Search Results

Search found 14531 results on 582 pages for 'proxy pass'.

Page 497/582 | < Previous Page | 493 494 495 496 497 498 499 500 501 502 503 504  | Next Page >

  • How to detect how many time the users have click the button...

    - by Jerry
    Hello guys. Just want to know if there is a way to detect how many times a user has clicked a button by using Jquery. My main application has a button that can add input fields depend on the users. He/She can adds as many input fields as they need. When they submit the form, The add page will add the data to my database. My current idea is to create a hidden input field and set the value to zero. Every time a user clicks the button, jquery would update the attribute of the hidden input field value. Then the "add page" can detect the loop time. See the example below. I just want to know if there are better practices to do this. Thanks for the helps. main page <form method='post' action='add.php'> //omit <input type="hidden" id="add" name="add" value="0"/> <input type="button" id="addMatch" value="Add a match"/> //omit </form> jquery $(document).ready(function(){ var a =0; $("#addMatch").live('click', function(){ $('#table').append("<input name='match"+a+"Name' />") //the input field will append //as many as the user wants. a++; $('#add').attr('name', 'a'); //pass the a value to hidden input field return false; }); Add Page $a=$_POST['a']; // for($k=0;$k<$a;$k++){ //get all matchName input field $matchName=$_POST['match'.$k.'Name']; //insert the match $updateQuery=mysql_query("INSERT INTO game (team) values('$matchName')",$connection); if(!$updateQuery){ DIE('mysql Error:'+mysql_error()); }

    Read the article

  • Using parameterized function calls in SELECT statements. SQL Server

    - by geekzlla
    I have taken over some code from a previous developer and have come across this SQL statement that calls several SQL functions. As you can see, the function calls in the select statement pass a parameter to the function. How does the SQL statement know what value to replace the variable with? For the below sample, how does the query engine know what to replace nDeptID with when it calls, fn_SelDeptName_DeptID(nDeptID) nDeptID IS a column in table Note. SELECT STATEMENT: SELECT nCustomerID AS [Customer ID], nJobID AS [Job ID], dbo.fn_SelDeptName_DeptID(nDeptID) AS Department, nJobTaskID AS JobTaskID, dbo.fn_SelDeptTaskDesc_OpenTask(nJobID, nJobTaskID) AS Task, nStandardNoteID AS StandardNoteID, dbo.fn_SelNoteTypeDesc(nNoteID) AS [Note Type], dbo.fn_SelGPAStandardNote(nStandardNoteID) AS [Standard Note], nEntryDate AS [Entry Date], nUserName as [Added By], nType AS Type, nNote AS Note FROM Note WHERE nJobID = 844261 ORDER BY nJobID, Task, [Entry Date] ====================== Function fn_SelDeptName_DeptID: ALTER FUNCTION [dbo].[fn_SelDeptName_DeptID] (@iDeptID int) RETURNS varchar(25) -- Used by DataCollection for Job Tracking -- if the Deptartment isnt found return an empty string BEGIN -- Return the Department name for the given DeptID. DECLARE @strDeptName varchar(25) IF @iDeptID = 0 SET @strDeptName = '' ELSE BEGIN SET @strDeptName = (SELECT dName FROM Department WHERE dDeptID = @iDeptID) IF (@strDeptName IS NULL) SET @strDeptName = '' END RETURN @strDeptName END ========================== Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Combination of JFreeChart with JXLayer with JHotDraw

    - by Yan Cheng CHEOK
    Recently, I had use JXLayer, to overlay two moving yellow message boxes, on the top of JFreeChart http://yccheok.blogspot.com/2010/02/investment-flow-chart.html I was wondering, had anyone experience using JXLayer + JHotdraw, to overlay all sorts of figures (Re-sizable text box, straight line, circle...), on the top of JFreeChart. I just would like to add drawing capability, without changing the JFreeChart source code. So that, JStock's user may draw trending lines, annotation text on their favorite stock charting. The code skeleton is as follow : // this.chartPanel is JFreeChartPanel final org.jdesktop.jxlayer.JXLayer<ChartPanel> layer = new org.jdesktop.jxlayer.JXLayer<ChartPanel>(this.chartPanel); this.myUI = new MyUI<ChartPanel>(this); layer.setUI(this.myUI); public class MyUI<V extends javax.swing.JComponent> extends AbstractLayerUI<V> { @Override protected void paintLayer(Graphics2D g2, JXLayer<? extends V> layer) { // Previous, I am using my own hand-coded, to draw the yellow box // // Now, How can I make use of JHotDraw at here, to draw various type of // figures? } @Override protected void processMouseEvent(MouseEvent e, JXLayer<? extends V> layer) { // How can I make use of JHotDraw at here? } @Override protected void processMouseMotionEvent(MouseEvent e, JXLayer<? extends V> layer) { // How can I make use of JHotDraw at here? } } As you see, I already got Graphics2D g2 from paintLayer method. How is it possible that I can pass the Graphics2D object to JHotDraw, and let JHotDraw handles all the drawing. My experience in using JHotDraw are with org.jhotdraw.draw.DefaultDrawingView org.jhotdraw.draw.DefaultDrawingEditor I am able to use them to draw various figures, by clicking on the toolbar and click on drawing area. How is it possible I can use DefaultDrawingView and DefaultDrawingEditor within MyUI's paintLayer? Also, shall I let MyUI handles the mouse event, or JHotDraw? Sorry, I start getting confused.

    Read the article

  • How do i make divs go into another row when full?

    - by acidzombie24
    My code is something like the below. When theres 3 images everything is fine once theres 4 it gets full and moves the entire div.top into another row. How do i make the div inside top just start a new row instead? I tried writing .top width=500px but once it hits or passes it instead the images inside are squeeze together instead of each being 150x150. I tried max-width on top instead and in opera and chrome i see the border of top as 500width but the images continue to render pass it. (i have a firefox problem with my div so the width looks fixed to something else). So how do i make these divs go into another row? and not try to squeeze together <div class="top"> <div><a href><img/></a></div> <div><a href><img/></a></div> <div><a href><img/></a></div> </div>

    Read the article

  • Zend Form - how do I create these custom form elements?

    - by Jeremy Hicks
    This is a very specific instance where I'm having difficulty getting Zend Form to produce the correct output and supply the correct validation. I may have to go create a composite element but thought I'd ask here first. Here is the HTML I'm trying to get Zend Form to produce. I'd like this to be able to work where if the validation doesn't pass that the error messages still show up inline with the field that produced the error. <tr> <td>Budget</td> <td> <input type="radio" name="budget" value="unlimited" /> unlimited <br /> <input type="radio" name="budget" value="limited" /> $ <input type="text" name="budget_amount" /> every <select name="budget_period"> <option value="day">day</option> <option value="week">week</option> <option value="month">month</option> <option value="year">year</option> </select> </td> </tr> <tr> <td></td> <td><input type="checkbox" name="include_weekends" value="yes" /> include weekends?</td> </tr> The user can choose either unlimited or limited for the budget value, however, if they choose limited, then they are required to enter a value for the budget amount field and choose a value from the select for the budget period field.

    Read the article

  • Pros and Cons of using SqlCommand Prepare in C#?

    - by MadBoy
    When i was reading books to learn C# (might be some old Visual Studio 2005 books) I've encountered advice to always use SqlCommand.Prepare everytime I execute SQL call (whether its' a SELECT/UPDATE or INSERT on SQL SERVER 2005/2008) and I pass parameters to it. But is it really so? Should it be done every time? Or just sometimes? Does it matter whether it's one parameter being passed or five or twenty? What boost should it give if any? Would it be noticeable at all (I've been using SqlCommand.Prepare here and skipped it there and never had any problems or noticeable differences). For the sake of the question this is my usual code that I use, but this is more of a general question. public static decimal pobierzBenchmarkKolejny(string varPortfelID, DateTime data, decimal varBenchmarkPoprzedni, decimal varStopaOdniesienia) { const string preparedCommand = @"SELECT [dbo].[ufn_BenchmarkKolejny](@varPortfelID, @data, @varBenchmarkPoprzedni, @varStopaOdniesienia) AS 'Benchmark'"; using (var varConnection = Locale.sqlConnectOneTime(Locale.sqlDataConnectionDetailsDZP)) //if (varConnection != null) { using (var sqlQuery = new SqlCommand(preparedCommand, varConnection)) { sqlQuery.Prepare(); sqlQuery.Parameters.AddWithValue("@varPortfelID", varPortfelID); sqlQuery.Parameters.AddWithValue("@varStopaOdniesienia", varStopaOdniesienia); sqlQuery.Parameters.AddWithValue("@data", data); sqlQuery.Parameters.AddWithValue("@varBenchmarkPoprzedni", varBenchmarkPoprzedni); using (var sqlQueryResult = sqlQuery.ExecuteReader()) if (sqlQueryResult != null) { while (sqlQueryResult.Read()) { //sqlQueryResult["Benchmark"]; } } } }

    Read the article

  • Bytecode and Objects

    - by HH
    Hey everyone, I am working on a bytecode instrumentation project. Currently when handling objects, the verifier throws an error most of the time. So I would like to get things clear concerning rules with objects (I read the JVMS but couldn't find the answer I was looking for): I am instrumenting the NEW instruction: original bytecode NEW <MyClass> DUP INVOKESPECIAL <MyClass.<init>> after instrumentation NEW <MyClass> DUP INVOKESTATIC <Profiler.handleNEW> DUP INVOKESPECIAL <MyClass.<init>> Note that I added a call to Profiler.handleNEW() which takes as argument an object reference (the newly created object). The piece of code above throws a VerificationError. While if I don't add the INVOKESTATIC (leaving only the DUP), it doesn't. So what is the rule that I'm violating? I can duplicate an uninitialized reference but I can't pass it as parameter? I would appreciate any help. Thank you

    Read the article

  • Setting up Inversion of Control (IoC) in ASP.NET MVC with Castle Windsor

    - by Lirik
    I'm going over Sanderson's Pro ASP.NET MVC Framework and in Chapter 4 he discusses Creating a Custom Controller Factory and it seems that the original method, AddComponentLifeStyle or AddComponentWithLifeStyle, used to register controllers is deprecated now: public class WindsorControllerFactory : DefaultControllerFactory { IWindsorContainer container; public WindsorControllerFactory() { container = new WindsorContainer(new XmlInterpreter(new ConfigResource("castle"))); // register all the controller types as transient var controllerTypes = from t in Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly().GetTypes() where typeof(IController).IsAssignableFrom(t) select t; //[Obsolete("Use Register(Component.For<I>().ImplementedBy<T>().Named(key).Lifestyle.Is(lifestyle)) instead.")] //IWindsorContainer AddComponentLifeStyle<I, T>(string key, LifestyleType lifestyle) where T : class; foreach (Type t in controllerTypes) { container.Register(Component.For<IController>().ImplementedBy<???>().Named(t.FullName).LifeStyle.Is(LifestyleType.Transient)); } } // Constructs the controller instance needed to service each request protected override IController GetControllerInstance(Type controllerType) { return (IController)container.Resolve(controllerType); } } The new suggestion is to use Register(Component.For<I>().ImplementedBy<T>().Named(key).Lifestyle.Is(lifestyle)), but I can't figure out how to present the implementing controller type in the ImplementedBy<???>() method. I tried ImplementedBy<t>() and ImplementedBy<typeof(t)>(), but I can't find the appropriate way to pass int he implementing type. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Checking if Date is within Range

    - by Brett Powell
    So I am using a scripting language with c++ syntax, and trying to think of the best way to check if a date is within range. The problem I am running into is that if the current day is in a new month, the check is failing. Here is what my code looks like... if(iMonth >= iStartMonth && iMonth <= iEndMonth) { if(iDay >= iStartDay && iDay <= iEndDay) { if(iYear >= iStartYear && iYear <= iEndYear) { bEnabled = true; return; When I have something like this... (Pulled in from cfg file specified by client) Start date: 3 27 2010 End Date: 4 15 2010 Current Date: 3 31 2010 The day check fails because if(iDay <= iEndDay) does not pass. The scripting language doesn't have a lot of time related functions, and I cant compare timestamps because im allowing users to put like "03:27:2010" and "04:15:2010" as start/end dates in a config file. Im assuming I am just not thinking straight and missing an easy fix.

    Read the article

  • Is there a pattern for initializing objects created wth a DI container

    - by Igor Zevaka
    I am trying to get Unity to manage the creation of my objects and I want to have some initialization parameters that are not known until run-time: At the moment the only way I could think of the way to do it is to have an Init method on the interface. interface IMyIntf { void Initialize(string runTimeParam); string RunTimeParam { get; } } Then to use it (in Unity) I would do this: var IMyIntf = unityContainer.Resolve<IMyIntf>(); IMyIntf.Initialize("somevalue"); In this scenario runTimeParam param is determined at run-time based on user input. The trivial case here simply returns the value of runTimeParam but in reality the parameter will be something like file name and initialize method will do something with the file. This creates a number of issues, namely that the Initialize method is available on the interface and can be called multiple times. Setting a flag in the implementation and throwing exception on repeated call to Initialize seems way clunky. At the point where I resolve my interface I don't want to know anything about the implementation of IMyIntf. What I do want, though, is the knowledge that this interface needs certain one time initialization parameters. Is there a way to somehow annotate(attributes?) the interface with this information and pass those to framework when the object is created? Edit: Described the interface a bit more.

    Read the article

  • Unit testing code which uses Umbraco v4 API

    - by Jason Evans
    I'm trying to write a suite of integration tests, where I have custom code which uses the Umbraco API. The Umbraco database lives in a SQL Server CE 4.0 database (*.sdf file) and I've managed to get that association working fine. My problem looks to be dependancies in the Umbraco code. For example, I would like to create a new user for my tests, so I try: var user = User.MakeNew("developer", "developer", "mypassword", "[email protected]", adminUserType); Now as you can see, I have pass a user type which is an object. I've tried two separate ways to create the user type, both of which fail due to a null object exception: var adminUserType = UserType.GetUserType(1); var adminUserType2 = new UserType(1); The problem is that in each case the UserType code calls it's Cache method which uses the HttpRuntime class, which naturally is null. My question is this: Can someone suggest a way of writing integration tests against Umbraco code? Will I have to end up using a mocking framework such as TypeMock or JustMock?

    Read the article

  • How to Inserting message into View that depends on session value. ASP.NET MVC. Best practice

    - by Andrew Florko
    User have to populate multistep questionnaire web-forms and step messages depend on the option chosen by user at the very beginning. Messages are stored in web.config file. I use asp.net mvc project, strong typed views and keep business logic separated from controller in static class. I don't want to make business logic dependency on web.config. Well, I have to insert message into view that depends on session value. There are at least 2 options how to implement this: View model has property that is populated in controller/businessLogic and rendered in view like <%: Model.HelpMessage1 %>. I have to pass web.config values from controller to businessLogic that makes business logic methods signature too complex. I don't want to make configuration source abstract (in order to let business logic read configuration values from its methods directly) also. Create static helper class that is called from view like <%: ViewHelper.HelpMessage1(Model.Option1) %>. But in this case logic what to show seems to be separated into two classes: business logic & viewHelper. What will you suggest? Thank you in advance!

    Read the article

  • Observer Design Pattern - multiple event types

    - by David
    I'm currently implementing the Observer design pattern and using it to handle adding items to the session, create error logs and write messages out to the user giving feedback on their actions (e.g. You've just logged out!). I began with a single method on the subject called addEvent() but as I added more Observers I found that the parameters required to detail all the information I needed for each listener began to grow. I now have 3 methods called addMessage(), addStorage() and addLog(). These add data into an events array that has a key related to the event type (e.g. log, message, storage) but I'm starting to feel that now the subject needs to know too much about the listeners that are attached. My alternative thought is to go back to addEvent() and pass an event type (e.g. USER_LOGOUT) along with the data associated and each Observer maintains it's own list of event handles it is looking for (possibly in a switch statement), but this feels cumbersome. Also, I'd need to check that sufficient data had also been passed along with the event type. What is the correct way of doing this? Please let me know if I can explain any parts of this further. I hope you can help and see the problem I'm battling with.

    Read the article

  • How do I push another viewController onto the navigationController from within a tabviewController?

    - by user207788
    Hi, I have a project set up using these two tutorials. http://twilloapp.blogspot.com/2009/03/how-to-embed-navigation-controller.html and the link for the second tutorial is at the bottom of the first. The tutorial is slightly outdated but I managed to get it to work as advertised. Now I want to push a new detailedView onto the NavigationController when a user touches a row in the table view. So I added this to my MyTableViewController.m file. - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { // Navigation logic may go here. Create and push another view controller. SecondViewController *detailViewController = [[SecondViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"SecondViewController.xib" bundle:nil]; // ... // Pass the selected object to the new view controller. [self.navigationController pushViewController:detailViewController animated:YES]; [detailViewController release]; } Now when I run this project and touch a row in my table view I am getting an error: asm_Terminating_due_to_uncaught_exception IT seems to be having an issue loading the SecondViewController from nib, however I checked the detailViewController and it is not nil. I know I am missing something and it is more than likely something simple. Please help. Thanks, Bruce

    Read the article

  • Fast, easy, and secure method to perform DB actions with GET

    - by rob - not a robber
    Hey All, Sort of a methods/best practices question here that I am sure has been addressed, yet I can't find a solution based on the vague search terms I enter. I know starting off the question with "Fast and easy" will probably draw out a few sighs, so my apologies. Here is the deal. I have a logged in area where an ADMIN can do a whole host of POST operations to input data relating to their profile. The way I have data structured is pretty distinct and well segmented in most tables as it relates to the ID of the admin. Now, I have a table where I dump one type of data into and differentiate this data by assigning the ADMIN's unique ID to each record. In other words, all ADMINs have this one type of data writing to this table. I just differentiate by the ADMIN ID with each record. I was planning on letting the ADMIN remove these records by clicking on a link with a query string - obviously using GET. Obviously, the query structure is in the link so any logged in admin could then exploit the URL and delete a competitor's records. Is the only way to safely do this through POST or should I pass through the session info that includes password and validate it against the ADMIN ID that is requesting the delete? This is obviously much more work for me. As they said in the auto repair biz I used to work in... there are 3 ways to do a job: Fast, Good, and Cheap. You can only have two at a time. Fast and cheap will not be good. Good and cheap will not have fast turnaround. Fast and good will NOT be cheap. haha I guess that applies here... can never have Fast, Easy and Secure all at once ;) Thanks in advance...

    Read the article

  • Rich Text Editor in Table view

    - by pubudu
    Im try to implement rich text editor in table view cell. before this i test rich text editor using web view.it work fine I want to put this web view inside my costume cell. i did it, but it not working (bold , italic ... styles) how can i pass stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString:@"document.execCommand(\"Bold\") this command to webview in cell i did like this in viewContoller - (IBAction)clickbold:(id)sender { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell1"; Cell *cell = [_tableview dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; cell = [_tableview cellForRowAtIndexPath:0]; [cell.webView stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString:@"document.execCommand(\"Bold\")"]; [_tableview beginUpdates]; [_tableview endUpdates]; } - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell1"; Cell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; { NSBundle *bundle = [NSBundle mainBundle]; NSURL *indexFileURL = [bundle URLForResource:@"index" withExtension:@"html"]; [cell.tableview loadRequest:[NSURLRequest requestWithURL:indexFileURL]]; cell.webView.delegate = self; [cell.webView stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString:@"document.execCommand(\"Italic\")"]; return cell; } return cell; } my html file like this <html> <head> <script> function myFunction() { window.location.href = "myclick://buttonClicked"; } function onKEYPRESS() { window.location.href = "onkeypress://buttonClicked"; } </script> </head> <body> <body> <div id="content" contenteditable="true" style="font-family:Arial" onfocus="myFunction()" onkeypress="onKEYPRESS()">TEXT TEXT </div> </body> </html>

    Read the article

  • xcode project-/target-settings-syntax for linker flag force_load on iPhone

    - by Kaiserludi
    Hi all. I am confronted with the double bind, that on the one hand for one of the 3rd party static libraries, my iPhone application uses, the linker flag -all_load has to be set in the application project- or target settings, otherwise the app crashes at runtime not finding some symbols, called internally from the lib, on the other hand for another 3rd party static lib -all_load must not be set on application level, or the app won't build thanks to a "duplicate symbols"-linker error. To solve this issue I now want to use force_load instant of load_all, as it due to documentation it does the same like all_load, but only for the passed path or lib-file, instead of all libs. The problem with force_load is, I do not have a clue, how to pass a path or file as parameter with it, when passing it via xcode project- or target-settings. All syntax-possibilities coming to my mind either lead into xcode thinking its another linker flag instead of a parameter to the previous one, or the linker is throwing syntax related errors or the flag simply does nothing at all in comparison to not being set. I also opened the .pbxproj-file in a text-editor to edit it to the correct command line syntax manually, but when reloading the project with xcode, it auto changes the syntax into interpreting the parameter to force_load as a separate flag. Anyone having an idea on this issue? Thx, Kaiserludi.

    Read the article

  • python gui generate math equation

    - by Nero Dietrich
    I have a homework question for one specific item with python GUIs. My goal is to create a GUI that asks a random mathematical equation and if the equation is evaluated correctly, then I will receive a message stating that it is correct. My main problem is finding out where to place my statements so that they show up in the labels; I have 1 textbox which generates the random equation, the next textbox is blank for me to enter the solution, and then an "Enter" button at the end to evaluate my solution. It looks like this: [randomly generated equation][Empty space to enter solution] [ENTER] I've managed to get the layout and the evaluate parameters, but I don't know where to go from here. This is my code so far: class Equation(Frame): def __init__(self,parent=None): Frame.__init__(self, parent) self.pack() Equation.make_widgets(self) Equation.new_problem(self) def make_widgets(self): Label(self).grid(row=0, column=1) ent = Entry(self) ent.grid(row=0, column=1) Label(self).grid(row=0, column=2) ent = Entry(self) ent.grid(row=0, column=2) Button(self, text='Enter', command=self.evaluate).grid(row=0, column=3) def new_problem(self): pass def evaluate(self): result = eval(self.get()) self.delete(0, END) self.insert(END, result) print('Correct')

    Read the article

  • Why can't I get the value of this text input?

    - by Spilot
    It seems simple enough, but nothing I try is working. I have a jquery ui datepicker, I use val() to get the value of that input on button click(), then log it. The click event is working. I can log a string I write myself, but when I pass console.log() the variable that stores the datepicker value...nothing. I've tried using html() and text() instead of val(), still nothing //JS $(function(){ $("button").button(); $("#date").datepicker(); var date = $("#date").val(); $("button").click(function(){ // this logs console.log("event working"); // but this logs nothing console.log(date); });//close click });//closes function //HTML <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <script src="http://www.parsecdn.com/js/parse-1.2.8.min.js"></script> <script src="//ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.10.1/jquery.min.js"></script> <script src="http://code.jquery.com/ui/1.10.3/jquery-ui.js"></script> <link rel="stylesheet" href="http://myDomain/bn/lbStyle.css"/> <script src="http://myDomain/index.js"></script> <title> Welcome to The Bringer Network </title> </head> <body> <form id="dialog"> <p>Date <input type="text" id="date"/></p> <button>Submit</button> </form> </body> </html>

    Read the article

  • C++ converting back and forth from derived and base classes

    - by user127817
    I was wondering if there is a way in C++ to accomplish the following: I have a base class called ResultBase and two class that are Derived from it, Variable and Expression. I have a few methods that do work on vector<ResultBase> . I want to be able to pass in vectors of Variable and Expression into these methods. I can achieve this by creating a vector<ResultBase> and using static_cast to fill it with the members from my vector of Variable/Expression. However, once the vector has run through the methods, I want to be able to get it back as the vector of Result/Expression. I'll know for sure which one I want back. static_cast won't work here as there isn't a method to reconstruct a Variable/Expression from a ResultBase, and more importantly I wouldn't have the original properties of the Variables/Expressions The methods modify some of the properties of the ResultBase and I need those changes to be reflected in the original vectors. (i.e. ResultBase has a property called IsLive, and one of the methods will modify this property. I want this IsLive value to be reflected in the derived class used to create the ResultBase Whats the easiest way to accomplish this?

    Read the article

  • Accessing Web.config directly in ASP.NET MVC 1

    - by Neil T.
    I'm trying to implement integration testing in my ASP.NET MVC 1.0 solution. The technologies in use are LINQ-to-SQL, NUnit and WatiN. I recently discovered a pattern that will allow me to create a testing version of the database on the fly without modifying the development version of the database. I needed this behavior in order to run my user interface tests in WatiN that may modify the database. The plan is to modify the connection string in the Web.config file, and pass that new connection string to the DataContext constructor. This way, I don't have to add routes or modify my URLs in order to perform the integration testing. I've set up the project so that the test setup can modify the connection string to point to the test database when the tests are running. The connection string is stored in web.config. The problem I'm having is that when I try to run the tests, I get a NullReferenceException when trying to access the HTTPContext. From everything that I have read so far, the HTTPContext is only available within the context of a controller. Here is the code for the property that is supposed to give me the reference to the Web.config file: private System.Configuration.Configuration WebConfig { get { ExeConfigurationFileMap fileMap = new ExeConfigurationFileMap(); // NullReferenceException occurs on this line. fileMap.ExeConfigFilename = HttpContext.Current.Server.MapPath("~\\web.config"); System.Configuration.Configuration config = ConfigurationManager.OpenMappedExeConfiguration(fileMap, ConfigurationUserLevel.None); return config; } } Is there something that I am missing in order to make this work? Is there a better way to accomplish what I'm trying to achieve?

    Read the article

  • Python: Convert format string to regular expression

    - by miracle2k
    The users of my app can configure the layout of certain files via a format string. For example, the config value the user specifies might be: layout = '%(group)s/foo-%(locale)s/file.txt' I now need to find all such files that already exist. This seems easy enough using the glob module: glob_pattern = layout % {'group': '*', 'locale': '*'} glob.glob(glob_pattern) However, now comes the hard part: Given the list of glob results, I need to get all those filename-parts that matched a given placeholder, for example all the different "locale" values. I thought I would generate a regular expression for the format string that I could then match against the list of glob results (or then possibly skipping glob and doing all the matching myself). But I can't find a nice way to create the regex with both the proper group captures, and escaping the rest of the input. For example, this might give me a regex that matches the locales: regex = layout % {'group': '.*', 'locale': (.*)} But to be sure the regex is valid, I need to pass it through re.escape(), which then also escapes the regex syntax I have just inserted. Calling re.escape() first ruins the format string. I know there's fnmatch.translate(), which would even give me a regex - but not one that returns the proper groups. Is there a good way to do this, without a hack like replacing the placeholders with a regex-safe unique value etc.? Is there possibly some way (a third party library perhaps?) that allows dissecting a format string in a more flexible way, for example splitting the string at the placeholder locations?

    Read the article

  • Configuring TeamCity + NUnit unit tests so files can be loaded properly

    - by Dave
    In a nutshell, I have a solution that builds fine in the IDE, and the unit tests all run fine with the NUnit GUI (via the NUnitit VS2008 plugin). However, when I execute my TeamCity build runner, all unit tests that require file access (e.g. for running tests against specific XML files), I just get System.IO.DirectoryNotFoundExceptions. The reason for this is clear: it's looking for those supporting XML files loaded by various unit tests in the wrong folder. The way my unit tests are structured looks like this: +-- project folder +-- unit tests folder +-- test.xml +-- test.cs +-- project file.xaml +-- project file.xaml.cs All of my projects own their own UnitTests folder, which contains the .cs file and any XML files, XML Schemas, etc that are necessary to run the tests. So when I write my test.cs, I have it look for "test.xml" in the code because they are in the same folder (actually, I do something like ....\unit tests\test.xml, but that's kind of silly). As I said before, the tests run great in NUnit. But that's because the unit tests are part of the project. When running the unit tests from TeamCity, I am executing them against the assemblies that get copied to the main app's output folder. These unit test XML files should not be copied willy-nilly to the output folder just to make the tests pass. Can anyone suggest a better method of organizing my unit tests in each project (which are dependencies for the main app), such that I can execute the unit tests from NUnit and from the TeamCity build runner? The only other option I can come up with is to just put the testing XML data in code, rather than loading it from a file. I would rather not do this.

    Read the article

  • Dynamically generate client-side HTML form control using JavaScript and server-side Python code in Google App Engine

    - by gisc
    I have the following client-side front-end HTML using Jinja2 template engine: {% for record in result %} <textarea name="remark">{{ record.remark }}</textarea> <input type="submit" name="approve" value="Approve" /> {% endfor %} Thus the HTML may show more than 1 set of textarea and submit button. The back-end Python code retrieves a variable number of records from a gql query using the model, and pass this to the Jinja2 template in result. When a submit button is clicked, it triggers the post method to update the record: def post(self): if self.request.get('approve'): updated_remark = self.request.get('remark') record.remark = db.Text(updated_remark) record.put() However, in some instances, the record updated is NOT the one that correspond to the submit button clicked (eg if a user clicks on record 1 submit, record 2 remark gets updated, but not record 1). I gather that this is due to the duplicate attribute name remark. I can possibly use JavaScript/jQuery to generate different attribute names. The question is, how do I code the back-end Python to get the (variable number of) names generated by the JavaScript? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How to use keyword this in a mouse wrapper in right context in Javascript?

    - by MartyIX
    Hi, I'm trying to write a simple wrapper for mouse behaviour. This is my current code: function MouseWrapper() { this.mouseDown = 0; this.OnMouseDownEvent = null; this.OnMouseUpEvent = null; document.body.onmousedown = this.OnMouseDown; document.body.onmouseup = this.OnMouseUp; } MouseWrapper.prototype.Subscribe = function (eventName, fn) { // Subscribe a function to the event if (eventName == 'MouseDown') { this.OnMouseDownEvent = fn; } else if (eventName == 'MouseUp') { this.OnMouseUpEvent = fn; } else { alert('Subscribe: Unknown event.'); } } MouseWrapper.prototype.OnMouseDown = function () { this.mouseDown = 1; // Fire event $.dump(this.OnMouseDownEvent); if (this.OnMouseDownEvent != null) { alert('test'); this.OnMouseDownEvent(); } } MouseWrapper.prototype.OnMouseUp = function () { this.mouseDown = 0; // Fire event if (this.OnMouseUpEvent != null) { this.OnMouseUpEvent(); } } From what I gathered it seems that in MouseWrapper.prototype.OnMouseUp and MouseWrapper.prototype.OnMouseDown the keyword "this" doesn't mean current instance of MouseWrapper but something else. And it makes sense that it doesn't point to my instance but how to solve the problem? I want to solve the problem properly I don't want to use something dirty. My thinking: * use a singleton pattern (mouse is only one after all) * pass somehow my instance to OnMouseDown/Up - how? Thank you for help!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 493 494 495 496 497 498 499 500 501 502 503 504  | Next Page >