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• wordpress php > div issue

  - by Philip Bateman

  Thanks in advance for you help Ive been doing this as a lovejob for friends and now im getting quotes of several hundred dollars for minor homepage variation and I'm not sure if its valid. I'm not a programmer myself, just trying hard :) Via the CafePress press75 theme, I'm trying to go from 1 / 2 / 3 column home layout, to 1-2 merged and 3, push the 2nd column data to the right and have the 1st column span as a 16:9 gallery (nextgengallery plugin installed). Is this really a complex thing from a coding perspective? The current guy talking to me is saying its going to cost $700 or 800 AUD to alter, which is rough when the template cost $85.. From this http://shocolate.com.au.previewdns.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/05/shocolatecurrent.jpg to this 'url+Shocolatelooklikethis.jpg' I was able to get the sidebar removed by taking out ‘‘ near the bottom of home.css.. Just can’t get the middle data to flow over it? This would be ideal as a result, as the system puts the latest selected blog post on the homepage, so if we can get rid of the sidebar div and have the text appear where it was, that would be ideal. Removing the sidebar from the bottom of home.php and setting the thumbnail width to say 450 gives me the result im after EXCEPT the text doesn’t fill where the sidebar is, it wraps underneath. Reference 'shocolate.com.au.previewdns.com' for current site Thank you!!! Phil (Melbourne)

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• In Android GUI flickers when reading the properties file

  - by ManojValiveti

  Hi, I am getting the GUI flicker when reading a file properties and accordingly enabling/disabling checkbox and List value in listbox. when i remove this file reading code the GUI doesnt have flicker. I am reading the properties before creating the Preferences in OnCreate(). Attached the file write code below for reference.Please let us know is there any other way to read and update the preference staus. private void SetExtendConf(String key, String strValue) { mProperties = new Properties(); try { File file = new File(FILE_EXT); if(!file.exists()) file.createNewFile(); file.setWritable(true,false); FileInputStream fis = new FileInputStream(file); mProperties.load(fis); fis.close(); FileOutputStream stream = new FileOutputStream(file); Log.d(TAG, "Setting Values " + key + ":"+ strValue); mProperties.setProperty(key, strValue); mProperties.store(stream,"ext.conf"); stream.close(); } catch (IOException e) { Log.d(TAG, "Could not open properties file: " + GPS_FILE_EXT); } } -Manoj

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• MySQL 5.5.8 Gets Periodic Lag

  - by CYREX

  Am using MySQL 5.5.8 on an Ubuntu system and every X amount of time it creates a huge lag that lasts a couple of seconds. Then all goes back to normal until the next lag. The time period varies but it looks like it happen periodically. Am using InnoDB. It is like hiccups in the MySQL. What could be creating this sort of periodic problem. Do not have any cron jobs or process running every time the X period happens. The X period could be between 30 minutes to 2 hours. So for example it could happen every 30 minutes for the next 12 hours or it could happen every 2 hours for the next 8 hours. key_buffer_size = 256M max_allowed_packet = 1M table_cache = 1024 table_open_cache = 1024 sort_buffer_size = 2M read_buffer_size = 2M read_rnd_buffer_size = 4M myisam_sort_buffer_size = 32M thread_cache_size = 128 query_cache_size= 128M log-slow-queries = slow.log long_query_time = 5 log-queries-not-using-indexes # Try number of CPU's*2 for thread_concurrency thread_concurrency = 4 max_connections=512 #innodb_data_file_path = ibdata1:10M:autoextend #innodb_log_group_home_dir = /usr/local/mysql/data # You can set .._buffer_pool_size up to 50 - 80 % # of RAM but beware of setting memory usage too high innodb_buffer_pool_size = 1G #innodb_additional_mem_pool_size = 20M # Set .._log_file_size to 25 % of buffer pool size #innodb_log_file_size = 64M #innodb_log_buffer_size = 8M #innodb_flush_log_at_trx_commit = 0 #innodb_lock_wait_timeout = 50 [mysqldump] quick max_allowed_packet = 16M [myisamchk] key_buffer_size = 64M sort_buffer_size = 64M read_buffer = 2M write_buffer = 2M There are about 200+ tables divided in 3 databases. The most written too is in InnoDB. The other ones are more read. Several of the tables in the InnoDB have more than 2 million records. The other databases top at about 400 thousand records and do not change so often. The PC is a Core 2 Duo 8400 with 4GB RAM, 32Bit Ubuntu.

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• I want tell the VC++ Compiler to compile all code. Can it be done?

  - by KGB

  I am using VS2005 VC++ for unmanaged C++. I have VSTS and am trying to use the code coverage tool to accomplish two things with regards to unit tests: See how much of my referenced code under test is getting executed See how many methods of my code under test (if any) are not unit tested at all Setting up the VSTS code coverage tool (see the link text) and accomplishing task #1 was straightforward. However #2 has been a surprising challenge for me. Here is my test code. class CodeCoverageTarget { public: std::string ThisMethodRuns() { return "Running"; } std::string ThisMethodDoesNotRun() { return "Not Running"; } }; #include <iostream> #include "CodeCoverageTarget.h" using namespace std; int main() { CodeCoverageTarget cct; cout<<cct.ThisMethodRuns()<<endl; } When both methods are defined within the class as above the compiler automatically eliminates the ThisMethodDoesNotRun() from the obj file. If I move it's definition outside the class then it is included in the obj file and the code coverage tool shows it has not been exercised at all. Under most circumstances I want the compiler to do this elimination for me but for the code coverage tool it defeats a significant portion of the value (e.g. finding untested methods). I have tried a number of things to tell the compiler to stop being smart for me and compile everything but I am stumped. It would be nice if the code coverage tool compensated for this (I suppose by scanning the source and matching it up with the linker output) but I didn't find anything to suggest it has a special mode to be turned on. Am I totally missing something simple here or is this not possible with the VC++ compiler + VSTS code coverage tool? Thanks in advance, KGB

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• NoClassDefFoundError when trying to reference external jar files

  - by opike

  I have some 3rd party jar files that I want to reference in my tomcat web application. I added this line to catalina.properties: shared.loader=/home/ollie/dev/java/googleapi_samples/gdata/java/lib/*.jar but I'm still getting this error: org.apache.jasper.JasperException: javax.servlet.ServletException: java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: com/google/gdata/util/ServiceException org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServletWrapper.handleJspException(JspServletWrapper.java:491) org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServletWrapper.service(JspServletWrapper.java:401) org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServlet.serviceJspFile(JspServlet.java:313) org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServlet.service(JspServlet.java:260) javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:717) I verified that the com.google.gdata.util.ServiceException is in the gdata-core-1.0.jar file which is in the directory: /home/ollie/dev/java/googleapi_samples/gdata/java/lib I did bounce tomcat after I modified catalina.properties. Update 1: I tried copying the gdata-core-1.0.jar file into /var/lib/tomcat6/webapp/examples/WEB-INF/lib as a test but that didn't fix the problem either. Update 2: It actually does work when I copy the jar file directly into the WEB-INF/lib directory. There was a permissions issue that I had to resolve. But it's still not working when I use the shared.loader setting. I reconfirmed that the path is correct.

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• Open + Save .exe file in notepad makes it corrupted

  - by Jacob Kofoed

  Hi, I just published this simple console application that is supposed to show a textbox with the value of a setting called "userID" with value 1001. This works like a charm. Now what I need is to change this value outside the editor, from notepad etc. When I open the application a lot in there is non-sence (& o! -å Þþþ,o" Ü+) etc. but with a quick (ctrl + F) I found the value 1001, and changed this to some other integer. I ran the application again, and it failed, didn't even give any userful error-message. At a point I tried just opening a newly published non-corrupted version of the application, didn't change anything, then saved from notepad, and it were also corrupted. It seems like notepad can't open some characters or something. Do I need to publish the application in some specific text-unicode language or something? Help much appreciated :) I know it sounds like a stupid application, but it is just a test of concept :) I use vb.net for this

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• Trouble accessing data in relationships in Ember

  - by user3618430

  I'm having trouble saving data in this model relationship. My models are as follows: App.Flow = DS.Model.extend({ title: DS.attr('string'), content: DS.attr('string'), isCustom: DS.attr('boolean'), params: DS.hasMany('parameter', {async: true}) }); App.Parameter = DS.Model.extend({ flow: DS.belongsTo('flow'), param: DS.attr('string'), param_tooltip: DS.attr('string'), param_value: DS.attr('string') }); As you can see, I want Flows to have multiple Parameters. I have a rudimentary setup using Flow and Parameter fixtures, which behave as expected in the templates. However, when I try to create new ones in the controller, I have trouble setting the flow and parameter values correctly. var p = this.store.createRecord('parameter', { param: "foo", param_tooltip: "world", param_value: "hello" }); var f = this.store.createRecord('flow', { title: 'job', content: title, isCustom: true, params: [p] // doesn't seem to work }); f.set('params', [p]); // doesn't seem to work p.set('flow', f); // also doesn't seem to work // Save the new model p.save(); f.save(); I've tried a lot of solutions after staring at this and StackOverflow for a while (not just the ones listed). I'm not really sure what to try next. One thing that I noticed in the Ember inspector was that the ids of these created elements were not integers (they were something like the string 'fixture_0'), but I'm not really sure why that would be, whether its related, or how to fix it. Thanks!

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• Whose fault is a NullReferenceException?

  - by stefan.at.wpf

  I'm currently working on a class which exposes an internal List through a property. The List shall and can be modified. The problem is, entries in the internal list could be set to null from outside the class. My code actually looks like this: class ClassWithList { List<object> _list = new List<object>(); // get accessor, which however returns the reference to the list, // therefore the list can be modified (this is intended) public List<object> Data { get { return _list; } } private void doSomeWorkWithTheList() { foreach(object obj in _list) // do some work with the objects in the list without checking for null. } } So now in the doSomeWorkWithTheList() I could always check whether the current list entry is null or I could just asume that the person using this class doesn't have the great idea to set entries to null. So finally the questions end up in: Whose fault is a NullReferenceException in this case? Is it the fault of the class developer not checking everything for null (which would make code generally - not only in this class - more complex) or is it the fault of the user of this class, as setting a List entry to null doesn't really make sense? I'd tend to generally not check values for null except in some really special cases. Is this a bad style or de facto standard / standard in praxis? I know there's probably no ultimate answer for this, I'm just missing enough experience for such thing and therefore wondering what other developers think about such cases and want to hear what's done in reality about checking null (or not).

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• What Test Environment Setup do Committers Use in the Ruby Community?

  - by viatropos

  Today I am going to get as far as I can setting up my testing environment and workflow. I'm looking for practical advice on how to setup the test environment from you guys who are very passionate and versed in Ruby Testing. By the end of the day (6am PST?) I would like to be able to: Type one 1-command to run test suites for ANY project I find on Github. Run autotest for ANY Github project so I can fork and make TESTABLE contributions. Build gems from the ground up with Autotest and Shoulda. For one reason or another, I hardly ever run tests for projects I clone from Github. The major reason is because unless they're using RSpec and have a Rake task to run the tests, I don't see the common pattern behind it all. I have built 3 or 4 gems writing tests with RSpec, and while I find the DSL fun, it's less than ideal because it just adds another layer/language of methods I have to learn and remember. So I'm going with Shoulda. But this isn't a question about which testing framework to choose. So the questions are: What is your, the SO reader and Github project committer, test environment setup using autotest so that whenever you git clone a gem, you can run the tests and autotest-develop them if desired? What are the guys who are writing the Paperclip Tests and Authlogic Tests doing? What is their setup? Thanks for the insight. Looking for answers that will make me a more effective tester.

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• Trailing comments after variable assignment subvert comparison

  - by nobar

  In GNU make, trailing comments appended to variable assignments prevent subsequent comparison (via ifeq) from working correctly. Here's the Makefile... A = a B = b ## trailing comment C = c RESULT := ifeq "$(A)" "a" RESULT += a endif ifeq "$(B)" "b" RESULT += b endif ifeq "$(C)" "c" RESULT += c endif rule: @echo RESULT=\"$(RESULT)\" @echo A=\"$(A)\" @echo B=\"$(B)\" @echo C=\"$(C)\" Here's the output... $ make RESULT=" a c" A="a" B="b " C="c" As you can see from the displayed value of RESULT, the ifeq was affected by the presence of the comment in the assignment of B. Echoing the variable B, shows that the problem is not the comment, but the intervening space. The obvious solution is to explicitly strip the whitespace prior to comparison like so... ifeq "$(strip $(B))" "b" RESULT += b endif However this seems error prone. Since the strip operation is not needed unless/until a comment is used, you can leave out the strip and everything will initially work just fine -- so chances are you won't always remember to add the strip. Later, if someone adds a comment when setting the variable, the Makefile no longer works as expected. Note: There is a closely related issue, as demonstrated in this question, that trailing whitespace can break string compares even if there is no comment. Question: Is there a more fool-proof way to deal with this issue?

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• Loading user control dynamically looses data

  - by user228777

  I have a created a user control. This user control I dynamically load on a page inside Telerik Panelbar control. I have done all necessary coding to save the viewstate and load this dynamically created usercontrol every time page loads. On this User control I have a asp panel. By default this panel is invisible. When user clicks a button on this user control panel is made visible. On page load of this user control I populate all the controls on this panel. Everything works fine if I don’t load this use control dynamically but when I load this user control dynamically and if I make panel visible by default then only all fields on the panel are populated. But if I make by default invisible and on button click make panel visible none of the text boxes or comboboxes are populated. I populate comboboxes on page load of the userControl but inbetween postbacks all the comboboxes on the user control loose data. ON the parent page I am saving the viewstate This is my code on parent page to dynamically load userControl ( which has panel on it) Dim ucPiggyBank As SubscriberSetupPages_UserControls_PiggyBank = CType(LoadControl("~/SubscriberSetupPages/UserControls/PiggyBank.ascx"), SubscriberSetupPages_UserControls_PiggyBank) With ucPiggyBank .PiggyBankID = account.Id .ID = account.Id.ToString 'Setting up following 3 properties here to avoid database trips .PiggyBankEligibleAccounts = piggyBankEligibleAccountCollection .MemorizedNames = memorizednames .Period = period End With radPanelNewChild.Controls.Add(ucPiggyBank) radPanelNew.Items.Add(radPanelNewChild) radPanelNew.Expanded = True ‘this is the Panel item on parent page of Telerik Panelbar control. Dim radPanelPiggyBank As RadPanelItem = DirectCast(pnlbarPiggyBank.FindItemByValue("TestItem"), RadPanelItem) With radPanelPiggyBank .Items.Add(radPanelNew) .DataBind() End With ‘I am doing everything for saving viewstate on parent control This is the code on page load of userControl If Not IsPostBack Then If m_PiggyBankID <> Guid.Empty Then 'Load data Call GetPiggyBankDetails() End If I have a edit button on the user control which makes panel visible. It makes panel visible but with no data. Can you please tell me what’s happening? Thanks in advance.

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• echo php javascript alert?

  - by Anaes Arias

  How can I echo this javascript if the php error messages is called? I have an error message setting that when a user misses his username or password it triggers an error message. The php error message is called by a php code. Here is the code: <?php echo showmessage($msg) ?> I have an alert message in javascript that when called it will make a javascript css pop up alert box. IF the javascript code is present it will show the alert box right away after reload. Here is code: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { jqxAlert.alert('Alert Message'); }) </script> How can I incorporate so that when the php echo message comes up it will trigger the javscript alert message. I was trying an if in php, so something like this code: if ( showmessage($msg) ) { <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { jqxAlert.alert('Alert Message'); }) </script> } How can I echo my javascript message on the php call?

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• An Erroneous SQL Query makes browser hang until script timeout exceeded

  - by Jimbo

  I have an admin page in a Classic ASP web application that allows the admin user to run queries against the database (SQL Server 2000) Whats really strange is that if the query you send has an error in it (an invalid table join, a column you've forgotten to group by etc) the BROWSER hangs (CPU usage goes to maximum) until the SERVER script timeout is exceeded and then spits out a timeout exceeded error (server and browser are on different machines, so not sure how this happens!) I have tried this in IE 8 and FF 3 with the same result. If you run that same query (with errors) directly from SQL Enterprise Manager, it returns the real error immediately. Is this a security feature? Does anyone know how to turn it off? It even happens when the connection to the database is using 'sa' credentials so I dont think its a security setting :( Dim oRS Set oRS = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Recordset") oRS.ActiveConnection = sConnectionString // run the query - this is for the admin only so doesnt check for sql safe commands etc. oRS.Open Request.Form("txtSQL") If Not oRS.EOF Then // list the field names from the recordset For i = 0 to oRS.Fields.Count - 1 Response.Write oRS.Fields(i).name & "&nbsp;" Next // show the data for each record in the recordset While Not oRS.EOF For i = 0 to oRS.Fields.Count - 1 Response.Write oRS.Fields(i).value & "&nbsp;" Next Response.Write "<br />" oRS.Movenext() Wend End If

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• xmldocument and nested schemas

  - by Stuart

  Using c# and .net 3.5 I'm trying to validate an xml document against a schema that has includes. The schemas and there includes are as below Schema1.xsd - include another.xsd another.xsd - include base.xsd When i try to add the Schema1.xsd to the XmlDocument i get the following error. Type 'YesNoType' is not declared or is not a simple type. I believe i'm getting this error because the base.xsd file is not being included when i load the Schema1.xsd schema. I'm trying to use the XmlSchemaSet class and I'm setting the XmlResolver uri to the location of the schemas. NOTE : All schemas live under the same directory E:\Dev\Main\XmlSchemas Here is the code string schemaPath = "E:\\Dev\\Main\\XmlSchemas"; XmlDocument xmlDocSchema = new XmlDocument(); XmlSchemaSet s = new XmlSchemaSet(); XmlUrlResolver resolver = new XmlUrlResolver(); Uri baseUri = new Uri(schemaPath); resolver.ResolveUri(null, schemaPath); s.XmlResolver = resolver; s.Add(null, XmlReader.Create(new System.IO.StreamReader(schemaPath + "\\Schema1.xsd"), new XmlReaderSettings { ValidationType = ValidationType.Schema, XmlResolver = resolver }, new Uri(schemaPath).ToString())); xmlDocSchema.Schemas.Add(s); ValidationEventHandler valEventHandler = new ValidationEventHandler (ValidateNinoDobEvent); try { xmlDocSchema.LoadXml(xml); xmlDocSchema.Validate(valEventHandler); } catch (XmlSchemaValidationException xmlValidationError) { // need to interogate the Validation Exception, for possible further // processing. string message = xmlValidationError.Message; return false; } Can anyone point me in the right direction regarding validating an xmldocument against a schema with nested includes.

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• Cocoa NSTextField Drag & Drop Requires Subclass... Really?

  - by ipmcc

  Until today, I've never had occasion to use anything other than an NSWindow itself as an NSDraggingDestination. When using a window as a one-size-fits-all drag destination, the NSWindow will pass those messages on to its delegate, allowing you to handle drops without subclassing NSWindow. The docs say: Although NSDraggingDestination is declared as an informal protocol, the NSWindow and NSView subclasses you create to adopt the protocol need only implement those methods that are pertinent. (The NSWindow and NSView classes provide private implementations for all of the methods.) Either a window object or its delegate may implement these methods; however, the delegate’s implementation takes precedence if there are implementations in both places. Today, I had a window with two NSTextFields on it, and I wanted them to have different drop behaviors, and I did not want to allow drops anywhere else in the window. The way I interpret the docs, it seems that I either have to subclass NSTextField, or make some giant spaghetti-conditional drop handlers on the window's delegate that hit-checks the draggingLocation against each view in order to select the different drop-area behaviors for each field. The centralized NSWindow-delegate-based drop handler approach seems like it would be onerous in any case where you had more than a small handful of drop destination views. Likewise, the subclassing approach seems onerous regardless of the case, because now the drop handling code lives in a view class, so once you accept the drop you've got to come up with some way to marshal the dropped data back to the model. The bindings docs warn you off of trying to drive bindings by setting the UI value programmatically. So now you're stuck working your way back around that too. So my question is: "Really!? Are those the only readily available options? Or am I missing something straightforward here?" Thanks.

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• WPF DataGrid populating blank rows on TreeView's SelectedItemChanged

  - by jes9582

  When my DataGrid populates on the TreeView's SelectedItemChanged event it finds the objects and creates the rows accordingly but the rows populate with no text or are just blank. So I know it is finding my objects but it is not displaying them properly. Does anyone see where I made an error or suggest any changes or fixes? Thank you in advance! Here is the CSharp code that is setting the DataGrid's ItemsSource (I am using .dbml and LINQ with Lambda expressions): dgSystemSettings.ItemsSource = (tvSystemConfiguration.SelectedItem as SYSTEM_SETTINGS_GROUP).SYSTEM_SETTINGS_NAMEs.Join(ssdc.SYSTEM_SETTINGS_VALUEs, x => x.SSN_ID, y => y.SSV_SSN_ID, (x, y) => new { SYSTEM_SETTINGS_NAME = x, SYSTEM_SETTINGS_VALUE = y }); And here is the .xaml: <DataGrid Name="dgSystemSettings" AutoGenerateColumns="False" Height="447" Width="513" DockPanel.Dock="Right" ItemsSource="{Binding}" VerticalAlignment="Top" Margin="10,10,0,0"> <DataGrid.Columns> <DataGridTextColumn x:Name="colDisplayName" Header="Name" Binding="{Binding SSN_DISPLAY_NAME}"></DataGridTextColumn> <DataGridTextColumn x:Name="colValue" Header="Value" Binding="{Binding SSV_VALUE}"></DataGridTextColumn> </DataGrid.Columns> </DataGrid>

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• How can I timeout Client-scoped variables in Coldfusion?

  - by Joshua Carmody

  I apologize if this is a "duh" question. It seems like the answer should be easily googleable, but I haven't found it yet. I am working on a large Coldfusion application that stores a large amount of session/user data in the Client scope (ie <cfset Client.UserName = "JoshuaC"> ). I did not write this application, and I don't have the luxury of significantly refactoring it. I've been given the task of setting the Client variables to time out after 72 hours. I'm not entirely sure how to do this. If I had written the application, I would have stored the variables in the Session scope, and then changed the sessiontimeout attribute of the CFAPPLICATION tag. As it is though, I'm not sure if that timeout affects the Client variables, or what their level of persistence is. The way the application works now, the Client variables never time out, and only clearing the user's cookies, or visiting a logout page which sets all the Client-scoped application variables to "", will clear the values. Of course, I could create some kind of timestamp variable like Client.LastAccessDateTime, and put something in the Application.cfm to clear the client variables if that datetime is more than 72 hours prior to Now(). But there's got to be a better way, right?

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• Mocking non-virtual methods in C++ without editing production code?

  - by wk1989

  Hello, I am a fairly new software developer currently working adding unit tests to an existing C++ project that started years ago. Due to a non-technical reason, I'm not allowed to modify any existing code. The base class of all my modules has a bunch of methods for Setting/Getting data and communicating with other modules. Since I just want to unit testing each individual module, I want to be able to use canned values for all my inter-module communication methods. I.e. for a method Ping() which checks if another module is active, I want to have it return true or false based on what kind of test I'm doing. I've been looking into Google Test and Google Mock, and it does support mocking non-virtual methods. However the approach described (http://code.google.com/p/googlemock/wiki/CookBook#Mocking_Nonvirtual_Methods) requires me to "templatize" the original methods to take in either real or mock objects. I can't go and templatize my methods in the base class due to the requirement mentioned earlier, so I need some other way of mocking these virtual methods Basically, the methods I want to mock are in some base class, the modules I want to unit test and create mocks of are derived classes of that base class. There are intermediate modules in between my base Module class and the modules that I want to test. I would appreciate any advise! Thanks, JW EDIT: A more concrete examples My base class is lets say rootModule, the module I want to test is leafModule. There is an intermediate module which inherits from rootModule, leafModule inherits from this intermediate module. In my leafModule, I want to test the doStuff() method, which calls the non virtual GetStatus(moduleName) defined in the rootModule class. I need to somehow make GetStatus() to return a chosen canned value. Mocking is new to me, so is using mock objects even the right approach?

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• Apache redirection problem!!!!

  - by vikas

  Hi guys, I am setting up a pre-built website built in php. The site was actually hosted on the linux server. Now I am trying to set it up on a Window machine with WAMP server. In this website almost every page request passes through a particular file called redirect(which is basically a php file without extension). Now the problem is that when I inspected the configuration(httpd.conf, apache.conf,.htaccess, vhost.conf etc) of the apache server on the linux machine, I nowhere found the redirect rules for doing so. Neither mod_rewrite nor mod_alias rules for this redirection were found there. But is still redirects the request properly. I also noticed that Zend Framework library is there in the exact same directory where the redirect file is. This library is included in the include_path in php.ini. However, the web site is still not developed using Zend MVC and I have seen NO proof of ZEND being used there. So I am really confused how this redirection is working there? I am unable to set up this on window machine without rewrite rules of mod_rewrite or mod_alias. Do you guys know any alternative of both the said modules for redirection? I know the site is really weird, but i have to set it up. :) Thanks in advance for your help.

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• Release edit in QTableWidget Cell

  - by Schomin

  Basically I am trying to give the enter key the same functionality as the return key has when editing a cell in a qtablewidget. If editing a cell and enter is pressed I want it to jump out of editing that cell just like return does. It feels like I've literally tried everything. I've even tried passing a return press event to qcoreapplication. It seems like if your editing a cell and you press a key to trigger an action it wont happen. That seems to be what the problem is and I'm not sure how to get around that. I've been setting up all of my keyboard shortcuts for this program as actions because it seems easier to set up. Is there another way to do this that would allow the key event to happen when editing a cell? Can anyone help out with this? Thank you in advance. Tried this. It didn't work for me. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/518447/how-can-i-tell-a-qtablewidget-to-end-editing-a-cell

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• How can I add an additional site to my VPS server?

  - by user482594

  I have a VPS hosting service. First of all, I installed bind9 and everything that my main website works just fine. Now, I bought another domain and set its nameserver address&ip to my website ones. I added a configuration file of that site like '/etc/apache2/sites-available/www.example.com' and I did 'a2ensite www.example.com' to enable the website to apache2. After one, when I reloaded my server, I see '000default' and 'www.example.com' in my '/etc/apache2/sites-enabled/' directory. I have thought I am done with settings, but I still cannot connect to the domain example.com. I think I have read it somewhere that I have to set up 'zone' thing which I did when I was setting dns. For example, zone "example.com" IN { type master; file "example.zone"; allow-update { none; }; }; Is this correct? If so, what are the things that I need to do afteron?

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• Migrate Data and Schema from MySQL to SQL Server

  - by colithium

  Are there any free solutions for automatically migrating a database from MySQL to SQL Server Server that "just works"? I've been attempting this simple (at least I thought so) task all day now. I've tried: SQL Server Management Studio's Import Data feature Create an empty database Tasks - Import Data... .NET Framework Data Provider for Odbc Valid DSN (verified it connects) Copy data from one or more tables or views Check 1 VERY simple table Click Preview Get Error: The preview data could not be retrieved. ADDITIONAL INFORMATION: ERROR [42000] [MySQL][ODBC 5.1 Driver][mysqld-5.1.45-community]You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near '"table_name"' at line 1 (myodbc5.dll) A similar error occurs if I go through the rest of the wizard and perform the operation. The failed step is "Setting Source Connection" the error refers to retrieving column information and then lists the above error. It can retrieve column information just fine when I modify column mappings so I really don't know what the issue is. I've also tried getting various MySql tools to output ddl statements that SQL Server understand but haven't succeeded. I've tried with MySQL v5.1.11 to SQL Server 2005 and with MySQL v5.1.45 to SQL Server 2008 (with ODBC drivers 3.51.27.00 and 5.01.06.00 respectively)

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• App is fast on 3GS but slow on 3G

  - by Anthony Chan

  Hi all, I'm new to computer coding and have just finished coding an app and tested it on both 3G and 3GS. On 3GS, it worked as normal as on the simulator. However, when I tried to run it on 3G, the app becomes extremely slow. I'm not sure what's the reason and I hope someone could shed some light on me. Generally, my app has a couple of view controller classes, with one of them being the title page, one being the main page, one is setting, etc. I used a dissolve to transition from the title page to the main page. But even this simple transition shows un-smooth performance on a 3G! My other part of the app involves zooming in to some images by scaling up the images, switching images by push or dissolve upon receiving touch events, saving photos into photo library and storing and retrieving some photos in a folder and some data in a SQlite database, each showing un-smooth actions. Compared with some heavy graphic or heavy maths app, I think mine is pretty simple. I totally have no clue why the app would behave so slow and un-smooth that it is barely useful on a 3G. Any help/ direction would be much appreciated. Thanks for helping out.

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• Hello world/Console Project in Visual Studio 2008 64 bit

  - by grobartn

  So I am trying to run console 64 bit Hello World program. I have Windows 7 Enterprise x64 bit version. I have installed Visual Studio 2008 and have added all of components needed for 64 bit. I want to create simple console application. It turns out to be a problem. I have simple standard hello world project. I have created it using New Project - Empty project. I added main.cpp that contains this: #include <iostream> using namespace std; int main() { cout << "howdy\n"; } I added new configuration to the project by clicking on Config Manager and added x64 config. Compiled and it compiles. Tried running it and cmd.exe shoots up with following error: "The application has failed to start because its side-by-side configuration is in correct. Please see the application event log or use the command-line sxstrace.e xe tool for more detail. Press any key to continue . . . " Which set-up step if any I am missing. What am I doing wrong and how should I go about setting simple console hello world in 64 bit world. Thanks for any help

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• Python list should be empty on class instance initialisation, but it's not. Why?

  - by canavanin

  Hi everyone! I would like to create instances of a class containing a list that's empty by default; instead of later setting this list to the final full list I would like to successively add items to it. Here's a piece of sample code illustrating this: #!/usr/bin/python class test: def __init__(self, lst=[], intg=0): self.lista = lst self.integer = intg name_dict = {} counter = 0 for name in ('Anne', 'Leo', 'Suzy'): counter += 1 name_dict[name] = test() name_dict[name].integer += 1 name_dict[name].lista.append(counter) print name, name_dict[name].integer, name_dict[name].lista When I ran the above program I expected to get Anne 1 [1] Leo 1 [2] Suzy 1 [3] as I assumed lista to always be initialised to an empty list. What I got instead was this: Anne 1 [1] Leo 1 [1, 2] Suzy 1 [1, 2, 3] If I replace self.lista = lst by self.lista = [] it works fine, just like when I add the line name_dict[name].lista = [] to the for loop. Why is it that the contents of the previous objects' lists are retained, yet their values of integer aren't? I am rather new to Python, so it would be great if someone could point out to me where my thoughts/assumptions have gone astray. Thanks a lot in advance for your replies.

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