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• Blackberry: Passing KML file to Google Maps

  - by Pria

  I want to know that can I pass KML as a string to google map application? Code snippet: //KML String String document = "<?xml version=\"1.0\" encoding=\"UTF-8\"?><kml xmlns=\"http://www.opengis.net/kml/2.2\"><Document><Folder><name>Paths</name><open>0</open><Placemark><LineString><tessellate>1</tessellate><coordinates> -112.0814237830345,36.10677870477137,0 -112.0870267752693,36.0905099328766,0</coordinates></LineString></Placemark></Folder></Document></kml>"; //Invoke Google Maps int module = CodeModuleManager.getModuleHandle("GoogleMaps"); if (module == 0) { try { throw new ApplicationManagerException("GoogleMaps isn't installed"); } catch (ApplicationManagerException e) { System.out.println(e.getMessage()); } } String[] args = {document}; //Is this possible??? ApplicationDescriptor descriptor = CodeModuleManager.getApplicationDescriptors(module)[0]; ApplicationDescriptor ad2 = new ApplicationDescriptor(descriptor, args); try { ApplicationManager.getApplicationManager().runApplication(ad2, true); } catch (ApplicationManagerException e) { System.out.println(e.getMessage()); }

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• Dynamically generate client-side HTML form control using JavaScript and server-side Python code in Google App Engine

  - by gisc

  I have the following client-side front-end HTML using Jinja2 template engine: {% for record in result %} <textarea name="remark">{{ record.remark }}</textarea> <input type="submit" name="approve" value="Approve" /> {% endfor %} Thus the HTML may show more than 1 set of textarea and submit button. The back-end Python code retrieves a variable number of records from a gql query using the model, and pass this to the Jinja2 template in result. When a submit button is clicked, it triggers the post method to update the record: def post(self): if self.request.get('approve'): updated_remark = self.request.get('remark') record.remark = db.Text(updated_remark) record.put() However, in some instances, the record updated is NOT the one that correspond to the submit button clicked (eg if a user clicks on record 1 submit, record 2 remark gets updated, but not record 1). I gather that this is due to the duplicate attribute name remark. I can possibly use JavaScript/jQuery to generate different attribute names. The question is, how do I code the back-end Python to get the (variable number of) names generated by the JavaScript? Thanks.

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• How to redirect a URL with GET variables in routes.rb without Rails stripping out the variable first?

  - by Michael Hopkins

  I am building a website in Rails to replace an existing website. In routes.rb I am trying to redirect some of the old URLs to their new equivalents (some of the URL slugs are changing so a dynamic solution is not possible.) My routes.rb looks like this: match "/index.php?page=contact-us" => redirect("/contact-us") match "/index.php?page=about-us" => redirect("/about-us") match "/index.php?page=committees" => redirect("/teams") When I visit /index.php?page=contact-us I am not redirected to /contact-us. I have determined this is because Rails is removing the get variables and only trying to match /index.php. For example, If I pass /index.php?page=contact-us into the below routes I will be redirected to /foobar: match "/index.php?page=contact-us" => redirect("/contact-us") match "/index.php?page=about-us" => redirect("/about-us") match "/index.php?page=committees" => redirect("/teams") match "/index.php" => redirect("/foobar") How can I keep the GET variables in the string and redirect the old URLs the way I'd like? Does Rails have an intended mechanism for this?

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• How to retrieve the Description property from SettingsProperty?

  - by BadNinja

  For each item in my application's settings, I've added text to its Description Property which I want to retrieve at runtime. I'm sure I'm missing some basic logical nuance here, but everything I've tried has failed. Clearly, my understanding of what value needs to be passed to the Attributes property of the SettingsProperty class is wrong. I'm further confused by the fact that when I iterate through all they keys returned by SettingsProperty.Attributes.Keys, I can see "System.Configuration.SettingsDescriptionAttribute", but when I pass that string in as the key to the Attributes property, null is returned. Any insight into how to properly retrieve the value Description Property would be very much appreciated. Thanks. :) public void MyMethod() { SettingsPropertyCollection MyAppProperties = Properties.Settings.Default.Properties; IEnumerator enumerator = MyAppProperties.GetEnumerator(); // Iterate through all the keys to see what we have.... while (enumerator.MoveNext()) { SettingsProperty property = (SettingsProperty)enumerator.Current; ICollection myKeys = property.Attributes.Keys; foreach (object theKey in myKeys) System.Diagnostics.Debug.Print(theKey.ToString()); // One of the keys returned is: System.Configuration.SettingsDescriptionAttribute } enumerator.Reset(); while (enumerator.MoveNext()) { SettingsProperty property = (SettingsProperty)enumerator.Current; string propertyValue = property.DefaultValue.ToString(); // This fails: Null Reference string propertyDescription = property.Attributes["System.Configuration.SettingsDescriptionAttribute"].ToString(); // Do stuff with strings... } }

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• C# ref Confusion

  - by Rahat

  I have a confusion that when i pass a variable by refrence in the constructor of another class and after passing that object by refrence i recreate the refrence object with the new keyword. Now the class in which i have passed the refrenced object dosen't reflect the updated data. An exabple of the above problem is shown below: Object to be passed by Refrence: public class DummyObject { public string Name = "My Name"; public DummyObject() { } } Class which is passing the Refrence: public partial class Form1 : Form { // Object to be passed as refrence DummyObject dummyObject = new DummyObject(); public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); } private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // assigning value dummyObject.Name = "I am Dummy"; // Passing object Form2 frm = new Form2(ref dummyObject); frm.Show(); } private void button2_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Displaying Name MessageBox.Show(this.dummyObject.Name); } private void button3_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Assigning new object this.dummyObject = new DummyObject(); // Changing Name Variable this.dummyObject.Name = "I am Rechanged"; // Displaying Name MessageBox.Show(this.dummyObject.Name); } } Class to which Object is passed by Reference: public partial class Form2 : Form { private DummyObject dummyObject = null; public Form2(ref DummyObject DummyObject) { InitializeComponent(); this.dummyObject = DummyObject; this.dummyObject.Name = "I am Changed"; } private void button2_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show(this.dummyObject.Name); } } whn i reaasign the object in Form 1 and cdisplay its value in form 2 it still displays "I am Changed" instead of "I am Rechanged". How to keep the data synchronized?

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• Initializing objects on the fly

  - by pocoa

  I have a vector called players and a class called Player. And what I'm trying to do is to write: players.push_back(Player(name, Weapon(bullets))); So I want to be able to create players in a loop. But I see an error message says "no matching function for call Player::Player..." Then I've changed that to: Weapon w(bullets); Player p(name, w); players.push_back(p); Here is my Player definition: class Player { public: Player(string &name, Weapon &weapon); private string name; Weapon weapon; } I'm just trying to learn what is the difference between these definitions. And is this the right way to pass an object to an object constructor. Note: These are not my actual class definitions. I'm just trying to learn something about object oriented programming in C++ with coding it. I mean I know that Weapon should be initialized in Player :)

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• [C++] Multiple inclusion in multiple files

  - by Amumu

  Hi everyone, I am making a small game. In BattleRecord.h: #ifndef _CHARACTER_H_ #define _CHARACTER_H_ #include "Character.h" #endif class BattleRecord { public: Character Attacker; Character Defender; Status status; int DamageDealt; int GoldEarned; int ExpGained; }; In Character.h: #ifndef _EQUIPMENT_H_ #define _EQUIPMENT_H_ #include "Equipment.h" #endif class BattleRecord; class Character { BattleRecord AttackEnemy(Character &Enemy); } In BattleRecord.h: #ifndef _CHARACTER_H_ #define _CHARACTEr_H_ #include "Character.h" #endif #ifndef _BATLE_RECORD_H_ #define _BATLE_RECORD_H_ #include "BattleRecord.h" #endif class GUI { public: //GUI Methods, and two of these: void ViewStats(Character &Player); void Report(BattleRecord Record) } The problem here is, my Character.h and BattleRecord.h need to include each other, and this definitely will cause multiple redefinition problem. Therefore, I used forward declaration in Character.h by adding: class BattleRecord; The problem is sovled. But then, the GUI.h needs BattleRecord.h again for reporting the battle, so I have to include BattleRecord.h into the GUI.h. I also have to include the Character.h in order to pass into the ViewStat function. I got error and stuck with this up to this piont.

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• Is it possible to wrap an asynchronous event and its callback in a function that returns a boolean?

  - by Rob Flaherty

  I'm trying to write a simple test that creates an image element, checks the image attributes, and then returns true/false. The problem is that using the onload event makes the test asynchronous. On it own this isn't a problem (using a callback as I've done in the code below is easy), but what I can't figure out is how to encapsulate this into a single function that returns a boolean. I've tried various combinations of closures, recursion, and self-executing functions but have had no luck. So my question: am I being dense and overlooking something simple, or is this in fact not possible, because, no matter what, I'm still trying to wrap an asynchronous function in synchronous expectations? Here's the code: var supportsImage = function(callback) { var img = new Image(); img.onload = function() { //Check attributes and pass true or false to callback callback(true); }; img.src = 'data:image/gif;base64,R0lGODlhAQABAAD/ACwAAAAAAQABAAACADs='; }; supportsImage(function(status){ console.log(status); }); To be clear, what I want is to be able to wrap this in something such that it can be used like: if (supportsImage) { //Do some crazy stuff } Thanks! (Btw, I know there are a ton of SO questions regarding confusion about synchronous vs. asynchronous. Apologies if this can be reduced to something previously answered.)

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• accessing a method from a button within a class?

  - by flo

  #import "GameObject.h" #import "Definitions.h" @implementation GameObject @synthesize owner; @synthesize state; @synthesize mirrored; @synthesize button; @synthesize switcher; - (id) init { if ( self = [super init] ) { [self setOwner: EmptyField]; button = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeCustom]; [self setSwitcher: FALSE]; } return self; } - (UIButton*) display{ button.frame = CGRectMake(0, 0, GO_Width, GO_Height); [button setBackgroundImage:[UIImage imageNamed:BlueStone] forState:UIControlStateNormal]; [button addTarget:self action:@selector(buttonPressed:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; return button; } -(void)buttonPressed:(id) sender { //... } } - (void) dealloc { [super dealloc]; } @end Hi! i would like to know if the above is possible somehow within a class (in my case it is called GameObject) or if i HAVE to have the button call a methode in the viewcontroller... the above results with the app crashing. i would call display within a loop on the viewcontroller and id like to change some of the GameObjects instance variables within buttonPressed. Also id like to change some other stuff by calling some other methods from within buttonPressed but i think that will be the lesser of my problems ;) also id like to know how i can pass some variables to the buttonPressed method... cant find it anywhere :( help on this one would be much appreciated ;) thanks flo

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• Applications result affected by another running application.

  - by Jamie Keeling

  This is a follow on from my previous question although this is about something else. I've been having a problem where for some reason my message that I pass from one process to another only displays the first letter, in this case "M". My application is based on a MSDN sample so to make sure I hadn't missed something I create a separate solution, added the MSDN sample (without any changes for my needs) and unsurprisingly it works fine. Now for the weird bit, when I run the MSDN sample running (as in debugging) and have my own application running, the text prints out fine without any problems. The second I run my on its own without the original MSDN sample being open, and it fails to work and only shows an "M". I've looked in the debugger and don't seem to notice anything suspicious (it's a slightly dated picture, I've fixed the data type inconsistency). Can anyone provide a solution for this? I've never encountered anything like this before. To look at my source code it's easier to just look at the link I posted at the top of the question, there's no point in me posting it twice. Thank you for any help.

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• c# delegate and abstract class

  - by BeraCim

  Hi all: I currently have 2 concrete methods in 2 abstract classes. One class contains the current method, while the other contains the legacy method. E.g. // Class #1 public abstract class ClassCurrent<T> : BaseClass<T> where T : BaseNode, new() { public List<T> GetAllRootNodes(int i) { //some code } } // Class #2 public abstract class MyClassLegacy<T> : BaseClass<T> where T : BaseNode, new() { public List<T> GetAllLeafNodes(int j) { //some code } } I want the corresponding method to run in their relative scenarios in the app. I'm planning to write a delegate to handle this. The idea is that I can just call the delegate and write logic in it to handle which method to call depending on which class/project it is called from (at least thats what I think delegates are for and how they are used). However, I have some questions on that topic (after some googling): 1) Is it possible to have a delegate that knows the 2 (or more) methods that reside in different classes? 2) Is it possible to make a delegate that spawns off abstract classes (like from the above code)? (My guess is a no, since delegates create concrete implementation of the passed-in classes) 3) I tried to write a delegate for the above code. But I'm being technically challenged: public delegate List GetAllNodesDelegate(int k); GetAllNodesDelegate del = new GetAllNodesDelegate(ClassCurrent.GetAllRootNodes); I got the following error: An object reference is required for the non-static field, method, property ClassCurrent<BaseNode>.GetAllRootNodes(int) I might have misunderstood something... but if I have to manually declare a delegate at the calling class, AND to pass in the function manually as above, then I'm starting to question whether delegate is a good way to handle my problem. Thanks.

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• NHibernate complex order query

  - by manu08

  Here's my simplified domain public class Notification { public Guid ID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public IEnumerable<Location> Locations { get; set; } } public class Location { public Guid Id { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public decimal Longitude { get; set; } public decimal Latitude { get; set; } } Notifications and Locations have a many-to-many relationship (defined in table LocationsOnNotification). What I'd like to do is query for the nearest 10 Notifications from a given longitude and latitude. I've been trying to use ICriteria, but I'm not sure how to specify the ordering correctly: return Session.CreateCriteria<Notification>() .SetFirstResult(firstIndex) .SetMaxResults(maxResults) .AddOrder(Order.Asc( WHAT GOES HERE! )) .List<Notification>(); What I've been thinking of so far is adding a formula property to the Location mapping; something like this: <property name='Distance' formula='lots of geometry'/> But I'm not sure if that can take in parameters (since I'd need to pass in the user's location to calculate the distance), plus I'm not sure how to specify it in the Order.Asc clause given that it's a property on a many-to-many association class. Any ideas? Or perhaps I should take a different approach altogether. Thanks in advance!

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• What can cause my code to run slower when the server JIT is activated?

  - by durandai

  I am doing some optimizations on an MPEG decoder. To ensure my optimizations aren't breaking anything I have a test suite that benchmarks the entire codebase (both optimized and original) as well as verifying that they both produce identical results (basically just feeding a couple of different streams through the decoder and crc32 the outputs). When using the "-server" option with the Sun 1.6.0_18, the test suite runs about 12% slower on the optimized version after warmup (in comparison to the default "-client" setting), while the original codebase gains a good boost running about twice as fast as in client mode. While at first this seemed to be simply a warmup issue to me, I added a loop to repeat the entire test suite multiple times. Then execution times become constant for each pass starting at the 3rd iteration of the test, still the optimized version stays 12% slower than in the client mode. I am also pretty sure its not a garbage collection issue, since the code involves absolutely no object allocations after startup. The code consists mainly of some bit manipulation operations (stream decoding) and lots of basic floating math (generating PCM audio). The only JDK classes involved are ByteArrayInputStream (feeds the stream to the test and excluding disk IO from the tests) and CRC32 (to verify the result). I also observed the same behaviour with Sun JDK 1.7.0_b98 (only that ist 15% instead of 12% there). Oh, and the tests were all done on the same machine (single core) with no other applications running (WinXP). While there is some inevitable variation on the measured execution times (using System.nanoTime btw), the variation between different test runs with the same settings never exceeded 2%, usually less than 1% (after warmup), so I conclude the effect is real and not purely induced by the measuring mechanism/machine. Are there any known coding patterns that perform worse on the server JIT? Failing that, what options are available to "peek" under the hood and observe what the JIT is doing there?

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• Java equivalent of the VB Request.InputStream

  - by Android Addict

  I have a web service that I am re-writing from VB to a Java servlet. In the web service, I want to extract the body entity set on the client-side as such: StringEntity stringEntity = new StringEntity(xml, HTTP.UTF_8); stringEntity.setContentType("application/xml"); httppost.setEntity(stringEntity); In the VB web service, I get this data by using: Dim objReader As System.IO.StreamReader objReader = New System.IO.StreamReader(Request.InputStream) Dim strXML As String = objReader.ReadToEnd and this works great. But I am looking for the equivalent in Java. I have tried this: ServletInputStream dataStream = req.getInputStream(); byte[] data = new byte[dataStream.toString().length()]; dataStream.read(data); but all it gets me is an unintelligible string: data = [B@68514fec Please advise. Edit Per the answers, I have tried: ServletInputStream dataStream = req.getInputStream(); ByteArrayOutputStream buffer = new ByteArrayOutputStream(); int r; byte[] data = new byte[1024*1024]; while ((r = dataStream.read(data, 0, data.length)) != -1) { buffer.write(data, 0, r); } buffer.flush(); byte[] data2 = buffer.toByteArray(); System.out.println("DATA = "+Arrays.toString(data2)); whichs yields: DATA = [] and when I try: System.out.println("DATA = "+data2.toString()); I get: DATA = [B@15282c7f So what am I doing wrong? As stated earlier, the same call to my VB service gives me the xml that I pass in.

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• Problem in printing array of char pointer passing from Python

  - by Yan Cheng CHEOK

  My following C code works quite well, till my Python code trying to pass an array of char pointer to it. The output I obtain is The file_name is python-file Another 3 string is not being printed out. Anything I had missed out? C Code #include <iostream> #include "c_interface.h" int foo(const char* file_name, const char** names) { std::cout << "The file_name is " << file_name << std::endl; while (*names) { std::cout << "The name is " << *names << std::endl; names++; } return 0; } /* int main() { const char *c[] = {"123gh", "456443432", "789", 0}; foo("hello", c); getchar(); } */ Python Code #!c:/Python27/python.exe -u from ctypes import * name0 = "NAME0" name1 = "NAME1" name2 = "NAME2" names = ((c_char_p * 1024) * 4)() names[0].value = name0 names[1].value = name1 names[2].value = name2 names[3].value = 0 libc = CDLL("foo.dll") libc.foo("python-file", names)

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• Generic dataset handling library

  - by Pep.

  Hello, I want to build a generic Perl module for handling and analysing biomedical character separated datasets and which can, most certain, be used on any kind of datasets that contain a mixture of categorical (A,B,C,..) and continuous (1.2,3,881..) and identifier (XXX1,XXX2...). The plan is to have people initialize the module and then use some arguments to point to the data file(s), the place were the analysis reports should be placed and the structure of the data. By structure of data I mean which variable is in which place and its name/type. And this is where I need some enlightenment. I am baffled how to do this in a clean way. Obviously, having people create a simple schema file, be it XML or some other format would be the cleanest but maybe not all people enjoy doing something like this. The solutions I can think of are: Create a configuration file in XML or similar and with a prespecified format. Pass the information during initialization of the module. Use the first row of the data as headers and try to guess types (ouch) Surely there must be a "canonical" way of doing this that is also usable and efficient. Thanks p.

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• TransactionScope question - how can I keep the DTC from getting involved in this?

  - by larryq

  (I know the circumstances surrounding the DTC and promoting a transaction can be a bit mysterious to those of us not in the know, but let me show you how my company is doing things, and if you can tell me why the DTC is getting involved, and if possible, what I can do to avoid it, I'd be grateful.) I have code running on an ASP.Net webserver. We have one database, SQL 2008. Our data access code looks something like this-- We have a data access layer that uses a wrapper object for SQLConnections and SQLCommands. Typical use looks like this: void method1() { objDataObject = new DataAccessLayer(); objDataObject.Connection = SomeConnectionMethod(); SqlCommand objCommand = DataAccessUtils.CreateCommand(SomeStoredProc); //create some SqlParameters, add them to the objCommand, etc.... objDataObject.BeginTransaction(IsolationLevel.ReadCommitted); objDataObject.ExecuteNonQuery(objCommand); objDataObject.CommitTransaction(); objDataObject.CloseConnection(); } So indeed, a very thin wrapper around SqlClient, SqlConnection etc. I want to run several stored procs in a transaction, and the wrapper class doesn't allow me access to the SqlTransaction so I can't pass it from one component to the next. This led me to use a TransactionScope: using (TransactionScope tx1 = new TransactionScope(TransactionScope.RequiresNew)) { method1(); method2(); method3(); tx1.Complete(); } When I do this, the DTC gets involved, and unfortunately our webservers don't have "allow remote clients" enabled in the MSDTC settings-- getting IT to allow that will be a fight. I'd love to avoid DTC becoming involved but can I do it? Can I leave out the transactional calls in methods1-3() and just let the TransactionScope figure it all out?

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• How to convert model into url properly in asp.net MVC?

  - by 4eburek

  From the SEO standpoint it is nice to see urls in format which explains what is located on a page Let's have a look on such situation (it is just example) We need to display page about some user and decided to have such url template for that page: /user/{UserId}/{UserCountry}/{UserLogin}. And create for this purpose such model public class UserUrlInfo{ public int UserId{get;set;} public string UserCountry{get;set;} public string UserLogin{get;set;} } I want to create controller method where I pass UserUrlInfo object but not all required fields. Classic controller method for url template shown above is following public ActionResult Index(int UserId, string UserCountry, string UserLogin){ return View(); } and we need to call it like that Html.ActionLink<UserController>(x=>Index(user.UserId, user.UserCountry, user.UserLogin), "See user page") I want to create such controller method public ActionResult Index(UserUrlInfo userInfo){ return View(); } and call it like that: Html.ActionLink<UserController>(x=>Index(user), "See user page") Actually I works when we add one more route and point it to the same controller method, so routing will be: /user/{userInfo} /user/{UserId}/{UserCountry}/{UserLogin} In this situation routing engine gets string method of our model (need to override it) and it works ALMOST always. But sometimes it fails and show url like /page/?userInfo=/US/John So my workaround does not always work properly. Does anybody know how to work with urls in such way?

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• Ordering by formula fields in NHibernate

  - by Darin Dimitrov

  Suppose that I have the following mapping with a formula property: <class name="Planet" table="planets"> <id name="Id" column="id"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <!-- somefunc() is a native SQL function --> <property name="Distance" formula="somefunc()" /> </class> I would like to get all planets and order them by the Distance calculated property: var planets = session .CreateCriteria<Planet>() .AddOrder(Order.Asc("Distance")) .List<Planet>(); This is translated to the following query: SELECT Id as id0, somefunc() as formula0 FROM planets ORDER BY somefunc() Desired query: SELECT Id as id0, somefunc() as formula0 FROM planets ORDER BY formula0 If I set a projection with an alias it works fine: var planets = session .CreateCriteria<Planet>() .SetProjection(Projections.Alias(Projections.Property("Distance"), "dist")) .AddOrder(Order.Asc("dist")) .List<Planet>(); SQL: SELECT somefunc() as formula0 FROM planets ORDER BY formula0 but it populates only the Distance property in the result and I really like to avoid projecting manually over all the other properties of my object (there could be many other properties). Is this achievable with NHibernate? As a bonus I would like to pass parameters to the native somefunc() SQL function. Anything producing the desired SQL is acceptable (replacing the formula field with subselects, etc...), the important thing is to have the calculated Distance property in the resulting object and order by this distance inside SQL.

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• C: Proper syntax for allocating memory using pointers to pointers.

  - by ~kero-05h

  This is my first time posting here, hopefully I will not make a fool of myself. I am trying to use a function to allocate memory to a pointer, copy text to the buffer, and then change a character. I keep getting a segfault and have tried looking up the answer, my syntax is probably wrong, I could use some enlightenment. /* My objective is to pass a buffer to my Copy function, allocate room, and copy text to it. Then I want to modify the text and print it.*/ #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> #include <string.h> int Copy(char **Buffer, char *Text); int main() { char *Text = malloc(sizeof(char) * 100); char *Buffer; strncpy(Text, "1234567890\n", 100); Copy(&Buffer, Text); } int Copy(char **Buffer, char *Text) { int count; count = strlen(Text)+1; *Buffer = malloc(sizeof(char) * count); strncpy(*Buffer, Text, 5); *Buffer[2] = 'A'; /* This results in a segfault. "*Buffer[1] = 'A';" results in no differece in the output. */ printf("%s\n", *Buffer); }

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• Unit testing code which uses Umbraco v4 API

  - by Jason Evans

  I'm trying to write a suite of integration tests, where I have custom code which uses the Umbraco API. The Umbraco database lives in a SQL Server CE 4.0 database (*.sdf file) and I've managed to get that association working fine. My problem looks to be dependancies in the Umbraco code. For example, I would like to create a new user for my tests, so I try: var user = User.MakeNew("developer", "developer", "mypassword", "[email protected]", adminUserType); Now as you can see, I have pass a user type which is an object. I've tried two separate ways to create the user type, both of which fail due to a null object exception: var adminUserType = UserType.GetUserType(1); var adminUserType2 = new UserType(1); The problem is that in each case the UserType code calls it's Cache method which uses the HttpRuntime class, which naturally is null. My question is this: Can someone suggest a way of writing integration tests against Umbraco code? Will I have to end up using a mocking framework such as TypeMock or JustMock?

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• SQL Server Collation / ADO.NET DataTable.Locale with different languages

  - by Turro

  Hi all, we have WinForms app which stores data in SQL Server (2000, we are working on porting it in 2008) through ADO.NET (1.1, working on porting to 4.0). Everything works fine if I read data previsouly written in Western-European locale (E.g.: "test", "test ù"), but now we have to be able to mix Western and non-Western alphabets as well (E.g.: "test - ???" - these are just random arabic chars). On the SQL Server side, database has been set with the Latin1_General collation, the field is a nvarchar(80). If I run a SQL SELECT statement (E.g.: "SELECT * FROM MyTable WHERE field = 'test - ???'", don't mind about the "*" or the actual names) from Query Analyzer, I get no results; the same happens if I pass the Sql statement to an ADO.NET DataAdapter to fill a DataTable. My guess is that it has something to do with collation, but I don't know how to correct this: do I have to change to collation (SQL Server) to a different one? Or do I have to set the locale on the DataAdaoter/DataTable (ADO.NET)? Thanks in advance to anyone who will help

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• How do I run a VBScript in 32-bit mode on a 64-bit machine?

  - by Peter

  I have a text file that ends with .vbs that I have written the following in: Set Conn = CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") Conn.Provider = "Microsoft.ACE.OLEDB.12.0" Conn.Properties("Data Source") = "C:\dummy.accdb" Conn.Properties("Jet OLEDB:Database Password") = "pass" Conn.Open Conn.Close Set Conn = Nothing When I execute this on a Windows 32-bit machine it runs and ends without any notion (expected). When I execute this on a Windows 64-bit machine it gets the error "Provider cannot be found. It may not be properly installed.". But it is installed. I think the root of the problem is that the provider is a 32-bit provider, as far as I know it doesn't exist as 64-bit. If I run the VBScript through IIS on my 64-bit machine (as a ASP file) I can select that it should run in 32-bit mode. It can then find the provider. How can I make it find the provider on Windows 64-bit? Can I tell CScript (which executes the .vbs text file) to run in 32-bit mode somehow?

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• XSLT how to merge some lists of parameters

  - by buggy1985

  Hi, I have an URL Structure like this: http://my.domain.com/generated.xml?param1=foo&param2=bar&xsl=path/to/my.xsl The generated XML will be transformed using the given XSL Stylesheet. The two other parameters are integrated too like this: <root> <params> <param name="param1">foo</param> <param name="param2">bar</param> </param> ... </root> Now I want to create with XSLT a link with a new URI that keeps the existing parameters and adds one or multiple new parameters like page=3 or sort=DESC. If the given parameter already exists, it should be replaced. I'm not sure how to do this. How to pass multiple (optional) parameters to a template. How to merge two lists of parameters. Any ideas? Thanks ;)

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• Is there a way to validates_presence_of only one time? (to skip that validation once the user's been

  - by GoodGets

  So, I'd like for a user to see an error message if he submits a comment and the :name is blank (typical error message, don't need help with that). However, I'd then like to allow the user to skip that validation once he's been notified that "we like all comments to have a name." So, he submits the comment once, sees the notification, then can submit the form again unchanged if he really doesn't want to add a name, and the validates_presences_of :name is skipped. But, I'm not sure how to go about doing this. I thought about checking to see where the request is coming from, but after a create, errors are handed off to the "new" action, which is the same as actual "new" comments. I then thought about checking to see if flash[errors] were present, but that won't work because there are other validations a comment has to pass. Finally, I thought about trying a validates_presences_of :name, :unless = :notified but wasn't sure how to define notified. I honestly hate asking such an open ended question, but wasn't sure where to get started. So, is there a way to just check a certain validation once?

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