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  • Garbage data from serial port.

    - by sasayins
    Hi I wrote a code in Linux platform that read the data in serial port, my code below: int fd; char *rbuff=NULL; struct termios new_opt, old_opt; int ret; fd = open("/dev/ttyS0", O_RDWR | O_NOCTTY); if( fd == -1 ) { printf("Can't open file: %s\n", strerror(errno)); return -1; } tcgetattr(fd, &old_opt); new_opt.c_cflag = B115200 | CS8 | CLOCAL | CREAD; new_opt.c_iflag = IGNPAR /*| ICRNL*/; new_opt.c_oflag = 0; new_opt.c_lflag = ICANON; tcsetattr(fd, TCSANOW, &new_opt); rbuff = malloc(NBUFF); printf("reading..\n"); memset(rbuff,0x00,NBUFF); ret = read(fd, rbuff, NBUFF); printf("value:%s",rbuff); if(ret == -1) { printf("Read error:%s\n",strerror(errno)); return -1; } tcsetattr(fd, TCSANOW, &old_opt); close(fd); My problem is the code above doesn't read the first data that was transmitted, then the second transmission the data is garbage, then the third is the normal data. Did I missed a setting in the serial port? Thanks.

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  • Using java to create a logistic model - arrays and properties

    - by Oliver Burdekin
    I'm currently trying to create a java model that will solve a problem we have. On a voluntary expedition each week we have some people leaving and some new people arriving. Accommodation is in tents. The tents sleep different numbers of people and certain rules apply. Males and females cannot be mixed and volunteers can be one of four types - school children/ research assistants/ scientific staff/ school teachers So types of volunteer and sexes cannot be mixed. Each week the manager spends hours trying to work this out so I've offered to make this model to keep my coding skills up. At present I'm working with arrays. Each tent is a 2D array [4][x] where x is the number of people it sleeps (each person sleeping there has 4 attributes). Each person is a 1D array with 4 attributes [4]. The idea is to check where people can go, cause the minimum movement for people staying on and solve this logistic problem. Does anyone have any better suggestions as to how to solve this? At present I'm finding it necessary to write a lot of code setting up and querying arrays. Any help is appreciated.

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  • Is there a more elegant solution than an if-statement with no else clause?

    - by Jay
    In the following code, if Control (the element that trigers Toggle's first OL) is not Visible it should be set Visible and all other Controls (Controls[i]) so be Hidden. .js function Toggle(Control){ var Controls=document.getElementsByTagName("ol",document.getElementById("Quote_App")); var Control=Control.getElementsByTagName("ol")[0]; if(Control.style.visibility!="visible"){ for(var i=0;i<Controls.length;i++){ if(Controls[i]!=Control){ Reveal("hide",20,0.3,Controls[i]); }else{ Reveal("show",20,0.3,Control); }; }; }else{ Reveal("hide",20,0.3,Control); }; }; Although the function [Toggle] works fine, it is actually setting Controls[i] to Hidden even if it is already. This is easily rectified by adding an If statement as in the code below, surely there is a more elegant solution, maybe a complex If condition? .js function Toggle(Control){ var Controls=document.getElementsByTagName("ol",document.getElementById("Quote_App")); var Control=Control.getElementsByTagName("ol")[0]; if(Control.style.visibility!="visible"){ for(var i=0;i<Controls.length;i++){ if(Controls[i]!=Control){ if(Controls[i].style.visibility=="visible"){ Reveal("hide",20,0.3,Controls[i]); }; }else{ Reveal("show",20,0.3,Control); }; }; }else{ Reveal("hide",20,0.3,Control); }; }; Your help is appreciated always.

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  • CALayer Border is appearing above subview (Z-order related, I think)

    - by kurisukun
    I have searched but could not find the reason for this behavior. I have a UIButton whose image I am setting. Here is how the button should appear. Note that this is just a photoshop of the intended button design: Essentially, it is a square custom UIButton with a white border and a little surrounding shadow. In the upper right corner, there is a "X" mark, that will be added programmatically as a subview. Here is the screenshot of the button within the actual app. At this point, I have only added a shadow and the X mark as a subview: How, when I try to add the white border, here is what it looks like: It seems that the white border is appearing above the X mark sublayer. I don't know why. Here is the code that I am using: // selectedPhotoButton is the UIButton with UIImage set earlier // At this point, I am adding in the shadow [selectedPhotoButton layer] setShadowColor:[[UIColor lightGrayColor] CGColor]]; [[selectedPhotoButton layer] setShadowOffset: CGSizeMake(1.0f, 1.0f)]; [[selectedPhotoButton layer] setShadowRadius:0.5f]; [[selectedPhotoButton layer] setShadowOpacity:1.0f]; // Now add the white border [[selectedPhotoButton layer] setBorderColor:[[UIColor whiteColor] CGColor]]; [[selectedPhotoButton layer] setBorderWidth:2.0]; // Now add the X mark subview UIImage *deleteImage = [UIImage imageNamed:@"nocheck_photo.png"]; UIImageView *deleteMark = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(53, -5, 27, 27)]; deleteMark.contentMode = UIViewContentModeScaleAspectFit; [deleteMark setImage:deleteImage]; [selectedPhotoButton addSubview:deleteMark]; [deleteMark release]; I don't understand why the border is appearing above the deleteMark subview. Is there any way to get the intended effect? Thank you!

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  • Why does the WCF 3.5 REST Starter Kit do this?

    - by Brandon
    I am setting up a REST endpoint that looks like the following: [WebInvoke(Method = "POST", UriTemplate = "?format=json", BodyStyle = WebMessageBodyStyle.WrappedRequest, ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json)] and [WebInvoke(Method = "DELETE", UriTemplate = "?token={token}&format=json", ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json)] The above throws the following error: UriTemplateTable does not support '?format=json' and '?token={token}&format=json' since they are not equivalent, but cannot be disambiguated because they have equivalent paths and the same common literal values for the query string. See the documentation for UriTemplateTable for more detail. I am not an expert at WCF, but I would imagine that it should map first by the HTTP Method and then by the URI Template. It appears to be backwards. If both of my URI templates are: ?token={token}&format=json This works because they are equivalent and it then appears to look at the HTTP Method where one is POST and the other is DELETE. Is REST supposed to work this way? Why are the URI Template Tables not being sorted first by HTTP Method and then by URI Template? This can cause some serious frustrations when 1 HTTP Method requires a parameter and another does not, or if I want to do optional parameters (e.g. if the 'format' parameter is not passed, default to XML).

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  • Indirect property notification

    - by Carlo
    Hello, this question might look a little trivial, but it might not be. I'm just wondering which of the following two cases is better for indirect property notification, or perhaps there is an even better way. The scenario: I have two properties, the first one is an object called HoldingObject, the second one is a boolean called IsHoldingObject, which is false if HoldingObject == null, otherwise it's true. I'm just wondering what is the best notification mechanism for IsHoldingObject: Case (A) - Notify IsHoldingObject changed from the HoldingObject proeperty: public class NotifyingClass1 : INotifyPropertyChanged { private object _holdingObject; public object HoldingObject { get { return _holdingObject; } set { if (_holdingObject != value) { _holdingObject = value; NotifyPropertyChanged("HoldingObject"); // Notify from the property that is being checked NotifyPropertyChanged("IsHoldingObject"); } } } public bool IsHoldingObject { get { return this.HoldingObject == null; } } #region INotifyPropertyChanged Members public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; private void NotifyPropertyChanged(string propertyName) { if (this.PropertyChanged != null) this.PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(propertyName)); } #endregion } Case (B) - Notify IsHoldingObject changed from the IsHoldingObject directly, by setting it to false or true from HoldingObject property: public class NotifyingClass2 : INotifyPropertyChanged { private object _holdingObject; public object HoldingObject { get { return _holdingObject; } set { if (_holdingObject != value) { _holdingObject = value; NotifyPropertyChanged("HoldingObject"); // 1) Set the property here this.IsHoldingObject = _holdingObject != null; } } } private bool _isHoldingObject; public bool IsHoldingObject { get { return _isHoldingObject; } set { if (_isHoldingObject != value) { _isHoldingObject = value; // 2) Notify directly from the property NotifyPropertyChanged("IsHoldingObject"); } } } #region INotifyPropertyChanged Members public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; private void NotifyPropertyChanged(string propertyName) { if (this.PropertyChanged != null) this.PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(propertyName)); } #endregion } I personally lean to the first one because it requires less code, but I'm not sure how recommendable it is to do that. Let me know if there is another (better) way. Thanks!

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  • UpdatePanel reloads the whole page

    - by Emil D
    Hi.I'm building an asp.net cutom control inside which I have two dropdownlists: companyIdSelection and productFamilySelection.I populate the companyIdSelection at Page_Load and in order to populate the productFamilySelection depending on the selected item in companyIdSelection.I'm using UpdatePanels to achieve this, but for some reason every time I update companyIdSelection Page_Load is being called ( which as far as I know should happen only when the entire page is reloaded ), the list is being reloaded again and the item the user selected is lost( the selected item is always the top one ).Here's the code <asp:UpdatePanel ID="updateFamilies" runat="server" UpdateMode="Always"> <ContentTemplate> Company ID:<br> <br></br> <asp:DropDownList ID="companyIdSelection" runat="server" AutoPostBack="True" OnSelectedIndexChanged="companyIdSelection_SelectedIndexChanged"> </asp:DropDownList> <br></br> Product Family: <br></br> <asp:DropDownList ID="productFamilySelection" runat="server" AutoPostBack="True" onselectedindexchanged="productFamilySelection_SelectedIndexChanged"> </asp:DropDownList> <br> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { this.companyIdSelection.DataSource = companyIds(); //companyIds returns the object containing the initial data items this.companyIdSelection.DataBind(); } protected void companyIdSelection_SelectedIndexChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Page_Load is called again for some reason before this method is called, so it // resets the companyIdSelection EngDbService s = new EngDbService(); productFamilySelection.DataSource = s.getProductFamilies(companyIdSelection.Text); productFamilySelection.DataBind(); } Also, I tried setting the UpdateMode of the UpdatePanel to "Conditional" and adding an asyncpostback trigger but the result was the same. What am I doing wrong? PS: I fixed the updating problem, by using Page.IsPostBack in the Page_Load method, but I would still want to avoid a full postback if possible

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  • @dynamic property needs setter with multiple behaviors

    - by ambertch
    I have a class that contains multiple user objects and as such has an array of them as an instance variable: NSMutableArray *users; The tricky part is setting it. I am deserializing these objects from a server via Objective Resource, and for backend reasons users can only be returned as a long string of UIDs - what I have locally is a separate dictionary of users keyed to UIDs. Given the string uidString of comma separated UIDs I override the default setter and populate the actual user objects: @dynamic users; - (void)setUsers:(id)uidString { users = [NSMutableArray arrayWithArray: [[User allUsersDictionary] objectsForKeys:[(NSString*)uidString componentsSeparatedByString:@","]]]; } The problem is this: I now serialize these to database using SQLitePO, which stores these as the array of user objects, not the original string. So when I retrieve it from database the setter mistakenly treats this array of user objects as a string! Where I actually want to adjust the setter's behavior when it gets this object from DB vs. over the network. I can't just make the getter serialize back into a string without tearing up large code that reference this array of user objects, and I tried to detect in the setter whether I have a string or an array coming in: if ([uidString respondsToSelector:@selector(addObject)]) { // Already an array, so don't do anything - just assign users = uidString but no success... so I'm kind of stuck - any suggestions? Thanks in advance!

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  • NHibernate + Cannot insert the value NULL into...

    - by mybrokengnome
    I've got a MS-SQL database with a table created with this code CREATE TABLE [dbo].[portfoliomanager]( [idPortfolioManager] [int] NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY IDENTITY, [name] [varchar](45) NULL ) so that idPortfolioManager is my primary key and also auto-incrementing. Now on my Windows WPF application I'm using NHibernate to help with adding/updating/removing/etc. data from the database. Here is the class that should be connecting to the portfoliomanager table namespace PortfolioManager { [Class(Table="portfoliomanager",NameType=typeof(PortfolioManagerClass))] public class PortfolioManagerClass { [Id(Name = "idPortfolioManager")] [Generator(1, Class = "identity")] public virtual int idPortfolioManager { get; set; } [NHibernate.Mapping.Attributes.Property(Name = "name")] public virtual string name { get; set; } public PortfolioManagerClass() { } } } and some short code to try and insert something PortfolioManagerClass portfolio = new PortfolioManagerClass(); Portfolio.name = "Brad's Portfolios"; The problem is, when I try running this, I get this error: {System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Cannot insert the value NULL into column 'idPortfolioManager', table 'PortfolioManagementSystem.dbo.portfoliomanager'; column does not allow nulls. INSERT fails. The statement has been terminated... with an outer exception of {"could not insert: [PortfolioManager.PortfolioManagerClass][SQL: INSERT INTO portfoliomanager (name) VALUES (?); select SCOPE_IDENTITY()]"} I'm hoping this is the last error I'll have to solve with NHibernate just to get it to do something, it's been a long process. Just as a note, I've also tried setting Class="native" and unsaved-value="0" with the same error. Thanks! Edit: Ok removing the 1, from Generator actually allows the program to run (not sure why that was even in the samples I was looking at) but it actually doesn't get added to the database. I logged in to the server and ran the sql server profiler tool and I never see the connection coming through or the SQL its trying to run, but NHibernate isn't throwing an error anymore. Starting to think it would be easier to just write SQL statements myself :(

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  • Attempting to calculate width of Map Overlays on the fly

    - by Bloudermilk
    Hey all- I am working on an Android app that utilizes the Google Maps API MapView, MapController, MapActivity, and ItemizedOverlay. I am basically trying to recreate certain functionalities of the Maps app (damn Google for not providing speech bubbles—for lack of a better name—for items!), particularly those speech bubbles. I have an invisible XML structure for the speech bubble in the XML layout file containing my MapView. The first time I show a speech bubble I grab that XML and remove it from it's current parent, applying some ItemizedOverlay.LayoutParams to it, and add it to the MapView as an Overlay. I position it above the item that was selected, fill it with the proper text, then set it to visible. This all works great. The goal here, though, is to also automatically animate the map to reveal any parts of a speech bubble that may be off-screen when it opens. So I'm trying popup.getWidth() (popup is the instance of my LinearLayout that is the speech bubble) after I do all the manipulation to the bubble, even after I display it to the user. Problem is, popup.getWidth() is returning me the width of the previously displayed popup, not the currently displayed one. I can't figure out why this would be happening if I'm fetching the width after I set it to visible with its new dimensions (which, by the way, are relative when I'm setting them with LayoutParams: fill_content for both width and height).. I have even tried forcing both the MapView and the "popup" to invalidate() before trying to fetch the width. Any ideas why this may be happening? How can I force the View to settle into its new dimensions before trying to fetch them? Thanks! Nick

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  • Silverlight Timer problem

    - by jose
    Hello, I am developing a Silverlight application with custom animations. I want to update the variable animationCounter every 1 milissecond, so that in one second the value is 1000. I've tried DispatcherTimer and System.Threading.Timer. this way: DispatcherTimer timer = new DispatcherTimer(); (...) timer.Interval = new TimeSpan(0, 0, 0, 0, 1); timer.Tick += new EventHandler(timer_Tick); (...) (...) void timer_Tick(object sender, EventArgs e) { animationCounter++; Dispatcher.BeginInvoke(() => txtAnimationCounter.Text = animationCounter.ToString()); } with System.Threading.Timer System.Threading timer = null; timer = new System.Threading.Timer(UpdateAnimationCounter, 0, 1); void UpdateAnimationCounter(object state) { animationCounter++; Dispatcher.BeginInvoke(() => txtAnimationCounter.Text = animationCounter.ToString()); } Both of them are setting AnimationCounter around 100 in one second. Should be 1000. I don't know why. Is there anything I'm missing. Thanks

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  • why create CLSID_CaptureGraphBuilder2 instance always failed in a machine

    - by Yigang Wu
    It's a real strange issue, the machine information below is from DXDiag. There is no error reported, but create CLSID_CaptureGraphBuilder2 instance always failed in the machine. It's okay to create CLSID_FilterGraph. Before create CLSID_CaptureGraphBuilder2, I have called CoInitialize and created CLSID_FilterGraph. Only this machine has the error, what dll related with this interface or any function needed to call before to make it work? Thanks in advance. System Information Time of this report: 4/24/2010, 09:46:58 Machine name: TURION Operating System: Windows XP Home Edition (5.1, Build 2600) Service Pack 3 (2600.xpsp_sp3_qfe.100216-1510) Language: Japanese (Regional Setting: Japanese) System Manufacturer: To Be Filled By O.E.M. System Model: MS-7145 BIOS: Default System BIOS Processor: AMD Turion(tm) 64 Mobile Technology MT-30, MMX, 3DNow, ~1.6GHz Memory: 768MB RAM Page File: 376MB used, 1401MB available Windows Dir: C:\WINDOWS DirectX Version: DirectX 9.0c (4.09.0000.0904) DX Setup Parameters: Not found DxDiag Version: 5.03.2600.5512 32bit Unicode DxDiag Notes DirectX Files Tab: No problems found. Display Tab 1: No problems found. Sound Tab 1: No problems found. Sound Tab 2: No problems found. Music Tab: No problems found. Input Tab: No problems found. Network Tab: No problems found.

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  • Doxygen including methods twice doc files

    - by Maarek
    I'm having this issue where doxygen is adding the method twice in the documentation file. Is there a setting that stops auto-generation of documentation for methods within the .m file. For example in the documentation I'll see something like whats below where the first definition of + (Status *)registerUser is from the header XXXXXX.h file where the second is from XXXXXX.m. Header documentation : /** @brief Test Yada Yada @return <#(description)#> */ + (Status *)registerUser; Output: + (Status *) registerUser Test Yada Yada. Returns: <#(description)#> + (Status *) registerUser <#(brief description)#> <#(comprehensive description)#> registerUser Returns: <#(description)#> Definition at line 24 of file XXXXXX.m. Here are the build related configuration options. I've tried playing with them. EXTRACT_ALL with YES and NO... Hiding uncodumented Members and Classes. #--------------------------------------------------------------------------- # Build related configuration options #--------------------------------------------------------------------------- EXTRACT_ALL = NO EXTRACT_PRIVATE = NO EXTRACT_STATIC = NO EXTRACT_LOCAL_CLASSES = YES EXTRACT_LOCAL_METHODS = NO EXTRACT_ANON_NSPACES = NO HIDE_UNDOC_MEMBERS = YES HIDE_UNDOC_CLASSES = YES HIDE_FRIEND_COMPOUNDS = NO HIDE_IN_BODY_DOCS = NO INTERNAL_DOCS = NO CASE_SENSE_NAMES = NO HIDE_SCOPE_NAMES = NO SHOW_INCLUDE_FILES = YES FORCE_LOCAL_INCLUDES = NO INLINE_INFO = YES SORT_MEMBER_DOCS = YES SORT_BRIEF_DOCS = NO SORT_MEMBERS_CTORS_1ST = NO SORT_GROUP_NAMES = NO SORT_BY_SCOPE_NAME = NO

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  • wxpython - Running threads sequentially without blocking GUI

    - by ryantmer
    I've got a GUI script with all my wxPython code in it, and a separate testSequences module that has a bunch of tasks that I run based on input from the GUI. The tasks take a long time to complete (from 20 seconds to 3 minutes), so I want to thread them, otherwise the GUI locks up while they're running. I also need them to run one after another, since they all use the same hardware. (My rationale behind threading is simply to prevent the GUI from locking up.) I'd like to have a "Running" message (with varying number of periods after it, i.e. "Running", "Running.", "Running..", etc.) so the user knows that progress is occurring, even though it isn't visible. I'd like this script to run the test sequences in separate threads, but sequentially, so that the second thread won't be created and run until the first is complete. Since this is kind of the opposite of the purpose of threads, I can't really find any information on how to do this... Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks in advance! gui.py import testSequences from threading import Thread #wxPython code for setting everything up here... for j in range(5): testThread = Thread(target=testSequences.test1) testThread.start() while testThread.isAlive(): #wait until the previous thread is complete time.sleep(0.5) i = (i+1) % 4 self.status.SetStatusText("Running"+'.'*i) testSequences.py import time def test1(): for i in range(10): print i time.sleep(1) (Obviously this isn't the actual test code, but the idea is the same.)

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  • initialise a var in scala

    - by user unknown
    I have a class where I like to initialize my var by reading a configfile, which produces intermediate objects/vals, which I would like to group and hide in a method. Here is the bare minimum of the problem - I call the ctor with a param i, in reality a File to parse, and the init-method generates the String s, in reality more complicated than here, with a lot of intermediate objects being created: class Foo (val i: Int) { var s : String; def init () { s = "" + i } init () } This will produce the error: class Foo needs to be abstract, since variable s is not defined. In this example it is easy to solve by setting the String to "": var s = "";, but in reality the object is more complex than String, without an apropriate Null-implementation. I know, I can use an Option, which works for more complicated things than String too: var s : Option [String] = None def init () { s = Some ("" + i) } or I can dispense with my methodcall. Using an Option will force me to write Some over and over again, without much benefit, since there is no need for a None else than to initialize it that way I thought I could. Is there another way to achieve my goal?

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  • SELECT SQL Variable - should i avoid using this syntax and always use SET?

    - by Sholom
    Hi All, This may look like a duplicate to here, but it's not. I am trying to get a best practice, not a technical answer (which i already (think) i know). New to SQL Server and trying to form good habits. I found a great explanation of the functional differences between SET @var = and SELECT @var = here: http://vyaskn.tripod.com/differences_between_set_and_select.htm To summarize what each has that the other hasn't (see source for examples): SET: ANSI and portable, recommended by Microsoft. SET @var = (SELECT column_name FROM table_name) fails when the select returns more then one value, eliminating the possibility of unpredictable results. SET @var = (SELECT column_name FROM table_name) will set @var to NULL if that's what SELECT column_name FROM table_name returned, thus never leaving @var at it's prior value. SELECT: Multiple variables can be set in one statement Can return multiple system variables set by the prior DML statement SELECT @var = column_name FROM table_name would set @var to (according to my testing) the last value returned by the select. This could be a feature or a bug. Behavior can be changed with SELECT @j = (SELECT column_name FROM table_name) syntax. Speed. Setting multiple variables with a single SELECT statement as opposed to multiple SET/SELECT statements is much quicker. He has a sample test to prove his point. If you could design a test to prove the otherwise, bring it on! So, what do i do? (Almost) always use SET @var =, using SELECT @var = is messy coding and not standard. OR Use SELECT @var = freely, it could accomplish more for me, unless the code is likely to be ported to another environment. Thanks

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  • What would be a better implementation of shared variable among subclass

    - by Churk
    So currently I have a spring unit testing application. And it requires me to get a session cookie from a foreign authentication source. Problem what that is, this authentication process is fairly expensive and time consuming, and I am trying to create a structure where I am authenticate once, by any subclass, and any subsequent subclass is created, it will reuse this session cookie without hitting the authentication process again. My problem right now is, the static cookie is null each time another subclass is created. And I been reading that using static as a global variable is a bad idea, but I couldn't think of another way to do this because of Spring framework setting things during run time and how I would set the cookie so that all other classes can use it. Another piece of information. The variable is being use, but is change able during run time. It is not a single user being signed in and used across the board. But more like a Sub1 would call login, and we have a cookie. Then multiple test will be using that login until SubX will come in and say, I am using different credential, so I need to login as something else. And repeats. Here is a outline of my code: public class Parent implements InitializingBean { protected static String BASE_URL; public static Cookie cookie; ... All default InitializingBean methods ... afterPropertiesSet() { cookie = // login process returns a cookie } } public class Sub1 extends Parent { @resource public String baseURL; @PostConstruct public void init() { // set parents with my baseURL; BASE_URL = baseURL; } public void doSomething() { // Do something with cookie, because it should have been set by parent class } } public class Sub2 extends Parent { @resource public String baseURL; @PostConstruct public void init() { // set parents with my baseURL; BASE_URL = baseURL; } public void doSomethingElse() { // Do something with cookie, because it should have been set by parent class } }

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  • jQuery selector selecting all rows... why?

    - by Jagd
    I have a standard HTML table that looks something like this in structure: <table> <tbody> <tr> <td>FOOTER</td> <td> ... other td columns </td> </tr> <tr> <td>some other row that I don't want selected</td> <td> ... other td columns </td> </tr> </tbody> </table> What I would like to do is select only the tr's that contain the text FOOTER in a td, and then set the font-weight to bold for all td's under the selected tr's. My problem is that the jQuery selector I have is setting all td's within the table to bold and I'm not sure why. Here's my selector thus far: $("tr:contains('FOOTER')").children("td").css("font-weight", "bold");

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  • Java program will read from database, but not write to it

    - by ck1221
    I have a Java program that successfully connects to a mysql database that is hosted on godaddy's server. I can read from that db with out issue, however, when I try to write to it with INSERT or UPDATE for example, the query does not execute. I am using the 'admin' account that I set up through godaddy, I realize this is not the root account. I have checked and verified that the connection is not read only, and have logged out of phpmyadmin while the query ran. I'm not sure what else I can try or if anyone has experienced this issue. Maybe a setting to the connection I have failed to set? Or maybe its not possible since the db is hosted on godaddy's servers? Any help is great! Thanks. Here is some relevant code: Connection to db: Connection con; public DBconnection(String url, String user, String pass) { try { Class.forName("com.mysql.jdbc.Driver").newInstance(); con = DriverManager.getConnection (url,user,pass); if(!con.isClosed()) System.out.println("connecton open"); } catch (InstantiationException e) {e.printStackTrace();} catch (IllegalAccessException e) {e.printStackTrace();} catch (ClassNotFoundException e) {e.printStackTrace();} catch (SQLException e) {e.printStackTrace();} } Send Query: public ResultSet executeQuery(String query) { ResultSet rs = null; try { Statement stmt = (Statement) con.createStatement(); rs = stmt.executeQuery(query); //while(rs.next()) //System.out.println(rs.getString("ticket_num")); } catch (SQLException e) {} return rs; } Insert Query (works in phpmyadmin): conn.executeQuery("INSERT INTO tickets VALUES(55555,'12/01/2012','me','reports','test','','','0','Nope')");

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  • Change css property in chain - JavaScript

    - by SilverDeveloper
    I'm using MooTools 1.4.5 and I want to change cursor before calling function that takes some time and after finished same function set cursor to default. I was not successful. After that I made simple example to change background color via plain JavaScript (no jQuery or MooTools plugin) and again I was not successful. Here is my code. <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title></title> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> </div> </form> </body> <script type="text/javascript"> <!-- document.body.style.background = 'red'; setTimeout(function () { }, 1250); document.body.style.background = 'yellow'; //--> </script> </html> First at all I set background color to red, and after delay to yellow. I assumed that the background color will bi set to red and after delay to yellow. It doesn't work. When page is loaded background color is yellow (last line). If I insert alert function in a middle of lines where sets background color everything works fine (background color is red, click to message box, background color is yellow). Why it works so? Only last changing style is affected. I need something like that to change pointer before calling function that takes 10 seconds and setting cursor to default value after function is done.

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  • how to make an image appear everytime when i shake my iphone

    - by Abhishek
    Hello, i have created a shake application in iphone but i am having a problem. I want that when i shake my iphone everytime an image should appear for every shake.Can anybody help how is it possible. This is the code which i have written: CGRect myImageRect = CGRectMake(110.0f, 70.0f, 220.0f, 380.0f); //This line is for setting my tick.png image on my image view UIImageView *myImage = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithFrame:myImageRect]; [myImage setImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"tick_mark.png"]]; [self.view addSubview:myImage];       //animation [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:1]; [myImage setAlpha:0.0]; [UIView commitAnimations]; [myImage release]; This is for beginning animations and I have set my image alpha to 0.0 so that my image will disappear. This code is working properly. But I want it so that when I shake my iPhone again my image should reappear for every shake. How is it possible.

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  • How to configure an index.htm file in IIS?

    - by salvationishere
    I am running IIS 6.0 on an XP OS using VS 2008 and SQL Server 2008 (Full install). I developed two web apps. Both of these I can run from IIS by setting them to the default website. However, now I tried adding an index.htm file. Real simple; all it has is two hyperlinks to these web apps. But now only the first web app works. The first web app is pure VS. The second web app modifies an Adventureworks database table. But now when I click the hyperlink for the second web app, it gives me the error below. However this error doesn't make sense to me cause I have the two web apps configured as two virtual directories beneath C:\inetpub\ and the index.htm file is also beneath C:\inetpub. And the default website is set to home directory C:\inetpub\ with Document index.htm on top. Also, why does the first web app work and not the second now? Server Error in '/AddFileToSQL' Application. The path '/AddFileToSQL/App_GlobalResources/' maps to a directory outside this application, which is not supported. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.Web.HttpException: The path '/AddFileToSQL/App_GlobalResources/' maps to a directory outside this application, which is not supported. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below.

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  • Why is passing a string literal into a char* argument only sometimes a compiler error?

    - by Brian Postow
    I'm working in a C, and C++ program. We used to be compiling without the make-strings-writable option. But that was getting a bunch of warnings, so I turned it off. Then I got a whole bunch of errors of the form "Cannot convert const char* to char* in argmuent 3 of function foo". So, I went through and made a whole lot of changes to fix those. However, today, the program CRASHED because the literal "" was getting passed into a function that was expecting a char*, and was setting the 0th character to 0. It wasn't doing anything bad, just trying to edit a constant, and crashing. My question is, why wasn't that a compiler error? In case it matters, this was on a mac compiled with gcc-4.0. EDIT: added code: char * host = FindArgDefault("EMailLinkHost", ""); stripCRLF(linkHost, '\n'); where: char *FindArgDefault(char *argName, char *defVal) {// simplified char * val = defVal; return(val); } and void stripCRLF(char *str, char delim) { char *p, *q; for (p = q = str; *p; ++p) { if (*p == 0xd || *p == 0xa) { if (p[1] == (*p ^ 7)) ++p; if (delim == -1) *p = delim; } *q++ = *p; } *q = 0; // DIES HERE } This compiled and ran until it tried to set *q to 0...

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  • Showing multiple models in a single ListView

    - by Veer
    I've three models (Contacts, Notes, Reminders). I want to search all these and produce the filtered result in a single listview and depending upon the selection I've to display the corresponding view(UserControl) to its right. I want the right way of implementing the design or atleast alternatives to this method that I've tried. Now I've tried it using a IntegratedViewModel having all the properties from all the three models. public class IntegratedViewModel { ContactModel _contactModel; NoteModel _noteModel; public IntegratedViewModel(ContactModel contactModel) { _contactModel = contactModel; } // similarly for other models also public string DisplayTitle // For displaying in ListView { get; //same as set set { If(_contactModel != null) return _contactModel.Name; If(_noteModel != null) return _noteModel.Title; } } // All other properties from the three models includin the Name/Title properties for displaying them in the corresponding views(UserControl) } Now I set the itemsSource as the List<IntegratedViewModel>. I've to now bind the visibility of the views to some properties in the MainViewModel. I tried setting bool properties like IsContactViewSelected, IsNoteViewSelected using the setter of SelectedEntity property which is bound to the ListView's SelectedItem. public SelectedEntity { //get set { oldvalue = _selectedEntity; _selectedEntity = value; // now i find the Type of model selected using oldvalue.ModelType // where ModelType is a property in the IntegratedViewModel // according to the type, i set one of the above bool properties to false // and do the same for _selectedEntity but set the property to true // so that the view corresponding to the selectedEntityType is visible // and others are collapsed } } Here is the problem: For eg: let us say, I selected an item of type ContactModel, the old selection being NoteModel. I set the property IsNoteModelSelected to false according to the oldvalue, it sets the property and then Raises the propertychanged event and does not go and check the remaining if condition where i check for _selectedEntity which is used to set the IsContactModelSelected to true.

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  • How can I make VS2010 insert using statements in the order dictated by StyleCop rules.

    - by Hamish Grubijan
    The related default StyleCop rules are: Place using statements inside namespace. Sort using statements alphabetically. But ... System using come first (still trying to figure out if that means just using System; or using System[.*];). So, my use case: I find a bug and decide that I need to at least add an intelligible Assert to make debugging less painful for the next guy. So I start typing Debug.Assert( and intellisense marks it in Red. I hover mouse over Debug and between using System.Diagnostics; and System.Diagnostics.Debug I choose the former. This inserts using System.Diagnostics; after all other using statements. It would be nice if VS2010 did not assist me in writing code that won't build due to warnings as errors. How can I make VS2010 smarter? Is there some sort of setting, or does this require a full-fledged add-in of some sort?

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