class is wrong. I'm further confused by the fact that when I iterate through all they keys returned by SettingsProperty.Attributes.Keys, I can see "System.Configuration.SettingsDescriptionAttribute", but when I pass that string in as the key to the Attributes property, null is returned. Any insight into how to properly retrieve the value Description Property would be very much appreciated. Thanks. :) public void MyMethod() { SettingsPropertyCollection MyAppProperties = Properties.Settings.Default.Properties; IEnumerator enumerator = MyAppProperties.GetEnumerator(); // Iterate through all the keys to see what we have.... while (enumerator.MoveNext()) { SettingsProperty property = (SettingsProperty)enumerator.Current; ICollection myKeys = property.Attributes.Keys; foreach (object theKey in myKeys) System.Diagnostics.Debug.Print(theKey.ToString()); // One of the keys returned is: System.Configuration.SettingsDescriptionAttribute } enumerator.Reset(); while (enumerator.MoveNext()) { SettingsProperty property = (SettingsProperty)enumerator.Current; string propertyValue = property.DefaultValue.ToString(); // This fails: Null Reference string propertyDescription = property.Attributes["System.Configuration.SettingsDescriptionAttribute"].ToString(); // Do stuff with strings... } }

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  • Initializing objects on the fly

    - by pocoa
    I have a vector called players and a class called Player. And what I'm trying to do is to write: players.push_back(Player(name, Weapon(bullets))); So I want to be able to create players in a loop. But I see an error message says "no matching function for call Player::Player..." Then I've changed that to: Weapon w(bullets); Player p(name, w); players.push_back(p); Here is my Player definition: class Player { public: Player(string &name, Weapon &weapon); private string name; Weapon weapon; } I'm just trying to learn what is the difference between these definitions. And is this the right way to pass an object to an object constructor. Note: These are not my actual class definitions. I'm just trying to learn something about object oriented programming in C++ with coding it. I mean I know that Weapon should be initialized in Player :)

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  • C# ref Confusion

    - by Rahat
    I have a confusion that when i pass a variable by refrence in the constructor of another class and after passing that object by refrence i recreate the refrence object with the new keyword. Now the class in which i have passed the refrenced object dosen't reflect the updated data. An exabple of the above problem is shown below: Object to be passed by Refrence: public class DummyObject { public string Name = "My Name"; public DummyObject() { } } Class which is passing the Refrence: public partial class Form1 : Form { // Object to be passed as refrence DummyObject dummyObject = new DummyObject(); public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); } private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // assigning value dummyObject.Name = "I am Dummy"; // Passing object Form2 frm = new Form2(ref dummyObject); frm.Show(); } private void button2_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Displaying Name MessageBox.Show(this.dummyObject.Name); } private void button3_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Assigning new object this.dummyObject = new DummyObject(); // Changing Name Variable this.dummyObject.Name = "I am Rechanged"; // Displaying Name MessageBox.Show(this.dummyObject.Name); } } Class to which Object is passed by Reference: public partial class Form2 : Form { private DummyObject dummyObject = null; public Form2(ref DummyObject DummyObject) { InitializeComponent(); this.dummyObject = DummyObject; this.dummyObject.Name = "I am Changed"; } private void button2_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show(this.dummyObject.Name); } } whn i reaasign the object in Form 1 and cdisplay its value in form 2 it still displays "I am Changed" instead of "I am Rechanged". How to keep the data synchronized?

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  • SQL Server Collation / ADO.NET DataTable.Locale with different languages

    - by Turro
    Hi all, we have WinForms app which stores data in SQL Server (2000, we are working on porting it in 2008) through ADO.NET (1.1, working on porting to 4.0). Everything works fine if I read data previsouly written in Western-European locale (E.g.: "test", "test ù"), but now we have to be able to mix Western and non-Western alphabets as well (E.g.: "test - ???" - these are just random arabic chars). On the SQL Server side, database has been set with the Latin1_General collation, the field is a nvarchar(80). If I run a SQL SELECT statement (E.g.: "SELECT * FROM MyTable WHERE field = 'test - ???'", don't mind about the "*" or the actual names) from Query Analyzer, I get no results; the same happens if I pass the Sql statement to an ADO.NET DataAdapter to fill a DataTable. My guess is that it has something to do with collation, but I don't know how to correct this: do I have to change to collation (SQL Server) to a different one? Or do I have to set the locale on the DataAdaoter/DataTable (ADO.NET)? Thanks in advance to anyone who will help

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  • How to redirect a URL with GET variables in routes.rb without Rails stripping out the variable first?

    - by Michael Hopkins
    I am building a website in Rails to replace an existing website. In routes.rb I am trying to redirect some of the old URLs to their new equivalents (some of the URL slugs are changing so a dynamic solution is not possible.) My routes.rb looks like this: match "/index.php?page=contact-us" => redirect("/contact-us") match "/index.php?page=about-us" => redirect("/about-us") match "/index.php?page=committees" => redirect("/teams") When I visit /index.php?page=contact-us I am not redirected to /contact-us. I have determined this is because Rails is removing the get variables and only trying to match /index.php. For example, If I pass /index.php?page=contact-us into the below routes I will be redirected to /foobar: match "/index.php?page=contact-us" => redirect("/contact-us") match "/index.php?page=about-us" => redirect("/about-us") match "/index.php?page=committees" => redirect("/teams") match "/index.php" => redirect("/foobar") How can I keep the GET variables in the string and redirect the old URLs the way I'd like? Does Rails have an intended mechanism for this?

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  • C: Proper syntax for allocating memory using pointers to pointers.

    - by ~kero-05h
    This is my first time posting here, hopefully I will not make a fool of myself. I am trying to use a function to allocate memory to a pointer, copy text to the buffer, and then change a character. I keep getting a segfault and have tried looking up the answer, my syntax is probably wrong, I could use some enlightenment. /* My objective is to pass a buffer to my Copy function, allocate room, and copy text to it. Then I want to modify the text and print it.*/ #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> #include <string.h> int Copy(char **Buffer, char *Text); int main() { char *Text = malloc(sizeof(char) * 100); char *Buffer; strncpy(Text, "1234567890\n", 100); Copy(&Buffer, Text); } int Copy(char **Buffer, char *Text) { int count; count = strlen(Text)+1; *Buffer = malloc(sizeof(char) * count); strncpy(*Buffer, Text, 5); *Buffer[2] = 'A'; /* This results in a segfault. "*Buffer[1] = 'A';" results in no differece in the output. */ printf("%s\n", *Buffer); }

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  • XSLT how to merge some lists of parameters

    - by buggy1985
    Hi, I have an URL Structure like this: http://my.domain.com/generated.xml?param1=foo&param2=bar&xsl=path/to/my.xsl The generated XML will be transformed using the given XSL Stylesheet. The two other parameters are integrated too like this: <root> <params> <param name="param1">foo</param> <param name="param2">bar</param> </param> ... </root> Now I want to create with XSLT a link with a new URI that keeps the existing parameters and adds one or multiple new parameters like page=3 or sort=DESC. If the given parameter already exists, it should be replaced. I'm not sure how to do this. How to pass multiple (optional) parameters to a template. How to merge two lists of parameters. Any ideas? Thanks ;)

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  • TransactionScope question - how can I keep the DTC from getting involved in this?

    - by larryq
    (I know the circumstances surrounding the DTC and promoting a transaction can be a bit mysterious to those of us not in the know, but let me show you how my company is doing things, and if you can tell me why the DTC is getting involved, and if possible, what I can do to avoid it, I'd be grateful.) I have code running on an ASP.Net webserver. We have one database, SQL 2008. Our data access code looks something like this-- We have a data access layer that uses a wrapper object for SQLConnections and SQLCommands. Typical use looks like this: void method1() { objDataObject = new DataAccessLayer(); objDataObject.Connection = SomeConnectionMethod(); SqlCommand objCommand = DataAccessUtils.CreateCommand(SomeStoredProc); //create some SqlParameters, add them to the objCommand, etc.... objDataObject.BeginTransaction(IsolationLevel.ReadCommitted); objDataObject.ExecuteNonQuery(objCommand); objDataObject.CommitTransaction(); objDataObject.CloseConnection(); } So indeed, a very thin wrapper around SqlClient, SqlConnection etc. I want to run several stored procs in a transaction, and the wrapper class doesn't allow me access to the SqlTransaction so I can't pass it from one component to the next. This led me to use a TransactionScope: using (TransactionScope tx1 = new TransactionScope(TransactionScope.RequiresNew)) { method1(); method2(); method3(); tx1.Complete(); } When I do this, the DTC gets involved, and unfortunately our webservers don't have "allow remote clients" enabled in the MSDTC settings-- getting IT to allow that will be a fight. I'd love to avoid DTC becoming involved but can I do it? Can I leave out the transactional calls in methods1-3() and just let the TransactionScope figure it all out?

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  • Applications result affected by another running application.

    - by Jamie Keeling
    This is a follow on from my previous question although this is about something else. I've been having a problem where for some reason my message that I pass from one process to another only displays the first letter, in this case "M". My application is based on a MSDN sample so to make sure I hadn't missed something I create a separate solution, added the MSDN sample (without any changes for my needs) and unsurprisingly it works fine. Now for the weird bit, when I run the MSDN sample running (as in debugging) and have my own application running, the text prints out fine without any problems. The second I run my on its own without the original MSDN sample being open, and it fails to work and only shows an "M". I've looked in the debugger and don't seem to notice anything suspicious (it's a slightly dated picture, I've fixed the data type inconsistency). Can anyone provide a solution for this? I've never encountered anything like this before. To look at my source code it's easier to just look at the link I posted at the top of the question, there's no point in me posting it twice. Thank you for any help.

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  • How To Share Information Between Django and Javascript?

    - by Randy
    So I am pretty new to both Django and Javascript (I am using JQuery) and I am wondering if I am doing a hack or if there are more slick ways to send client-side displayed database ids to the django server-side. Here is my process: I have a dataTable (http://datatables.net) that I am displaying rows of data by using the bProcessing option to use AJAX to retrieve records from the database. The URL in my urls.py is something like: url(r'^assets/activitylog/(?P<cid>.*)$', views.getActivityTable_ajax, name="activitylog_table"), and my dataTable ajax-relavant code is something like: "sAjaxSource": "/assets/activitylog/" + getIDFromHTML(), where the javascript function getIDFromHTML() grabs <cid> that is used by the Django view is simply: function getIDFromHTML(){ // Simply return the text in the #release_id div element from the HTML return $("#release_id").html(); }; This is the part that seems "hacky" to me. I am inserting into my template code the database id that I am using in the datatables URL (with display:none in the css) just so I can pass it back to the view. Most of this is necessitated because one cannot use django template tags in the javascript code unless the code is embedded into the HTML itself, which I am not (and will not) do. The only other thing that I have found is to change the URL to get rid of the parameter passed in to: url(r'^assets/activitylog', views.getActivityTable_ajax, name="activitylog_table"), and change the view code to: def getActivityTable_ajax(request): """Returns the activity for a given pid from HTTP GET ajax reqest""" pid = int(urlparse.urlparse(request.META['HTTP_REFERER']).path.split('/')[-1]) # rest of view code here... since the id that I need is on the end of this referer url. This way I don't have to monkey around with embedding the hidden database id into the HTML and passing it back to via ajax the the table population view code. Is it okay to use HTTP_REFERER in the request object in this manner? Am I going about this in the totally wrong way? Thanks in advance!

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